Bộ đề ôn GK2 Tiếng Anh 12

TEST 1
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given
in the following questions
1. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying because I had not read his book.
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
B. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
D. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
2. The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
B. The heavy snow prevented the roads from being slippery.
C. Thanks to the slip of the roads, it snowed heavily.
D. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
3. No one in the team can play better than John.
A. John plays well but the others play better.
B. John as well as other players of the team plays very well.
C. Everyone in the team, but John, plays very well.
D. John is the best player of the team.
4. He only feels happy whenever he does not have much work to do.
A. The more he works, the happier he feels.
B. The less he works, the happier he feels.
C. His work makes him feel happy.
D. He feels happier and happier with his work.
5. Peter said if he were me he would stop smoking.
A. I wanted Peter to stop smoking and he promised to do.
B. Peter promised to stop smoking.
C. Peter said he would stop smoking as I wanted him to.
D. Peter advised me to stop smoking.
II. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer for
each of the blanks from 6 to 15
Making time to read is something we all know we __(6)__ do, but who schedules book reading time every day?
There are very few. That is why adding book reading to your daily schedule and sticking to it can improve discipline.
Books are __(7)__. You can take them almost anywhere. As such, you can learn almost anywhere too.
By reading more books and exposing yourself __(8)__ new and more complete information, you will also be able to
come up with more __(9)__ ideas. When you have read so many books on the subject, you can combine lessons from
all of them into new __(10)__.
Reading gives you something to talk about. Have you ever __(11)__ out of things to talk about with your best friend,
wife or husband? This can be uncomfortable. It __(12)__ even make married couples wonder if their marriage is in
trouble. __(13)__, if you read a lot of books, you will always have something to talk about. You can discuss various
plots in the novels you read, you can discuss the things you are learning in the business books you are reading as
well. The possibilities of sharing are endless.
Books are inexpensive __(14)__ to help you reduces stress. Many readers relax by reading. Compared with the
person who gets home from work and immediately __(15)__ on the TV news, you are going from work stress to crime
stress. TV as a source of relaxation is too full of loud commercials and fast moving violent images. If relaxation is
something you want, turn off the TV or computer and pick up a book.
6. A. should B. mustn't C. needn't D. might
7. A. durable B. portable C. changeable D. capable
8. A. for B. with C. on D. to
9. A. disapproved B. dull C. creative D. required
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10. A. solutions B. problems C. troubles D. difficulties

11. A. put B. had C. walked D. run
12. A. should B. might C. need D. must
13. A. So B. Therefore C. However D. Although
14. A. entertainment B. tension C. machinery D. media
15. A. gets B. turns C. takes D. makes
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 25.
Giving a dinner party is a wonderful way of entertaining people. You can also make new friends and give others the
chance to get to know each other better.
It needs planning, though. First, make a guest list, with different kinds of people and a mixture of women and men.
Don’t invite couples because they aren’t so much fun.
When you know who can come, find out what they like to eat and drink. Note down any who are vegetarians, or who
can’t eat or drink certain things for religious reasons.
Then plan their menu. Include a first course, a choice of main courses and a dessert, plus lots of people’s favourite
drinks.
The next thing to do is shopping. Make sure buy more than enough of everything, and that someone can help you
carry it!
On the day, start cooking early. Give people appetizers like Greek mezze or Spanish tapas, so they don’t get hungry
if they have to wait. Serve the delicious meal, sit down with your guests and have a good time – you’ve earned it!
21. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the purpose of giving a dinner party?
A. to get people to know more about their host and hostess.
B. to help people to know each other better.
C. to make new friends.
D. to entertain people.
22. When giving a dinner party, you should NOT invite .........................
A. those who are vegetarians. B. husbands and wives.
C. both women and men. D. those who can’t eat or drink certain things.
23. According to the passage, starters should be served ...........................
A. because the guests may be hungry while having to wait
B. because the guests like eating them
C. because the guests want to have a good time together
D. because the guests want to eat them while having to wait
24. What should you do while the guests are having their evening meal?
A. Sit down with the guests to show your politeness.
B. Stand beside the guests without doing anything.
C. Sit down with the guests and have a good time.
D. Only serve the guests with the food.
25. What is a wonderful way of entertaining people?
A. Giving a party B. Going shopping
C. Planning the menu D. Giving a dinner party
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
26. On behalf of ………………………. host country; Prime Minister Phan Van Khai declared the 22nd
SEA Games opening ceremony.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
27. The room ………………………. once a day.
A. should have cleaned B. should be cleaning C. should be cleaned D. should clean
28. The faster we finish, ………………………..
A. the sooner we can leave B. we can leave sooner and sooner
C. the sooner can we leave D. we can leave the sooner
29. Mai Huong congratulated me ……………………….the exam with flying colors.
A. of passing B. about passing C. on passing D. to pass
30. That’s the doctor for ………………………. Cliff works.
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A. that B. which C. whom D. Whose

