The document defines and provides examples of legal terms related to criminal acts and procedures. Some key terms defined include accessories, acts, admissions, aggravating circumstances, amnesty, appeals, and appellants. The document is in a question and multiple choice format providing definitions and examples of legal terminology.
The document defines and provides examples of legal terms related to criminal acts and procedures. Some key terms defined include accessories, acts, admissions, aggravating circumstances, amnesty, appeals, and appellants. The document is in a question and multiple choice format providing definitions and examples of legal terminology.
The document defines and provides examples of legal terms related to criminal acts and procedures. Some key terms defined include accessories, acts, admissions, aggravating circumstances, amnesty, appeals, and appellants. The document is in a question and multiple choice format providing definitions and examples of legal terminology.
a. Aberratio Ictus c. Accomplices b. Accessories d. Act 2. Those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, and without having participated therein, either as principals or accomplices. a. Accomplices c. Accessories b. Aberratio Ictus d. Act 3. Those persons who, not being included in Art. 17, cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. a. Accessories c. Act b. Aberratio Ictus d. Accomplices 4. Is any bodily movement tending to produce some effects in the external world. a. Act c. Accessories b. Accomplices d. Aberratio Ictus 5. Known as the Revised Penal Code. a. Act c. Act 3815 b. Act 3851 d. Act 3715 6. Unable to testify, in respect to the pedigree of another person related to him by birth or marriage, may be received in evidence where it occurred before the controversy, and the relationship between the two persons is shown by evidence other than such act or declaration. a. Act or declaration about pedigree c. Declaration about pedigree b. Act d. Accomplices 7. They are the stages. Already punishable. a. Act or declaration about pedigree c. Acts of execution b. Execution d. Aberratio Ictus 8. Any person who by force or fraud prevents the meeting of either of the House of the Legislature or of any provincial board or municipal council. a. Act or declaration about pedigree c. Declaration about pedigree b. Acts Tending to Prevent the Meeting of the Legislature and Similar Bodies d. Act 3851 9. Spanish of “an act done by me against my will is not my act”. a. Actus me invito factus nonest meus actus c. Aberratio Ictus b. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea d. Factus non estmeus actus 10. The act itself does not make a man guilty unless his intention was so. a. Factus non estmeus actus c. Aberratio Ictus b. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea d. nisi mens sit rea 11. Intellectually or emotionally favors the enemy and harbors sympathies or convictions disloyal to his country's policy or interest. a. Execution c. Acts of execution b. Declaration about pedigree d. Adherence 12. The act or declaration of a conspirator relating to the conspiracy and during its existence, may be given in evidence against the co-conspirator after the conspiracy is shown by evidence other than such act of declaration. a. Admission c. Conspirator b. Admission by conspirator d. Adherence 13. The act or declaration of a partner or agent of the party within the scope of his authority and during the existence of the partnership or agency, may be given in evidence against such party after the partnership or agency is shown by evidence other than such act or declaration. a. Admission by co-partner or agent c. Adherence b. Admission d. Conspirator 14. Where one derives title to property from another, the act, declaration, or omission of the latter, while holding the title, in relation to the property, is evidence against the former. a. Admission by privies c. Adherence b. Admission by co-partner or agent d. Conspirator 15. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is such as naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and when proper and possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence against him. a. Adherence c. Admission by silence b. Admission by co-partner or agent d. Admission by third party 16. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another, except as hereinafter provided a. Admission by third party c. Admission by third party b. Conspirator d. Admission by silence 17. Admission of a party - the act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given in evidence against him. a. Admission by silence c. Admission b. Conspirator d. Admission by silence 18. Any statement of fact made by a party against his interest or unfavorable to the conclusion for which he contends or is inconsistent with the facts alleged by him. 19. The complainant states that he did not really intend to institute the case and that he is no longer interested in testifying or prosecuting. a. Admission by silence c. Admission b. Conspirator d. Affidavit of Desistance 20. Are those which if attendant in the commission