SHIPMAN: PHYSICAL SCIENCE TEST BANK

CHAPTER 1: MEASUREMENTS
1. Which is the most fundamental of the physical sciences? (c) 0.09914
(a) astronomy (d) 5.048 3 105
(b) chemistry 14. Write the following quantities in standard units.
(c) physics (a) 0.55 Ms
(d) meteorology
(b) 2.8 km
2. Which one of the following is a concise statement about
a fundamental relationship in nature?
(c) 12 mg
(a) hypothesis (d) 100 cm
(b) law
(c) theory CHAPTER 2: MOTIONS
(d) experiment
3. Which human sense is first in supplying the most 1. What is necessary to designate a position? (2.1)
information about the external world?
(a) fundamental units
(a) touch
(b) taste (b) motion
(c) sight (c) a direction
(d) hearing (d) a reference point
4. Which is the standard unit of mass in the metric system? 2. Which one of the following describes an object in
(a) gram motion?
(b) kilogram (a) A period of time has passed.
(c) slug (b) Its position is known.
(d) pound (c) It is continuously changing position.
5. Which one of the following is not a fundamental
(d) It has reached its final position.
quantity?
(a) length
3. Which one of the following is always true about the
(b) weight magnitude of a displacement? (2.2)
(c) mass (a) It is greater than the distance traveled.
(d) time (b) It is equal to the distance traveled.
6. Which metric prefix means “one-thousandth”? (1.5) (c) It is less than the distance traveled.
(a) centi- (d) It is less than or equal to the distance
(b) milli- traveled.
(c) mega- 4. Distance is to displacement as ___.
(d) kilo-
(a) centimeters is to meters
7. Which metric prefix means “thousand”? (1.5)
(a) centi- (b) a vector is to a scalar
(b) milli- (c) speed is to velocity
(c) mega- (d) distance is to time
(d) kilo- 5. Acceleration may result from what? (2.3)
8. Which of the following metric prefixes is the smallest? (a) an increase in speed
(a) micro- (b) a decrease in speed
(b) centi- (c) a change in direction
(c) nano- (d) all of the preceding
(d) milli-
6. For a constant linear acceleration, what changes
9. How many base units are there in the SI? (1.5)
(a) four
uniformly? (2.3)
(b) five (a) acceleration
(c) six (b) velocity
(d) seven (c) distance
10. Which combination of units expresses density? (1.6) (d) displacement
(a) mass/(time)3 7. Which one of the following is true for a
(b) mass/(kg)3 deceleration? (2.3)
(c) mass/(length)3 (a) The velocity remains constant.
(d) mass/m2
(b) The acceleration is negative.
11. What is the expression 1 in. 5 2.54 cm properly called?
equation (c) The acceleration is in the direction opposite
(a) conversion factor to the velocity.
(b) SI factor (d) The acceleration is zero.
(c) equivalence statement 8. Which is true for an object in free fall? (2.3)
12. A student measures the length and width of a (a) It has frictional effects.
rectangle to be 49.4 cm and 0.590 cm, respectively. (b) It has a constant velocity.
Wanting to find the area (in cm2) of this rectangle, the (c) It has a constant displacement.
student multiplies on a calculator and obtains a result of (d) It increases in distance proportionally to t2.
2.9146. The area should be reported as ___. (1.7)
9. If the speed of an object in uniform circular motion
(a) 2914.6 cm2
(b) 2915 cm2
is tripled and the radial distance remains constant,
(c) 2.9 3 103 cm2 then the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration
(d) 2.91 3 102 cm2 increases by what factor? (2.4)
13. Which of the following numbers has the greatest (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9
number of significant figures? (1.6)
(a) 103.07
(b) 124.5
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10. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following (a) The two forces never produce an
is true for a ball thrown at an angle u to the acceleration.
horizontal? (2.5) (b) The two forces act on different objects.
(a) It has a constant velocity in the 1x direction. (c) The two forces always cancel each other.
(b) It has a constant acceleration in the 2y (d) The two forces are in the same direction.
direction. 9. Which is true about the acceleration due to
(c) It has a changing velocity in the 1y direction. gravity? (3.5)
(d) All of the preceding are true. (a) It is a universal constant.
11. In the absence of air resistance, a projectile (b) It is a fundamental property.
launched at an angle of 288 above the horizontal (c) It decreases with increasing altitude.
will have the same range as a projectile launched at (d) It is different for different objects in free fall.
which of the following angles? (2.5) 10. What is true about the constant G? (3.5)
(a) 45 degree (a) It is a very small quantity.
(b) 57 degree (b) It is a force.
(c) 62 degree (c) It is the same as g.
(d) 180 – 33 = 147 degree (d) It decreases with altitude.
12. A football is thrown on a long pass. Compared to 11. A child’s toy floats in a swimming pool. The
the ball’s initial horizontal velocity, the velocity at the buoyant force exerted on the toy depends on the
highest point is ___. (2.5) volume of ___.
(a) greater (a) water in the pool
(b) less (b) the pool
(c) the same (c) the water displaced
(d) the toy under water
CHAPTER 3: FORCE AND MOTION 12. If a submerged object displaces an amount of
liquid with a weight less than its own, when the
1. Mass is related to an object’s ___. (3.1) object is released, it will ___. (3.6)
(a) weight (a) sink
(b) inertia (b) remain submerged in equilibrium
(c) density (c) float
(d) all of the preceding (d) pop up out of the surface
2. What is a possible state of an object in the 13. If a submerged object displaces a volume of
absence of a net force? (3.2) liquid of greater weight than its own and is then
(a) at rest released, what will the object do?
(b) constant speed (a) sink
(c) zero acceleration (b) rise to the surface and float
(d) all of the preceding (c) remain at its submerged position
3. What term refers to the tendency of an object to 14. A change in linear momentum requires which of
remain at rest or in uniform, straight-line motion? (3.2) the following?
(a) mass (a) a change in velocity
(b) force (b) an unbalanced force
(c) inertia (c) an acceleration
(d) external force (d) all of these
4. What is necessary for a change in velocity? (3.3) 15. Angular momentum is conserved in the absence
(a) inertia of which of the
(b) an unbalanced force following? (3.7)
(c) a zero net force (a) inertia
(d) a change in direction (b) gravity
5. According to Newton’s second law of motion, (c) a net torque
when an object is acted upon by an unbalanced (d) linear momentum
force, what can be said about the acceleration?
(a) It is inversely proportional to the object’s CHAPTER 4: WORK AND ENERGY
mass.
(b) It is zero. 1. Work is done on an object when it is (4.1)
(c) It is inversely proportional to the net force. (a) moved
(d) It is independent of mass. (b) stationary
6. A net force ___. (c) acted on by a balanced force
(a) can produce motion (d) none of the preceding
(b) is a scalar quantity 2. Which of the following is a unit of work? (4.1)
(c) is capable of producing a change in velocity (a) W
(d) both (a) and (c) (b) J ? s
7. For every action force, there is which of the (c) N/s
following? (3.4) (d) N ? m
(a) a net force 3. What is the SI unit of energy? (4.2)
(b) a friction force (a) ft ? lb
(c) an unbalanced force (b) newton
(d) an equal and opposite force (c) watt
8. Which is true of the force pair of Newton’s third (d) joule
law? (3.4)
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4. Which of the following objects has the greatest (d) tidal power
kinetic energy?
