18/08/2022 OYMR

CODE-A
Phase-II

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 360 Time : 90 Min.
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES
(for NEET-2023)
Test – 6

Topics covered :

Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism: Introduction, Magnetic force, Motion in a magnetic field,
Motion in combined Electric and Magnetic fields.

Chemistry : Surface Chemistry – General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements :

Occurrence of metals, Concentration of an ore, Hydraulic washing, Magnetic separation, Froth
floatation process

Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation-III: Mutations - Chromosomal aberrations, Genomatic

mutation, Genetic disorders-pedigree analysis, Mendelian disorder Chromosomal disorder,
cytoplasmic inheritance. Molecular Basis of Inheritance-I: Introduction, The DNA-structure of
polynucleotide chain, Derivation of DNA structure, DNA packaging in prokaryotes

Zoology : Evolution-III: Lamarck’s theory, Darwin’s theory-Darwin Novelty Mutation theory, Hardy
Weinberg principle: Gene flow, gene migration, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination,
natural selection, Speciation: Allopatric and sympatric, Brief account of evolution: Evolution of
plant forms, evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological period, Human evolution,
prior to ape man, Ape man to pre-historic man, prehistoric to modern man

Instructions :

(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

(1)
Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II) One Year Medical-2023

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
1. A charged particle having charge 2 C is thrown 8. If a charged particle is thrown perpendicular to a
with velocity 2i m/s inside a region having region of crossed electric field (E) and magnetic
field (B) goes undeviated, then the speed of
magnetic field 4i T. The force acting on the particle is
particle is
E E2
(1) Zero (2) 16 N (1) (2)
B B2
(3) 8 N (4) 4 N
B2 B
2. A charged particle moving in a magnetic (3) 2
(4)
E E
field (i + j ) T, experiences a magnetic force
9. An alpha particle and a proton enters a region of
(2i − a j ) N at some instant. Then the value of a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to
is their direction of motion. The ratio of respective
radius of circle described by them, if they have
(1) –2 (2) 2 same momentum is
(3) 3 (4) –3 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
3. When a charged particle is projected (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2
perpendicular in a uniform magnetic field, then
10. Lorentz force can be calculated by using the
(1) Its path is circular formula (where symbols have their usual
(2) Its path is straight line meanings)

(3) Its path is helical (1) F = q (E + v  B ) (2) F = q (E − v  B )

(4) Its path is parabola (3) F = q (E + v  B ) (4) F = q (E − v  B )

4. If a charged particle at rest experiences no 11. A particle of mass m, charge q and speed v
electromagnetic force, then enters a transverse uniform magnetic field B.
(1) The electric field must be zero After 2 s, the speed of particle will be
(2) The magnetic field may be zero (1) 2v (2) v

(3) The magnetic field must be zero v

(3) 3v (4)
2
(4) Both (1) and (2)
12. A charge particle (q) is projected along the
5. Two protons enters a region of transverse
direction of uniform magnetic field as shown in
uniform magnetic field with speed v and 2v
figure, then force acting on the particle is
perpendicularly. The ratio of respective time
period of revolution of protons is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
6. A charged particle is projected perpendicular to
uniform magnetic field, then the quantity which
remains constant is
(1) Along Y-axis (2) Along X-axis
(1) Velocity (2) Force
(3) Along Z-axis (4) Zero
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Acceleration
13. Which of the following relation is correct for a
7. Which of the following option is correct? charge particle moving in uniform magnetic
(1) 1 T = 104 gauss field? (where symbols have their usual
meanings)
(2) 1 T = 10–4 gauss
(1) F  B = 0 (2) F B =0
(3) 1 T = 10–3 gauss
(4) 1 T = 103 gauss (3) F  B  0 (4) F v = 0

(2)
One Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II)