of the offense, would serve to increase the penalty. a. Aggravating Circumstances c. Aggravating Penalty b. Conspirator d. Aid or comfort 21. Act which strengthen or tends to strengthen the enemy of the government in the conduct of war against the government or an act which weakens or tends to weaken the power of the government or the country to resist or to attack the enemies of the government or country. a. Aid or comfort c. Conspirator b. Allegiance d. Alien residing 22. Any person who within any town or public place, shall discharge any firearm, rocket, firecracker, or other explosives calculated to cause alarm or danger. a. Alien residing c. Alarms and scandals b. Altering Boundaries or Landmarks d. Allegiance 23. Temporary allegiance, commit treason only while residing in the Philippines. a. Allegiance c. Alien residing b. Alarms and scandals d. Conspirator 24. Obligation of fidelity and obedience which individuals owe to the government under which they live or to their sovereign in return for protection they receive. a. Allegiance c. Alien residing b. Conspirator d. Alternative Circumstance 25. Any person who shall alter the boundary marks or monuments of towns, provinces, or estates, or any other marks intended to designate the boundaries of the same. a. Alternative Circumstance c. Amendment or substitution b. Altering Boundaries or Landmarks d. Amnesty 26. Are those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and effects of the crime and the other conditions attending its commission. a. Alternative Circumstance c. Amendment or substitution b. Amnesty d. Appellant 27. Complaint or information may be amended, in form or in substance, without leave of court, at any time before the accused enters his plea. After the plea and during the trial. a. Appellant c. Amendment or substitution b. Amnesty d. Appellee 28. Made by the President with the concurrence of Congress. a. Amnesty c. Appeal b. Appellee d. Appellant 29. A proceeding for review by which the whole case is transferred on the higher court. a. Amnesty c. Appeal b. Appellee d. Appellant 30. The party appealing. a. Amnesty c. Appeal b. Appellee d. Appellant 31. Appellee - the party adverse to the appellant. a. Amnesty c. Appeal b. Appellee d. Appellant 32. The court, considering the gravity of the offense and the difficulty of the questions that may arise. a. Appointment of counsel de oficio c. Appellee b. Appellant d. Amnesty 33. Is illegal from the beginning whereas in Delay in the delivery of detained person. a. Arbitrary detention c. Detention b. Arbitrary d. Arrest 34. It means for bringing the accused into court and informing him of the nature and cause of the accusation against him. a. Appointment of counsel de oficio c. Arraignment b. Appointment d. counsel de oficio 35. Taking a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of some offense, made by an actual restraint of the person or by his submission to custody. a. Arraignment c. Arrest b. Arrest after escape or rescue d. Arrest of accused 36. If a person lawfully arrested escapes or is rescued, any person may immediately pursue or retake him without a warrant at any time and in any place within the Philippines. a. Arrest after escape or rescue c. Arrest b. Arrest of accused out on bail d. Arraignment 37. For the purpose of surrendering the accused, the bondsmen may arrest him or, upon written authority endorsed on a certified copy of the undertaking, cause him to be arrested by a police officer or any other person of suitable age and discretion. a. Arrest after escape or rescue c. Arrest b. Arrest of accused out on bail d. Arraignment 38. A peace officer or a private person may, without a warrant, arrest a person when, in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to commit an offense. a. Arrest without warrant c. Arrest b. Arrest of accused out on bail d. Arrest after escape or rescue 39. Crime with imprisonment of 1 month and 1 day to 6 months. a. Arresto mayor c. Arresto menor b. misdemeanor d. light offense 40. Crime with imprisonment of 1 day to 30 days. a. Arresto mayor c. Arresto menor b. misdemeanor d. light offense 41. It is a remedy afforded to the offended party to have the property of the accused attached as security for the satisfaction of any judgment that may be recovered from the accused. a. Attachment c. Evidence b. Bail d. Attempted 42. When the offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts, and does not perform all the acts of execution which should produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance. a. Attempted c. Consummated b. Frustrated d. Attachment 43. Security given for the release of a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required. a. Bail c. Bail Bond b. Bail to secure appearance of material witness d. Bond 44. An obligation under seal given by accused with one or more sureties and made payable to proper officer with the condition to be void upon performance by the accused of such acts as he may legally be required to perform. a. Bail c. Bail Bond b. Bail to secure appearance of material witness d. Bond 45. When the court is satisfied, upon