(a) an object with a mass of 4m and a velocity CHAPTER 5: TEMPERATURE AND HEAT
of v
(b) an object with a mass of 3m and a velocity 1. Temperature is ____ . (5.1)
of 2v (a) a measure of heat
(c) an object with a mass of 2m and a velocity (b) a relative measure of hotness and coldness
of 3v (c) internal energy in transit
(d) an object with a mass of m and a velocity of (d) both (b) and (c)
4v 2. Which unit of the following is smaller? (5.2)
5. When negative work is done on a moving object, (a) a degree Fahrenheit
its kinetic energy (4.2) (b) a kelvin
(a) increases (c) a degree Celsius
(b) decreases 3. Which of the following is the largest unit of heat
(c) remains constant energy? (5.2)
6. The reference point for gravitational potential (a) kilocalorie
energy may be which of the following? (4.2) (b) calorie
(a) zero (c) joule
(b) negative (d) Btu
(c) positive 4. The specific heat of substance A is 10 times that of
(d) all of the preceding substance B. If equal amounts of heat are added to
7. When the height of an object is changed, the equal masses of the substances, then the
gravitational potential 0energy (4.2) temperature increase of substance A would be ____.
(a) increases (a) the same as that of B
(b) decreases (b) 10 times that of B
(c) depends on the reference point (c) one-tenth that of B
(d) remains constant (d) none of the preceding
8. Energy cannot be ___ . 5. Which of the following methods of heat transfer
(a) created generally involves mass movement? (5.4)
(b) conserved (a) conduction
(c) transferred (b) convection
(d) in more than one form (c) radiation
9. On which of the following does the speed of a 6. The heat we get from the Sun is transferred through
falling object depend? (4.3) space by which process? (5.4)
(a) mass (a) conduction
(b) "Dh (b) convection
(c) 12 mv2 (c) radiation
(d) parallel distance (d) all of the preceding
10. Power is expressed by which of the following 7. In which of the following is intermolecular bonding
units? (4.4) greatest?
(a) J/s (a) solids
(b) N ? m (b) liquids
(c) W ? s (c) gases
(d) W/m 8. Which of the following has a definite volume but
11. If one motor has three times as much power as no definite shape?
another, then the less powerful motor ___ . (4.4) (a) solid
(a) can do the same work in three times the time (b) liquid
(b) can do the same work in the same time (c) gas
(c) can do the same work in one-third the time (d) plasma
(d) can never do the same work as the larger 9. Pressure is defined as (5.6)
motor (a) force
12. In the United States, which one of the following (b) force times area
sectors consumes the most energy? (4.5) (c) area divided by force
(a) residential (d) force divided by area
(b) commercial 10. When we use the ideal gas law, the temperature
(c) industry must be in which of the following units? (5.6)
(d) transportation (a) 8C
13. Which one of the following would not be (b) 8F
classified as a total alternative fuel source? (4.6) (c) K
(a) photocells 11. When heat is added to a system, it goes into
(b) gasohol which of the following?
(c) windmills (a) doing work only
(d) wood (b) adding to the internal energy only
14. Which of the following renewable energy sources (c) doing work, increasing the internal energy, or
currently produces the most energy? both
(a) wind power 12. The direction of a natural process is indicated by
(b) solar power which of the following? (5.7)
(c) hydropower (a) conservation of energy
3
 (b) change in entropy 11. Which of the following properties does not
(c) thermal efficiency change in the Doppler effect?
(d) specific heat (a) wavelength
(b) speed
CHAPTER 6: WAVES AND SOUND (c) frequency
(d) period
1. A wave with particle oscillation parallel to the 812. If an astronomical light source were moving
direction of propagation is a(n) _____ . (6.2) toward us, then what would be observed? (6.5)
(a) transverse wave (a) a blueshift
(b) longitudinal wave (b) a shift toward longer wavelengths
(c) light wave (c) a shift toward lower frequencies
(d) none of the preceding (d) a sonic boom
2. If a piece of ribbon were tied to a stretched string 13. Which of the following occur(s) when a stretched
carrying a transverse wave, then how is the ribbon string is shaken at one of its natural frequencies? (6.6)
observed to oscillate? (a) standing waves
(a) perpendicular to wave direction (b) resonance
(b) parallel to wave direction (c) maximum energy transfer
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) all of the preceding
(d) both (a) and (b)
3. The energy of a wave is related to the square of CHAPTER 7: OPTICS AND WAVE
which of the following?
(a) amplitude EFFECTS
(b) frequency
1. For ray reflections from a surface, which statement
(c) wavelength
is true? (7.1)
(d) period
(a) The angle of reflection is equal to the angle
4. How fast do electromagnetic waves travel in
of incidence.
vacuum? (6.3)
(b) The reflection angle is measured from a line
(a) 3.00 3 108 m/s
perpendicular to the reflecting surface.
(b) 9.8 m/s2
(c) The rays lie in the same plane.
(c) 344 m/s
(d) All the preceding are true.
(d) 3.44 3 106 m/s
2. To what does the law of reflection apply? (7.1)
5. Which of the following is true for electromagnetic
(a) regular reflection
waves? (6.3)
(b) specular reflection
(a) They have different speeds in vacuum for
(c) diffuse reflection
different
(d) all the preceding
(b) frequencies.
3. What is the case when the angle of refraction is
(c) They are longitudinal waves.
smaller than the angle of incidence? (7.2)
(d) They require a medium for propagation.
(a) The critical angle is exceeded.
(e) None of the preceding is true.
(b) The first medium is less dense.
6. Which one of the following regions has frequencies
(c) The second medium has a smaller index of
just slightly less than the visible region in the
refraction.
electromagnetic frequency spectrum? (6.3)
(d) The speed of light is greater in the second
(a) radio wave
medium.
(b) ultraviolet
4. In refraction, which of the following wave
(c) microwave
properties is unchanged? (7.2)
(d) infrared
(a) frequency
7. The speed of sound is generally greatest in ____ .
(b) wavelength
(a) gases
(c) speed
(b) liquids
(d) both (a) and (b)
(c) solids
5. What is the unit of the index of refraction? (7.2)
(d) vacuum
(a) m
8. Which of the following sound frequencies would
(b) none; it is unitless
not be heard by the human ear? (6.4)
(c) m/s
(a) 25 Hz
(d) l/s
(b) 900 Hz
6. Which is true of a convex mirror? (7.3)
(c) 20 kHz
(a) It has a radius of curvature equal to f.
(d) 25 kHz
(b) It is a converging mirror.
9. A sound with an intensity level of 30 dB is how many
(c) It forms only virtual images.
times louder than the threshold of hearing? (6.4)
(d) It forms magnified and reduced images.
(a) 10
7. Which is true for a real image? (7.3)
(b) 3000
(a) It is always magnified.
(c) 100
(b) It is formed by converging light rays.
(d) 1000
(c) It is formed behind a mirror.
10. A moving observer approaches a stationary
(d) It occurs only for Di 5 Do.
sound source. What does the observer hear? (6.5)
8. Which of the following is true of a concave lens?
(a) an increase in frequency
(a) It is a converging lens.
(b) a decrease in frequency
(b) It is thicker at the center than at the edge.
(c) the same frequency as the source
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 (c) It is a lens that forms virtual images for Do . f.
(d) It is a lens that forms real images for Do , f.
9. Which is true of a virtual image? (7.4)
(a) It is always formed by a convex lens.
(b) It can be formed on a screen.
(c) It is formed on the object side of a lens.
(d) It cannot be formed by a concave lens.
10. What happens when the polarization directions
of two polarizing sheets are at an angle of 908 to
each other? (7.5)
(a) No light gets through.
(b) There is maximum transmission.
(c) Maximum transmission is reduced by 50%.
(d) None of the preceding.
11. Which is true of diffraction? (7.6)
(a) It occurs best when the slit width is less than
the wavelength of a wave.
