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PREBOARD 1 EXAMINATION
CLUSTER 2 - IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION
December 2022 Philippine Radiologic Licensure Examination Review

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Difference/s between direct film exposure and
8. If lesser light is transmitted through an image, the
1. This test questionnaire
screen- containsinclude/s:
film exposure 100 test questions radiograph is said to have .
2. Shade onlyA.one (1) boxdose
radiation for each question
is higher in on yourfilm
direct answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalid your answer.
A. low contrast
3. AVOID ERASURES.
exposure than in film-screen exposure
B. low density
4. Detach oneB. (1) answer sheet
film-screen from theresults
exposure bottominofayour Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set. C. high contrast
higher
5. Write the subject title “CLUSTER
contrast than direct 2”filmonexposure
the box provided. D. high density
C. both A and B
9. Assuring a good film-screen contact also assures
D. neither A and B
reduced
2. What is the relationship between spatial
A. Contrast levels
resolution and crystal size in the film?
B. Geometric unsharpness
A. Directly proportional
C. Absorption unsharpness
B. Inversely proportional
D. Material unsharpness
C. Directly squared
10. Activators are added into the phosphor layer of the
D. Inversely squared
intensifying screens to change the shape and increase
3. What information, located on each box of film, is
the intensity of light emission by the phosphors.
important to note and has a direct relationship
Which of the following activators are used in calcium
to image quality?
tungstate screens?
A. Number of films in the box
A. Silver
B. Manufacture's name
B. Europium
C. Expiration date
C. Lead
D. Emulsion lot
D. Terbium
4. Incorporation of a lead foil backing in a cardboard
11. The safety of the safelight should be determined for
film holder results to which of the following?
a period of time that exceeds typical safelight
A. Reduction of remnant radiation
exposure time, usually how many minutes?
B. Increment of scatter radiation
A. 3 minutes
C. Decrease amount of backscatter
B. 5 minutes
D. Reduce fog on the exposed film
C. 7 minutes
5. Property of a screen phosphor described as the
D. 10 minutes
ability to absorb radiation.
12. The radiographic accessory used to measure the
A. Conversion Efficiency
thickness of body parts in order to determine optimal
B. Spectral Matching
selection of exposure factors is the .
C. Detective Quantum Efficiency
A. fulcrum
D. Phosphorescence
B. caliper
6. The gelatin used in the film emulsion is obtained
C. densitometer
from which of the following?
D. ruler
A. protein
13. Due to improper darkroom design and layout,
B. cattle skins
chemical fumes were condensed onto work surfaces
C. cellulose acetate
onto the darkroom. It resulted to the condensation of
D. none of the above
opened cassettes and created an artifact. Which of
7. What is evident on radiographs from chemicals
the following must be done to correct the problem?
that have lost their potency?
A. Periodically wipe the areas of condensation with
A. Increased film fog, contrast and density.
a damp cloth
B. Decreased film fog, contrast and density.
B. Store the chemicals in a closer to the opened
C. Increased film fog and decreased contrast
cassettes and films
and density.
C. Pre-order a new batch of intensifying screens
D. Decreased film fog and increased contrast
for replacement
and density.
D. Increase the temperature inside the darkroom
to burn out the chemical fumes

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14. How can one prevent a Moiré artifact from a 22. What is the average diameter of the silver halide in
processed radiograph? the emulsion?
A. Through of storing films vertically A. 1-1.5 microns
B. From an improper use of a stationary grid B. 2.5-3 microns
C. By instructing the patient to properly stay C. 2-2.5 microns
in place for the duration of the examination D. 1-2.0 microns
D. By avoiding the placement of a 23. The developing time for screen-type film at 72°F
stationary cassette in a Bucky should be how many minutes?
15. What would be the recommended height of the A. 3 minutes
safelight from the working bench? B. 4 minutes
A. 100 cm C. 5 minutes
B. 130 cm D. 6 minutes
C. 150 cm 24. If a radiographer improper clears the developing
D. 165 cm radiograph, what would be its result?
16. There has been an oversupply of 11x14 size film A. The remaining silver bromide will darken on
boxes that has been kept for longer than a year. exposure to light.