31. Peter: “I thought your baseball game was a lot better, Phil.”
Phil: “………………………”
A. You are kidding. I thought it was bad B. Yes, please. Just a little
C. Thank you. I’d love to. D. No, thanks. I think I can do it.
32. I can’t ………………………. the habit of walking at six in the morning.
A. get out of B. get round to C. get up to D. get off
33. Tommy joined the English Club ………………………. to increase his circle of friends.
A. because his desire B. because of his desire
C. because of he desired D. due to he desired
34. It is believed ………………………. cause insomnia.
A. too much caffeine which B. that too much caffeine
C. it in too much caffeine D. too much caffeine that
35. The harder you try, ………………………..
A. the most you achieve B. you achieve the more
C. the more you achieved D. the better achieve you have
36. - “ More coffee?, Anybody?”
- “ ..............................”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. Yes, I’d love to C. Yes, please D. It’s right, I
think
37. I………………. ruined her if I bought her everything she asked for.
A. were B. will be C. would have been D. would be
38. They seemed ………………when I told them the news.
A. surprising B. to surprise C. being surprising D. to be surprised
39. You should realize the …………………of the importance of having a healthy diet.
A. unaware B. awareness C. awaring D. aware
40. The villagers are in danger .…………..being killed by an earthquake.
A. with B. of C. for D. on
41. Marie, ………………… brother helps me a lot, called me last night.
A. that B. whom C. which D. whose
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
42. The aim of the competition is to stimulate the spirit of studying English among students.
A. excitement B. purpose C. sponsor D. result
43. He can’t make up his mind whether he should phone her or not.
A. decide B. wonder C. know D. recognize
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
44. It was apparent from her face that she was really upset.
A. obvious B. indistinct C. transparent D. evident
45. My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
46. A. games B. teams C. medals D. events
47. A. organize B. spirit C. title D. surprising
48. A. figure B. average C. organize D. grow
IX. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
49. A. festival B. badminton C. participant D. organize
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50. A. solidarity B. energetic C. excellently D. combination

TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. misses B. goes C. leaves D. potatoes
Question 2: A. fifteenth B. mouth C. southern D. author
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. contact B. concert C. constant 1 D. concern
Question 4: A. occupation B. miraculous C. determine D. diversity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _______________.
A. the 1990 B. 1990s C. 1990’s D. the 1990s
Question 6: Unless you ______________ all of my questions, I can’t do anything to help you.
A. answered B. answer C. don’t answer D. are answering
Question 7: He _____________ a terrible accident while he _______________ along Ben Luc Bridge.
A. see / am walking B. saw / was walking
C. was seeing / walked D. have seen / were walking
Question 8: We all felt cold, wet and hungry; _________________ , we were lost.
A. moreover B. although C. however D. so that
Question 9: The public are concerned _______________ the increasing crime rates in the city.
A. with B. at C. about D. for
Question 10: Standing on top of the hill, ____________________.
A. people have seen a castle far away B. lies a castle in the middle of the island
C. a castle can be seen from the distance D. we can see a castle in the distance
Question 11: ____________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance
and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering B. Considering C. Considered D. To consider
Question 12: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ______________________ a programme on TV.
A. reading to watch B. to read to watch
C. to read for watching D. reading for to watch
Question 13: The _______________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.
A. stylish B. stylishly C. stylistic D. stylistically
14: Students can _________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
A. absorb B. provide C. transmit D. read
Question 15: Make sure you __________________ us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 16: The play lasted two hours with a/an ____________ of 15 minutes between part one and part two.
A. interval B. pause C. stop D. interruption
Question 17: When he went to Egypt, he knew ______________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become
extremely fluent.
A. entirely B. barely C. scarcely D. virtually
Question 18: __________________ bare that stock price will go up in the coming months.
A. Conditions B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Chances

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older
workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary.
A. rewards B. opportunities C. motives D. encouragements
Question 20: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?

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A. keep B. destroy C. decrease D. upgrade

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic
or personal problems.
A. satisfy B. sympathize C. please D. discourage
Question 22: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.
A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it
C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 23: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.
- Tom: “Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here.”
- Peter: “___________________”
A. No, I wouldn’t mind at all. B. Not on my account.
C. That’s all right. D. Well, it’s worth a try.
Question 24: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets.
Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house”
Linda: “___________________”
A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again.
C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are good, too.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced
every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25) ______ more harm than
good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably, most parents (26)
______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to track their whereabouts.
We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact. In this
context, the advantages are clear. (27) ________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by
bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (28) ________ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of the mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on the
way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according
to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking,
they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (29) _______. They also
provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
Question 25: A. done B. played C. made D. brought
Question 26: A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 27: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. So that
Question 28: A. indisputable B. arguable C. doubtless D. unhesitating
Question 29: A. time B. warning C. term D. notice
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child. In
Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept. There,
her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide world,