(b) It depends on refraction.
(c) It is caused by interference.
(d) It does not occur for light.
12. When does total constructive interference
occur? (7.6)
(a) when waves are in phase
(b) at the same time as total destructive
interference
(c) when the waves are equal in amplitude and
are completely out of phase
(d) when total internal reflection occurs
CHAPTER 8: ELECTRICITY AND
MAGNETISM
1. What can be said about the electric force
between two charged particles?
(a) it is repulsive for unlike charges.
(b) it varies as 1/r.
(c) it depends only on the magnitudes of the
charges.
(d) it is much, much greater than the attractive
gravitational force.
2. Two equal positive charges are placed
equidistant on either side of another positive charge.
What would the middle positive charge experience?
(8.1)
(a) a net force to the right
(b) a net force to the left
(c) a zero net force
3. In a dc circuit, how do electrons move? (8.2)
(a) with a slow drift velocity.
(b) in alternate directions.
(c) near the speed of light.
(d) none of the preceding.
4. What is a unit of voltage? (8.2)
(a) joule
(b) joule/coulomb
(c) amp-coulomb
(d) amp/coulomb
5. In electrical terms, power has what units? (8.2)
(a) joule/coulomb
(b) amp/ohm
(c) amp-coulomb
(d) amp-volt
6. Appliances with heating elements require which of
the following? (8.3)
(a) a large current
(b) a large resistance
(c) a low joule heat
7. The greatest equivalent resistance occurs when
resistances are connected in which type of
arrangement? (8.3)
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series–parallel
8. Given three resistances, the greatest current
occurs in a battery circuit when the resistances are
connected in what type of arrangement? (8.3)
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series–parallel
9. When two bar magnets are near each other, the
north pole of one of the magnets experiences what
type of force from the other magnet? (8.4)
(a) an attractive force
(b) a repulsive force
(c) a Coulomb force
(d) both (a) and (b)
10. What is the variation in the location of the Earth’s
magnetic north pole from true north given by? (8.4)
(a) the law of poles
(b) the magnetic field
(c) magnetic domains
(d) the magnetic declination
11. What type of energy conversion does a motor
perform? (8.5)
(a) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy into chemical energy
12. What type of energy conversion does a
generator perform? (8.5)
(a) chemical energy into mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy into chemical energy
13. Which of the following is true of a step-up
transformer? (8.5)
(a) It has an equal number of windings on the
primary and secondary coils.
(b) It has fewer windings on the secondary coil.
(c) It has fewer windings on the primary coil.
(d) None of the preceding statements is true.
14. A transformer with more windings on the primary
coil than on the secondary coil does which of the
following? (8.4)
(a) Steps up the voltage.
(b) Steps up the current.
(c) Steps up both current and voltage.
(d) Will operate off dc current.
CHAPTER 9: ATOMIC PHYSICS
1. Who championed the idea of the atom about 400
BCE? (9.1)
(a) Aristotle
(b) Plato
(c) Democritus
(d) Archimedes
2. Which scientist is associated with the “plum
pudding model” of the atom? (9.1)
(a) Thomson
(b) Rutherford
(c) Bohr
(d) Dalton
3. Planck developed his quantum hypothesis to
explain which of these phenomena? (9.2)
5
 (a) the ultraviolet catastrophe (d) All these answers are correct.
(b) line spectra
(c) the photoelectric effect CHAPTER 10: NUCLEAR PHYSICS
(d) uncertainty
4. Light of which of the following colors has the 1. Which scientist devised the symbol notation we
greatest photon energy? (9.2) now use for elements? (10.1)
(a) red (a) Newton
(b) orange (b) Berzelius
(c) yellow (c) Dalton
(d) violet (d) Einstein
5. The Bohr theory was developed to explain which 2. What is the symbol notation for the element
of these phenomena? (9.3) potassium? (10.1)
(a) energy levels (a) P
(b) the photoelectric effect (b) Po
(c) line spectra (c) Pt
(d) quantum numbers (d) K
6. In which of the following states does a hydrogen 3. How many neutrons are in the nucleus of the atom
electron have the greatest energy? (9.3) 35/17Cl ? (10.2)
(a) n 5 1 (a) 35
(b) n 5 3 (b) 17
(c) n 5 5 (c) 18
(d) n 5 7.5 (d) 52
7. Bombarding a metal anode with high-energy 4. Is a nucleon
electrons produces which of the following? (9.4) (a) a proton,
(a) laser light (b) a neutron,
(b) X-rays (c) an electron, or
(c) microwaves (d) both a proton and a neutron?
(d) neutrons 5. Which radioactive decay mode does not result in
8. The “s” in the acronym laser stands for (9.4) a different nuclide? (10.3)
(a) simple (a) alpha
(b) specific (b) beta
(c) spontaneous (c) gamma
(d) stimulated (d) all the preceding
9. Which of the following does a laser do? 6. What is the missing particle in the nuclear decay
(a) amplifies light 179/79Au S 175/77Ir 1 ? (10.3)
(b) produces monochromatic light (a) deuteron
(c) produces coherent light (b) neutron
(d) all the preceding (c) beta particle
10. Limitations on measurements are described by (d) alpha particle
which of the following?(9.5) 7. The majority of stable isotopes belong to which
(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle category? (10.3)
(b) de Broglie’s hypothesis (a) odd–odd
(c) Schrödinger’s equation (b) even–even
(d) Einstein’s special theory of relativity (c) even–odd
11. Which of the following pairs of particle properties (d) odd–even
is it impossible to determine exactly and 8. Which of the following scientists discovered
simultaneously? (9.5) radioactivity? (10.3)
(a) charge and mass (a) Rutherford
(b) position and velocity (b) Heisenberg
(c) charge and position (c) Becquerel
(d) velocity and momentum (d) Pierre Curie
12. What scientist first hypothesized matter waves? 9. How many half-lives would it take for a sample of
(a) Schrödinger a radio-active isotope to decrease its activity to 1/32
(b) de Broglie of the original amount? (10.3)
(c) Heisenberg (a) 5
(d) Einstein (b) 16
13. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, how is the (c) 6
wavelength associated with a moving particle? (d) 32
(a) It is independent of mass. 10. Which of the following is not conserved in all
(b) It is longer the greater the speed of the nuclear reactions?
particle. (a) nucleons
(c) It easily shows diffraction effects. (b) mass number,
(d) None of the preceding. (c) atomic number
14. Why did the Bohr model need improvement? (d) neutron number
(a) It worked only for the hydrogen atom. 11. Which of the following completes the reaction
(b) It did not explain why the atom is quantized. 2/1H + 98/42Mo ---- ____ + 1/0n ? (10.4)
(c) It did not explain why an electron does not (a) 97/42Mo
emit radiation as it orbits. (b) 100/44Ru
6
 (c) 99/43Tc (d) aluminum
(d) 93/41Nb 7. What is the Group IIIA element in Period 2? (11.4)
12. What is the appropriate procedure to decrease (a) Mg
the heat output of a fission reactor core during a (b) Sc
crisis? (10.5) (c) B
(a) Insert the control rods farther. (d) Ga
(b) Remove fuel rods. 8. Which one of these elements has the greatest
(c) Increase the level of coolant. atomic size? (11.4)
(d) Decrease the amount of moderator. (a) lithium
13. What is a very hot gas of nuclei and electrons (b) fluorine
called? (10.6) (c) potassium
(a) tokomak (d) bromine
(b) laser 9. Which one of these elements has the greatest
(c) plasma metallic character?(11.4)
(d) ideal gas (a) nickel
14. Which unit is most closely associated with the (b) barium
biological effects of radiation? (10.7) (c) fluorine
(a) the curie (d) bromine
(b) the rem 10. Which of these is the preferred name for
(c) the becquerel Na2SO4? (11.5)
(d) the cpm (a) sodium sulfide
15. What is the theoretical exchange particle for the (b) disodium sulfide
nuclear weak force? (10.8) (c) disodium sulfate
(a) Z particle (d) sodium sulfate
(b) pion 11. Which of these is the preferred name for Na2S?