When used, the stored films that has been processed B. Bleaching of the image
and has appeared to be foggy. Which of the C. The metallic silver will continue to darken.
following may have caused this problem? D. None of the above
A. Films has been stored in a horizontal orientation 25. Which of the following statements best describes the
B. The storage bin has been expose to direct replenishment system of an automatic processor?
white light A. Adds fresh developer, fixer, and water each
C. Storage temperature was down up to 10- time a film is fed into the processor
degree Celsius B. Adds fresh developer and fixer each time a film
D. Films aged and may have exceeded is fed into the developer
their expiration date C. Adds fresh developer as film is being fed into
17. Which of the following technical changes would best
the processor
serve to remedy the effect of very dissimilar tissue D. Maintains solution strength and temperature as
densities? film is fed into the processor
A. Use of a small focal spot 26. To ensure maximum reaction of the chemical
B. Use of a high-ratio grid solution, manual processing starts by mixing first the
C. High-kilovoltage exposure factors developer and fixer solutions. However, what can be
D. High milliampere-seconds exposure factors said when using an automatic processor?
18. The exposure factors used for a particular non-grid
A. Mixing of the replenishment solution using
x-ray image were 300 mA, 4 ms, and 90 kV. paddles
Another image, using an 8:1 grid, is requested. B. Continuous rotation of the rollers is due to the
Which of the following groups of factors is most transport system
appropriate? C. Lifting of the processor lid after processing
A. 400mA, 3 ms, 110 kV D. The rollers and gears must always be in proper
B. 400 mA, 12 ms, 90 kv alignment
C. 300 mA, 8 ms, 100 kV 27. The amount of replenished solution added into the
D. 200 mA, 240 ms, 90 kV automatic processor is related to which of the
19. Foreshortening can be caused by which of following?
the following? A. The temperature of the solution
A. The radiographic object being placed at B. The length of the sheet film
an angle to the IR C. The density desired
B. Excessive distance between the object and D. None of the above
the IR 28. Which of the following sequestering agents are
C. Insufficient distance between the focus and utilized to remove impurities from a developer
the IR solution?
D. Excessive distance between the focus and A. Carboxylic Acid
the IR B. Dialdehyde
20. When the darkroom is located adjacent to the
C. Edetate
radiographic room, radiation protection must be D. Benzothiazole
employed. In doing so, what would be the correct 29. The total thickness of a typical intensifying screen is
thickness of shielding allowed within darkroom mils.
walls? A. 18
A. 1/16 inches lead
B. 10
B. 1/12 inches lead
C. 15
C. 1/10 inches concrete
D. 20
D. 1/5 inches concrete
30. Rollers for film transportation can also be found
21. These are special viewing screens made from zinc
within the drying chamber of the automatic processor.
cadmium sulfide. What type of material is employed for the dryer
A. Fluorescence screen rollers?
B. X-ray sensitive phosphor A. Polyester material
C. Image intensifier B. Rubberized plastic
D. Intensifying screen C. Phenolic resin
D. Plastic material

2 | Page
31. Which of the following chemical agents would enable
the enhancement of the action of the developing
agent by controlling the concentration of hydrogen
ions or the pH level?
A. Sodium carbonate
B. Potassium bromide
C. Chelates
D. Potassium sulfite
32. Temperature variations in older models of automatic
processors are often related to changes in which of
the following variables?
A. Temperature of the dryer section
B. Incoming water supply
C. Replenisher rate
D. Film transportation rate
33. Which of the following is the function of fixer
solution hardener?
A. Neutralize any alkaline developer
B. Dissolve the other ingredients and assist the
fixing agent to diffuse into the emulsion layer
of the film
C. Maintain the desired pH
D. Shortens the drying time by essentially
preventing the film from becoming waterlogged.
34. If the film has been in the fixer for an excessive
length of time, what should be done after?
A. It must be returned and agitated at
the developer tank
B. Washing time should be extended
C. The film must be dried in 150 degree
F temperature
D. It is for repeat
35. What would be the resultant image if a Towne’s
method procedure was done with a focused grid?