14. A positively charged particle projected towards (1) y = x2 (2) y = x + 4

east is deflected towards north by a magnetic
3
field. The field will be directed (3) y = (4) y2 + x2 = 6
x2
(1) Towards west
19. The SI unit of magnetic field intensity is equal to
(2) Towards south
(1) T/m2 (2) Wb/m2
(3) Vertically upwards
(3) Tm2 (4) Wbm2
(4) Vertically downwards
20. A charged particle is kept on a horizontal
15. The dimensional formula of magnetic field is
surface. A non-uniform magnetic field is set up
(1) [MLT2A–1] (2) [MLT–2A] along vertical, the force experienced by the
(3) [MT2A] (4) [MT–2A–1] charge will be
16. Consider the following statements and choose (1) Zero (2) Along horizontal
the correct option.
(3) Along vertical (4) Data insufficient
Statement-I : The magnetic force on charge
21. A charged particle of 2 C moving in a combined
particle is maximum when angle between
electric and magnetic field of intensity 200 V/m
velocity and magnetic field is 90°.
and 10 T passes undeviated. The speed of
Statement-II : The magnetic force on a moving particle will be
charge particle is given as F = q (v  B ) .
(1) 20 ms–1
(1) Only statement I is correct (2) Greater than 20 ms–1
(2) Only statement II is correct (3) Less than 20 ms–1
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Date insufficient
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
22. A 10 C charge moving along a path x = y at
17. Consider the following statements and choose
4 m s–1 enters a uniform magnetic field of 2 2 T
the correct option.
directed along positive x-direction. The
Statement-I : Magnetic field interacts, with a
magnitude of force experienced by it is
moving charge and not with a stationary charge.
Statement-II : A stationary charge produces a (1) 80 2 N (2) 40 2 N
magnetic field. (3) 80 N (4) 40 N
(1) Only statement I is correct 23. When a charge particle of mass 100 gram and
(2) Only statement II is correct charge 4 C entered a uniform magnetic field
(3) Both statements I and II are correct normally, it acquired a circular trajectory of
radius 2 cm. If the magnetic field intensity was
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
20 T then the speed of charged particle would be
18. Which of the following represent trajectory of a
charged particle moving inside a perpendicular (1) 160 m s–1 (2) 16 m s–1
uniform magnetic field. (3) 1600 m s–1 (4) 1.6 m s–1

CHEMISTRY

24. If gases like O2, SO2 are taken in a closed vessel (1) As2S3 sol (2) Ag sol
containing powdered charcoal then the pressure (3) Sulphur sol (4) CdS sol
of the gas
26. If adsorption and absorption are taking place
(1) Increases simultaneously, then term used for the process
(2) Decreases is
(1) Sorption
(3) Remain same
(2) Desorption
(4) First increases then decreases
(3) Dissolution
25. Bredig’s Arc method is used for the preparation
(4) Diffusion
of
(3)
Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II) One Year Medical-2023

27. Which of the following is not true for 34. The substance which when dissolved in a
physisorption? medium at low concentration behave as normal
strong electrolyte but at higher concentration
(1) Lack of specificity
exhibit colloidal behaviour is known as
(2) Favours at low temperature
(1) Multimolecular colloid
(3) Enthalpy of adsorption is usually high (2) Macromolecular colloid
(4) Reversible in nature (3) Associated colloid
28. Regarding Freundlich adsorption isotherm, (4) Lyophobic colloid
select the correct relation. 35. Example of aerosol is
x x (1) Smoke (2) Foam rubber
(1) = k.p1/n (n  1) (2) = k.p1/n (n  1)
m m (3) Froth (4) Soap lather
x x 36. Which of the following is not a method of
(3) = k.pn (n  1) (4) = p.k n (n  1)
m m purification of colloidal solution?
29. Which of the following is an example of (1) Dialysis (2) Electrodialysis
heterogeneous catalysis? (3) Ultrafiltration (4) Peptisation

(1) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯

NO (g)
→ 2SO3 (g) 37. Negatively charged sol. among the following is

(1) Al2O3xH2O (2) CrO3xH2O

(2) CH3 COOCH3 (l) + H2O(l) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
HCl (l)
→
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Gold sol
CH3COOH(aq) + CH3OH(aq)
38. Which among the following has maximum
(3) C12H22O11(aq) + H2O(l) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 4
→
H SO (l) coagulating power for positively charged colloid?
(1) Al3+ (2) Cl–
C6H12O6(aq) + C6H12O6(aq)
(3) PO34− (4) Ba2+
(4) 2SO2(g) + O2 ⎯⎯⎯→ 2SO3(g)
Pt (s)

39. Coagulation of colloids can be achieved by

30. Conversion of cane sugar into glucose and
(1) By electrophoresis
fructose is carried out by which enzyme?
(2) By mixing two oppositely charged sol
(1) Invertase (2) Zymase
(3) By boiling
(3) Diastase (4) Maltase
(4) All of these
31. The range of diameter of colloidal particles is
40. Which of the following is not an ore of iron?
between
(1) Haematite (2) Magnetite
(1) 10–3 to 10–1 m (2) 10–4 to 10–3 m
(3) Siderite (4) Bauxite
(3) 10–5 to 10–4 m (4) 10–9 to 10–6 m
41. In froth floatation method, pine oil is used as
32. Which among the following is an emulsifying (1) Collectors
agent for W/O emulsion?
(2) Stabilisers
(1) Proteins (2) Gums
(3) Peptizing agent
(3) Lampblack (4) Synthetic soaps (4) Depressant
33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 42. Emulsions can be broken down into constituent
lyophilic colloids? liquids by
(1) Easily prepared by directly mixing dispersed a. Heating
phase with dispersion medium b. Freezing
(2) More stable than lyophobic colloids c Centrifuging
(3) Irreversible in nature (1) a only (2) b and c only
(4) Highly solvated (3) c only (4) a, b and c

