Part 1: Mathematics, Surveying, & A. 500,000 C.

726,625
Transportation Engineering
B. 770,222 D. 600,000
1. The angle of elevation of the top of a tree
6. Given the following curves:
from a point on the level ground 10m from it
is thrice the angle of elevation to the top of Curve 1: y =𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 6
the tree 50m from it. How tall is the tree?
Curve 2: x-2y=6
A. 16.7m C. 21.3m
What are the slopes of Curve 1 at points of
B. 18.9m D. 20.7m intersection?

2. Two sides of a triangle are 50m and 60m A. 3 & 2 C. -3 & 2

long. The angle included between these
sides is 30˚. What is the interior angle
opposite the longest side?
A. 83.71˚ C. 85.38˚
B. 92.74˚ D. 93.75˚
3. Locate the vertex of the curve having the
following parametric equations:
B. -3 & -2 D. 3 & -2
7. An investment of P50, 000 yields
P14,025.50 at the end of 5th year,
P34,363.72 at the end of 8th year and
P39,343.03 at the end of 10th year. Find the
rate of return of the given investment.
A. 4% C. 7%

x=t+1 B. 9% D. 9%

y=𝑡 2 +4t-2 8. If the time now in the Philippines (120˚ E)

is 9:00 A.M., what is the time I Iraq at
A. (-2, 5) C. (-1, -6) longitude of 90˚ E?

B. (1, -6) D. (-1, 6) A. 12:00 Noon C. 6:00 A.M.

4. Determine the equation of the curve such
that the sum of the distances of any point of
the curve from two points whose
coordinates are (-3,0) and (3,0) is always
equal to 8.
A. 7𝑥 2 − 16𝑦 2 − 112 = 0
B. 7𝑥 2 + 16𝑦 2 − 112 = 0
C. 7𝑥 2 − 16𝑦 2 + 112 = 0
D. 7𝑥 2 + 16𝑦 2 + 112 = 0
5. A businessman borrowed P3,000,000
with interest at the rate of 6% compounded
annually. He agrees to discharge his
obligations by paying a series of 6 annual
payment, the first being due at the end of
the fifth year. Determine the value of his
annual payment.
B. 12:00 Midnight D. 7:00 A.M.
9. In a certain examination, it is noted that
the average mark of those passing is 65,
while the average mark of those failing is
35. If the average mark of all participants is
53, what percentages of the participants
pass?
A. 40% C. 45%
B. 55% D. 60%
10. The elevation of the upper base A is
375m while that of the lower base at B, the
elevation is 156m. At a given instant three
altimeter readings indicate that the
difference in elevation of an intermediate
point C from the upper base A is 209m and
the difference in elevation from the lower
base B to point C is 25m. Find the true
elevation of point C in between A and B.
A. 174.90 m C. 179.40 m
B.170.49 m D. 170.94 m
11. Two trains, each traveling uniformly at
50 kph, start toward each other, at the same
time, from station A and B, 10 km apart.
Simultaneously, a bee starts from station A,
flying parallel to the track at a uniform speed
of 70 kph, toward the train from station B.
Upon reaching the train, it comes to rest,
and allows itself to be transported back to
the point where trains pass each other. Find
the total distance travelled by the bee.
A. 6.67 km C. 6.23 km
B. 5.83 km D. 5.00 km
12. A man owns two square lots of unequal
sizes, together containing 15,025𝑚2 . If the
lots were contiguous, it would require 530 m
of fence to embrace them in a single
enclosure of six sides. What is the length of
the side of the larger lot?
A. 96 C. 85
B. 92 D. 81
13. One hour out of the station, the
locomotive of a freight train develops trouble
that slows its speed to 3/5 of its average
speed up to the time of the failure.
Continuing at this reduced speed it reaches
its destination two hours late. Had the
trouble occurred 50 kilometers beyond, the
delay would have been reduced by 40
minutes. Find the distance from the station
to the destination.
A. 300 km C. 200 km
B. 250 km D. 350 km
14. At noon a car drives from A toward east
at 60 miles per hour. Another car starting
from B at the same time drives toward A at
30 miles per hour. From A,B is located N
30˚E and distance AB= 42 miles. At what
time after noon will the cars be nearest each
other?
A. 23 min C. 25 min
B. 24 min D. 26 min
15. The capacities of two hemispherical
tanks are in the ratio of 64:125. If 4.8 kg of
paint is required to paint is required to paint
the outer surface of the smaller tank, the
how many kg of paint will be needed to
paint the outer surface of the larger tank?
A. 6 kg C. 8 kg
B. 7 kg D. 9 kg
16. There are four unknown positive
integers. The mean of the two smallest is 4
while the median is 9. If the mode is 12,
what is the smallest number?
A. 6 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4
17. There are five positive integers is a set.
The mode is equal to 3 and is less than the
median. The average of the three smallest
numbers is 5 and the average of the two
largest numbers is 11. If the numbers are
arranged is ascending order, what is the 4th
number?
A. 8 C. 4
B. 10 D. -3
18. In a quadratic equation problem, one
student made a mistake in copying the
coefficient of x and got a root of +3 and -2.
Another student made a mistake in copying
the constant term and got a root of +3 and
+2. Which of the following is one of the
correct roots?
A. 6 C. 4
B. 3 D. -3
19. A hole 10cm in diameter is to be
punched out from a sphere having a
diameter of 16cm. Determine the total 23. Determine the vertical hydrostatic force
volume punched out. (kN) due to oil.

A. 1123.46 cc C. 1241.64 cc A. 5.33 C. 8

B. 1214.46 cc D. 1412.64 cc B. 6.66 D. 7.86

20. A semi-ellipse and a parabola rest on 24. Determine the force reaction (kN) at B if
the same base 60 meters wide and 20 the cylinder weighs 20 kN.
meters high. Using x-axis as the common
base, determine the equation of the A. 5.33 C. 8
parabola.
B. 6.66 D. 7.86
2
A. 𝑥 + 90𝑦 − 900 = 0
25. The permeameter test set-up involves a
2
B. 𝑥 + 90𝑦 − 900 = 0 cylindrical soil sample 40 mm in diameter
and a height 200 mm. The hydraulic head of
C. 𝑥 2 + 90𝑦 − 900 = 0 the test was held constant 400 mm. In a
duration of one minute the water collected in
D. 𝑥 2 + 90𝑦 − 900 = 0 the graduate was recorded at 2.0 liters.
Evaluate the coefficient of permeability of
21. A parabola having an axis on parallel to the soil sample, in cm/sec.
y – axis passes through the points A, B and
C. given the coordinates, determine the A. 2.540 C. 1.326
equation of the parabola.
B. 0.715 D. 0.924
Points Coordinates
A (1,1) Situation2. A boat going from salt water (sg
B (2,2) = 1.03) fresh water (sg = 1) sinks 7.62 cm
C (-1,5) and after burning 72, 730 kg of coal rises up
by 15.24 cm. Assuming that the cross-
sectional area of the ship is uniform:
A. 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 9𝑦 + 10 = 0
26. Find the original submerged depth, in
2
B. 𝑥 − 2𝑥 − 4𝑦 + 5 = 0 meters.

C. 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2 = 0 A 2.54 C. 3.77

D. 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 4𝑦 + 8 = 0 B. 4.61 D. 5.08

Part2. Hydraulics and Geotechnical 27. What is the cross-sectional area (𝑚2 ) of
Engineering the ship?

Situation1. As shown in the figure, the 1.20 A.394.70 C.477.23

m diameter cylinder, 1.20 m long is acted
B.4.61 D.411.69
upon by water on the left and oil on the
right. 28. Find the original displacement (kN) of
the boat in sea water.
22. Determine the vertical hydrostatic force
(kN) due to water. A.12056 C.12971
A. 5.33 C. 8 B.12248 D.12540
B. 6.66 D. 7.86
29. Moist clayey soil has initial void ratio of B.164.2 D.220.7
1.5, dry mass of 80 grams and specific
gravity of solid particles of 2.5. The sample 35. Locate the point of action of the total
is exposed to atmosphere so that the force from the bottom on the plane of the
sample volumes decrease to one half of its gate.
initial volume. Calculate the new total
A.0.72 C.0.76
volume of sol and𝑐𝑚3 .
B.0.74 D.0.78
A.40 C.80
36. If the gate is hinged at the top, evaluate
B.70 D.35
the force normal to the gate at the bottom
30. Calculate the internal pressure, in that will require to open it in kN.
Pascal, of a 25-mm diameter soap bubble if
A.83.2 C.87.9
the tension in the soap film is 0.5 N/m.
B.85.5 D.90.2
A.75 C.85
Situation4. A rectangular channel 6m wide
B.80 D.90
has a constant specific energy of 2.2 m.
31. How deep is a pool at a point where an
37. Calculate the critical depth, in meters.
air bubble, upon reaching the surface has 6
times the volume than it had at the bottom? A.1.47 C.1.60
A. 44.05 m C.25.69 B.1.53 D.1.67
B.30.47 D.51.64 38. Calculate the critical velocity, in m/s.
32. A fluid with kinematic viscosity of A.3.2 C.3.6
15𝑥10−7 𝑚2 /𝑠 flows through a 50-mm pipe
at 0.4 m/s. The flow is : B.3.4 D.3.8
A. turbulent c. laminar 39. Calculate the critical slope if n=0.012.
B. subcritical D. supercritical A.0.0015 C.0.0019
33. What thickness (mm) should be given to B.0.0017 D.0.0021
the steel wall of 1.5 m pipe if it is to
withstand a pressure of 690 kPa with a Part3. Structural Engineering and
maximum fiber stress of 100 MPa? Construction

A.7 C.5 Situation1. For the steel truss shown, the

cross-sectional area of each member is
B.9 D.3 1200 𝑚𝑚2 .
Situation3. A circular gate 1.5 m in 40. The stress in member DF is nearest to:
diameter is inclined at an angle of 45 deg.
Fresh water stands on one side of the gate A.132 MPa (T) C.188 MPa (C)
to a height of 10 m above the center of the
gate. B. 188 MPa (T) D. 132 MPa (C)

34. Evaluate the total force on the gate. 41. The strain in member CE is nearest to:

A.160.4 C.173.4 A.0.0056 C.0.0073

B.0.0062 D.0.0045 48. What is the magnitude of the uniformly
distributed load the beam can carry without
42. The deformation in member BD is exceeding the allowable shearing stress in
nearest to: glue.
A.1.11 mm C.1.33 mm A.12.15kN/m C.16.2kN/m
B.1.22 mm D.1.44 mm B.10.58kN/m D.12.96kN/m
Situation5. The uniform plate has a weight Situation6. Refer to fig. CBM 10.03
of 50 lb. Determine the ff:
Given:
43. Tension in cable A
Material strength
A.350lb C.400lb
Concrete. Fc = 27.5 MPa and Steel, fy =
B.300lb D.200lb 415 MPa
44. Tension in cable B Clear concrete cover to 12 mm diameter
stirrups is 40 mm Slab thickness, t = 100
A.200lb C.250lb mm
B.150lb D.300lb Steel ratio at balanced condition, pb = 0.028
45. Tension in cable C 49. Given:
A.150lb C.350lb Beam width, bw=400 mm
B.100lb D.250lb Effective depth, d=500 mm
Situation2. A laminated beam is composed Reinforcement in tension: 5 rebars
of three planks, each 150 mm by 60 mm,
glued together to form a section 150 mm Using 25 mm diameter main reinforcement
wide by 180 mm high. The allowable shear bars, which of the following gives the
stress in the glue is 0.6 MPa, the allowable nominal moment capacity (Kn-m) of the
shear stress in the wood is 0.9 MPa, and section?
the allowable flexural stress in the wood is 8
MPa. Span length is 2m, simple span. A.453 C.316

46. Calculate the uniformly distributed load B.351 D.551

the beam can carry without exceeding the
allowable flexural stress. 50. Given:

A.10.58 kN/m C.16.2 kN/m Mu = 450 kN-m

B.12.15kN/m D.12.96kN/m bw = 400 mm

47. Find the uniformly distributed load the
beam can carry without exceeding the
allowable shearing stress in wood.
A.12.15kN/m C.12.96kN/m
Effective depth, d = 500 mm
Which of the following gives the requires
diameter (mm) of the reinforcing bars of the
section?

B.16.2kN/m D.16.2kN/m A.28 C.20

B.25 D.32 B.600 D.480

51. Using 28 mm diameter main 56. What is the horizontal reaction (N) at A?
reinforcement bars, which of the following
gives the required minimum width of the A.55 C.96
beam, bw (mm).
B.120 D.36
A.344 C.356
57. What is the horizontal force (N) exerted
B.316 D.304 by them man at C?