A. Equal light density across the image
B. Normal image on one side, light on the other
C. Light image on the edges, dark image at center
D. Dark image on the edges, light image at center
36. Development temperature in an automatic processor
should be checked .
A. Once daily
B. Weekly
C. Periodically throughout the working period
D. When something goes wrong
37. What type of grid contains the greatest amount of
lead and is most efficient in absorbing radiation?
A. Low ratio, low frequency
B. Low ratio, high frequency
C. High ratio, low frequency
D. High ratio, high frequency
38. Which of the following situations below would be
able to allow good storage of films?
A. Intern Jolina developed the films using
the proper temperature solution
B. Jamila maintained correct humidity inside
the storage room by installing a
psychrometer
C. Dianne made sure that the boxes of films
are standing on end
D. All of the situations above are included
39. In manual processing technique, wherein a large
volume of film is processed, why is it desirable to
use an acid short stop solution?
A. To prolong the life of the fixer
B. To shorten fixing time
C. To shorten clearing time
D. To preserve the developer
40. What is the single most critical aspect when mixing
chemicals?
A. stirring solutions
B. following instructions exactly
C. correct temperature
D. a supply of fresh water
41. Which of the following silver recovery methods is
hazardous due to the production of fumes produced
by the process?
A. Metallic replacement
B. Chemical precipitation
C. Resin
D. Electrolytic
42. An H&D curve demonstrating a steep curve
represents film with .
A. High density
B. Low density
C. High contrast
D. Low contrast
43. When is the best time to process sensitometric films?
A. Morning, after the processor is warmed up
B. Late morning or midday, after peak-demand
period
C. Late afternoon, during the lowest-demand
period
D. Evening, during the lowest-demand period
44. When an automatic processor is started up at the
beginning of the day, or restarted after an extended
standby period, the technologist should process which
of the following below?
A. Unexposed, undeveloped 14 × 17-in film
B. Exposed and developed 14 × 17-in film
C. Unexposed and developed 14 × 17-in film
D. Unexposed or unexposed and developed 14 ×
17-in film
45. Which of the following technique chart is used to
produce a short scale of contrast?
A. High kVp technique
B. Fixed kVp and variable mAs
C. Variable kVp and fixed mAs
D. None of the choices
46. Xero radiography is used primarily
A. Angiography
B. Urography
C. Osteology
D. Mammography
47. The number of electrons emitted by the anode is
primarily dependent upon
A. The heat of the filament
B. The size of the target
C. The voltage applied to the tube
D. None of the above
48. Which of the following conditions would require a
decrease in the normal exposure factors to penetrate
the part properly?
A. Pneumoconiosis
B. Advanced carcinoma
C. Atelectasis
D. Atrophy
49. Which of the following is most likely to occur as a
result of using a 30-in. SID with a 14 x 17 in. IR to
radiograph a fairly homogeneous structure?
A. Production of quantum mottle
B. Density variation between opposite ends of the
IR
C. Production of scatter radiation fog
D. Excessively short-scale contrast
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50. What should be done to minimize grid cut-off when
using a focused grid?
A. Use it at the correct tube side
B. Use it at the specified distance
C. Use it at the recommended kVp
D. Do not use a focused grid
51. A brown "lacy" artifact is the result of what?
A. Algae scum on the film from the wash tank.
B. Foreign matter lodged in a roller.
C. Temperature in the dryer too high
D. Chemical residue accumulation in the
hanger clips.
52. Which of the following situations would result to a
reticulation artifact?
A. Light leaks in a darkroom
B. Excessive chemical fog
C. Variable chemical temperatures
D. Wet gelatin from the films
53. Which of the following statements concerning air gap
technique is INCORRECT?
A. The use of an air gap between the patient
and the detector will prevent the formation of
scatter radiation.
B. When the air-gap technique is used, the image
receptor is moved 10 to 15 cm from the
patient
C. When an air-gap technique is used, the mAs
is increased approximately 10% for every
centimeter of air gap.
D. The technique factors used in air gap
technique usually are about the same as those
for an 8:1 grid.