(4)
One Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II)

43. Statement-I : The formation of micelles take 44. Which of the following ore is concentrated by
place above critical micelle concentration and froth floatation method?
above Kraft temperature. (1) Fe3O4
Statement-II : For soaps, critical micelle (2) Cu2O
concentration is 10–2 to 10–1 mol L–1.
(3) ZnS
In the light of above statements, select the
(4) ZnO
correct option.
45. Which of the following method is based upon the
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
principle of gravity separation?
correct
(1) Ultrafiltration
(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Hydraulic washing
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect (3) Magnetic separation
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect (4) Froth floatation

BOTANY

46. Deletion or addition of a part of chromosome 51. The disease in which a simple cut results in
results in alteration in chromosome and is called non-stop bleeding is
(1) Polyploidy (1) Haemophilia (2) Thalassemia
(2) Aneuploidy (3) Phenylketonuria (4) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Gene mutation 52. The sickle-cell anaemia is caused by substitution
(4) Chromosomal aberration of

47. Myotonic dystrophy is (1) Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the
sixth position of -chain of haemoglobin
(1) Autosomal recessive trait
(2) Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the
(2) X-linked recessive trait
sixth position of -chain of haemoglobin
(3) Autosomal dominant trait
(3) Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at the
(4) X-linked dominant trait first position of -chain of heamoglobin
48. Mating between relatives is represented by (4) Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the
first position of -chain of haemoglobin
(1) (2)
53. -thalassemia is due to mutation in the
(3) (4) (1) Genes HBA 1 and HBA 2 on chromosome-11
(2) Genes HBA 1 and HBA 2 on chromosome-16
(3) Gene HBB on chromosome-16
49. Colour blindness is a/an (4) Gene HBB on chromosome-11
(1) X-linked recessive disorder 54. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of
mitosis in a diploid organism leads to
(2) X-linked dominant disorder
(1) Aneuploidy (2) Diploidy
(3) Autosomal recessive disorder
(3) Polyploidy (4) Haploidy
(4) Autosomal dominant disorder
55. Absence of secondary sexual characters,
50. Down’s syndrome is caused due to trisomy of
presence of rudimentary ovaries and absence of
(1) Chromosome - 9 one of the ‘X’ chromosomes are seen in a person
(2) Chromosome - 21 inflicted with
(3) Chromosome - 5 (1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Down’s syndrome
(4) Chromosome - 11 (3) Sickle-cell anaemia (4) Thalassemia
(5)
Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II) One Year Medical-2023

56. Trisomy of sex chromosome results in 61. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) Down’s syndrome incorrect option.

(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome (1) In prokaryotes, the packaged structure of

DNA is called nucleoid or genophore
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(2) In prokaryotes, DNA is found in cytoplasm in
(4) Edward’s syndrome
super coiled stage
57. Select the correctly matched pair.
(3) DNA packaging in prokaryotes requires non-
(Organisms) (Genome size) histone proteins

(1)  × 174 – 48502 bp (4) In prokaryotes, DNA is not packaged

62. Monomeric units of both DNA and RNA are
(2)  phage – 5386 bases
called
(3) E. coli – 4.6 × 106 bp (1) Nucleotides
(4) Diploid content of – 3.3 × 106 bp (2) Nucleosides
human DNA (3) Nitrogenous bases
58. The correct representation of central dogma of (4) Pentose sugars
molecular biology is
63. A nitrogenous base is linked through N-
glycosidic linkage at _______ of sugar.
(1)
(1) 3C (2) 5C

(3) 1C (4) 2C

(2)
64. Phenylketonuria is
(1) An autosomal recessive disorder
(3)
(2) An autosomal dominant disorder
(3) A X-linked recessive disorder
(4)
(4) A X-linked dominant disorder
65. A haemophilic man marries a woman whose
59. To determine the structure of DNA Watson and
father was colourblind. Choose the correct
Crick used the data based on X-Ray
statement regarding their offsprings.
crystallography which was produced by
(1) 50% daughters will be colourblind
(1) F. Meischer
(2) Wilkins and Franklin (2) 50% son will be haemophilic