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and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation
ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn
the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine to
twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests.
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about three
months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young
warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second stage,
the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting the
wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will
marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or
fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after
that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Celebrations in Africa. B. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa.
C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby. D. Activities in a birth celebration.
Question 31: Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. at the village church B. on the cattle farm
C. at their house D. near the thorn fence
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
B. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
C. Children are initiated for mature life in the presence of their friends and family.
D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.
Question 33: The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. commence B. experience C. participate in D. explore
Question 34: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the Maasai herds B. the wild animals C. the young warriors D. the cattle owners
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What do you
hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all fields, from entertainment to
technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose a program
from a 'menu' and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the World Wide
Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050, music,
films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many places,
agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water. Demand
for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some futurologists
predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be any
accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer will
control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway around
the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again. By 2050,
space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours.
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use robots. Big
companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day. By 2050, we
will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic devices
that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf people see
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and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already produced clones of animals.
By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they behave and how
much intelligence they have.
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses ________________.
A. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives.
B. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
C. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.
D. The importance of cloning in the future.
Question 36: What can be inferred about life in 2050 according to the passage?
A. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.
B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.
C. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.
D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.
Question 37: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 ________________.
A. People will be able to travel around the world in two hours.
B. Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
C. No one will be injured or die because of accidents.
D. Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 38: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to __________________.
A. the possible war. B. the cash crop planting.
C. the serious shortage. D. the demand for water.
Question 39: What is the author's attitude in paragraph 3?
A. concerned B. explanatory C. outraged D. emotional
Question 40: Why does the author use "prefer robots" in paragraph 5?
A. To show the importance of robots in production. B. To encourage the workers to resign from work.
C. To compare the robots with the workers. D. To emphasize the scientist's role in inventing robots.
Question 41: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. controlled B. diagnosed C. transmitted D. cause
Question 42: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?
A. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to the computer.
B. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.
C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.
D. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: My brother is enough young to get a scholarship from the government.
A B C D
Question 44: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.
A B C D
Question 45: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen.
A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen.
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B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.

C. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.
D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.
Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company.
B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
C. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.
D. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
A. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
C. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.
Question 50: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.
A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.
B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.
C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.
D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

TEST 3
SECTION A: (8.5 points)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
1. A. thick B. thus C. south D. thought
2. A. caused B. increased C. practised D. promised
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3. A. Asian B. position C. resort D. competitor
4. A. milkmaid B. intensive C. scoreboard D. penalty
Choose the best option (A, B, C or D).
5. - “Jane doesn’t seem to be interested in learning to swim.”
- “You’re right. Betty is the __________ of the two.”
A. most enthusiastic B. more enthusiastic C. enthusiastic D. enthusiastic than
6. Tropical fruits _______ durians, mangosteens and rambutans are exported all over the world.
A. as B. example C. like D. such
7. My brother passed his final exams thanks to encouragements from my family.
A. praise B. confidence C. assurance D. supports
8. The 22nd SEA Games _______ a good impression on sports enthusiasts.
A. did B. caused C. gained D. made
9. You look __________ you haven’t slept.
A. while B. because C. as D. as if
10. I must ask my parents __________ permission before I can go with you.
A. about B. for C. on D. of
11. This man __________ all his life to science.
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A. appealed B. dedicated C. preserved D. proposed

12. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross
A. was the result of B. influenced C. led to D. was brought about
13. We _______ for some hours before we _______ that we had lost our way.
A. were walking / realized . B. walked / had realized.
C. had been walking / realized D. had been walked / realized
14. __________ we move into the new house, we will have a party.
A. During the time B. While C. As soon as D. Until
15. People are watching the __________ of gymnastics competitors.
A. perform B. performance C. performer D. performing
16. John passed his exam with a distinction. __________.
A. He was too lazy to succeed B. He must study very hard
C. He must have studied very hard D. He needs studying harder
17. John still feels like a cigarette though he gave __________ smoking a few years ago.
A. in B. up C. over D. on
18. Remember to __________ your shoes when you come to a Japanese house.
A. take after B. put in C. take off D. put on
19. Peter- “Jane, it’s too dark in here.”
Mary- “Well, what can I do for you?”
Peter- “ __________.”
A. Can you turn off the light? B. Oh, I can’t
C. Can you help me? D. Turn on the light, please.
20. Jack- “Your cousin is very beautiful, Paul.”
Jerry- “Of course. __________. Her mother used to win a beauty contest in her city.”
A. She takes in her mother B. Her mother looks after her.
C. She takes after her mother D. She names after her mother.
21. Jason - “My brother’s coughed a lot recently.”
Peter- “Does he smoke?”
Jason- “Yes, a lot.”
Peter- “__________?”
Jason- “Well, it’s a good idea. I’ll tell him about that.”
A. Why doesn’t he give up smoking?” B. Why does he stop smoking?
C. He shouldn’t go on coughing. D. He shouldn’t give up smoking.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
22. Modern farms are much larger than that of former times.
A. Modern B. much C. that D. times
23. Bob only goes to bed before he has finished all his homework.
A. goes B. before C. has finished D. homework
24. When she came in from the rainstorm, she looked as though she took a shower with her clothes on.
A. When B. from C. looked D. took