(c) graviton (a) sodium sulfide
(d) gluon (b) disodium sulfide
(c) disodium sulfate
(d) sodium sulfate
12. Which one of these is a halogen compound?
CHAPTER 11: THE CHEMICAL (a) Mg(OH)2
ELEMENTS (b) Na2S
(c) AlCl3
1. Which scientist is often referred to as the “Father of (d) (NH4)3P
Chemistry”? (Intro)
(a) Boyle
(b) Lavoisier
CHAPTER 12: CHEMICAL BONDING
(c) Berzelius 1. Which one of these three forces is responsible for
(d) Mendeleev chemical bonding? (Intro)
2. A solute crystal dissolves when added to a solution. (a) gravitational
What type was the original solution? (11.1) (b) electromagnetic
(a) saturated (c) strong nuclear
(b) supersaturated 2. What quantity remains unchanged in a chemical
(c) unsaturated reaction? (12.1)
(d) presaturated (a) mass
3. Which of these scientists in 1661 defined element (b) crystal shape
in a manner that made it subject to laboratory (c) color
testing? (11.2) (d) phase
(a) Boyle 3. How many total atoms would be in one formula
(b) Davy unit of (NH4)3PO4? (12.2)
(c) Berzelius (a) 4
(d) Mendeleev (b) 16
4. Which of these is a synthetic element? (11.2) (c) 18
(a) oxygen (8) (d) 20
(b) roentgenium (111) 4. A sample of compound AB decomposes to 48 g
(c) uranium (92) of A and 12 g of B. Another sample of the same
(d) iodine (53) compound AB decomposes to 24g of A. Predict the
5. Which one of these elements normally exists as a number of grams of B obtained. (12.2)
gas of diatomic molecules? (11.3) (a) 12
(a) iodine (b) 8
(b) argon (c) 6
(c) sulfur (d) 3
(d) chlorine 5. Which scientist is responsible for our first atomic
6. Which element is the most common in the Earth’s theory? (12.3)
crust? (11.3) (a) Lavoisier
(a) silicon (b) Proust
(b) magnesium (c) Dalton
(c) oxygen (d) Lewis
7
6. Which of the following statements comparing the (a) 2
compounds CO and CO2 is true? (12.3) (b) 3
(a) The atom of oxygen weighs less in CO2 than (c) 6
in CO. (d) 18
(b) Both compounds have the same formula 3. What is the coefficient in front of Ag when the
mass. following equation is properly balanced? (13.1) Ag 1
(c) The atom of carbon weighs more in CO2 than H2S 1 O2 4 Ag2S 1 H2O
in CO. (a) 2
(d) The mass ratio of oxygen to carbon is equal (b) 4
to the atom ratio in both compounds. (c) 6
7. What is the normal charge on an ion of sulfur? (d) 8
(a) 62 4. What does a catalyst do to the activation energy
(b) 61 of a chemical reaction? (13.2)
(c) 22 (a) forms a precipitate in the reaction
(d) 21 (b) lowers the activation energy to start the
8. An ionic compound formed between a Group 2A reaction
element M and a Group 7A element X would have (c) alters the chemical activity of one of the
what general formula? (12.4) reactants
(a) M2X (d) changes the phase of the chemical products
(b) M7X2 5. In a combustion reaction, which products are
(c) MX2 typically produced? (13.2)
(d) M2X7 (a) CO2 and CO
9. Which of the following is the formula for iron(III) (b) H2O and C7H16
bromide? (12.4) (c) CH4 and CO2
(a) FeBr (d) CO2 and H2O
(b) Fe3Br 6. Which of the following statements does not
(c) Fe2Br3 correctly describe a basic solution? (13.3)
(d) FeBr3 (a) The solution has a pH less than 7.
10. Carbon is a Group 4A element. How many (b) The solution conducts electricity.
covalent bonds are there in methane, CH4? (12.5) (c) The solution changes the color of litmus dye
(a) 4 from red to blue.
(b) 5 (d) The solution contains a higher concentration
(c) 6 of OH2 ions than H1 ions.
(d) 8 7. What is removed from a hydrated salt to make an
11. How many shared pairs of electrons are in an anhydrous product? (13.3)
ammonia molecule NH3? (12.5) (a) carbon
(a) 1 (b) oxygen
(b) 2 (c) water
(c) 3 (d) hydrogen
(d) 4 8. What is the pH of a solution ten times as acidic as
12. Which one is definitely a covalent compound? one of pH 4? (13.3)
(a) TiCl2 (a) 3
(b) NO2 (b) 14
(c) Na2O (c) 5
(d) CaSO4 (d) 26
13. Which element in the periodic table has the 9. Oxidation can be defined as which of the
highest electronegativity value? (12.5) following? (13.4)
(a) fluorine (a) a gain of electrons
(b) oxygen (b) a loss of oxygen
(c) lithium (c) a loss of electrons
(d) bismuth (d) both (a) and (b)
14. In which one of these compounds does 10. The reaction 3 Zn 1 2 Au(NO3)3(aq) 42 Au 1 2
hydrogen bonding occur?(12.6) Zn(NO3)2(aq) will occur if Zn is where relative
(a) H2S to Au in the activity series? (13.4)
(b) HF (a) above
(c) PH3 (b) to the right of it
(d) CH4 (c) below
(d) to the left of it
CHAPTER 13: CHEMICAL REACTION 11. One mole of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, would
consist of how many molecules? (13.5)
1. When iron rusts in the presence of oxygen and (a) 6.02 3 1023
water, which of the following is occurring? (13.1) (b) 1
(a) physical property (c) 34.0 3 6.02 3 1023
(b) chemical property (d) 34.0
(c) physical change 12. One mole of hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, would
(d) chemical change consist of how many grams? (13.5)
2. How many aluminum atoms are indicated by “3 (a) 6.02 3 1023
Al2O3”? (13.1) (b) 17.0
8
 (c) 34.0 3 6.02 3 1023 (c) hydrogenation
(d) 34.0 (d) combustion
12. The metabolism of which of the following
CHAPTER 14: ORGANIC CHEMISTRY produces the most energy? (14.6)
(a) carbohydrates
1. How many covalent bonds does an oxygen atom (b) fats
form? (14.1) (c) proteins
(a) 1 (d) acids
(b) 2
(c) 3 CHAPTER 15: PLACE AND TIME
(d) 4
2. When a carbon atom bonds to four other atoms, 1. What must a coordinate system have? (15.1)
what are the bond angles? (14.1) (a) an indicated origin
(a) 1808 (b) only one dimension
(b) 1208 (c) a scale with units
(c) 1098 (d) both (a) and (c)
(d) 908 2. Which of the following is true? (15.1) A Cartesian
3. Which of the following is the most common coordinate system
aromatic compound? (14.2) (a) can be a two-dimensional system.
(a) benzedrine (b) normally designates the horizontal line known
(b) ethylene as the x-axis.
(c) butane (c) normally designates the vertical line known as
(d) benzene the y-axis.
4. How many electrons are shared by all the carbon (d) All of these are true.
atoms in a benzene ring? (14.2) 3. Which of the following is true? (15.2) Latitude
(a) 2 (a) is a linear measurement.
(b) 4 (b) can have greater numerical values than
(c) 6 longitude.