Situation7. The cantilever beam AB shown A.288 C.533

carries a uniformly distributed load of 3
Kn/m. The beam is also supported at its free
end with a tension rod. The beam is made
of steel with moment of inertia of
50𝑥106𝑥 𝑚𝑚4 and E = 200 GPa.
52. Determine the deflection (mm) at B if
tension in the rod is zero.
A.2.03 C.3.04
B.325 D.800
Situation9. Refer to Figure SMN 10.16. A
closed thin walled cylinder is subjected to
an internal pressure, p and an axial tensile
force, F. The resulting tensile stresses are
shown in the corresponding Mohr’s Circle.
The cylinder has a diameter of 500 mm and
thickness of 4 mm.

B.5.40 D.1.24 58. How much is the internal pressure

(MPa)?
53. Determine the moment (N-m) at the
fixed end when tension T in the rod is 3.5 A.0.16 C.1.08
kN.
B.0.12 D.0.48
A.-1750 C.-1250
59. What is the axial force (kN)?
B.-3000 D.-1500
A.518 C.660
54. Determine the maximum positive
B.141 C.691
moment (N-m) in the beam when tension T
in the rod is 3.5 kN. 60. Find the maximum shear stress (MPa)?
A.1727 C.1318 A.30 C.50
B.1562 D.2042 B.60 D.40
Situation8. To prevent the ladder weighing
600 N from sliding down, the man exerts a
horizontal force at C. The coefficient of
friction at A – 0.2 while surface B is
frictionless.

Given: L1 = 1.5 m a = 300 1.2 = 4.5

m

55. What is the vertical (N) at A?

A.180 C.273
Part 1: Mathematics, Surveying, & three-coordinate plane and its center is in
Transportation Engineering the first octant.

1. Points A, B, C are three triangulation A.𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 − 8𝑥 − 8𝑦 − 8𝑧 + 32 = 0

stations whose positions were determined
by the angles measured at station B at A B. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 − 4𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 4𝑧 + 8 = 0
and C respectively. Station A is 1200 m
from B with azimuth of 140 deg. Station C C. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 − 16𝑥 − 16𝑦 − 16𝑧 + 64 = 0
945 m from B with azimuth 2860 30′ . A
D. 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 − 4𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 4𝑧 + 16 = 0
sounding at F was taken from a boat and
the angles BFA and BFC were measured 7. In triangle ABC, AB = 28 cm and Angle B
simultaneously by two sextants from the =680 . How many triangle/s can be made?
boat and were found to be 280 25′ and
220 30′ , respectively. How far F from B? A.2 C.3

A.1796 m C.1875 m B.O D.1

B.1956 m D.2002 m 7. In triangle ABC, AB= 28 cm, AC = 32 cm

and Angle B = 680 . How many triangle/s can
2. Find the distance from the point A (1, 5, - be made?
3) to the plane 4𝑥 + 𝑦 + 8𝑧 + 33 = 0.
A. 2 C. 3
A.1/2 C.2/3
B. 0 D. 1
B.2 D.1.5
8. Compute the interest for an amount of
3. A solid has circular base of radius 20 cm. P200,000 for a period of 8 years if it was
Find the volume of the solid if every plane made at 16% compounded continuously.
section perpendicular to a certain diameter
is an isosceles triangle with one leg in the A. 719,328 C. 791,328
plane of the base.
B. 519,328 D. 591,328
A.16,667.67 cc C.8,333.84 cc
9. A vertical pole stands in a plane inclined
B.21,333.33 cc D.10,667.67 cc at an angle of 120 with the horizontal. At the
base of the incline, the pole subtends an
4. The slope of the curve𝑏 𝑥 𝑥 2 − 𝑎2 𝑦 2 = angle of 320 . At a point from the base and
𝑎2 𝑏 2 at the upper end of its latus rectum to 8m up the incline, the pole subtends an
the right of the origin ¾. What is the angle of 540 . Find the height of the pole.
eccentricity of the curve?
A. 6.45 C. 9.36
A.5/4 C.8/5
B. 8.64 D. 7.78
B.5/4 D.4/3
10. A jet plane is to fly from pt. A
5. Find the 3𝑟𝑑 principal of the complex (140 38′ 𝑁, 1210 5′ 𝐸) to pt. B
number: 2+√3𝑖 0 ′ 0 ′
(55 45 𝑁, 37 37 𝑊) with a speed of 900
kph. Determine the time it would take the jet
A.1.383<13.630 C.18.52<!22. 680 to complete the trip.
B.2.645<40. 890 D.2.383<22. 650 A. 11.49 C. 10.62
6. Find the surface area of sphere is 64π. B. 13.70 D. 14.87
Find its equation if it is tangent to all the
11. A propeller with a diameter of 1.2 A. 12.5 kN C. 13.5 kN
meters is rotating at 1400 rpm. What is the
linear velocity in m/s for a point on the tip of B. 13 kN D. 12 kN
the propeller?
16. If a man place a game, his probability to
A. 244.35 C. 122.17 win the game is 2/5. If he plays 5 times,
what is the probability that he wins at most
B. 87.96 D. 175.93 two times?

12. The height of a falling object above the A. 0.6826 C. 0.0346

ground after t seconds can be modelled by
a quadratic function. A ball is thrown directly B. 0.346 D. 0.7126
upward from a height of 48 ft. The balls
position above the ground after 1 and 2 17. The probability of runner A to win a race
seconds is shown in the following table. is 1/5 and the probability of runner B to win
Find the quadratic equation that fits this the race is 1/3. Find the probability that
neither A nor B will win the race.
data. (Use g=32 ft/𝑠 2 )
A. 1/15 C. 8/15
Time Position above the ground
0 48 B. 14/15 D. 7/15
1 64
2 48 18. If (x+3) (x-4)+4 is divided by (x-k), the
remainder is k. Find k?

A. s(t)= 6𝑡 2 +12t+48 C. s(t)= - A. 2 C. 4

6𝑡 2 +32t+48
B. 6 D. 8
2 2
B. s(t)= 16𝑡 -32t-48 D. s(t)= -6𝑡 -
12t-48 19. The following are the top speeds (mph)
for a sample of seven sports cars.
13. It is known that f(x) = 4 when x=2. What
is the value of f(x) when x=0 if f(x)= ʃ(3𝑥 3 − 187.3 181.8 180.0 169.3 162.2 158.1 155.7
7𝑥) dx? Find the difference between the mean and
median of this set of values.
A. 2 C. -2
A. 1.72 C. 1.86
B. 6 D. 6
B. 1.33 D. 1.12
14. The first cost of a machine is P 1, 800,
000 with a salvage value of P300 000 at the 20. A random sample of the number of
end of its life of 5 years. Determine the total children per household in a region was
depreciation after 3 years using Constant collected as follows:
Percentage Method.
x f
A. 1, 185, 770 C. 1, 158, 770 0 10
1 19
B. 614, 230 D. 614, 320
2 7
15. What average force is necessary to stop 3 7
a 0.45 calibre bullet of mass 15 grams and 4 2
speed 300 m/s as it penetrates a block to a 5 1
distance of 5cm? 6 4
Find the sample mean. 26. Which of the following most nearby
gives the specific gravity of the solids?
A. 11 C. 1.8
A. 2.65 C. 2.67
B. 2.3 D. 2.5
B. 2.75 D. 2.71
21. What is the sample standard deviation
in Problem 20? 27. Which of the following most nearly gives
the volume of sample at plastic limit?
A. 3.1 C. 1.2
A. 24.92 𝑐𝑚3 C. 23.48 𝑐𝑚3
B. 2.3 D. 1.7
B. 26.59 𝑐𝑚3 D. 21.96 𝑐𝑚3
Part 2: Hydraulics and Geotechnical
Engineering Situation 3: A surface load of 60 kPa is
applied on the ground surface over a large
Situation 1: If a soil sample has a dry unit area. The soil profile consists of a sand
weight of 19.5 KN/𝑚3 , moisture content of layer 2 m thick, the top of which is the
8% and a specific gravity of solids particles ground surface, overlying a 4 m thick clay
is 2.67. Calculate the following: layer. An impermeable boundary is located
at the base of the clay layer. The water tale
22. The void ratio.
is 1 m below the ground surface. If the
A. 0.62 C. 0.34 preconsolidation for a sample of soil from
the midpoint of the clay layer is 6o kPa. The
B. 0.74 D. 0.92 sand layer has a dry density of 1.6 g/cc has
saturated density of 1.9 g/cc, while the clay
23. The mass of water to be added to cubic layer has saturated unit weight of 1.65 g/cc,
meter of soil to reach 80% saturation in e=1.5, 𝐶𝑐 = 0.6 and 𝐶𝑟 = 0.1.
kg/𝑚3 .
28. Find the effective overburden pressure.
A. 15 C. 25
A. 37.3 kPa C. 97.3 kPa
B. 35 D. 45
B. 39.6 kPa D. 99.6 kPa
24. The volume of solids particles when the
mass of water is 25 grams for saturation. 29. Settlement of clay layer.

A. 40 C. 60 A. 269 mm C. 222 mm

B. 50 D. 70 B. 235 mm D. 245 mm

Situation 2: The Atterberg limits of clay
sample are LL= 75%, PL= 45% and SL=
25%. If the sample has a volume of 30 𝑐𝑚3
at the liquid limit and a volume of 16.6𝑐𝑚3
at the shrinkage limit.
30. A fine-grained soil has a liquid limit of
300% and a plastic limit of 55%. The natural
water content of the soil in the field is 80%
and the clay content is 60%. Which of the
following gives the activity of clay soil?

25. Which of the following most nearby A. 1.2 C. 2.7

gives the volume of solids/
B. 3.6 D. 4.1
3 3
A. 10.9 𝑐𝑚 C. 8.9 𝑐𝑚
31. Calculate the pressure difference, in
B. 9.9 𝑐𝑚 3
D. 11.9 𝑐𝑚 3 Pascals, from the top of a house to the
ground if the distance is 10m.
A. 98.1 C. 120 Situation 5: In a fire fighting system, a
pipeline with a pump leads to 75-mm Ø
B. 136 D. 80 nozzle as shown. The pump develops a
head of 24m. The head loss in the suction
32. Water flows in a 4-m wide rectangular pipe is five times its velocity head and the
channel at Froude number; the depth of flow head loss in the discharge pipe is 12 times
is 1 m. If the water undergoes a hydraulic its velocity head.
jump, what is the Froude number
downstream of the jump. 37. Calculate the discharge in 𝑚3 /s.
A. 0.395 C. 1.055 A. 0.057 C. 0.039
B. 2.125 D. 3.415 B. 0.066 D. 0.048
33. A trapezoidal channel is to be designed 38. Determine the power delivered to the
to carry a discharge of 150 𝑚3 /s and run on water by the pump in hp.
a slope of 0.0025 m/m with side slopes
2H/1V. If the channel is to be designed for A. 18.0 C. 12.3
maximum hydraulic efficiency, what would
be the width in meters? Use n= 0.035. B. 20.8 D. 15.1

A. 4.85 C. 3.15 39. Determine the power of the jet in kW.

B. 2.29 D. 4.07 A. 2.30 C. 1.85

Situation 4: An irrigation canal with B. 1.50 D. 1.27

trapezoidal cross sections has the following
dimensions: Bottom width = 1.5 horizontal to Part 3: Structural Engineering and
1 vertical, slope of the canal bed = 0.025. Construction
The canal will serve clay loam Riceland for Situation 6: A cover plated steel simple
which the duty of water per hectare is 3.0 beam spans over a length of 10m and to
liters/sec. Using Manning’s formula: carry a total uniform load of 7.5 kN/m.
34. Determine the hydraulic radius of the Fb=138Mpa.
canal, in meter(s) Properties of WF
A. 0.432 C. 0.501 A= 12,700 𝑚𝑚2
B. 0.242 D. 0.575 d= 415 mm
35. Velocity of the water in m/sec. bf= 260 mm
A. 0.308 C. 0.652 tw = 10 mm
B. 0.479 D. 0.874
Ix= 398 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
36. Number of hectares served by the
irrigation canal.
40. Find the moment of inertia of the
A. 897 C. 978
section.
B. 879 D. 789
A. 613.6 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 C. 802.7 × 106 𝑚𝑚4