Read the passage and fill in each blank with a suitable word
The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency with national affiliates in almost every country in
the world. The Red Cross movement began with the founding of the International Committee for the Relief
of (25)______ Wounded in 1863 (now the International Committee of the Red Cross); it was (26)______ to
care for victims of battle (27)______ wartime, but later national Red Cross societies were created to aid in
the prevention and relief of human suffering generally. Its peacetime activities include first aid, accident
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prevention, water (28)______, training of nurses' aids, maintenance of maternal and child welfare centers
and medical clinics, blood banks, and numerous (29)______ services. The Red Cross is the name used in
countries under nominally Christian sponsorship; the Red Crescent (adopted on the insistence of the
Ottoman Empire in 1906) is the name used in Muslim countries.
25. A. the B. an C. one D. a
26. A. set B. established C. done D. found
27. A. on B. before C. in D. to
28. A. safety B. safe C. safer D. safely
29. A. other B. another C. the other D. others

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below:
Women in Britain are better off today than they used to be. At the beginning of the 19th century, women
seem to have almost no rights at all. They could not vote, or even sign a contract. Their marriages were
arranged by their parents. They were once kept at home and if they were allowed to work, they were never
given responsible jobs. It is strange to think that, as far as we know, most women were happy with that
situation.

Today the position is quite different. Women now can vote and choose their own husbands. In 1970, a law
was passed to give them an equal share of property in the case of divorce, and in the same year the Equal
Pay Act gave them the right to get equal payment with men for work of equal value.

Despite these changes, there is no doubt that there are still great differences in status between men and
women. Many employers seem to ignore the Equal Pay Act. It is also more difficult for a woman to get
promotion than a man does.

There is sex distinction in England although it has not been so serious as it was. More and more women go
out to work, earn more money, get high positions in the society, and live independently. However , there
are two great problems to solve. The first problem is men's attitude. They always think that women are
lower in rank and are the weaker sex. We do not know exactly how long it will take them to change their
mind. And the other problem which is much more difficult is women's attitude. They should be ready to
struggle to change their fate.

30. At the beginning of the 19th century ,___________.

A. British women were better off than today.
B. Women seemed to have almost no rights at all.
C. British women had the right to vote.
D. British women had the right to choose their husbands.
31. The Equal Pay Act was passed in ___________.
A. 1960 B. 1962 C. 1970 D. 1971
32. Which of these following sentences is NOT TRUE?
A. All the employers in Britain obey the Equal Pay Act.
B. In 1970, a law was passed to give British women the right to share property equally in the case of
divorce.
C. The Equal Pay Act gave British women the right to get equal payment with men for work of equal
value.
D. Women cannot get promotion as equal as men.
33. What is men's attitude?
A. They consider women to be equal to them.
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B. They always look down upon women.

C. They consider women the stronger sex.
D. They consider women the weaker sex.
34. What should women do to eliminate sex distinction?
A. They should suffer with pleasure.
B. They should struggle to change their fate.
C. They should earn more money.
D. All are correct

SECTION B: (1.5 points)

Rewrite the following sentences without changing their original meaning. Begin with the given words:
35. I can’t swim as well as my mother can.
My mother ___________________________________________.
36. How many countries participated in the last Olympic Games? (Use “take part in” to rewrite the
sentence)
How many ___________________________________________.
37. Lisa is the best daughter in my family.
Nobody ___________________________________________.
38. A new car is more expensive than an old one.
An old car ___________________________________________.
39. I feel miserable when it is hot.
The hotter ___________________________________________.
40. Nobody in my class is more beautiful than Maria.
Maria ___________________________________________.
...............................The end .............................

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI
SECTION A: (8.5 points)(0.25đ/ 1 câu)
1.B 11.B 21.A 31.C
2.A 12.C 22.C 32.A
3.A 13.C 23.B 33.D
4.B 14.C 24.D 34.B
5.B 15.B 25. A
6.C 16.C 26. B
7.D 17.B 27. C
8.D 18.C 28. A
9.D 19.D 29. A
10.B 20.C 30.B

SECTION B: (1.5 points)(sai 1 lỗi trừ phân nữa điểm/ 1 câu)