(d) 8 (c) is measured in a north–south direction.
5. A molecule of propane contains how many (d) can have negative values.
carbon atoms? (14.3) 4. Which of the following is true? (15.2) Longitude
(a) three (a) can have a maximum value of 3608.
(b) five (b) is an angular measurement measured east or
(c) seven west.
(d) eight (c) is measured in units of kilometers.
6. Which of the following is an ethyl group? (14.3) (d) is measured north or south of the equator.
(a) CH32 5. Which of the following is true of meridians? (15.2)
(b) CH3CH22 Meridians
(c) CH2CH32 (a) run east and west.
(d) CH2CH22 (b) are halves of great circles.
7. Which of the following is a correct formula for an (c) are great circles.
alkyl halide? (14.4) (d) All of these are true.
(a) CH3Br 6. Which of the following is false? (15.2)
(b) C7H16 (a) Parallels become smaller as the distance
(c) CH2NH2 from the equator
(d) CH3CH2OH becomes greater.
8. Alcohols contain which group attached to an alkyl (b) Parallels are all small circles.
group? (14.4) (c) Parallels run east–west.
(a) amino (d) The equator is a parallel.
(b) hydroxyl 7. What is a mean solar day? (15.3)
(c) halogen (a) a day that begins at noon
(d) carboxyl (b) a day with a really bad attitude
9. Which of these are the best-known synthetic (c) a day measured by the positions of distant
compounds? (14.5) stars
(a) plastics (d) the average of all apparent solar days during
(b) monomers 1 year
(c) partially hydrogenated vegetable oils 8. When is the Sun overhead on a person’s meridian
(d) amines at local time? (15.3)
10. Which of the following is a condensation (a) 12 midnight
polymer? (14.5) (b) on June 21
(a) Teflon (c) 12 noon
(b) PVC (d) all of these
(c) nylon 9. How does a solar day compare with a sidereal
(d) polyethylene day? (15.3)
11. Which process converts unsaturated fats into (a) 4 minutes shorter than the sidereal day
saturated fats? (14.6) (b) 2 minutes longer than the sidereal day
(a) carbonation (c) 1 minute shorter than the sidereal day
(b) oxidation (d) 4 minutes longer than the sidereal day
9
10. During the month of January, how does the 20. What causes the precession of the Earth’s axis?
number of daylight hours at Washington, D.C., (a) the tilt of the axis
compare with the number of daylight hours at (b) the Earth’s equatorial bulge
Orlando, Florida? (15.3) (c) the apparent north–south movement of the
(a) more than Sun
(b) less than (d) gravitational torque
(c) the same as
11. If the altitude of the Sun is measured to be 258, CHAPTER 16: THE SOLAR SYSTEM
then what is the zenith angle? (15.4)
(a) 458 1. Astronomy is best defined by which of the
(b) 558 following? (Intro)
(c) 658 (a) The study of the comets of the solar system.
(d) none of these (b) The attempt to relate solar and planetary
12. Which of the following is used to measure positions to human traits.
altitude? (15.4) (c) A study of Earth-like planets.
(a) compass (d) The scientific study of the universe.
(b) sextant 2. Which of Kepler’s laws gives the most direct
(c) clock indication of the changes in the orbital speed of a
(d) dead reckoning planet? (16.1)
13. In early sailing days, what was used to determine (a) law of elliptical orbits
longitude? (15.4) (b) law of equal areas
(a) compass (c) harmonic law
(b) sextant 3. Which of Kepler’s laws gives an indication of the
(c) clock semimajor axis? (16.1)
(d) GPS (a) law of elliptical orbits
14. Why does the Earth have seasons? (15.5) (b) law of equal areas
(a) The Earth spins on its axis. (c) harmonic law
(b) The Earth orbits the Sun with the rotation axis 4. One of the greatest scientists of all time, he
tilted. discovered the true phases of Venus. (16.2)
(c) The Earth is a spherical body. (a) Kepler
(d) The Earth’s distance to the Sun changes as it (b) Galileo
orbits. (c) Einstein
15. Which of the following is true for an observer at (d) Copernicus
208N? (15.5) 5. Which of the following is abundant on the Earth
(a) always looks south to see the Sun but not on the other seven planets? (16.3)
(b) observes the Sun directly overhead twice a (a) oxygen
year (b) water
(c) is near the Tropic of Capricorn (c) life
(d) none of the these (d) all the preceding
16. From September 22 to March 21, in what direction 6. The Foucault pendulum is an experimental proof
must an observer in the Northern Hemisphere look to of what characteristic of the Earth? (16.3)
see sunrise? (15.5) (a) revolution
(a) east (b) rotation
(b) northeast (c) precession
(c) southeast (d) retrograde rotation
(d) west 7. Terrestrial planets have which of the following
17. When does the longest day occur for latitudes physical characteristics? (16.4)
greater than 23128 in the Southern Hemisphere? (a) surfaces of mostly ice
(a) on the summer solstice (b) primarily composed of rocks and metals
(b) on the winter solstice (c) large ring systems
(c) on the autumnal equinox (d) strong magnetic fields
(d) on the vernal equinox 8. Which of the following statements concerning the
18. Which of the following is true for the Gregorian terrestrial planets is false? (16.4)
calendar? (15.5) (a) Mercury and Venus can never be in
(a) It is based on lunar months. opposition.
(b) It is accurate to 1 day in 6000 years. (b) All have magnetic fields except Venus.
(c) It has a leap year every century year that is (c) All rotate clockwise as viewed from above
divisible by 4. the North Pole.
(d) It differs from the Julian calendar only in its (d) They are relatively close to the Sun.
name. 9. Which of the following is not a physical
19. What can be said about the precession of the characteristic of a terrestrial planet? (16.4)
Earth’s axis? (15.6) (a) small diameter
(a) maintains Polaris as the “North” Star (b) solid surface
(b) changes the angle between the axis and the (c) relatively low density
vertical (d) relatively high-temperature environment
(c) has no important effect on the Earth’s 10. What are the primary constituents of the Jovian
seasons planets? (16.5)
(d) none of the these (a) hydrogen and helium
10
 (b) hydrogen and carbon dioxide (c) The Moon is the second-brightest object in
(c) methane and oxygen the sky.
(d) nitrogen and oxygen (d) The Moon revolves around the Earth in 31
11. Which of the following is not a physical days.
characteristic of a Jovian planet? (16.5) 3. Most craters on the surface of the Moon are
(a) gaseous believed to be caused by which of the following?
(b) relatively high density (a) faults
(c) rocky/ice cores (b) meteoroids
(d) rapid rotation (c) volcanoes
12. What atmospheric feature was seen on (d) asteroids
Neptune? (16.5) 4. What is the oldest type of surface on the Moon?
(a) great red spot (a) astronaut footprints
(b) great dark spot (b) highlands
(c) volcanic plumes (c) rays
(d) large craters (d) maria
13. Which Jovian planet revolves on its side and has 5. Which of the following statements is false? (17.2)
retrograde rotation? (16.5) (a) The Moon rotates and revolves westward.
(a) Jupiter (b) The orbital plane of the Moon is tilted about
(b) Neptune 58 to the Earth’s orbital plane.
(c) Uranus (c) The difference between the sidereal and
(d) Saturn synodic months is about 2 days.