B. 703.6 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 D. 726.3 × 106 𝑚𝑚4

41. Determine the allowable concentrated Concrete strength fc’ = 21 MPa and steel
load that could be applied at the midspan. yield strength fy= 415 MPa. Unit weight
concrete = 23.6 kN/m^3. At ultimate
A. 145.1 kN C. 157.2 kN condition, U= 1.2D + 1.6L. Use an effective
cover of 100 mm.
B. 201.3 kN D. 264.9 kN
46. Given:
42. Compute the theoretical length of the
cover plates. Wall loads: dead load = 240 kN/m
A. 6.81 m C. 4.70 m Live load = 110 kN/m
B. 2.65 m D. 5.42 m Width of footing = 1.5 m
Situation 7: A simply supported steel beam Which of the following gives the required
carries a uniform concrete slab 200 mm spacing (mm) of 16 diameter main bars due
thick. It carries a ceiling load of 500 Pa and to the moment at the footing?
live load pressure equal to 2000Pa. The
length of the beam is 6 meters and is A. 200 C. 300
spaced at 2m on centers. Unit weight of
concrete is 24kN/𝑚3 . Allowable bending B. 250 D. 350
stress for steel beam is 0.66Fy. Modulus of
47. . Given:
elasticity is 200GPa.𝐹𝑦 = 248𝑀𝑃𝑎.
Wall loads: dead load = 64 kN/m
Section Moment of Inertia Depth
Live load = 42 kN/m
W12× 26 0.0000849 𝑚4 0.310m
Width of footing = 1.5 m
W 12× 19 0.0000541 𝑚4 0.309m
If the combined weight of footing and soil
W 12× 14 0.0000369 𝑚4 0.302m above it is 10% of the wall loads, which of
the following gives the minimum required
43. Which of the following gives the uniform
allowable soil bearing capacity?
load pressure carried by the beam?
A. 150 kPa C. 190 kPa
A. 7.3 kPa C. 16.7 kPa
B. 175 kPa D. 200 kPa
B. 11.4 kPa D. 19.5 kPa
48. Given:
44. Which of the following gives the load
carried by the beam in kN/m? Resisting Moment, Mr = 320 kN-m
A. 14.6 kPa C. 33.4 kPa Overturning Moment, Mot= 260 kN-m
B. 22.8 kPa D. 39.0 kPa Total Vertical Load = 100 kN
45. Which of the following gives the most Which of the following most nearly gives the
economical but safe sectin? width (m) of the footing if its just enough to
prevent uplift.
A. W12× 14 C. W12× 26
A. 1.5 C. 2.2
B. W12× 19 D. none
B. 1.8 D. 2.8
Situation 8: A 300mm thick footing
supports a 300 mm thick concrete wall.
Situation 9: The homogeneous plate
shown in Figure MEC-102 has a mass of
100 kg anf is subjected to a force and
couple moment along its edges. If it is
supported in the horizontal plane by a roller
at A, a ball-and-socket joint at B, and a cord
at C.
B. 1600 D. 800
Situation 11: Situation 4- Refer to RC-03. A
400mm diameter RC column is to be
reinforced with Ø 10 mm circular ties. Steel
strength fy= 15 MPa and concrete strength
fc’ =21 MPa. Use 2010 NSCP.

49. Determine the force (N) in the cord at C. 55. The column is reinforced with 6-Ø 20
mm vertical bars. If for a certain load
A. 512 C. 551 eccentricity, the computed nominal axial
strength of the column is 2,600kN, which of
B. 670 D. 707 the following most nearly gives the design
axial strength of the column?
50. Determine the reaction (N) in the roller
at A. A. 1,690 kN C. 1,907 kN
A. 790 C. 913 B. 1,950 kN D. 1,555 kN
B. 602 D. 825 56. If the nominal shear capacity of concrete
is 1.444 MPa, which of the following most
51. Determine the resultant reaction (N) in nearly gives the nominal shear strength (kN)
the ball-and- socket joint at B.
of the concrete, 𝑉𝑐 ?
A. 516 C. 545 A. 100 C. 260
B. 329 D. 217 B. 180 D. 300
Situation 10: A bin holds three cylinders as
57. If the required minimum vertical steel
shown in Figure MEC-101. Each cylinder ratio 2%, which of the following most nearly
weighs 800 N and has a diameter of 600
gives the minimum required number of Ø 20
mm. The width of the bin is 1.2 m. Neglect
mm vertical bars?
friction.
A. 6 C. 10
52. Which of the following gives the force
(N) at point A? B. 8 D. 12
A. 462 C. 400 RC-03
B. 800 D. 923 410.4.5 Design axial load strength Ø𝑃𝑛 of
compression members shall not be taken
53. Which of the following gives the reaction
greater than the following:
(N) at the wall at point D?
410.4.5.1 For nonprestressed members with
spiral reinforcement conforming toSection
A. 231 C. 0 410.11.4 or composite members conforming
to Section 410.17:
B. 693 D. 462
Ø𝑃𝑛(max ) = 0.85Ø(0.85𝑓 ′ 𝑐(𝐴𝑔 − 𝐴𝑠𝑡 ) +
54. Which of the following gives the reaction 𝑓𝑦 𝐴𝑠𝑡 ) (410-1)
(N) at the surface of point G?

A. 864 C. 1200
410.4.5.2 For nonprestressed members with
tie reinforcement conforming to Section
407.11.5:

Ø𝑃𝑛(max ) = 0.85Ø(0.85𝑓 ′ 𝑐(𝐴𝑔 − 𝐴𝑠𝑡 ) +

𝑓𝑦 𝐴𝑠𝑡 ) (410-2)

Situation 1: For the Figure below,

determine:

58. the normal stress at centroid of section

A.

A. 1.875 MPa C. 2.375 MPa

B. 2.145 MPa D. 1.564 MPa

59. the maximum compressive stress at

section A.

A. 112.50 MPa C. 50.59 MPa

B. 97.43 MPa D. 99.30 MPa

60. the maximum tensile stress of the shaft.

A. 95.55 MPa C. 46.84 MPa

B. 97.43 MPa D. 112.5 MPa

Part 1: Mathematics, Surveying,
Transportation Engineering
1. Karla is riding vertically in a hot IR
Balloon, directly over a point P on the
ground. Karla spots a parked car on the
ground at an angle of depression of 〖30〗
^0. The balloon rises 50 meters. Now the
angle of depression to the car is 〖35〗^0.
How far is the car from point P?
A. 378.47 C.406.98
B. 529.87 D. 234.74
2. The angle of elevation of the top of an
incomplete vertical pillar at a horizontal
distance of 100 m from its base is 〖45〗^0.
If the angle of elevation of the top of the
complete pillar at the same point is to be 〖
60〗^0, then the height of the incomplete
pillar is to be increased by how much?
& B. 1,119.39 〖cm〗^2 D. 1,191.63 〖cm〗^2
6. The longitudinal ground profile and the
grade line shows a length of cut 550 m
while the length of fill is 69 m. The width of
the roadbed is 10 m for both cut and fill. The
profile areas between the ground line and
the grade line are 〖4800m〗^2 for cut and
〖2592m〗^2 for fill. Find the difference
between the volume of cut and volume of fill
if the sides lopes are 1.5:1 for cut and 2:1
For fill.
A.64,554.34 m^3 C.62085.23
m^3
B.65,433.80 m^3 D.66,124.48
m^3
7. The sun of three numbers is 20. The first
is 4 times the sum of the other two. The
second is seven times the third. What is the
product of all three?

A. 100(√(2-1)) C. 100 A.28 C. 100

B.100 √(3-1)) D. 100√(5-1)) B.40 D. 400

3. If the shadow of a building increases by 8. Find the volume generated by revolving

20 meters when the angle of elevation of the triangle whose vertices are (2,2) , (4,8)
the sunrays decreases form 〖70〗^0 to 〖 and (6,2) about the line 3x – 4y = 12.

60〗^0, what is the height of the building? A.120.64 u^3 C. 241.27 u^3

A. 46.86 C.32.72 B.603.19 u^3 C. 301.59 u^3

B. 54.94 D.27.87 9. Which of the following is the solution set

for the inequality -4< 3x+ 20 ≤ 0?
4. If the area of a regular pentagon and
regular decagon are equal, what is the ratio A. (-8, -20/3) C. (-8, -20/3]
of their perimeters?
B. [-8, -20/3] D. [-8, 20/3)
A. 1.058 C.1.215
10. What is the units digit of 〖13〗^2003?
B. 1.125 D.1.316
A. 1 C. 7
5. Find the common area of two circles of
radial 25 cm and 26 cm respectively, if the B. 3 D. 8
distance between their centers is 17 cm.
11. A committee of 6 members is to be
A. 1,911.36 〖cm〗^2 C. 1,191.36 〖cm〗^2 formed from a group of 20 congressmen
from the majority coalition and 12
congressmen from the opposition. In how 16. Find the equation of polar of the point
many ways can the committee be formed if (4, -6) with respect to the ellipse.
there will be equal presentation in the
committee from both parties? A.4x – 37 = 36

A. 906,192 C.250,800 B. 3x – 4y = 36

B. 9,028,800 D.320,400 C.27x – 8y = 72

12. At the instant the traffic light turns green, D.8x – 27y = 72
an automobile starts with a constant
acceleration of 2.2 m/s^2. At the same 17. Determine the equation of the diameter
instant, a truck is travelling with a constant of ellipse, which bisects all chords having a
speed of 9.5 m/s^2, then overtakes and slope of 3.
passes the automobile. How far beyond the A. 4x + 27y = 0 C. 3x – 8y = 0
starting point, will the automobile overtake
the truck? B. 27x – 4y = 0 D. 8x – 3y = 0
A.65.0 m C.44.5 m 18. Compute the second eccentricity of the
ellipse.
B.42.4 m C.82.0 m
A. 1.12 C. 0.75
13. A ball is thrown straight from a rooftop
160 ft high with an initial speed of 48 fps. B. 1.21 D. 0.57
The formula h = 〖-16t〗^2+48t+160
Situation 2. The following are altenatives
describes the ball’s height above the ground
based on 8% interest rates.
feet, t seconds after you it has been thrown.
How high does the ball rise? Machine A B
A. 196 ft C. 180 ft First Cost P5,000 P10,000
B. 192 ft D. 160 ft Annual Maintenance Cost P500 P200
14. There are 5 positive integers in a set. Economic Life (years) 5 10
The mode is equal to 3 and is less than the
median. The average of the three smallest Salvage Value P600 P1,000
numbers is 5 and the average of two largest
numbers is 11. Find the sum of five
numbers.
19. Which of the following most nearly gives
A. 9 C. 10 the equivalent uniform annual cost of
machine A.
B.11 D. 12
A. P1,650 C. P1,621
15. If M is 30% of Q, Q is 20% of P, and N
is 50% of P, then M/N = B. P1,705 D. P1,439

A. 3/250 C. 1 20. Which of the following most nearly gives

the equivalent capitalized cost of machine
B. 3/25 D. 6/5 B.

Situation 1. The equation of the ellipse is A. P20,625 C. P11,250

given as 〖16x〗^2+ 〖36y〗^2=576.
B.P20,266 D.P12,500
21. Which of the alternatives is more B. 11.38 D. 54
economical?
Situation 3. Sheet piles were driver in a river
A. Machine A bed as shown in the figure. The trench
within the sheet pile is kept at trench level
B. Both are equally economical
by pumping. (k = 4 x 〖10〗^(-7) m/s,
C. Machine B y_sat=20 kN/m^3)

D. Machine C 26. Number of flow channels.

Part 2: Hydraulics and Geotechnical A. 3 C. 4

Engineering
B. 6 D. 8
22. A 3-m high diving bell has the shape of
a frustum of a cone with a closed ft top (R= 27. Rate of seepage in cu.m/s.
2m). It is lowered from the outside air into
salt water in an upright position. How deep
below the water surface, in meters, is the
bottom of the caisson when the water level A. 1.08 x 〖10〗^(-6) C. 3.00 x〖10〗^(-7)
has risen 1.50 m inside.
B. 〖6.00 x 10〗^(-7) D. 5.40 〖x 10〗^(-7)
A. 14.8 C.120
28. Pressure head at point D.
B. 12.8 D. 80
A. 2.0 m C. 3.6 m
23. The Reynold’s number for fluid in a 250-
mm diameter pipe is 2000. What will be B. 0.5 m D. 0.9 m
Reynold’s number in a 150-mm diameter
pipe forming an extension of the 250-mm Situation 4. In a variable head permeability
pipe? test, the following data were taken:

A. 333.3 C. 2000 Length of soil sample = 8 cm

B. 432 D. 1200 Area of soil sample = 10 〖cm〗

24. The discharge over a triangular notch ^2
can be written as:
Area of stand pipe = 1.5 〖cm〗
Q = 8/15 √2g tan θ/2 H^(5/2). If there is an ^2
error of 1% in measuring H, determine the
corresponding error in the computed Hydraulic head at time t = 0 is
discharges. 100 cm

A. 1% C. 3% Hydraulic head at time t = 60

min is 90 cm
B. 2.5% D. 1.5%
29. Compute the hydraulic conductivity of
25. Determine the unit weight (N/m^3) of the soil.
dry air at 6^0 C and at 93 KPa absolute. R =
287 J/kg∙K. A. 0.00211 cm/min C. 0.00121 cm/min

A. 1.16 C. 23.81 B. 0.00112 cm/min D. 0. 00221 cm/min

30. Det the seepage velocity if the porosity 35. Determine the capacity of the pile group
of soil is 0.28 at t= 60 min. based on the block failure mode.