35. My mother can swim better than I can/ me.
36. How many countries took part in the last Olympic Games?
37. Nobody in my family is better than Lisa.
38. An old car isn’t as/so expensive as a new one.
39. The hotter it is, the more miserable I feel.
40. Maria is the most beautiful girl in my class.
TEST 4
I. Choose the phrase or clause that best fits each of the following sentences :
1. We could have seen the movie ________________
A. If the tickets had not been so expensive B. Had the ticket been so expensive
C. Though the ticket was too expensive D. When the ticket had been so cheap
2. He apologized _________
A. His colleagues not being able to finish the project on time
B. His colleagues for not being able to finish the project on time
C. His colleagues not to be able to finish the project on time
D. To his colleagues for not being able to finish the project on time
3. After seeing the movie Centennial , _________.
A. The book was read by many people B. Many people wanted to read the book
C. The book made many people want to read it D. The reading of the book interested many
people
4. Lina: “I don’t know how you missed the exit.”
Layla: “Well, it wasn’t enough light _______.”
A. for us could see the road signs hardly B. hardly could we see the road signs
C. to see the road signs hardly D. so we could see hardly the road signs
5. She asked him ________.
A. What is your name B. What your name is
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C. What was his name D. What his name was

II. Read the text carefully and then choose the correct answers
It is often said that books are always good friends and reading is an active mental process. Unlike TV, books
make you use your brain. By reading, you think more and become smarter. Reading improves concentration
and focus. Reading books takes brain power. It requires you to focus on what you are reading for long
periods. Unlike magazines, Internet posts or e-mails that might contain small pieces of information. Books
tell the whole story. Since you must concentrate in order to read, you will get better at concentration. Many
studies show if you do not use your memory, you lose it. Reading helps you stretch your memory muscles.
Reading requires remembering details, facts and figures and in literature, plot lines, themes and characters.
Reading is a good way to improve your vocabulary. Do you remember that when you were at elementary
school you learned how to infer the meaning of one word by reading the context of the other words in the
sentences? While reading books, especially challenging ones, you will find yourself exposed to many new
words.
Reading is a fundamental skill builder. Every good course has a matching book to go with it. Why? Because
books help clarify difficult subjects. Books provides information that goes deeper than just classroom
discussions. By reading more books you become better informed and more of an expert on the topics you
read about. This expertise translate into higher self-esteem. Since you are so well-read, people look to you
for answer. Your feelings about yourself can only get better. Books give you knowledge of other cultures
and places. The more information you have got, the richer your knowledge is.
6. Books have great influence on ______.
A.TV B.Intelligent C.Brain D.Muscle
7. When you are reading a book, _______.
A. You have to read small pieces of information
B. You use your brain in concentration and focus
C. You have to read during a very long time
D. You lose your memory
8. A challeging book _____.
A. Is suitable for elementary school
B. Helps you to improve your vocabulary
C. Can translate many new words
D. Contains a lot of difficult vocabulary
9. Books _____________.
A. Are compulsory in every course
B. Are not needed in most courses
C. Contain less information than class discussions
D. Make a sick patient feel better
10. Books cannot give you _______.
A.Knowledge B.Information C.Self – esteem D.Muscles
III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced from differently from the rest :
11. A.Endangered B.Threatened C.Described D.Advanced
12. A.Swallow B.Allow C.Below D.Slowly
13. A.Taste B.Subject C.Existence D.Pleasure
IV. Pick out the word which has the stressed part pronounced differently from the rest :
14. A.Defend B.Attack C.Aura D.External
15. A.Biography B.Geography C.Genealogy D.Technology
V. Choose the best option :
16. Those letters _______ now. You can do the typing later.
A.Need typing B.Needn’t be typed C.Need to type D.Needn’t typing
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17. Who was the last student ___________ by that interviewer yesterday
A.Was called B.To be called C.To be calling D.To call
18. Human beings are responsible __________ the changes in the environment
A.In B.To C.For D.With
19. We were made __________ by the villagers.
A.Leave B.To leave C.To have left D.Leaving
20. A _________ is the story of a person’s life written by somebody else.
A.Romance B.Fiction C.Biography D.Science
21. ______is the protection of environment and natural resources.
A.Survival B.Commerce C.Conservation D.Extinction
22. A penalty shot is _______when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A.Prevented B.AwardedC.Commited D.Ranged
23. I spent an hour reading the novel. _______ , I did not understand what I read.
A.However B.But C.Therefore D.So
24. If I had managed to repair the roof earlier, we ______ in safety now.
A.Could have been B.Could be C.Would have been D.Will be
25. I can’t find my umbrella. I _______ it in the restaurant last night.
A.Must have left B.Had left C.Left D.Might leave
26. Hana :”When must I hand in my papers. Miss?”
Miss Hue :”______________________”
A.At Friday B.By Thursday C.In the class D.In my office
27. Don’t drink ___________ wine. It’s bad for your health.
A.Many of B.A few of C.So much D.Many
28. Some planets are so small that ______ with naked eyes
A.It is impossible seeing them B.They are impossible to seeing
C.They are impossible to be seen D.It is possible to see them
29. Everyone hopes to succeed in life, _______?
A.Doesn’t he B.Hasn’t he C.Haven’t they D.Don’t they
30. _______________different efforts have been made, species extinction is increasing
A.Because B.But C.So D.Though
31. Many plants and animals are in danger of extinction _________ the loss of forests.
A.Though B.In spite of C.Because D.Because of
32. Many species are in danger of extinction , __________ the biodiversity on earth is at risk
A.So B.But C.Or D.Though
33. Tom got zero mark in his final exam. He ________ harder.
A.Must have tried B.Should have tried C.Could have tried D.May have tried
34. The little girl had her doll _________ yesterday.
A.Repaired B.Repairing C.To repair D.Repair
35. Mai put on her coat _______ she _____ get cold.
A.In order that / would not B.So that / will not C.To / will not D.So as to / would
not
36. The computer, _____ the memory capacity has just been upgraded, is among the lastest generations.
A.That B.Whose C.Of which D.Which of
37. I would rather ________ this job.
A.Not taken B.Don’t take C.Not take D.Not to take
38. While I was working in the garden, my son ____________ video games.
A.Was playing B.Played C.Has played D.Has been playing
39. America, which is considered to be a new continent, is said _______ by Christopher Columbus.
A.To discover B.To have been discovered C.To be discovered D.Being discovered
40. Mary said, “Would you like some tea, Peter?”
A.Mary asked Peter to make her some tea.
B.Mary wanted to know if Peter like tea.
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C.Mary invited Peter to drink some tea.