14. Which one of the following criteria disqualifies (d) The Moon revolves in an elliptical orbit.
Pluto as a major planet? (16.6) 6. The rising of the Moon in the east and its setting in
(a) sufficient mass for a round shape the west are due to which of the following? (17.2)
(b) in orbit about the Sun (a) the orbital motion of the Moon
(c) orbit clear of other objects (b) the rotational motion of the Moon
(d) none of the preceding (c) the Earth’s rotation
15. Which statement about the dwarf planet Ceres is (d) none of the preceding
true? (16.6) 7. During 1 month, the Moon passes through how
(a) It is farthest from the Sun. many different phases? (17.2)
(b) It is between Mars and Jupiter. (a) four
(c) It is larger than Pluto. (b) six
(d) It has a thick atmosphere. (c) eight
16. What is the age of the solar system? (16.7) (d) none of the preceding
(a) 65 million years 8. What is the approximate time between new and
(b) 6000 years full moons? (17.2)
(c) 4.5 billion years (a) 1 week
(d) 13.5 billion years (b) 2 weeks
17. The planets of the solar system evolved most (c) 1 sidereal month
directly from which of the following? (16.7) (d) 1 synodic month
(a) planetary nebula 9. The first-quarter moon is overhead at what time?
(b) protosun (a) 6 a.m.
(c) exoplanets (b) noon
(d) condensation (c) 6 p.m.
18. Which of the following is not a very useful method (d) midnight
for detecting an exoplanet? (16.8) 10. A lunar eclipse occurs during what phase of the
(a) the observation of a star’s motion Moon? (17.2)
(b) the observation of Doppler shifts in the (a) new
spectrum of a star (b) first-quarter
(c) the detection of alien electromagnetic (c) last-quarter
signals (d) full
11. Which of the following is not a contributing factor
CHAPTER 17: MOONS AND SMALL in causing eclipses? (17.2)
(a) the rotation of the Earth about its axis
SOLAR SYSTEM BODIES (b) the inclination of the Moon’s orbit
(c) the varying distance between the Earth and
1. Which of the following is not a general physical the Moon
feature of the Moon’s surface? (17.1) (d) the varying distance between the Earth and
(a) craters the Sun
(b) volcanoes 12. During a total eclipse of the Sun, the center of
(c) plains totality goes across the surface of the Earth in which
(d) rays direction? (17.2)
2. Which one of the following statements is true? (a) east to west
(a) The Moon’s surface gravity is 1 81 that of the (b) north to south
Earth. (c) west to east
(b) The Moon has an appreciable magnetic (d) south to north
field. 13. The two daily high tides are due mainly to which
of the following?
11
 (a) the Moon’s gravitational force lifting the (b) They are located mainly in orbits around the
ocean water away from the solid Earth Sun between the Earth and Mars.
(b) the differential gravitational attraction of the (c) They range in size from hundreds of kilometers
Moon because of the inverse-square relationship down to the size of sand grains.
(c) gravitational forces between the Sun and the (d) They are generally irregular in shape.
Earth 25. Which of the following is not true of comets?
(d) none of the preceding (a) They are composed of dust and ice.
14. When do spring tides on the Earth take place? (b) They revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical
(a) only during the spring season orbits.
(b) only during the times of new moons (c) They can be observed on entering the solar
(c) near the times of full and new moons system.
(d) near the times of first-quarter and last-quarter (d) They usually have a long tail when they are
moons close to the Sun.
15. Which of the following planets has no moon? 26. Which of the following is (are) true of meteoroids?
(a) Venus (a) They are small, solid, interplanetary metallic
(b) the Earth and stony objects.
(c) Mars (b) They are usually smaller than a kilometer.
(d) None of the preceding; they all have moons. (c) They are known as meteors when they enter
16. Which of the following planets has the most the Earth’s atmosphere.
moons? (17.3) (d) They are known as meteorites when they
(a) Mercury strike the Earth’s surface.
(b) Venus (e) All the preceding are true.
(c) the Earth
(d) Mars CHAPTER 18: THE UNIVERSE
17. How many Galilean moons are there? (17.4)
(a) three 1. What is the point on the celestial sphere
(b) four representing the extension of the axis of Earth’s North
(c) five Pole? (18.1)
(d) six (a) North celestial pole
18. Which of the following is the largest moon in the (b) core
solar system? (c) vernal equinox
(a) Callisto (d) celestial equator
(b) Titan 2. What is the name of the path on the sky that the
(c) Europa Sun appears to follow as it moves among the stars?
(d) Ganymede (18.1)
19. Which of the following is the second-largest moon (a) the ecliptic
in the solar system? (17.4) (b) the meridian
(a) the Earth’s Moon (c) the equator
(b) Callisto (d) the equinox
(c) Ganymede 3. The angular measure in degrees north or south of
(d) Titan the celestial equator is called which of the following?
20. Which are the four Galilean moons of Jupiter? (18.1)
(a) Europa, Titan, Ganymede, and Callisto (a) latitude
(b) Io, Ganymede, Callisto, and Titan (b) longitude
(c) Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto (c) right ascension
(d) Europa, Ganymede, Io, and Triton (d) declination
21. The Cassini-Huygens probe successfully landed 4. Which of the following is part of the Sun’s structure?
on which of the following? (17.4) (a) an accretion disk
(a) Mars (b) the corona
(b) Saturn (c) a globular cluster
(c) Titan (d) a singularity
(d) Triton 5. Why are sunspots darker than the regions of the
22. Which dwarf planet has no moons? (17.5) Sun around them? (18.2)
(a) Ceres (a) They consist of different elements than the
(b) Pluto rest of the Sun.
(c) Charon (b) They are located far out into the Sun’s
(d) Eris atmosphere (corona).
23. Which dwarf planet moon has a rotation period (c) They are hotter than the material around
and a revolution period that are the same as the them.
rotation period of its parent planet? (17.5) (d) They are cooler than the surrounding
(a) Charon material.
(b) Nix 6. Where in the Sun does fusion of hydrogen occur?
(c) Hydra (a) only in the core
(d) none of the preceding (b) only near the photosphere (near the surface
24. Which of the following is not true of asteroids? layer)
(a) They are believed to be initial solar system (c) pretty much anywhere throughout the Sun
material that never collected into a single (d) in the sunspot regions
planet.
12
7. The part of the Sun’s structure that we see in visible (b) 20%
light is which of the following? (18.2) (c) 50%
(a) the photosphere (d) 95%
(b) the chromosphere 19. What key observation led Hubble to conclude
(c) the core that the universe is expanding? (18.7)
(d) the corona (a) the distribution of the galaxies in the universe
8. What force keeps the all stars from flying apart? (b) the classification of different types of galaxies
(a) nuclear force (c) the redshift of light from distant galaxies
(b) gravitational force (d) the ratio of hydrogen to helium in a galaxy
(c) radiation pressure 20. What is the cosmic background radiation? (18.7)
(d) electrical force (a) the light-energy remnants of the explosion in
9. Which property classifies the star based on its which the universe was born
temperature? (18.3) (b) the radio noise from hot gas in rich galactic
(a) its apparent magnitude clusters
(b) its mass (c) the faint glow of light across the night sky
(c) its radius (d) the light emitted by supernova explosions
(d) its spectral type
10. A relatively cool star is which of the following? CHAPTER 19: THE ATMOSPHERE
(a) red
(b) yellow 1. Which is the second-most-abundant gas in the
(c) white atmosphere? (19.1)
(d) blue (a) oxygen
11. At the end of the Sun’s life, what kind of object (b) carbon dioxide
will remain? (18.4) (c) nitrogen
(a) blue giant star (d) argon
(b) white dwarf star 2. In what region does the ozone layer lie? (19.1)
(c) red giant star (a) thermosphere
(d) red dwarf star (b) troposphere
12. The famous Horsehead Nebula is which of the (c) stratosphere
following? (d) mesosphere
(a) an emission nebula 3. Photosynthesis is responsible for the atmospheric
(b) a reflection nebula production of which of the following? (19.1)
(c) a planetary nebula (a) carbon dioxide
(d) a dark nebula (b) oxygen
13. A white dwarf has about the same diameter as (c) nitrogen
which of the following? (18.4) (d) carbon monoxide
(a) Texas 4. What regulates the Earth’s average temperature?