A. 0.0562 cm/min C. 0. 0652 cm/min A. 19 300 kN C. 18 200 kN

B. 0.0847 cm/min D. 0.0265 cm/min B. 15 100 kN D. 17 600 kN

31. Find the hydraulic head at time t== 40 36. Compute the maximum center spacing
min. of the piles for 100% effienciency.

A. 95.7 cm C. 97.2 cm A. 783 mm C. 687 mm

B. 93.2 cm D. 94.9 cm B. 963 mm D. 810 mm

Situation 5: A container holds two layers of Situation 7: Crude oil of density 925 kg/𝑚3
different liquids, one having a specific and absolute viscosity of 0.065 N-s/𝑚2 at
gravity of 1.2 and the other having a specific 20˚ C is pumped through a horizontal
gravity of 1.5. A solid spherical metal having pipeline 100 mm in diameter, at a rate of 10
a diameter of 200 mm and specific gravity of li/s.
7.4 is submerged in such a manner that half
of the sphere is on top layer and the other 37. Determine the Reynold’s number.
half in bottom layer of the liquid,
A. 925 C. 2000
32. Evaluate the buoyant force acting on the
sphere in N B. 3645 D. 1812

A. 65 C. 55 38. Determine the head loss 9m) in each

kilometre of the pipeline.
B. 90 D. 85
A. 20.4 C. 28.9
33. Determine the tension in the cable
attached to the sphere to maintain its B. 24.8 D. 22.6
position, in N.
39. Calculate the shear stress at the pipe
A. 362 C. 375 wall, in Pascals.

B. 349 D. 249 A. 6.56 C. 8.82

Situation 6: The pile group shown in Figure B. 7.72 D. 9.92

3 consists of 12 piles, each 0.4 m in Part 3: Structural Engineering and
diameter arranged in a 3 × 4 matrix. The
Construction
pile penetrates a soft clay (L1 = 2m, Cu1 =
20 kPa), a medium dense clay (L2 = 6m, Situation 8: The angular section shown
Cu2 = 60 kPa), and a stiff clay (L3= 4m, below is welded to a 12mm gusset plate.
Cu3 = 95 kPa). Assume Nc = 9 and use α= Both materials are A36 steel with Fy=
1 for soft and medium dense clay, α = 0.5 248MPa. The allowable tensile stress is
for stiff clay. 0.6Fy. The weld is E80 Electrode and
10mm thickness.
34. Determine the capacity of the pile group
based on single pile failure mode. Properties of L 150 × 90 × 12
A. 9250 kN C. 11 250 kN A = 2751 ӯ = 51
B. 15 120 kN D. 10 190 kN
40. What is the value of P based on 45. Which of the following sections will you
tension? recommend?

A. 234.0 kN C. 382.5 kN A. W24 × 55 C. W21 × 62

B. 349.2 kN D. 409.3 kN B. W21 × 57 D. W18 × 71

41. Find the value of a+b? Situation 10: The homogeneous boom AC
shown in Figure MEC-101 weighs 35 kN
A. 280mm C. 350mm and is supported by a ball-and-socket joint
at C and two cables AD and AB.
B. 320 mm D. 380mm
46. What is the tension in cable AB?
42. Find the value of b?
A. 11.32 kN C. 26.13 kN
A. 208mm C. 265mm
B. 12.58 kN D. 30.54 Kn
B. 231 mm D. 285mm
47. What is the tension in cable AD?
Situation 9: A simply supported steel beam
is to be a supported over an 8-m span. It is A. 30.54 kN C. 12.58 kN
to carry a total the compression flange is
laterally supported throughout the whole B. 26.13 kN D. 11.32 kN
span and the section is compact section.
Fy= 248 MPa and the allowable bending 48. What is the total reaction at C?
stress in tension and compression flanges
for a compact section is 0.66 Fy and A. 69.57 kN C. 65.91 kN
allowable deflection is L/360. B. 70.48 kN D. 73.58 kN
4
Section Ix (𝑐𝑚 ) d(mm) Situation 11: Considering Figure MEC-102.
W24 × 55 56190 599 49. The crate has a weight of W = 150 lb,
and the coefficients of static and kinetic
W21 × 57 48100 535
friction are µ𝑠 = 0.3 and µ𝑘 =
W21 × 62 55360 533 0.2,respectively. Determine the friction force
on the floor if ᶿ = 30ᶿ and P= 200lb.
W18 × 71 48700 469
A. 15.0 lb C. 173.2 lb
43. The required section modulus without
exceeding the allowable bending stress is B. 10.0 lb D. 50.0 lb
nearest to:
50. The crate has a weight of W =350lb, and
A. 1800 𝑐𝑚 3
C. 2 000 𝑐𝑚 3 the coefficients of static and kinetic friction
are µ𝑠 = 0.3 and µ𝑘 = 0.2, respectively.
B. 1955 𝑐𝑚3 D. 2100 𝑐𝑚3 Determine the friction force on the floor if ᶿ =
45˚ and P= 100 lb.
44. The required moment of inertia without
exceeding the allowable deflection is A. 83.8 lb C. 70.7 lb
nearest to:
B. 55.9 lb D. 279.3 lb
A. 48000 𝑐𝑚4 C. 52000 𝑐𝑚4
51. The crate has a weight W= 350 lb and
4 4 the coefficient of static friction at the surface
B. 50000 𝑐𝑚 D. 54000 𝑐𝑚
is µ𝑠 = 0.3. Determine the smallest possible
force P that has to be applied to the cord so B. 34.8 kN/m D. 45.7 kN/m
that the crate is on the verge of moving.
56. Determine the factored shear at face of
A. 138.2 lb C. 103.3 lb support of beam BE?

B. 114.2 lb D. 100.6 lb A. 113.0 kN C. 137.3 kN

Situation 1: A 22-mm-diameter bolt having B. 120.6 kN D. 130.1 kN

a diameter at the root of the threads of 18.6
mm is used to fasten two timbers as shown 57. Determine the required nominal flexural
below. The nut is tightened to cause a strength considering positive bending in
tensile load in the bolt of 34 kN. beam BE?

52. Determine the shearing stress in the A. 135 kN-m C. 93 kN-m

head of the bolt.
B. 86 kN-m D. 104 kN-m
A. 41 MPa C. 36.4 MPa
Situation 13: A 3.4m × 4.6m × 0.5m pilecap
B. 47.6 MPa D. 38 MPa is supported by 12-300mm diameter piles
as shown in Figure FPL-1.1 and has the
53. Determine the shearing stress in the following service loads.
threads.
Pier Load = 900 kN
A. 41 MPa C. 36.4 MPa
Moment about X = 100 kN-m
B. 47.6 MPa D. 38 MPa
Moment about Y = 300 kN-m
54. Determine the outside diameter of the
washer if their inside diameter is 28 mm and Assume a soil backfill 1.5m thick. Consider
the bearing stress is limited to 6 MPa. concrete weighs 23 kN/m^3 and soil 17
kN/m^3.
A. 80 mm C. 70 mm
58. Which of the following most nearly gives
B. 90 mm D. 100 mm the maximum pile reaction?

Situtation 12: The floor framing plan of a A. 110 kN C. 145 kN

reinforced concrete slab is shown in Figure
SP-001. Beam BE has a width of 300 mm
and a total depth of 500 mm. The slab
carries a dead load of 5.9 kPa. (including its
own weight) and a live load of 4.8 kPa. Unit
weight of concrete is 24 kN/m^3. Use f’c
=21 MPa and fy = 275 MPa. Beam AC and
DF is 300 wide with a total depth of 600mm.
Concrete cover is 70 mm from the centroid
of tension steel area. Use 10 mm diameter
vertical U-stirrup. Refer to RC-04. U = 1.2d
+ 1.6L
B. 135 kN D. 159 kN
59. If the footing has a factored axial load of
2200 kN and a factored moment of 200 kN-
m about the transverse axis, which of the
following most nearly gives the factored
moment, that will be used in the design of
bars parallel to the longer pile cap
dimension. Use 400×400 mm column
dimension. Assume effective depth of
400mm.

55. What is the factored uniform load on A. 1420 kN-m C. 1250 kN-m
beam BE? B. 1187 kN-m D. 1652 kN-m
A. 42.3 kN/m C. 53.2 kN/m 60. If the footing has a forced axial load load of
2200 kN and a factored moment of 200 kN-m
about the transverse axis, determine the
factored shear at the critical section of the
footing. Use 400 × 400mm column dimension.
Assume effective depth of 400mm.
A. 884 kN C. 1168 kN
B. 600 kN D. 389 kN
Part 1: Mathematics, Surveying, & accepted if 5% of the total shipment is
Transportation Engineering
1. A farmer selling eggs at P50 a dozen
gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same
price after the cost of the eggs rises by
12.5%, calculate his new gain.
A. 6.58% C. 6.89%
B. 6.65% D. 6.12%
2. An equipment installation of Jalao
construction in the completion stage can be
completed in 40 days of 8 hours per day of
work with men 40 men working. With
contract expiring in 30 days, the contractor
decided to add 10 men on the job, overtime
not being permitted. If the liquidated
damages is P 20,000 per day of delay and
the men are paid P580 per day, compute
the total cost if he will add 10 more men to
finish the job.
A. 689,000 C. 928,000
B. 968,000 D. 580,000
3. The Asian Transmission Co. makes and
sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units a year at a selling
price of P0.5 per unit. Fixed expenses total
of P80,000 per year. Determine the present
total profit for a year.
A. 170,000 C. 160,000
B. 150,000 D. 180,000
4. What interest rate of 9% compounded
continuously, what is the present worth of a
perpetuity of P8000 payable monthly?
A. 1,602,699.26 C.
1,062,699.26
B. 1,206,996.62 D.
1,206,969.62
5. A stationery store has decided to accept
a large shipment of ball-point pens if an
inspection of 20 randomly selected pens
yields no more than two defective pens.
Find the probability that this shipment is
defective.
A. 92.45% C. 89.45%
B. 59.51% D. 62.51%
6. Determine the area of the quadrilateral
ABCD shown if OB = 80cm, OA = 120cm,
OD = 150cm and ᶿ = 25˚.
A. 2535.32 𝑐𝑚2 C.
2135.69 𝑐𝑚2
B. 2721.66 𝑐𝑚2 D.
2855.72 𝑐𝑚2
7. A strip of 640 𝑚2 is sold from a triangular
field whose sides are 96m, 72m, and 80m
respectively. The strip is of uniform width “h”
and has one of its sides parallel to the
longer side of the field. Find the width of the
strip.
A. 6.2 m C. 8.3 m
B. 7.1 m D. 9.5 m
8. Three circles A, B and C are tangent
externally to each other and each tangent
internally to a larger circle having a radius of
10 cm. Radius of circle A is 5 cm. Compute
the distance from the center of the larger
circle to the point of tangency of the two
circles B and C which are identical.
A. 2.55 C. 4.15
B. 4.67 D. 3.33
9. A car weighing 800 kg runs at 60 kph
around an unbanked circular curve with a
radius of 100 m. Determine the coefficient of
friction between the tires and road to
prevent the car from sliding.
A. 0.360 C. 0.283 15. John is planning to make a ham and
cheese sandwich. If he has three brands of
B. 0.630 D. 0.382 ham, four types of cheese, three types of
dressing, two types of lettuce, and an option
10. A tank has the shape of an inverted to place tomatoes or not, how many
circular cone with a height of 10 m and base different ham and cheese sandwiches can
radius of 4 m. It is filled with water to a he make? Each sandwich must have ham,
height of 8 m. Find the work required to cheese, lettuce, and dressing.
empty the tank by pumping all of the water
to the top of the tank. The density of water A. 14 C. 144
is 1000 kg/𝑚3 .
B. 72 D. 80
A. 3.4 × 106 J C. 1.1 × 105 J
Situation 1: If a chord is selected at
B. 3.3 × 106 J D. 4.0 × 106 J random on a fixed circle what is the
probability that its length exceeds the radius
11. Find the area enclosed by the curve 𝑟 2 = of the circle?
10 cos(2ᶿ).
16. Assume that the distance of the chord
A. 5 sq. units C. 15 sq. units from the center of the circle is uniformly
distributed.
B. 10 sq. units D. 20 sq. units
A. 0.5 C. 0.866
12. An airplane flying horizontally at an
altitude of 3 km and at a speed of 480 km/h B. 0.667 D. 0.75
passes directly above an observer on the
ground. How fast is the distance from the 17. Assume that the midpoint of the chord is
observer to the airplane increasing 30 evenly distributed over the circle.
seconds later?
A. 0.5 C. 0.866
A. 348 kph C. 334 kph
B. 0.667 D. 0.75
B. 484 kph D. 384 kph
18. Assume that the end points of the chord
13. At noon of a certain day, the ship A is 60 are uniformly distributed over the
miles due north of the ship B. If the ship A circumference of the circle.
sails east at speed of 15 miles per hour and
B sails north at speed of 12.25 miles per A. 0.5 C. 0.866
hour, determine how rapidly the distance
between them is changing 4 hours later? B. 0.667 D. 0.75

A. 12.54 mph C. 15.24 mph Situation 2: To adjust a dumpy level by peg

B. 14.52 mph D. 21.54 mph
14. An open-top box is to have a square
base and a volume of 13500 cm3. Find the
height of the box that minimize the amount
of material used.
method of adjustment, two points A and B
were set up. With the instrument at Point A,
the rod reading at A was 1.515 m and the
foresight at B was 2.064 m. The level is
transferred at B and the back sight at B was
1.459 m while the rod reading at A was
0.948m.