D.Mary and Peter asked for some tea to drink.

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VI. Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed to make the sentence correct:
16. If we have a chance to travel abroad, Paris is the first city where we’d like to visit
17. One of the best ways to encourage your children to read are to provide interesting titles for them to
enjoy
18. I regret informing you that you are not allowed to attend the conference.
19. I’d like to have some informations about the flights to Bangkok tomorrow, please.
20. The film was so boring that we walked out of the cinema after just 15 minutes watch it .

VII. Choose the word or phrase (A,B,C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage:
Running is a big sport in the summer Olympics. Running was one of the first Olympic sports. There are two
kinds of runners in the Olympics. Sprinters run for short distances, usually less than 400 meters. Distance
runner for long distances, sometimes (46) __ to 10,000 meters! Distance runners and sprinters have very (47)
__ training programs. Sprinters need very strong, powerful legs. This is because they must go very fast, but
only for a short time. They usually (48) __ a lot of weights with their legs to make their muscles bigger.
Distance runners, (49) __ the other hand, do not need to run as fast, but they must run for much longer. They do
not need very large leg muscles and usually do not lift many weights. (50) ___ ,distance runners must have very
strong hearts, because their hearts must work hard for a long time.
21. A. Up B.Over C.On D.At
22. A. Same B.Similar C.Different D.Much
23. A. Lift B.Touch C.Make D.Put
24. A. In B.On C.At D.By
25. A. Futhermore B.Although C.Fortunately D.Consequently

TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. combustion B. conservation C. purification D. pollution
2. A. mild B. mildew C. mile D. pile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. respiratory B. initiative C. eco-friendly D. renewable
4. A. initiative B. necessary C. discriminate D. authority
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
5. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam.

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6. The customs in his country are more traditional than that in the United States.
7. Tom likes to gossip about other people, so he doesn’t like them to gossip about him.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
8. It is stated that we are now in the first stages of a battle for the ___ of life on the earth.
A. purification B. sustainability C. conservation D. responsibility
9. These eggs come from free-range chickens ___ eat only organic grains.
A. which B. that C. who D. they
10. ___ is what shaped our cities into what they are today.
A. Electrification B. Industrialisation C. Determination D. Urbanisation
11. If you don’t ___ this opportunity, you might not get another one.
A. catch B. grab C. capture D. hold
12. I can’t stand ___people who are not tolerant of new ideas.
A. narrow-mind B. narrow-minded C. minded-narrow D. narrow-minding
13. It is recommended that he ___ his course.
A. taking B. take C. takes D. took
14. Traffic congestion has become a mojor issue, while schools and hospital are ___.
A. overbearing B. overdone C. overdeveloped D. overloaded
15. His father left New York. The doctor suggested he ___ there.
A. not stayed B. won’t stay C. not stay D. not go to stay
16. Her ___ to medicine was so great that she had little time for anything else.
A. importance B. dedication C. emphasis D. reputation
17. Bill Gate’s ___ in donating large sums of money towards welfare activities is remarkable.
A. generosity B. politeness C. wealth D. talent
18. At first, Microsoft had ___ hyphen in the name “Micro-soft”, combination of microcomputer and ___
software.
A. a-the-a B. a-a-ф C. the-the-ф D. ф-a-the
19. I first met her four years ago when we ___ at a middle school.
A. had been studying B. are studying C. have been studying D. were studying
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
20. - "I wonder if I could possibly use your car for tonight?"
- "________ . I'm not using it anyhow."
A. I don't care B. I don't know C. Yes, indeed D. Sure, go ahead
21. Patient: “Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?” – Receptionist: “_____”
A. Not at the moment. He can’t be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.
C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I’ll be with you in an hour.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.
A. Look for B. watch out for C. search for D. watch for
23. The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstrations
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. In common with many mothers, she feels torn between her family and her work.
A. In association with B. In imitation of C. Ignoring D. Unlike
25. You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.
A. criticize yourself B. wear a backpack
C. praise yourself D. check up your back