54. Given an original technique of 30 mAs and 80 kVp,
which of the following would produce a radiograph
with double the density?
A. 60 mAs, 90 kVp
B. 30 mAs, 92 kVp
C. 15 mAs, 80 kVp
D. 30 mAs, 70 kVp
55. If an exposure time of 60 seconds was necessary
using a 1.2m (4 ft.) source-to-film distance for a
particular exposure, what time would be necessary
if a 0.6m (2 ft.) source-to-film distance is used and
all other variables remain the same?
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 45 seconds
56. What is a common problem of drip-drying films?
A. Possibility of water spots or other
drying streaks.
B. The image will eventually discolor and fade.
C. Exhausted processing chemicals.
D. Increased film fog
57. Black crescent marks are placed on the film
exposure.
A. Before
B. After
C. During
D. None of the above
58. A skull is normally radiographed using 300 mA, 1/10
sec and 65 kvp. What new mAs would be used to
produce a similar radiograph at 94kvp?
A. 3.75 mAs
B. 5.0 mAs
C. 7.5 mAs
D. 10.0 mAs
59. Which effect would be reducing FFD have?
A. the number of x-rays reaching the film increases
B. the number of x-rays reaching the film
decreases
C. the number of x-rays reaching the film doesn't
change
D. the number of x-rays reaching the film are
secondary
60. How is a radiographic image affected when the
radiation beam is restricted to the area under
examination only?
A. Improved recorded detail and increased
radiographic density
B. Improved recorded detail and increased
radiographic contrast
C. Reduction in part magnification and increased
radiographic density
D. Reduction in part magnification and increased
radiographic contrast
61. Which of the following statements regarding filtration
is TRUE?
A. A double wedge filter can be used for the
radiography of the feet.
B. Using a filter material allows hard beam to pass
through resulting in an increased patient dose
C. Conic filters are commonly used for digital
fluoroscopy
D. Thoreaus filter is a type of a compensating
filter.
62. What is the thickness of the emulsion layer in inch?
A. 0.08
B. 0.0001
C. 1.0
D. 0.0008
63. In what instance is it necessary to use a radiographic
grid?
A. When the kVp to be used is 55kVp and below
B. When the part thickness is measured as 15cm
C. When the radiologist requested for a quality
radiograph
D. When the request is for extremity
64. Which of the following best describes a grid
cassette?
A. A cassette without a lead back
B. A cassette with a grid built into the front
C. A cassette with a grid built into the back
D. A cassette with a slight curvature toward the
front
65. Decreasing field size from 14 x17 inches to 8 x 10
inches, with no other changes, will do which of the
following?
A. Decreased amount of scattered radiation
generated
B. Increased the amount of scattered radiation
generated
C. Increased x-ray penetration of the part
D. Decreased x-ray penetration of the part
66. When the use of grids is indicated in mammography,
which of the following would be most appropriate?
A. 12:1 stationary grid
B. 12:1 moving grid
C. 5:1 stationary grid
D. 5:1 moving grid
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67. Student radiographer Jhorn wanted to know what
kind of grid is being used in the department.
However, due to its everyday use, the equipment’s
specification was blurred out from the tube side
leaving only information of lead strips 0.66 mm
apart and 4 mm high. From the information above,
Jhorn knew that the grid used was .
I. High scatter clean up
II. Low scatter clean up
III.6:1 grid ratio
IV. 12:1 grid ratio
A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
68. When radiographing the abdomen, which of the
following would decrease the production of
scattered radiation?
A. Use of the high-speed screens
B. Use of a small focal spot
C. Increase kilovoltage
D. Proper collimation
69. Of the following sets of exposure factors, which one
will produce a radiograph with the greatest
radiographic density?
A. 70 kVp, 100 mA, 1/10 sec, 40” SID
B. 70 kVp, 200 mA, 1/10 sec, 40”SID
C. 70 kVp, 300 mA, 1/20 sec, 40” SID
D. 70 kVp, 400 mA, 1/30 sec, 30” SID
70. If the distance between the x-ray tube and the
image receptor is increased from 40 to 80 inches,
what specific effect will it have on the
radiographic density, if other factors are not
changed?