A. 30 cm C. 15 cm 19. What is the difference in elevation

between A and B?
B. 20 cm D. 10 cm
A. 0.511 m C. 0.549m
B. 0.582 m D. 0.530 m 25. Evaluate the seepage flow per unit width
of dam, in 𝑓𝑡 3 /s.
20. What is the error in line of sight?
A. 180 C. 320
A. 0.019 m C. 0.029 m
B. 200 D. 220
B. 0.014 m D. 0.024 m
26. Determine the uplift pressure at the heel
21. Determine the correct reading at B that of the dam, in psf.
will give the level line of sight with the
instrument at point A? A. 1980 C. 1770

A. 2.035 m C. 2.040 m B. 1810 D. 2280

B. 2.045 m D. 2.030 m 27. Determine the uplift pressure at line 8, in

psf.
Part 2: Hydraulics and Geotechnical
Engineering A. 1620 C. 1960

22. What is the percentage difference B. 1470 D. 1760

between the hydraulic radii of 30 – cm
diameter circular and 30 – cm square ducts. Situation 4: Following are the result of a
field density test performed on the same soil
A. 100 C. 1 by means of the sand cone method:

B. 0 D. 10  Calibrated dry density of Ottawa

sand = 1570 kg/m^3
23. A tributary area of 10 sq.km. receive a  Calibrated mass of Ottawa sand to
rainfall intensity of 30 mm/hr. The storm fill the cone= 0.545 kg
water are then collected and will pass  Mass of jar + cone + sand(before
through a trapezoidal weir 45 m long with use) = 7.59 kg
the side inclined 14.04˚ with the vertical.  Mass of moist soil from hole = 2.835
Determine the head of the weir? kg
 Moisture content of moist soil =
A. 1.0 C. 1.2
10.2%
B. 0.9 D. 0.8
28. Determine the in situ dry density of the
24. Pipes 1,2 and 3 are 300 m, 150 and soil?
250 m long and of 25 cm, 12 cm and 20 cm
A. 2046.4 kg/𝑚3 C. 1965.1 kg/𝑚3
diameter with f1, f2, and f3 equal to 0.019,
0.021 respectively and are connected in B. 1783.2 kg/𝑚3 D. 1783.2 kg/𝑚3
series. If the total head loss is 10 m, what is
the discharge in m3/s. 29. If the maximum dry density is 1885.24
kg/𝑚3 . Determine the relative compaction in
A. 0.018 C. 0.055 the field?
B. 0.067 D. 0.029 A. 96.11% C. 94.59%
Situation 3: The coefficient of permeability B. 95.88% D. 92.87%
below a dam is 2×103 ft/min.
30. Determine the minimum dry unit weight
of the soil if relative density is 93.67%?
A. 9.58 kN /𝑚3 C. 9.46 kN /𝑚3 36. What is the specific gravity of the wood?

B. 9.71 kN /𝑚3 D. 9.29 kN /𝑚3 A. 0.80 C. 0.69

Situation 5: Two footings rest in a layer of B. 0.91 D. 0.85

sand 2.7 m thick. The bottom of the footings
are 0.90 m below the ground surface.
Beneath the sand layer is a 1.8 m thick clay
layer. Underneath the clay layer is solid
rock. Water table is at a depth of 1.8 m
below the ground surface. See Figure 2.
Situation 7: The 75-mmØ orifice shown has
CC = 0.65 and Cv = 0.98. The depth h =
1.83 m.
37. Compute the required air pressure (kPa)
above the water to cause the jet to rise 12.2
m?

31. Compute the stress increase in kPa A. 106.7 C. 124.2

below the footing A (1.5 m × 1.5 m) at the
B. 115.8 D. 131.4
center of the clay layer. Assume that the
pressure beneath the footing A is spread at 38. Determine the discharge in 𝑚3 /s.
an angle of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal.
A. 0.044 C. 0.066
A. 20.15 C. 22.50
B. 0.055 D. 0.033
B. 30.75 D. 25.51
39. Determine the loss of head through the
32. Determine the size of footing B so that orifice in meters?
the settlement in the clay layer is the same
beneath footings A and B. A. 0.30 C. 0.70
A. 2.85 m × 2.85m C. 1.80 m × 1.80m B. 0.50 D. 0.90
B. 3.24 m × 3.24m D. 3.68 m × 3.68m

33. Determine the settlement in mm Part 3: Structural Engineering and

beneath footing A. Construction
A. 34.70 C. 58.10 Situation 8: If the footing has a factored
axial load of 2200 kN and a 250×250mm
B. 30.85 D. 46.65 reinforced concrete beam is simply
supported over a span of 5m, and has
Situation 6: A block of wood requires a
typical spacing of 2.6m, center to center. It
force of 40 N to keep it immersed in water
will a carry a 100mm thick precast concrete
and a force of 100 N to keep it immersed in
slab and the slab will carry a superimposed
glycerine (sg=1.3).
dead load of 4 kPa, and a love load of 2.9
34. What is the volume of the wood in 𝑚3 ? kPa. Use unit weight of concrete = 23.5
kN/𝑚3 , fc’=28 MPa, fy= 415 MPa, and 𝑓𝑦𝑡 =
A. 0.0145 C. 0.0204 275 MPa. The beam will be reinforced with
Ø16mm main bars and Ø10 mm stirrups. At
B. 0.0319 D. 0.0347 ultimate condition, U= 1.2D + 1.6L.
35. What is the weight of the wood in N. 40. Determine the total factored uniform
load (kN/m) that will be supported by the
A. 175 C. 150
beam.
B. 160 D. 168
A. 35.8 C. 28.5 A= 8700 mm Ix= 274.7 × 10^6
mm^4
B. 46.4 D. 51.9
bf= 150 mm Iy= 8.47 × 10^6 mm^4
41. Determine the required number of Ø16
mm tension bars. tf= 15 mm tw= 10 mm

A. 2 C. 6 d= 450 mm Wb = 70 kg/m

B. 4 D. 8 46. What is the average shearing stress in

the beam?
42. Determine the required spacing (mm) of
Ø10 mm stirrups at range starting from A. 24.35 Mpa C. 22.99 Mpa
support, up to location of the considered
critical shear. Apply code provisions on B. 26.92 Mpa D. 19.32 Mpa
stirrup’s spacing.
47. Determine the maximum shearing stress
A. 300 C. 240 in the beam.

B. 400 D. 150 A. 26.73 Mpa C. 24.35 Mpa

Situation 9: A 4 m cantilever beam 300 mm B. 19.32 Mpa D. 23.15 Mpa

wide with a total depth of 570 mm and an
effective depth of 500 mm supports a 48. Calculate the maximum bending stress
factored uniform live load of 55 KN/m. in the beam.
fc’=21 MPa and fy= 415 MPa. Unit weight of A. 112.56 Mpa C. 141.22 Mpa
concrete is 24 kN/m^3. Use 2010 NSCP.
B. 132.98 Mpa D. 123.87 Mpa
43. Determine the nominal shear strength
required at the critical section. Situation 11: The W350×90 section is used
as a column 10m long. The column is fixed
A. 209.74 KN C. 279.65 KN at the bottom and hinged at the top. Braced
B. 239.70 KN D. 433.65 KN at 4m from the top about the weak axis. Use
Fy = 248MPa.
44. What is the nominal shear to be carried
by stirrups? Properties of W350×90:

A. 92.89 KN C. 162.80 KN bf = 250 mm Ix = 266 × 106 𝑚𝑚4

B. 122.85 KN D. 316.80 KN d = 350 mm Iy = 44.54 × 106 𝑚𝑚4

45. Calculate the theoretical spacing of 10 tf = 16.4 mm A = 11550 𝑚𝑚2

mm diameter vertical stirrups.
tw = 9.5 mm
A. 200 mm C. 190 mm
k = effective length factor
B. 125 mm D. 250 mm
k = 1.0 when both ends are pinned
Situation 10: A beam fully restrained at
k = 0.5 when both ends are fixed
both ends has a span of 10 m and supports
a superimposed uniformly distributed load of k = 0.7 when one end is fixed, & the other
20 kN/m. end is pinned
Properties of W 450 × 70:
49. Determine the effective slenderness A. 138˚ C. 146˚
ratio of the column with respect to lateral
bucking about the x-axis. B. 152˚ D. 140˚

A. 27.68 C. 46.13 53. Which of the following most nearly gives

the tension in the belt near the body A in
B. 32.89 D. 55.98 Newtons?

50. Determine the effective slenderness A. 212.5 C. 287.4

ratio of the column with respect to lateral
bucking about the y-axis. B. 223.6 D. 198.5

A. 67.63 C. 62.76 54. Which of the following most nearly gives

the value of P in Newtons?
B. 64.41 D. 35.98
A. 402 C. 422
51. Determine the axial load capacity of the
column in kN. B. 452 D. 392

A. 1320kN C. 3200kN Situation 13: As shown in Figure MEC-102,

the mast hinged at B was used to lift the
B. 4700kN D. 2900 kN load W. Neglect the weight of the mast.

According to Section 4.5.1.3.1 of NSCP, on Given: X1= 8m X2= 4m

gross section of axially loaded compression
members whose cross sections meet with H= 9m
the provisions of the code, when KL/r, the
largest effective slenderness ratio of any 55. What is the resultant force (kN) at B if W
unbraced segment, is less than Cc: = 24 kN?