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
26. He can hardly see at all without glasses.
A. He can't see everything without glasses
B. He is practically blind without glasses.
C. He can see even if he doesn't wear glasses
D. He can see without glasses if he tries hard.
27. Richard shouldn’t have forgotten that yesterday was his wife’s birthday.
A. Richard’s wife forgot her own birthday.
B. Richard failed to remember the date of his wife’s birthday.
C. Richard had a birthday which his wife forgot.
D. Yesterday Richard remembered when his wife’s birthday was.
28. Although he was very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
A. Despite of his tiredness, he was eager to help his child with his homework.
B. Tired as he was, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
C. Even if feeling very tired, he agreed to help his child with his homework.
D. He would have helped his child with his homework if he hadn't been tired.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
29. The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
30. She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January 
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January. 
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January. 
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January. 
D. Her notice was given in in order for her to start her new job in January.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Popular discussions of the future often focus on the way (31) ________ will affect our lives – cars that drive
themselves, computerized (32) ________that think like humans and vacations on the moon. Some of these (33)
________may sound like absolute fantasy. However, if the developments of recent years are any indication,
such predictions are probably not fancy at all. Only a few decades ago, most of us thought (34)
________shopping, computerized body parts and virtual reality games were science (35) ________. Now, these
things are here.
31. A. technology B. economy C. politics D. mathematics
32. A. programs B. softwares C. robots D. pets
33. A. events B. facts C. opinions D. predictions
34. A. window B. electronic C. virtual D. actual
35. A. achievements B. developments C. fiction D. progress
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years. Never
before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all of the Internet’s
advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for
creative solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous
security concerns, the most crucial is speed.

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First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet.
In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet doubles.
The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to keep
up with the demand. Also, sometimes a request for information must pass through many routing computers
before the information can be obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have to go through
computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the required information. Consequently,
service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be worse when the Internet is busiest – during the
business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way to avoid this problem. In
1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known as Internet II.
Internet II is a smaller, more specialized, fewer users are allowed access. Consequently, the time required to
receive information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are creating their
own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company. In theory,
fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large national and international
companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount of
security. Since only company employees have access to the information on the Intranet, their information is
protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that the Internet will eventually be a fast, reliable service,
industry and the academic community have taken their own steps toward making more practical global
networks.
36. According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
C. Most people don’t have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
D. Scientists take up so much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.
37. The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to “_______”.
A. understand B. acquire C. distribute D. purchase
38. The word “harness” is closest in meaning to “_______”.
A. utilize B. disguise C. steal D. block
39. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. Fewer academic communities need to create their own internet systems.
B. The technology used by internet creators is too complex for computer owners to understand.
C. An Internet system with fewer users would be quicker.
D. Companies who develop their own intranets are limiting their information data base.
40. All of the following are advantages of business “Intranets” mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _______.
A. they provide a higher level of security
B. they share information with other company
C. Intranets are very useful for large national and international companies whose branches need to share
information
D. they move data faster
TEST 7
I. Choose the option which has OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word(s) .
1. We'd better speed up if we want to get to the concert in time
A. put down B. lie down C. slow down D. turn down
2. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.
A. fluctuate B. restrain C. stay unchanged D. remain unstable
II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Many people believe that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in schools. However, the
link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many cases, television actually
encourages people to read for example, when a book is turned into a TV series, its sales often go up.
One study of this link examined six-year-old children who were viewing a special series of 15-minute

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programmes at school. The series was designed to encourage the love of books, as well as to develop the
basic mechanical skills of reading. Each programme is an animated film of a children's book. The story is read
aloud while certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen, beneath the picture. Whenever a word is
read, it is also highlighted on the TV screen.
One finding was that watching these programmes was very important to the children. If anything prevented
them from seeing a programme, they were very disappointed. What's more, they wanted to read the books
which the different parts of the series were based on.
The programmes also gave the children more confidence when looking these books. As a result of their
familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to each other. On each occasion,
the children showed great sympathy when discussing a character in a book because they themselves had been
moved when watching the character on TV.