(b) the Earth (a) Rayleigh scattering
(c) Jupiter (b) the greenhouse effect
(d) the Sun (c) atmospheric pressure
14. What is the fundamental quantity of a star that (d) photosynthesis
indicates its ultimate fate? (18.5) 5. Approximately what percentage of insolation
(a) color reaches the Earth’s surface? (19.2)
(b) mass (a) 33%
(c) size (b) 40%
(d) temperature (c) 50%
15. What event is believed to create elements (d) 75%
heavier than iron? (18.5) 6. What instrument is used to measure relative
(a) a supernova explosion humidity? (19.3)
(b) a nova outburst (a) an anemometer
(c) the formation of a neutron star (b) a barometer
(d) the accretion of matter into a black hole (c) a wind vane
16. Black holes appear black for what basic reason? (d) a psychrometer
(a) They are invisible and can never be detected 7. With what instrument is atmospheric pressure
by astronomers. measured? (19.3)
(b) They appear in starless, dark areas of the Milky (a) an anemometer
Way. (b) a barometer
(c) They “shine” by blackbody radiation and are (c) a wind vane
easily detected. (d) a psychrometer
(d) Light cannot escape them. 8. Near a large body of water, which wind is the
17. The Milky Way is classified as what kind of galaxy? predominant wind during the day? (19.4)
(a) elliptical (a) a sea breeze
(b) spiral (b) a land breeze
(c) irregular (c) an updraft
(d) collisional (d) a jet stream
18. How much of the universe appears to be normal 9. What is the direction of rotation around a cyclone
ordinary matter? (18.6) in the Northern Hemisphere as viewed from above?
(a) 5% (a) clockwise
13
 (b) counterclockwise (b) low pressure
(c) sometimes clockwise, sometimes (c) flying debris
counterclockwise (d) storm surge
10. Convection cycles give rise to which of the 9. A subsidence temperature inversion is caused by
following? (19.4) which of the following? (20.4)
(a) land breeze (a) a high-pressure air mass
(b) sea breeze (b) acid rain
(c) air currents (c) radiational cooling
(d) all the preceding (d) subcritical air pressure
11. What is the cloud root name that means “heap”? 10. Which is a major source of air pollution? (20.4)
(a) stratus (a) nuclear electrical generation
(b) cirrus (b) incomplete combustion
(c) nimbus (c) temperature inversion
(d) cumulus (d) acid rain
12. The altostratus cloud is a member of which 11. A change in the Earth’s albedo could result from
family? (19.5) which of the following? (20.5)
(a) high clouds (a) nitrogen oxides
(b) middle clouds (b) acid rain
(c) low clouds (c) photochemical smog
(d) vertical development (d) particulate matter
12. Major concern about global warming arises from
CHAPTER 20: ATMOSPHERIC EFFECTS increased concentrations of which of the following?
(a) sulfur oxides
1. When the temperature of the air is below the dew (b) nitrogen oxides
point without precipitation, the air is said to be what? (c) greenhouse gases
(a) stable (d) photochemical smog
(b) supercooled
(c) sublimed CHAPTER 21: THE STRUCTURAL
(d) coalesced
2. Which of the following is not essential to the GEOLOGY AND PLATE TECTONICS
Bergeron process? (20.1)
1. About how many plates exist on the Earth? (21.1)
(a) silver iodide
(a) 3
(b) mixing
(b) 20
(c) supercooled vapor
(c) 250
(d) ice crystals
(d) 1000
3. Which of the following is the result of deposition?
2. Which of the following correctly describes the
(a) snow
lithosphere? (21.1)
(b) rain
(a) It is the same as the Earth’s crust.
(c) dew
(b) It is the same as the Earth’s upper mantle.
(d) frost
(c) It is the part of the mantle below the
4. Which type of air mass is mainly responsible for
asthenosphere.
mostly warm weather in the conterminous United
(d) It consists of the crust and part of the upper
States? (20.2)
mantle.
(a) mP
3. What layer is close to the melting point of rock and
(b) cA
is relatively plastic? (21.1)
(c) mT
(a) mantle
(d) cT
(b) lithosphere
5. Which of the following air masses would be
(c) asthenosphere
expected to be cold and dry for the conterminous
(d) Moho
United States? (20.2)
4. Which of the following geologic evidence does
(a) cP
not support continental drift? (21.2)
(b) mA
(a) similarities in biological species and fossils
(c) cT
found on distant continents
(d) mE
(b) continuity of geologic structures such as
6. What is a cold front advancing under a warm front
mountain ranges
called? (20.2)
(c) ancient glaciation in the Southern
(a) a warm front
Hemisphere
(b) a stationary front
(d) similar types of rivers on every continent
(c) a cold front occlusion
5. Wegener proposed what name for the ancient,
(d) a warm front occlusion
giant supercontinent he envisioned? (21.2)
7. What is the critical alert for a tornado? (20.3)
(a) Pangaea
(a) tornado alert
(b) Rhodinia
(b) tornado warning
(c) Moho
(c) tornado watch
(d) Alfredia
(d) tornado prediction
6. Which of the following is a primary cause of
8. The greatest number of hurricane casualties is
volcanoes, earthquakes, and mountain building? (
caused by which of the following? (20.3)
21.3)
(a) high winds
14
 (a) solar radiation (c) hardness
(b) remanent magnetism (d) cleavage
(c) hot spots 5. Which of the following scientists is generally
(d) plate tectonics designated “The Father of Geology”? (22.2)
7. Which of the following is not a type of plate (a) Friedrich Mohs
boundary? (21.3) (b) James Hutton
(a) divergent (c) Alfred Wegener
(b) convergent (d) Edwin Hubble
(c) reverse 6. Which of the following is not one of the three basic
(d) transform classes of rocks? (22.2)
8. The principle of isostasy states that the depth to (a) igneous
which a floating object sinks into underlying material (b) pyroclastic
depends on which two properties? (21.3) (c) metamorphic
(a) density and composition (d) sedimentary
(b) temperature and the state of matter 7. Coal is the compacted remains of plant matter.
(c) density and thickness What basic type of rock is coal? (22.2)
(d) mass and temperature (a) igneous
9. What process during plate collisions leads to the (b) sedimentary
formation of volcanic islands arcs? (21.4) (c) metamorphic
(a) remanent magnetism (d) magma
(b) seismic waves 8. Which of the following does the rock cycle
(c) subduction describe? (22.2)
(d) isostasy (a) the interrelationships between rock-
10. On the Richter scale, a magnitude 7.0 producing processes
earthquake is how many times more powerful than (b) the chemical composition of basaltic rocks
a magnitude 6.0 earthquake? (21.5) (c) subduction of lithospheric plates
(a) 1 (d) volcanic eruptions and magma viscosity
(b) 25 9. Igneous rocks are classified according to their
(c) 31 combination of
(d) 100 chemical composition and what else? (22.3)
11. By what name is an upward pointing arch of a (a) age
fold known? (21.6) (b) texture
(a) anticline (c) permeability
(b) syncline (d) density
(c) hot spot 10. What does the grain size of an igneous rock tells
(d) hanging wall a scientist about that rock? (22.3)
12. Which of the following is not a mountain-building (a) the color of the rock
mechanism? (21.6) (b) the rate at which the molten rock cooled
(a) volcanic (c) whether the rock will float in water
(b) reverse-slip (d) the overall size of the rock
(c) fault-block 11. Which of the following is not an igneous rock?