𝐾𝐿 2 A. 36.0 C. 39.4
( ) 𝐹𝑦
𝑟
Fa =[ 2𝐶𝑐 2] 𝐹𝑆 B. 20.0 D. 16.0
Where:
56. What is the tensile force (kN) in the
5 3 𝐾𝐿⁄𝑟 1 𝐾𝐿⁄𝑅 3
cable AC if W = 48 kN?
FS= + [ ] − [ ]
3 8 𝐶𝑐 8 𝐶𝑐
A. 20.0 C. 22.3
12 𝜋2 𝐸
Cc = √ 𝐹𝑦
B. 87.3 D. 40.0

57. What is the biggest load W (kN) that can

Situation 12: In Figure MEC-101, a body A
weighs 300 N. It is held in position by a belt
that passes over a fixed cylindrical drum,
the belt being subjected to a horizontal force
P at its end. The coefficient of friction is 0.18
between A and the inclined plane and 0.25
between the belt and the drum. It’s required
to determine the value of P when A is at
impending motion up the plane.
52. Which of the following most nearly gives
the angle of contact between the belt and
the drum in degrees?
be lifted if the max. tensile force in the cable
AC is 50 kN and the mast weighs 8 kN?
A. 64.0 C. 60.0
B. 50.0 D. 56.0
Situation 14: From the figure shown, two
aluminium rods AB and BC, hinged to rigid
supports, are pinned together at B to carry a
vertical load of 25 kN. Each rod has a cross
sectional area of 400 𝑚𝑚2 and E = 70 GPa.
Assume 𝛼 = 30˚ and 𝛽 = 30˚.
58. What is the axial force on member BC in
kiloNewton:

A. 32 C. 25

B. 28 D. 40

59. Calculate the vertical displacement of B

in millimetres:

A. 5.2 C. 6.3

B. 4.5 D. 2.4

60. Determine the horizontal displacement

of B in millimetres:

A. 0.24 C. 0.52

B. 0.31 D. 0.40
1. ABC Corporation has decided to sell P
1000 bonds which will pay semi annual
dividends of P20 (2% per period) and will
mature in 5 years. The bonds are sold at
$830, but after brokers’ fees and other
expenses the company ends up receiving
P760. What is the company’s cost of the
capital raised through the sale of these
bonds?
A. 12.34% C. 11.21%
B. 10.62% D. 13.88%
2. ABC Corporation’s stock, which currently
sells for P50 per share, has been paying a
P3 annual dividend per share and
increasing in value at an average rate of 5%
per year, over the last 5 years. It is
expected that the company’s stock will
maintain this performance over the next 5
years. What is the company’s cost of the
capital raised through the selling of this
stock?
A. 9.12% C. 10.49%
B. 8.55% D. 11.71%
3. An engineering firm has turned to
Friendly Excel-RI, Inc., to borrow P 30000
needed for a short-term (2-year) project,
attracted by an advertisement announcing
an interest rate of 12% per year. Friendly
Excel-RI’s loan statement indicates the
following:
Interest: ($30 000)(1% per month)(24
months) = P 7,200
Loan = P30,000
Total (Loan+ Interest) = P37,200
Monthly instalment = P 37200/24= P1,550
What is the actual cost of borrowing money
from Friendly Excel-RI, Inc.?
A. 23.87% C. 25.12%
B. 24.56% D. 26.54%
4. A house is being advertised for sale by
the owner. An investor estimates that the
property could be rented out for P 600 per
month. Taxes and minor maintenance
expenses are estimated at P1200 per year.
The house has been recently remodelled
and the tenant should have to pay all
utilities. The investor thinks he could sell the
house for P 85 000 after 5 years. What is
the largest amount that the investor can
offer for the property if his MARR is 12%,
compounded monthly?
A. P 68,128.49 C. P
67,772.43
B. P 69,551.62 D. P
70,382.44
5. A mine is for sale. A mining engineer
estimates that, at current production levels,
the mine will yield an annual net income of
P 80000 for 15 years, after which the
mineral will be exhausted. If an investor’s
MARR is 15%, what is the maximum
amount he can bid on this property?
A. P 467,760 C. P 476,670
B. P 458,320 D. P 482,390
6. What amount of money is equivalent to
receiving P 8000 three years from today, if
the interest rate is 8% per year,
compounded semi-annually?
A. P 6,239.01 C. P 6,322.52
B. P 6,495.00 D. P 6,550.32
7. How long must a temporary warehouse
last to be a desirable investment if it costs
P16 000 to build, has annual maintenance
and operating costs of P 360, provides
storage space valued at P 3600 per year,
and if the company MARR is 10%?
A. 6 C. 9
B. 7 D. 8
8. For what value of X are the following two 12. Determine the payback period for a
cash flows equivalents at a 10% interest proposed investment as follows:
rate?
End 0 1 2 3 4 5
End 0 1 2 3 4 of
of Year
year Cash -50 10 12 15 18 20
Flow - 5,000 5,000 5,000 5,000 Flow,
A,P 10,000 P
Flow x 3,500 4,500 5,500 6,500 1,000
B,P A. 3.72 years C. 4.12 years
A. -8,348.21 C. -10,372.99
B. 4.56 years D. 3.12 years
B. -9,623.31 D. -11,238.44
13. An engineer wishes to purchase an P
9. A series of 10 annual payments of P 80,000 home by making a down payment of
2000 is equivalent to two equal payments, P 20,000 and borrowing the remaining P
one at the end of 15 years and the other at 60,000, which he will repay on a monthly
the end of 20 years. The interest rate is 8%, basis over the next 30 years. I the bank
compounded annually. What is the amount charges interest at the rate of 9-1/2% per
of the two equal payments? year, compounded monthly, how much
money must the engineer repay each
A. P 23,488.10 C. P 25,331.10 month?
B. P 24,758.40 D. P 26,905.22 A. P 503.61 C. P 505.78
10. What single amount at the end of the B. P 504.51 D. P 506.87
fourth year is equivalent to a uniform annual
series of P 3000 per year for 10 years, if the 14. A savings account earns interest at the
interest rate is 10% per year, compounded rate of 6% per year, compounded
annually? continuously. How much money must
initially be placed in the account to provide
A. P 24, 557.99 C. P 26, 998.78 for twenty end-of-year withdrawals, if the
first withdrawal is P1000 and each
B. P 25, 734.00 D. P 27, 438.88 subsequent withdrawal increases by P 200?
11. A person borrows P 5000 for 3 years, to A. P 25,640.12 C. P 27, 450.00
be repaid in 36 equal monthly instalments.
The interest rate is 10% per year, B. P 26,734.33 D. P 28,368.42
compounded continuously. How much
money must be repaid at the end of each 15. What effective annual interest rate
month? corresponds to a nominal interest rate of
10% per year, compounded continuously?
A. P 151.34 C. P 156.32
A. 9.21% C. 11.23%
B. P 161.43 D. p 163.29
B. 10.52% D. 12.43%
16. Determine the nominal interest rate
corresponding to an effective interest rate of
10% per year, compounded continuously.
A. 9.53% C. 6.12%
B. 8.50% D. 7.09%
17. A woman deposits P 2000 in a savings
account that pays interest at 8% per year,
compounded annually. If all the money is
allowed to accumulate, how much will she
have at the end of 10 years?
A. P 4,588.32 C. P 4,317.85
B. P 4,483.22 D. P 4,290.45
18. Mr. Cuervo is palnning his retirement.
He has decided that he needs to withdraw $
12000 per year from his bank account to
supplement his order income from Social
Security and a private pension plan. How
much money should he plan to have in the
bank at the start of his retirement, if the
bank pays 10% per year, compounded
annually, and if he wants money to last for a
12-year retirement period?
A. P 78,930.21 C. P 80,124.56
B. P 79,450.34 D. P 81,766.15
19. A father wants to set aside money for
his 5-year-old son’s future college
education. Money can be deposited in a
bank account that pays 8% per year,
compounded annually. What equal deposits
should be made by the father, on his son’s
6th through 17th birthdays, in order to provide
P 5000 on the son’s 18th, 19th, 20th, and 21st
birthdays?
A. P 857.33 C. P 872.66
B. P 860.34 D. P 866.90
20. At what rate must funds be continuously
added to a savings account in order to
accumulate P 10,000 in 15 years, if interest
is paid at 5% per year, compounded
continuously?
A. P 461,78 per year C. P 447.64 per year
B. P 458.30 per year D. P 488.54 per year
21. An engineer is thinking of starting a part-
time consulting business next September 5,
on his 40th birthday. He expects the
business will require an initial cash outlay of
$5000, to come from his savings, and will
cost $500 per year to operate; the business
ought to generate $2000 per year in cash
receipts. During the 20 years that he
expects to operate the business, he plans to
deposit the annual net proceeds in a bank
each year, at an interest rate of 8% per
year, compounded annually. When he
retires, on his 60th birthday, the engineer
expects to invest whatever proceeds plus
interest he then has from the business in a
long-term savings plan that pays 10% per
year, compounded annually. What is the
maximum amount he could withdraw from
the savings plan each year during his
retirement and still have the funds last 15
years?
A. P 5, 930.77 C. P 5,970.32
B. P 5,960.78 D. P 5,950.44
22.A machine which costs $ 50 000 when
new has a 10-year lifetime and salvage
value equal to 10% of its original value.
Determine the capital recovery, based upon
an interest rate of 8% per year,
compounded annually.
A. P 7,106.32 C. P 7,340.11
B. P 7,205.74 D. P 7,443.32
23. An engineer has just borrowed $8000
from a local bank, at the rate of 1% per
month on the unpaid balance. His contract
states that he must repay the loan in 35
equal monthly instalments. How much
money must he repay each month?
A. P 270.88 C. P 274.99
B. P 272.03 D. P 276.45
24. An economy is experiencing inflation at
the rate of 6% per year. An item presently
costs P100. If the 6% inflation rate
continues, what will be the price of this item
in five years/
A. P 130.84 C. P 133.82
B. P 136.83 D. P 130.20
25. An economy is experiencing inflation at
an annual rate of 6%. If this continues, what
will P100 be worth five years from now, in
terms of today’s pesos?
A. P 72.56 C. P 76.09
B. P 74.73 D. P 78.45
26. An engineer has received $ 10 000 from
his employer for a patent disclosure. He has
decided to invest the money in a 15-year
savings certificate that pays 8%per year,
compounded annually. What will be the final
value of his investment, in terms of today’s
dollars, if inflation continues at the rate of
6% per year?
A. P 13,236.35 C. P 13,381.12
B. P 13,490.22 D. P 13,500.43
27. A bank advertises that it pays interest at
the rate of 10% per year, compounded
quarterly. What effective interest rate is the
bank paying?
A. 1.5% per quarter C. 4.5% per quarter
B. 3.5% per quarter D. 2.5% per quarter
28. A man can invest P 150 000 for 12
years in a business venture and expect to
receive P6000 per year in return. If his
MARR is 7% per year, compounded
annually, what would be the annual return
necessary to achieve this MARR?
A. P 6,000.00 C. P 18,885.30
B. P 17560.30 D. P 12,000.00
29. A new bridge with a 100-year life is
expected to have an initial cost of P20
million. This bridge must be resurface every
five years, at a cost of P1 million. The
annual inspection and operating costs are
estimated to be P50 000. Determine the
present-worth cost of the bridge using the
capitalized equivalent approach (i.e., take
the life of the bridge as infinite). The interest
rate is 10% per year, compounded annually.
A. P 22,137,974.81 C. P 22,309,558.21
B. P 22,450,230.85 D. P 22,673,340.88
30. Determine the approximate size of the
annual payment needed to retire P70 000
000 in bonds issued by a city to build a
dam. The bonds must be repaid over a 50-
year period, and they earn interest at an
annual rate of 6%, compounded annually.
A. 4,200,000 C. 8,400,000
B. P 420,000 D. 840,000
31. A machine that cost $30 000 new has
an 8-year life and a salvage value equal to
10% of its original cost. The annual
maintenance cost of this machine is $1000
the first year, with an increase of $200 each
year hereafter; the annual operating cost is
$800 per year. Determine the EUAC of this
machine if the interest rate is 10% per year,
compounded annually.
A. P 7,578.33 C. P 7,761.88
B. P 7,489.00 D. P 7,834.00
32. Mrs. Kyamko deposits P100 in the bank
at the end of each month. If the bank pays
6% per year, compounded monthly, how
much money will she have accumulated at
the end of 5 years?
A. P 6,599 C. P 6,833
B. P 6,977 D. P 6,666
33. A man plans to buy a P150 000 house.
He wants to make a down payment of P30
000 and to take out a 30-year mortgage for
the remaining P120 000, at 10% per year,
compounded monthly. How much must he
repay each month?
A. P 1,022.08 C. P 1.043.08
B. P 1,033.08 D. P 1,053.08
34. An engineer plans to borrow P3000 from
his company credit union, to be repaid in 24
equal monthly instalments. The credit union
charges interest at the rate of 1% per month
on the unpaid balance. How much money
must the engineer repay each month?
B. P 3,200 D. P 3,400
39. Suppose that a man lends P1000 for
four years at 12% per year simple interest.
At the end of the four years, he invest the
entire amount which he then has for 10
years at 8% interest per year, compounded
annually. How much money will he have at
the end of the 14-year period?
A. P 3,188.54 C. P 3, 193.22
B. P 3,185.09 D. P 3,195.21

A. P 137.33 C. P 141.22 40. An individual wants to have P 2000 at

the end of three years. How much would the
B. P 139.32 D. P 143.89 individual have to invest at a 10% per
interest rate, compounded annually, in order
35. A bank will return P 2345 on a 10-year to obtain a net of P2000 after paying a P
certificate of deposit that originally cost 250 early withdrawal fee at the of the third
P1000. What interest rate, compounded year?
annually, is the bank paying?
A. P 1,690.46 C. P 1,693.12
A. 8.99% C. 8.34%
B. P 1,692.54 D. P 1,691.05
B. 8.56% D. 8.12%

36. How many years will be required for a

given sum of money to triple, if it is
deposited in a bank account that pays 6%
per year, compounded annually?

A. 17.85 years C. 18.85 years

B. 18.25 years D. 19.25 years

37. A student deposits P1000 in a savings

account that pays interest at the rate of 6%
per year, compounded annually. If all of the
money is allowed to accumulate, how much
will the student have after 12 years?