A. Increase density to 50%
B. Decrease density to 25%
C. No effect on density
D. Decrease density to 50%
71. Of the following sets of exposure factors, which one
will produce a radiograph with the greatest
radiographic density?
A. 75 kVp, 10 mAs, 40” SID, detail screens
B. 80 kVp, 10 mAs, 40”SID, detail screens
C. 75 kVp, 20 mAs, 40” SID, high speed screens
D. 80 kVp, 15 mAs, 40” SID, par screens
72. Which of the following does NOT refer to average
gradient?
A. Gravity of the curve
B. Film contrast
C. Slope of the curve
D. Film latitude
73. Comparing two films with the kV and mAs constant,
one taken at 40 FFD and the other at 72 FFD, which
of the following would occur?
A. Decreased density of the 40; increased
image size of 72
B. Decreased density of the 72; decreased
image size of 40
C. Increased density of 40; decreased image
size of 72
D. Increased density of 72; increased image size
of 40
74. Which of the following groups of exposure factors
would be most appropriate to control in voluntary
motion?
A. 400 mA, 0.03 second
B. 200 mA, 0.06 second
C. 600 mA, 0.02 second
D. 100 mA, 0.12 second
75. A grid is constructed with 4.0 mm high, 0.2 mm
thickness grid strips and 0.8 mm thickness of the
interspace material. If 20 mAs is used on the first
exposure, and an 8:1 grid is employed on the next
exposure what would be the change in mAs?
A. 5 mAs
B. 10 mAs
C. 20 mAs
D. 30 mAs
76. How does increase in OID increases the contrast?
A. Lesser primary radiation will reach the film
B. Will permit greater primary radiation reaching
the film than secondary radiation
C. Will allow high energy to pass through the
patient
D. Lesser scatter radiation will reach the film
77. Which of the following groups of exposure factors
will produce the shortest scale of contrast?
A. 200 mA, 0.08 second, 95 kV, 12:1 grid
B. 500 mA, 0.03 second, 70 kV, 8:1 grid
C. 300 mA, 0.05 second, 95 kV, 8:1 grid
D. 600 mA, 1/40 seconds, 70 kV, 6:1 grid
78. When long wavelength rays interact with thin body
parts, the result is a .
A. Long scale contrast
B. Decreased definition
C. Short scale contrast
D. High scatter definition
79. Which of the following groups of exposure factors
will produce the longest scale of contrast?
A. 200 mA, 1/20 second 70 kVp, 12:1 grid
B. 500 mA, 0.02 sec, 80 kVp, 15, 6:1 grid
C. 300 mA, 30 msec, 90 kV, 8:1 grid
D. 600 mA, 15 msec, 70 kV, 8:1 grid
80. Which of the following statements below regarding
short scale contrast is INCORRECT?
A. A short scale contrast can be made by using a
low kvp technique
B. A short scale contrast is a high degree of
contrast
C. Using a short scale contrast will decrease
patient dose
D. A triangular object will produce a high contrast
81. What is the relationship between developer
temperature and contrast?
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Directly squared
D. Inversely squared
82. If your radiographer asked you to change the
technical factors of 100ma at 1/2 sec to 200ma at 1/4
sec for an abdominal x-ray procedure, what do you
think would be the resultant image of this
examination?
A. It will demonstrate its true image size
B. There would be a lost in its definition
C. Increased of overall density for the film
D. There is a loss of radiographic contrast
83. Starting with the technique listed below, which of
the following changes would NOT double the
radiographic density? 200 mA, 1 sec, 60 kV, par-
speed screens, 40-in FFD, 1 mm focal spot.
A. Increase the kV to 70
B. Change to high speed screens
C. Increase the focal spot size to 2 mm
D. Adjust the mas to 400
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84. An exposure was made at a 36-in. SID using 12 mAs
and 75 kVp with a 400-speed imaging system and an
8:1 grid. A second radiograph is requested with
improved recorded detail. Which of the following
groups of technical factors will best accomplish this
task?