(d) fold (a) basalt
(b) granite
CHAPTER 22: MINERALS, ROCKS AND (c) sandstone
(d) obsidian
VOLCANOES 12. What are plutons? (22.4)
(a) bodies of intrusive igneous rocks
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic (b) explosive volcanoes
property of a mineral? (22.1) (c) undersea metamorphic rocks
(a) naturally occurring (d) pyroclastic flows
(b) crystalline 13. Which of the following statements is true? (22.4)
(c) definite chemical composition (a) Dikes are concordant rock bodies.
(d) low boiling point (b) Dikes are formed from lava.
2. Density is related most closely with which property (c) Dikes are spherical in shape.
of identifying minerals? (22.1) (d) Dikes are intrusive igneous rock.
(a) hardness 14. What type of volcano forms a layered,
(b) specific gravity composite cone? (22.4)
(c) color (a) fumarole
(d) fracture (b) cinder cone
3. The simple, common method of classifying (c) stratovolcano
minerals depends on which general property? (22.1) (d) shield volcano
(a) physical 15. How does sedimentary rock from the ocean floor
(b) chemical sometimes end up in highland and mountainous
(c) nuclear regions on the Earth? (22.5)
(d) optical (a) Sedimentary rock is commonly made inside
4. What does the Mohs scale measure? (22.1) volcanoes.
(a) streak (b) Wind and water carry the sediment to the
(b) luster mountaintops.
15
 (c) It is believed that asteroid impacts probably 6. In a desert, what is the prime mover of the land
caused the sedimentary rock to move great material? (23.2)
distances. (a) rain
(d) The sedimentary rock was uplifted by (b) wind
powerful forces to form mountain chains. (c) gravity
16. Which of these is a common color of sedimentary (d) creep
rock? (22.5) 7. What term refers to the downslope movement of
(a) yellow-green soil and rock fragments that is caused solely by
(b) blue-green gravity? (23.2)
(c) purple-gray (a) sheet erosion
(d) red-brown (b) mass wasting
17. What is the process of transforming sediment into (c) meandering
sedimentary rock called? (22.5) (d) mechanical weathering
(a) lithification 8. Which of the following best describes the total
(b) striation amount of water on the Earth? (23.3)
(c) metamorphism (a) increasing
(d) hardening (b) decreasing
18. To which rock does the metamorphosis of (c) remaining constant
limestone lead? (22.6) 9. About what percent of Earth’s surface is fresh
(a) marble water? (23.3)
(b) slate (a) 50%
(c) schist (b) 32%
(d) gneiss (c) 5%
19. Metamorphism occurs for which class of rocks? (d) 3%
(a) metamorphic 10. What energy source powers the Earth’s
(b) sedimentary hydrologic cycle? (23.3)
(c) igneous (a) ocean currents
(d) all the preceding (b) solar insolation
20. Which of these is not a common metamorphic (c) Earth's rotational energy
rock? (d) geothermal power
(a) gneiss 11. At a depth of 11 km (7 mi), what are the deepest
(b) granite regions below the ocean called? (23.4)
(c) slate (a) seamounts
(d) schist (b) trenches
(c) continental shelves
CHAPTER 23: SURFACE PROCESSES (d) abyssal plains
12. Which one of the following is a feature of coastal
1. What is the general wearing away of high places deposition? (23.4)
and transporting of material to lower places called? (a) spit
(Intro) (b) sea stack
(a) gradation (c) wave-cut cliff
(b) weathering (d) sea arch
(c) depositing
(d) glaciation CHAPTER 24: GEOLOGIC TIME
2. Which type of mechanical disintegration is due to
rocks and minerals colliding in a moving current? 1. Which statement is not true? (24.1)
(a) frost wedging (a) Fossils are indications of prehistoric life.
(b) root penetration (b) Fossils help determine the relative ages of
(c) abrasion rocks.
(d) crystal growth (c) Fossils can be tracks imprinted in rocks.
3. Which two primary factors does the rate of (d) Fossils are irrelevant to our understanding of
weathering of rock depend on? (23.1) geologic time.
(a) temperature and pressure 2. What is the name for the branch of science that
(b) humidity and mineral content specifically studies fossils? (24.1)
(c) temperature and humidity (a) petrology
(d) wind and geographic location (b) mineralogy
4. Chemical weathering can be determined by (c) paleontology
analyzing what property of a rock? (23.1) (d) fossiligraphy
(a) temperature 3. What type of remain is a shark tooth? (24.1)
(b) density (a) replacement
(c) composition (b) index
(d) mass (c) original
5. Which of the following are agents that cause (d) trace
erosion? (23.2) 4. What is the name for the type of fossil formed when
(a) streams mineral material fills a rock’s hollow depression that
(b) glaciers once contained an embedded bone? (24.1)
(c) waves (a) mold
(d) all the preceding (b) cast
16
 (c) trace fossil (d) all the preceding
(d) nodule 16. Which became the dominant life form in the
5. What geologic principle tells us that each Ordovician period? (24.5)
sediment layer is younger than the layer beneath it? (a) dinosaurs
(a) superposition (b) plants
(b) original horizontality (c) mammals
(c) cross-cutting relationships (d) fish
(d) faunal succession 17. Fossils from Precambrian time could include
6. What is obtained when rocks and geologic events which of the following? (24.5)
are put into chronologic order without regard to the (a) human skulls
actual dates? (24.2) (b) dinosaur bones
(a) absolute (numerical) geologic time (c) algae, bacteria, and sea worms
(b) relative geologic time (d) leaf impressions and shark teeth
(c) a geologic formation 18. In what era were dinosaurs common? (24.5)
(d) a correlation period (a) Mesozoic
7. Into what time spans are eras next divided? (24.2) (b) Paleozoic
(a) eons (c) Cambrian
(b) ages (d) Cenozoic
(c) epochs 19. In what era were trilobites common? (24.5)
(d) periods (a) Mesozoic
8. What is the name of the time period when plants (b) Paleozoic
lived that eventually became coal? (24.2) (c) Cambrian
(a) Devonian (d) Cenozoic
(b) Pennsylvanian 20. When did the K-T extinction event take place?
(c) Cambrian (a) at the end of the Paleozoic era
(d) Triassic (b) at the start of the Paleozoic era
9. What kind of fossil is widespread and easily (c) at the end of the Mesozoic era
identifiable? (24.2) (d) at the start of the Mesozoic era
(a) index
(b) trace
(c) replacement
(d) amber
10. What radioactive element gradually decays to
lead and can be used to date ancient rocks? (24.3)
(a) rubidium
(b) potassium
(c) carbon
(d) uranium
11. If the half-life of a radioactive specimen is 100
years, then how long will it take for the specimen to
reach 25% of its original amount? (24.3)
(a) 25 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 100 years
(d) 200 years
12. Radiometric dating is used to determine which of
the following? (24.3)
(a) absolute (numerical) geologic time
(b) relative geologic time
(c) a geologic formation
(d) a correlation period
13. Which radiometric dating method is most useful
for dating bones and wood? (24.3)
(a) uranium–lead
(b) potassium–argon
(c) carbon-14
(d) rubidium–strontium
14. What is the age of the Earth as determined by
radiometric dating? (24.4)
(a) 150 million years
(b) 1200.2 years
(c) 4.56 billion years
(d) 320 million years
15. Which of these rocks are useful in helping us
determine the age of the Earth? (24.4)
(a) Earth rocks
(b) Moon rocks
(c) meteorite rocks
17