A. P 2,017.20 C. P 2,012.20

B. P 2,015.20 D. P 2,009.20

38. A student borrows P 3000 from his

uncle in order to finish school. His uncle
agrees to charge him simple interest at the
rate of 5 ½ % per year. Suppose the student
waits two years and then repays the entire
loan. How much will he have to repay?

A. P 3,100 C. P 3,300
EXAM 6
Part 1
1. An airline company known for its promo
fare receives on an average 9.7 complaints
per day. Using Poisson probability
distribution formula, find the probability that
on a certain day this airline company will
receive exactly 8 complaints.
A. 0.1191 C. 0.2316
B. 0.3124 D. 0.1216
2. In a gambling game a man is paid P50 if
he gets all heads or all tails when 3 coins
are tossed, and he pays out P30 if either 1
or 2 heads show. What is his expected
gain?
A. P12.5 C. –P10
B. –P20 D. P25
3. A three-man jury has two members each
of whom independently has a probability 𝜌
of making the correct decision and a third
member who flips a coin for each decision
(majority rules). A one-man jury has
probability 𝜌 of making the correct decision.
Which jury has the better position of making
the correct decision?
A. the three-man jury
B. same chance for both juries
C. the one-man jury
D. cannot be determined
4. Find the probability that a person tossing
three coins will get either all heads or all
tails for the second time on the fifth toss.
A. 135/512 C. 27/1024
B. 27/256 D. 1715/16384
5. In the CE Board examinations, the
probability that a examinee will pass in each
subject is 0.80. What is the probability that
the examinee will pass at least two subject?
A. 0.640 C. 0.384
B. 0.128 D. 0.896
6. The drainage from a community during a
storm is a normal random variable
estimated to have a mean of 1.2 million
gallons per day (mgd) and a standard
deviation of 0.4 mgd; i.e., N(1.2, 0.4) mgd. If
the storm drain system is designed with a
maximum drainage capacity of 1.5 mgd,
what is the underlying probability of flooding
during a storm that is assumed I the design
of the drainage system?
A. 0.272 C. 0.227
B. 0.334 D. 0.343
7. An urn contains 6 red marbles and 4
black marbles. Two marbles are drawn
without replacement from the urn. What is
the probability that both of the marbles are
black?
A. 0.133 C. 0.331
B. 0.321 D. 0.123
8. A student goes to the library. The
probability that she checks out (𝛼) a work of
fiction is 0.40, (𝒷) a work of non-fiction is
0.30, and (c) both fiction and non-fiction is
0.20. What is the probability that the student
checks out a work of fiction, non-fiction, or
both?
A. 0.60 C. 0.45
B. 0.55 D. 0.50
9. According to the theory of genetics a
certain cross of guinea pigs will result in red,
black and white offspring in the ratio 8:4:4.
Find the probability that among 8 such
offspring 5 will be red, 2 black and 1 white.
A. 0.004 C. 0.082
B. 0.032 D. 0.068
10.Evaluate
2000C2+2000C5+2000C8+…+2000C29.
A. 4.952×10^64 C. 2.773×10^26 B. 19/66 D. 1/27

B. 5.025×10^64 D. 6.852×10^46 16. The Department of Health encourages

elderly people to have a flu vaccination
11. A bag contains 20 tennis balls, of which each year. The vaccination reduces the
four are defective. If two balls are selected likelihood of getting a flu from 40% to 10%.
at random from the bag, what is the If 45% of the elderly people visiting the
probability that both are defective? doctor have the vaccination, find the
probability that an elderly person chosen at
A. 0.032 C. 0.023 random had the vaccination, given that they
B. 0.320 D. 0.230 get flu.

12. A combination lock has 60 different A. 0.265 C. 0.170

positions. To open the lock, the dial is B. 0.045 D. 0.330
turned to a certain number in the clockwise
direction, then to a number in the counter Situation 1:
clockwise direction, and finally to a third
number in the clockwise direction. If The truss shown in below is made from
successive numbers in the combination Guijo 100 mm × 150 mm. The load on the
cannot be the same, how many different truss is 20kN. Neglect friction.
combinations are possible?
Allowable stresses for Guijo:
A. 34,220 C. 216,000
Compression parallel to grain = 11 MPa
B. 205,320 D. 208.860
Compression perpendicular to grain =5 MPa
13. Find the probability that in a group of
eight students at least two people have the Shear parallel to grain = 1 MPa
same birthday.
17. Calculate the stress on member AC.
A. 0.109 C. 0.035
A. 1.33 MPa C. 0.67 MPa
B. 0.158 D. 0.074
B. 1.07 MPa D. 1.26 MPa
14. A disease is known to affect 1 in 10,000
people. It can be fatal, but it is treatable if it 18. Determine the minimum value of x in
is detected early. A screening test for the mm.
disease shows a positive result for 99% of A. 180 C. 160
people with the disease. The test shows
positive for 2% of people who do not have B. 150 D. 140
the disease. For a population of one million
people, how many would you expect to test 19. Determine the minimum value of y in
positive? mm.

A. 20,097 C. 19,998 A. 21 C. 18

B. 21,157 D. 17,778 B. 19 D. 20

15. There are four red, three green, and five
blue discs in a bag. Find the probability that
two discs of the same color are drawn.
A. 1/11 C. 5/33
Situation 2:
A 150 mm by 300 m wooden beam having a
simple span of 6 meters carries a
concentrated load P at its midspan. It is
notched at the supports as shown in Figure B. 119 D. 93.2
TD-TN(405). For this problem, all
calculations are based on shear alone using 25. What is the safe value of P, in kN?
the 2010 NSCP specification shown in
Figure CODE-616.4. Allowable shear stress A. 93.2 C. 88.5
of wood, Fv = 1.0 MPa. B. 75.4 D. 119
20. If P = 30 kN, calculate maximum Part-2
allowable depth of notches at the supports.
Situation: Given data of a reinforced
A. 88 mm C. 238 mm concrete beam.
B. 62 mm D. 212 mm Beam width = 300mm
21. If the depth of notches is 100 mm, what Effective depth = 600mm
is the safe value of P the beam can carry.
Stirrups = 2-legs 10mm∅
A. 26.67kN C. 8.89kN
Materials: fc’ = 21 MPa (Normal weight
B. 17.78kN D. 13.33kN concrete)
22. If P = 25 kN and the depth of notches is fyt = 275 MPa (for shear
150 millimeters, what is the shear stress reinforced)
near the supports.
Strength reduction factor + 0.75, use 2010
A. 0.83 MPa C. 1.67 MPa NSCP. Apply necessary provisions on
B. 6.67 MPa D. 3.33 MPa spacing limit.

Situation 3: 26. Determine the required spacing of

stirrups (mm) if 𝑉𝑢 = 195 kN
A 100 mm × 150 mm member is connected
to 100 mm × 200 mm vertical member as A. 100 C. 300
shown. The inclined member transmits a B. 200 D. 400
compressive force to the vertical member,
and the wood is Yakal(Species Group 1). 27. Determine the required spacing of
The property of Structural Timber of stirrups (mm) if 𝑉𝑢 = 160 kN
Philippine Woods is given in accompanying
table. A. 100 C. 200

23. Calculate the value of P (in kN) without B. 150 D. 300

exceeding the allowable stresses on the
vertical member. 28. Determine the required spacing of
stirrups (mm) if 𝑉𝑢 = 350 kN
A. 75.4 C. 88.5
A. 50 C. 100
B. 119 D. 93.2
B. 75 D. 150
24. Calculate the value of P (in kN) without
exceeding the allowable stresses on the Situation: Given data of a reinforced
diagonal member: concrete beam.

A. 88.5 C. 75.4 Beam dimensions, b × h = 300 mm × 450

mm
Effective cover of steel reinforced = 75mm 32. What is the moment 9kN-m) at end K of
the beam JK/
Concrete, fc’ = 27.5 MPa
A. 111.2 C. 105.8
Main reinforcing steel, 𝑓𝑦𝑙 = 415 MPa
B. 101.1 D. 123.6
Stirrups, 𝑓𝑦𝑣 = 275 MPa
33. Find the moment (kN-m) at midspan of
Shear strength reduction factor = 0.75 beam KL.

Beam is subjected to shear and flexure A. 102.9 C. 92.9

only.
B. 81.3 D. 117.3
29. If the beam is reinforced with 3 legs of
10 mm diameter stirrups spaced at 100 mm 34. What is the shear (kN) at end K of beam
on center, determine the shear strength, JK?
Vu(kN), of the beam?
A. 83.1 C. 95.5
A. 198 C. 257
B. 101.4 D. 99.2
B. 232 D. 328
Situation: A three-span continuous one-
30. To develop shear strength Vu of 250 way slab with thickness of 100mm is
kN, find the spacing (mm) of 10 mm supported by beams 3.5m apart. Width of
diameter stirrups, consisting of 3 legs. the beam is 300mm. The slab carries a total
factored floor load of 8.60 kPa. Use f’c = 21
A. 75 C. 125 MPa and fy= 275 MPa. Refer to RC-04.

B. 100 D. 150 35. Determine the required spacing of

12mm𝜙 main reinforcing bars considering
31. Determine the allowable maximum critical negative moment.
spacing (mm) of 2 legs of 10 mm diameter
stirrups? A. 245 C. 180

A. 450 C. 425 B. 200 D. 220

B. 400 D. 375 36. Detemine the spacing of 12mm𝜙 main

reinforcing bars considering critical positive
Situation: Refer to FIGURE-1 and RC-04. moment.
Given spans are referred to the centreline of
the supporting columns. A. 250 C. 300

Given: L1=L2= 6m L3= 7.0 m S= 2.5 m B. 275 D. 450

Use 350×350mm: dimensions for all 37.Find the spacing of 10 mm𝜙 temperature
columns. bars.

Materials: fc’ = 27.5 MPa fy= 415 MPa A. 250 C. 350

Loads: U= 1.2D+1.6L B. 300 D. 450

Dead load,𝑤𝐷 = 5.0 kPa Situation: A reinforced concrete tied

column is to be designed to support a
Live load, 𝑤𝐿 = 3.6 kPa factored axial load of 2500kN. Use fc’ = 28
MPa, fy = 400 MPa, and the 2010 NSCP. A. 780 C. 815
Find:
B. 850 D. 745
38. The smallest allowable dimension for a
square tied column in mm. Situation: Refer to RC-06 A slender RC
column braced against sideway carries a
A. 200 C. 300 service axial dead load of 511.5 kN and a
service axial live load of 382 kN. Factored
B. 400 D. 500 end moments are 40 kN-m and 80 kN-m
and the critical load for buckling is
39. The largest allowable dimension for a determined to be 3,500 kN.
square tied column in mm.
44. Solve for the moment magnification
A. 300 C. 400
factor 𝛿𝑛𝑠 .
B. 500 D. 600
A. 1.2 C. 1.4
40. The required dimension of a circular
B. 1.3 D. 1.5
spiral column assuming a gross steel ratio
of 2.5%. 45. Find the magnified factored moment Mc
(kN-m).
A. 250 C. 300
A. 96 C. 112
B. 400 D. 500
B. 104 D. 120
Situation: A tied column is reinforced with
5-28mm𝜙 bars distributed as shown in 46. Calculate the effective eccentricity of
Figure-2. Concrete cover to centroid of loading (mm).
reinforcement is 60mm. Use fc’ = 21 MPa,
fy= 415 Mpa, 𝐸𝑠 =200 GPa. The three bars A. 78.37 C. 91.43
shall be considered in tension and use 𝜙 =
0.65. B. 84.90 D. 97.96

41. Determine the design axial load capacity Situation: A 300mm × 400mm RC column
of the column in “KN” if load’s eccentricity is is reinforced with 8 25mm∅ vertical bars,
negligible. four bars in each 300mm face. Effective
concrete cover 60 mm. 𝑓𝑐 = 21 MPa and 𝑓𝑦 =
A. 2640.7 C. 4735.3 415 MPa. Consider bending about the
stronger axis. Neglect the effect of
B. 4062.7 D. 2511.7 displaced concrete.
42. Determine the location of the plastic 47. Determine the nominal axial strength at
center from axis A-A in “mm”. Disregard the zero eccentricity, 𝑃𝑛𝑜 (kN).
concrete area displaced by steel bars.
A. 3771.70 C. 1961.20
A. 231.04 C. 240.00
B. 2451.60 D. 2376.90
B. 150.34 D. 248.96
48. Determine the nominal axial strength at
43. Determine the moment (kN-m) induced balanced strain condition (kN).
by the eccentric force 𝑃𝑢 = 3900 kN at “e”
along the x-axis = 200mm from the A. 856.87 C. 594.64
geometric center of the cross section.
B. 914.84 D. 881.87
49. Calculate the corresponding nominal
flexural strength (kN-m) at balanced strain
condition.