3. What is the main idea of the book?

A. The simple link between television and books.
B. The ways of children reading books and watching TV.
C. The advantage of books over television.
D. The influence of television on reading books.
4. When does television encourage people to read ?
A. When children are watching an animated film on TV.
B. When a book is made into a TV series .
C. When there are no interesting programs on TV.
D. When a book appears on the screen.
5. How did children feel when viewing a special series of 15-minute program at school?
A. They felt bored. B. They felt confident. C. They felt disappointed. D. They felt excited.
6. What kind of film is each program?
A. An educational film.
B. A story film of a children's book.
C. An animated film of a children's book.
D. A documentary film of children's life.
7. What advantage did children have from this program?
A. They became more sympathetic.
B. They made more friends.
C. They read books with more interest and confidence.
D. They became more interested in watching TV.
III. Read the passage and choose correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
BOOKS
Nearly all the discoveries that have been (8)_______ through the ages can be found in books. The invention of
the book is one of humankind's (9)_______ achievements, the importance of (10)_______ cannot be
overestimated. Books are very adaptable, (11)_______ us with both entertainment and information. The
production of books (12)_______ in Ancient Egypt, though not in a form that is recognised to us today. The
books read by the Romans, however, have some similarities to the ones we read now. Until the middle of the
15th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They were often beautifully illustrated and always rare
and expensive. With printing came the possibility of cheap, larze-scale publication and distribution of books,
making knowledge more widespread and accessible.
8. A. done B. made C. achieved D. attained
9. A. giant B. greatest C. huge D. largest
10. A. that B. who's C. whose D. which
11. A. giving B. meeting C. offering D. providing
12. A. began B. set C. arose D. carried out
IV. Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
13. A. threatened B. endangered C. advanced D. recovered
14. A. human B. survive C. introduce D. attitude
V. Choose the option that has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word in each of the following
questions.
15. In 1989, a ban was given on all international trade in ivory.

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A. prohibition B. contamination C. action D. destruction

16. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing B. polluting C. destroying D. damaging
VI. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentence.
17. Susan ___ hear the speaker because the crowd was cheering so loudly.
A. couldn't B. needn't C. mustn't D. can't
18. My children ________ interested in kangaroos lately.
A. become B. will become C. have become D. were becoming
19. I've warned you many times ______the front door unlocked.
A. not leaving B. don't leave C. won't leave D. not to leave
20. Chemical wastes from factories are _______ that cause serious damage to species habitats.
A. polluters B. pollutants C. pollutions D. pollutes
21. Not many people find reading more ____ than watching TV.
A. interesting B. interestingly C. interested D. interest
22. People enjoy a book ________ different ways.
A. on B. in C. with D. upon
23. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to
protect endangered and other threatened species.
A. Ø B. a C. the D. an
24. The world's biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes wildlife _______
A. prosperous B. vulnerable C. remained D. prefect
25. When a reader reads an interesting book slowly and carefully, he ____ it
A. chews and digests B. reviews C. dips into D. swallows
26. I have nearly finished reading the book. There are only a few ______ left.
A. slices B. pages C. sheets D. pieces
27. _______ is the protection of environment and natural resources.
A. Extinction B. Survival C. Conservation D. Commerce
28. The house has______ after the fire.
A. to be rebuilt B. rebuild C. rebuilt D. be to rebuilt
29. This book ________ to Peter. It is not mine.
A. owns B. belongs C. possesses D. has
30. Pat: "Would you like something to eat?"
Kathy: "______. I'm not hungry now."
A. No, thanks B. No, no problem C. Yes, it is D. Yes, I would
31. Laura: "What a lovely house you have!" Mary: "………………."
A. Thanks. I think so. B. No problem .
C. Thank you. Hope you will drop in. D. Of course not, It's not costly

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
32. One of the best ways to encourage your children to read are to provide interesting titles for them to enjoy.
A B C D
33. Disease, pollute, and limited distribution are factors that threaten various plant and animal species.
A B C D
34. The boy which was given first prize in the contest was very happy.
A B C D
35. In 2030, how we will provide for the food, land, and energy needs of a global population of over 8 billion?
A B C D
VIII. Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions/ sentences.
36. If I were you, I would take the train instead of the bus.
A. I advise you to take the bus.
B. You should take the train instead of the bus
C. You should have taken the train instead of the bus.
D. You must have taken the train instead of the bus.

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 Bộ đề ôn thi giữa học kì II lớp 12

37. I started working here in 2000.

A. I have started work here since 2000.
B. I have started working here since 2000.
C. I haven't worked here since 2000.
D. I have worked here since 2000.
38. "Why don't we go out for dinner tonight?" said Jim.
A. Jim denied going out for dinner that night.
B. Jim promised to go out for dinner that night.
C. Jim suggested going out for dinner that night.
D. Jim refused to go out for dinner that night.
IX. Choose the option that has different stress position from the others.
39. A. development B. ability C. agriculture D. contaminate
40. A. government B. benefit C. agency D. diversity
The end

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 Bộ đề ôn thi giữa học kì II lớp 12

Đáp án mã đề: 150

01. C; 02. C; 03. D; 04. B; 05. D; 06. C; 07. C; 08. B; 09. B; 10. D; 11. D; 12. A; 13. C; 14. B; 15. A;
16. A; 17. A; 18. C; 19. D; 20. B; 21. A; 22. B; 23. D; 24. B; 25. A; 26. B; 27. C; 28. A; 29. B; 30. A;
31. C; 32. C; 33. A; 34. A; 35. B; 36. B; 37. D; 38. C; 39. C; 40. D;

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