(3) Erwin Chargaff (3) Daughters will neither be haemophilic nor

colourblind
(4) Mendel
(4) All daughters will be carrier for colour-
60. Choose the odd one w.r.t. Chargaff’s rules for
blindness
double stranded DNA.
66. An individual shows furrowed tongue and many
(1) A + T = G + C
‘loops’ on fingertips
A+G
(2) =1 These traits indicate that individual suffers from
T+C
(1) Down’s syndrome
A+T
(3) = specific for a species (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
G+C
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate residues
occur in equal number (4) Phenylketonuria

(6)
One Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II)

67. If a colourblind man marries a woman who is 68. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
carrier for colourblindness, the probability of (1) Phenylketonuria : Autosomal recessive
getting colourblind daughters is disorder
(1) 25% (2) Sickle cell anaemia : Autosomal recessive
disorder
(2) 50%
(3)  thalassemia : Excess of  chains
(3) 100% (4) Haemophilia : Sex linked recessive
(4) 0% disorder

ZOOLOGY

69. Read the following statements. Choose the
correct option.
Statement A : Mutations are random
directionless.
Statement B : Darwinian variations are small
and directional.
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements are correct
70. Term saltation is used for
(1) Single step large mutation
(2) Double step large mutation
74. When one or a few individuals are dispersed and
become the founders of a new, isolated
population at some distance from their place of
and
origin, this is known as
(1) Bottle neck effect (2) Founder effect
(3) Sewall Wright effect (4) Adaptive radiation
75. Zosterophyllum, a genus of vascular land plants
possibly diverged from
(1) Tracheophyte ancestors
(2) Chlorophyte ancestors
(3) Rhynia type plants
(4) Psilophyton
76. Invertebrates evolved around and active by the
time of

(3) Single step small mutation (1) 5000 mya (2) 500 mya

(4) Multiple steps small mutation (3) 50 mya (4) 500 bya

71. In Hardy-Weinberg’s principle, the frequency of 77. In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened
to be
AA individuals in a population is denoted by
(1) Catla (2) Rohu
(1) 2pq (2) pq
(3) Hilsa (4) Coelacanth
(3) p2 (4) q2
78. Select the animals that lay thick shelled eggs
72. Natural selection in which more individuals which do not dry up in sun light.
acquire value other than the mean character
(1) Pisces (2) Amphibians
value, is
(3) Reptiles (4) Mammals
(1) Stabilising selection
79. Dinosaur that was about 20 feet in height and
(2) Balancing selection
had huge fearsome dagger like teeth was
(3) Directional selection (1) Ichthyosaurs (2) Brachiosaurus
(4) Disruptive selection (3) Stegosaurus (4) Tyrannosaurus
73. A process in which heritable variations enabling 80. The first mammals were like
better survival are enabled to reproduce and
(1) Horse (2) Shrews
leave greater number of progeny is
(3) Whale (4) Dolphins
(1) Natural selection
81. Fish-like reptile i.e. Ichthyosaurs evolved from
(2) Convergent evolution land reptiles probably
(3) Divergent evolution (1) 20 mya (2) 2000 mya
(4) Adaptive radiation (3) 200 mya (4) 20000 mya

(7)
Fortnightly Test-6_Code-A (OYMR_P-II) One Year Medical-2023

82. According to Lamarck’s theory, evolution was 87. Agriculture came around ______ years back and
driven by human settlements started.
(1) Natural selection Choose the option which fills the blank
correctly.
(2) Use and disuse of organs
(1) 100 (2) 1000
(3) Branching descent
(3) 10000 (4) 100000
(4) Saltation
88. Read the given statements and select the
83. The first human-like hominid was
incorrect one.
(1) Homo erectus
(1) Due to continental drift, pouched mammals
(2) Homo sapiens sapiens of Australia survived because of lack of
(3) Homo habilis competition from any other mammal.

(4) Australopithecines (2) The rate of appearance of new forms is

linked to the life cycle or the life span.
84. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus was
(3) Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from earth
(1) 650 – 800 cc (2) 900 cc
about 200 mya
(3) 1650 cc (4) 1400 cc
(4) The work of Thomas Malthus on populations
85. Primates, that used hides to protect their body influenced Darwin
and buried their dead, were 89. All of the following possibly evolved from
(1) Neanderthal man Psilophyton, except
(2) Ramapithecus (1) Conifers (2) Bryophytes
(3) Australopithecines (3) Ginkgos (4) Gnetales
(4) Dryopithecus 90. Which of the following cannot disturb Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium?
86. Cave paintings by pre-historic humans can be
seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district (1) Genetic drift
of (2) Natural selection
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Genetic recombination
(3) Rajasthan (4) Assam (4) Random mating

❑ ❑ ❑

(8)