A. 15 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 400-speed
system, 36-in. SID
B. 15 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 400-speed
system, 40-in. SID
C. 30 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 200-speed
system, 40-in. SID
D. 12 mAs, 8:1 grid, 86 kVp, 200-speed
system, 36-in. SID
85. To maintain the sharpest definition on an abdominal
radiograph of a geriatric patient, it would be best to
change a technique of 100ma, 1/2 sec to .
A. 200 ma at 1/4 sec
B. Leave ma at 100, increase kv approximately 30
C. The highest ma value and fastest
exposure time, but maintaining 50 mas
D. The fastest exposure time possible and
highest ma available
86. SID affects recorded detail in which of the following
ways?
A. Recorded detail is directly related to SID
B. Recorded detail is inversely related to SID
C. As SID increases, recorded detail decreases
D. SID is not a detail factor
87. Given a focal spot size of 1.5 mm, an OID of 30 cm
and SID of 90 cm, what will the spread of
penumbra or unsharpness measure?
A. 1 mm
B. 0.5 mm
C. 0.1 mm
D. 0.75 mm
88. If the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely
proportional to the square of the distance, when
the distance from a point source of radiation is
tripled, the intensity would .
A. Increases by a factor of 3 at the new distance
B. Increases by a factor of 9 at the new distance
C. Decreases by a factor of 3 at the new distance
D. Decreases by a factor of 9 at the new distance
89. Which of the following projections is most likely to
decrease recorded detail?
A. Supine AP cervical spine
B. Erect sitting AP cervical spine
C. Erect standing AP cervical spine
D. Erect standing PA cervical spine
90. An x-ray image of the ankle was made at 40-SID,
200mA, 50 ms, 70 kV, 0.6 mm focal spot, and
minimal OID. Which of the following modifications
would result in the greatest increase in
magnification?
A. 1.2 mm focal spot
B. 36-in. SID
C. 44-in. SID
D. 4-in OID
91. Which of the following statements below regarding a
radiographic cassette is TRUE?
A. A latch is an operating lever which can be
found at the tube side of a cassette
B. Thermosetting plastics are used to
form outsides of the cassette
C. Magnesium allows absorption of
backscattered radiation
D. Lead blocker is in the back side of the cassette
92. Which of the following substances possess the ability
to convert x-ray energy to a visible light?
A. Prism
B. Potassium Bromide
C. Lanthanum Oxybromide
D. Silver Bromide
93. Why are high atomic number phosphors desirable for
intensifying screens?
A. They promote more interactions with incident x-
ray photons
B. They are more durable
C. They recapture more light photons for re-
emission
D. They reduce the amount of characteristic
radiation emitted
94. As the thickness of the body part to be radiographed
increases, which of the following should likewise be
increased?
A. Filtration
B. mAs
C. kVp
D. Collimation
95. The salt and pepper appearance of a radiographic
image is caused by which of the following?
A. Too many photons interacting the screen
B. Too many photons interacting the film
C. Few photons interacting the film
D. Few photons interacting the screen
96. About what percentage of radiographic density is
due to light emitted by an intensifying screen’s
phosphors?
A. 5-8%
B. 10-15%
C. 45-60%
D. 95-98%
97. Which of the following is expected when an increase
in intensifying screen fluorescent layer was made?
A. Film resolution and speed both increases
B. Film resolution and speed both decreases
C. Film resolution would increase with a decrease
in the film speed
D. Film resolution would decrease with an increase
in film speed
98. Which of the following is most appropriate if a
particular radiograph having an optical density of
greater than 2 must be viewed?
A. It should not be viewed anymore, it must be
repeated
B. It can be viewed under the fluorescent light
within the ceiling
C. It must be viewed with the use of a hot light
D. It can be viewed by using the ordinary view box
99. Which of the following is most helpful in producing a
good quality A-P full spine x-ray?
A. having the anode toward the cervical spine
B. having the cathode toward the cervical spine
C. decreasing the focal film distance to 40
D. increasing the exposure time and OFD
100. Which of the following radiographic examinations
would usually require a high-kilovoltage technique?
I. Lateral lumbar spine examination
II. Upper gastrointestinal series using barium
sulfate
III. A chest PA examination
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
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