A. 298.26 C. 312.98

B. 203.43 D. 333.33

50. Find the eccentricity (mm) at balanced

strain condition.

A. 342.12 C. 389.67

B. 314.15 D. 457.65
 Exam 9 The implementing rules and regulations of
PD1 594 states that no award of contract
Part 1 – STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING shall be made to a bidder whose bid price is
higher than the AGE (Allowable
Situation: Government Estimate) or AAE (Approved
The unit of measure in estimating the Agency Estimate) or lower than 70% of the
quantities of lumber is defined in terms of AGE. AGE is defined as one half the sum of
BOARD FEET. the AAE and the average of the responsive
bids. Bids higher than 120% AAE or lower
1. Which of the following serves as the than 60% AAE shall not be considered.
equivalent of one board foot? Major items are defined as pay items
representing at least 20% of the AAE or the
A. 1’×1’×1” C. 1”×1’×1” first two items having the highest
percentage of the AAE or those
B. 1’×1’×1’ D. 1”×1”×1” indicated/specified in the Instruction to
Bidders.
2. Which of the following gives the total
board foot of 3 pcs 2”×4”×14’ lumber? 4. Determine the AAE of the project.
A. 9.33 C. 14 A. 70M C. 68M
B. 28 D. 336 B. 69M D. 67M
3. Which of the following gives the total cost 5. Determine the number of major items.
of material if lumber costs P38.00 per board
foot? A. Items 1,5,8 C. Items 2,5,8
A. P354.54 C. P532 B. Items 2,4,8 D. Items 2,5,7
B. P1,064 D. P12, 768 6. Which is the winning bidder?
Situation: A. Bidder A C. Bidder C

The responsive bids for a project with 8 bid B. Bidder B D. Bidder D

items are as shown:
Situation:

A 6-story building has a total height of

Iteam Qty AAE Bid Bid B Bid C Bid Bid 21m with an average height of 3.5m
Unit A D E
each floor. Each floor has a weight of
Price 3500 kN except the roof level which is
1 100 10k 2M 1.5 0.8M 0.5M 1M 2500 kN. The building frame is a special
2 50 300k 6M 16M 9M 9.5M 6M reinforced concrete moment frame
3 500 10k 4M 3M 5M 6M 4M (Force Reduction Coefficient R=8.5 and
4 60 100k 5M 6M 7M 5M 6M Ct= 0.0731) and to carry hazardous
5 1000 15k 12M 14M 10M 8M 17M equipment. Following are other data:
6 400 4k 2M 1.5M 1.2M 1M 2M
7 3000 1k 3M 3.5M 2.5M 4M 3M Seismic Zone = 4
8 20 1M 24M 12M 12M 10M 18M
Total 58M 57.5M 47.5M 44M 57M Zone Factor, Z = 0.4

Seismic Importance Factor, I = 1.25

(Hazardous Facilities)
Soil Profile Type = Rock (𝑆𝑎 ) A reinforced concrete beam is 400 mm wide
with an effective depth of 530 mm. It has a
Seismic Coefficient, 𝐶𝑣 = 0.40𝑁𝑣 = 0.48 tensile reinforcement of 4-25mm diameter
bars. 𝑓′𝑐 = 21 MPa and 𝑓𝑦 = 275 MPa.
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/𝑠 2
14. What is the value of the modular ratio?
7. Determine the value of the natural period
of vibration of the structure in seconds. A. 5 C. 8
A. 0.52 sec C. 0.72 sec B. 6 D. 9
B. 0.62 sec D. 0.82 sec 15. What is the Moment of Inertia of the
section?
8. Which of the following gives the design
base shear (kN)? A. 2931 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 C. 2951 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
A. 1950.80 kN C. 1970.80 kN B. 2941 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 D. 2961 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
B. 1960.80 kN D. 1980.80 kN 16. What is the safe uniform load that can
be applied to the beam assuming a simply
9. Determine the seismic force (kN) at the
supported span of 6 meters?
roof level.
A. 27.78 kN/m C. 29.78 kN/m
A. 512.6 kN C. 514.6 kN
B. 28.78 kN/m D. 30.78 kN/m
B. 513.6 kN D. 515.6 kN
Situation:
10. Determine the overturning moment
(kNm) at the base of the structure. A concrete beam section has the following
dimensions: 𝑏𝑓 = 600mm, 𝑏𝑤 = 300mm, d =
A. 29417.7 kNm C. 29437.7 kNm
500mm, and 𝑡𝑓 =80 mm. It is subjected to a
B. 29427.7 kNm D. 29447.7 kNm bending moment of 100 kN-m𝑓′𝑐 =21 MPa,
𝑓𝑠 = 165 MPa and n= 9. It has a tensile
11. Find the shear force (kN) at the 4th floor. reinforcement of 3-32mm diameter.
A. 1351.5 kN C. 1371.5 kN 17. What is the depth of the compression
block from the top of the section?
B. 1361.5 kN D. 1381.5 kN
A. 157 mm C. 177 mm
12. Determine the effective spectral
acceleration at the roof level in m/𝑠 2 . B. 167 mm D. 187 mm
A. 1.01 m/𝑠 2 . C. 3.01 m/𝑠 2 . 18. What is the Moment of Inertia of the
section?
B. 2.01 m/𝑠 2 . D. 4.01 m/𝑠 2 .
A. 3264 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 C. 3284 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
13. What is the Force Reduction Coefficient
for a steel Structural with Special Moment B. 3274 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 D. 3294 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
Resisting Frame?
19. What is the concrete stress at the
A. 8.5 C. 7.5 bottom of the flange?
B. 8.0 D. 7.0 A. 2.66 MPa C. 2.86 MPa
Situation:
B. 2.76 MPa D. 2.96 MPa B. 6 D. 2

20. What is the maximum stress in steel? Pat 2 – GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING

A. 91.53 MPa C. 111.53 MPa Situation:

B. 101.53 MPa D. 112.53 MPa Under a given surcharge, a 5m thick clay

layer has a consolidation settlement of 305
21. What is the moment capacity of the 𝑐𝑚2
section? mm. Assume 𝐶𝑣 = 0.003 𝑠𝑒𝑐
.

A. 98.13 kNm C. 96.13 kNm 26. What is the average degree of

consolidation for the clay layer when the
B. 97.13 kNm D. 95.13 kNm settlement is 75 mm?

Situation: A. 17.64% C. 24.59%

A prestressed beam 120mm × 300mm is B. 49.15% D. 30.00%

prestressed with straight tendons at an
eccentricity of 50mm below the centroidof 27. How long will it take for 50%
the beam under a final prestress force of consolidation to occur if the layer is drained
180kN. The beam will carry a total imposed at the top only? Tv= 0.197.
load including beam weight of 4kN/m over a
span of 6m. Assume the modulus of rupture A. 160 days C. 190 days
of concrete to be 5MPa. B. 200 days D. 150 days
22. Which of the following gives the value of 28. How long will it take for 50%
the stress at the bottom fiber of the beam consolidation to occur if the layer is drained
under full working load? on both ends? Tv= 0.197.
A. 0.00 MPa C. 10.0 MPa A. 47.5 days C. 55.0 days
B. 5.00 MPa D. 15.0 MPa B. 30.0 days D. 66.7 days
23. Which of the following gives the total Situation:
stress at the bottom fiber of the beam at
midspan corresponding to cracking of the A triaxial shear test was performed on a
section? well-drained sand sample. The normal
stress on the failure plane and the shear
A. 0.00 MPa C. 9.00 MPa stress on the failure plane, at failure were
B. 5.00 MPa D. none in the list determined to be 6,300 psf and 4,200 psf,
respectively.
24. Which of the following gives the
cracking moment in kNm? 29. Determine the angle of internal friction
of the sand.
A. 10 C. 8
A. 17.67˚ C. 25.45˚
B. 9 D. 7
B. 20.68˚ D. 33.69˚
25. Which of the following gives the
cracking load in kN/m? 30. Determine the angle of the failure plane.

A. 10 C. 4 A. 45.0˚ C. 75.2˚
B. 61.8˚ D. 55.2˚ 35. Compute the angle of internal friction.

31. Determine the maximum principal A. 26 degrees C. 31 degrees

stress.
B. 19 degrees D. 23 degrees
A. 15000 psf C. 13648 psf
36. Compute the cohesion.
B. 14148 psf D. 12548 psf
A. 4.10 psf C. 3.21 psf
Situation:
B. 1.98 psf D. 2.49 psf
Details of a cantilever retaining concrete
wall are shown in figure, the water table 37. Determine the angle of failure in shear
being below the base of the wall. The unit for sample 1.
weight of the backfill is 17 kN/m^3 and a
surcharge pressure of 10 kPa acts on the A. 54.5 degrees C. 60.5 degrees
surface. Characteristics values of the shear B. 56.5 degrees D. 58.0 degrees
strength parameters for the backfill are c=0
and ∅ = 36˚. The coefficient of friction Situation:
between the base and the foundation soil is
0.51. Assume the unit weight of concrete is The foundation of the building is 1.2 m × 1.2
23.5 kN/m^3. m and is placed at a depth of 0.9 m from the
ground. The soil has the following
32. Calculate the factor of safety against properties:
sliding.
Unit weight = 18 kN/m^3
A. 1.25 C. 1.63
Cohesion = 9.6 KkPa
B. 1.38 D. 2.01
Soil bearing factors:
33. Calculate the righting moment.
Nc =16 Nq = 7 Nℷ =4.5
A. 429 kN-m C. 397 kN-m
Nc’ = 11.5 Nq’ = 3.5 Nℷ’ = 1.6
B. 477 kN-m D. 340 kN-m
Use Terzaghi’s equation with factor of
34. Factor of safety against overturning. safety of 3.
A. 2.21 C. 2.79 38. Compute the gross allowable load that
the footing could carry assuming general
B. 2.28 D. 3.10 shear failure.
Situation: A. 186.94 kN C. 194.86 kN
The results of two drained traxial test on a B. 149.68 kN D. 168.94 kN
saturated clay were given:
39. Find the net allowable load that the
Specimen 1 Chamber pressure = 15 psf footing could carry assuming general shar
Deviator stress = 31.4 psf failure.

Specimen 2 Chamber pressure = 25 psf A. 116.61 kN C. 161.16 kN

Deviator stress = 47 psf B. 166.16 kN D. 616.11 kN

40. Compute the gross allowable load that 45. The total pore water pressure at a point
the footing could carry assuming local shear 5 m below the ground in kPa.
failure in the soil.
A. 29.43 C. 28.58
A. 79.78 kN C. 97.87 kN
B. 26.54 D. 27.96
B. 87.97 kN D. 78.79 kN
46. The effective vertical stress at a point 5
Situation: m below the ground in kPa.

Given the following properties of a soil: A. 62.09 C. 61.1

Liquid limit = 50% B. 62.01 D. 62.5

Plastic limit = 20% Situation:

Natural moisture content = 40% A triaxialtest conducted on a soil gives the

following results:
Determine the following:
Cohesion = 50 kPa
41. The plasticity index.
Deviator stress at failure = 400 kPa
A. 25 C. 28
Angle of shearing resistance = 30˚
B. 20 D. 30
Determine the following:
42. The liquidity index.
47. The confining pressure in kPa.
A. -0.563 C. 0.667
A. 174.87 C. 113.40
B. 1.254 D. 0.783
B. 196.32 D. 181.85
43. Which of the following gives the
characteristics of the soil based on liquidity 48. The shear stress at failure in kPa.
index?
A. 165.85 C. 152.48
A. Semisolid C. Liquid state
B. 181.04 D. 173.21
B. Plastic state D. Solid state
49. The angle that the failure plane makes
Situation: with the principal plane.

The water table in soil deposit is 2 m below A. 51˚ C. 42˚

the ground surface. The soil above the
water table has dry unit weight of 14.85 B. 60˚ D. 65˚
kN/m^3. The saturated unit weight of the
soil s 20.58 kN/m^3. Determine the 50. Evaluate the vertical stress, in kPa, at a
following: point below the ground for P=1500kN. Using
Bousinessq theory. If the point is 2.5 directly
44. The total vertical stress at a point 5 m below the point of application of the load.
below the ground in kPa.
A. 110 C. 77.9
A. 91.44 C. 89.68
B. 114 D. 99.5
B. 88.63 D. 90.45