proof or oath, that a material witness will not testify when required, it may, upon motion of either party, order the witness to post bail in such sum as may be deemed proper. Upon refusal to post bail, the court shall commit him to prison until he complies, or is legally discharged after his testimony has been taken. a. Bail to secure appearance of material witness c. Bail Bond b. Bail to secure appearance of material witness d. Bond 46. All persons in custody shall be admitted to bail as a matter of right, with sufficient sureties, or released on recognizance as prescribed by law or this Rule. a. Bail, a matter of right c. Bond b. Bail, when discretionary d. Band 47. Bail, when discretionary - Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an .offense not punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment, admission to bail is discretionary. a. Bail, a matter of right c. Bond b. Bail, when discretionary d. Band 48. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense, it shall be deemed to have been committed by a band. a. Bail, a matter of right c. Bond b. Bail, when discretionary d. Band 49. A woman who is repeatedly subjected to any forceful physical or psychological behavior by a man in order to do something he wants her to do without concern for her rights. a. Betrayal c. Battered Wife b. Betting in sports contests d. Brief 50. Is that rule which requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to prove a disputed fact. a. Brief c. Burden Of Evidence b. Burden of proof in bail application d. Best Evidence Rule 51. Any attorney-at-law or solicitor ( procurador judicial) who, by any malicious breach of professional duty or of inexcusable negligence or ignorance. a. Brief c. Burden Of Evidence b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor d. Best Evidence Rule 52. Object or article of value or representative of value upon the result of any boxing or other sports contests. a. Brief c. Betting in sports contests b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor d. Best Evidence Rule 53. Brief - it literally means a short or condensed statement. a. Brief c. Betting in sports contests b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor d. Best Evidence Rule 54. Logical necessity on a party during a particular time of the trail to create a prima facie case in his favor or to destroy that created against him by presenting evidence. a. Brief c. Betting in sports contests b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor d. Best Evidence Rule 55. At the hearing of an application for bail filed by a person who is in custody for the commission of an offense punishable by death, reclusion perpetua. a. Burden of proof in bail application c. Betting in sports contests b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor d. Best Evidence Rule 56. The duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law. a. Burden Of Proof/Risk of Non-Persuasion c. Betting in sports contests b. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor d. Best Evidence Rule 57. Upon application of the bondsmen, with due notice to the prosecutor, the bail may be cancelled upon surrender of the accused or proof of his death. a. Cancellation of bail c. Cause of the accusation b. Certain d. Certiorari 58. Capital Offense - it is an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the application for admission to bail may be punished with death. a. Cancellation of bail c. Cause of the accusation b. Certain d. Certiorari 59. Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense and the qualifying and aggravating circumstances must be stated in ordinary and concise language and not necessarily in the language used in the statute. a. Cancellation of bail c. Cause of the accusation b. Certain d. Certiorari 60. No person must escape the penalty. a. Cancellation of bail c. Cause of the accusation b. Certain d. Certiorari 61. Is used to correct only errors of jurisdiction and not errors of judgment of an inferior court. a. Cancellation of bail c. Cause of the accusation b. Certain d. Certiorari 62. Any person who shall challenge another, or incite another to give or accept a challenge to a duel, or shall scoff at or decry another publicly for having refused to accept a challenge to fight a duel. a. Cancellation of bail c. Cause of the accusation b. Certain d. Certiorari 63. The aggregate of the moral qualities which belong to and distinguish an individual person. a. Character c. Child b. Certain d. Certiorari 64. Above 15 years but below 18. a. Character c. Child b. Certain d. Certiorari 65. A child who is accused or adjudged of having committed an offense. a. Character c. Child b. Child in Conflict with the Law d. Certiorari 66. Is the proof of a fact or facts from which taken either singly or collectively, the existence or a particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence. a. Classical (Juristic) Theory c. Common Law Crimes b. Commercial lists and the like d. Circumstantial Evidence 67. The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution. a. Classical (Juristic) Theory c. Common Law Crimes b. Commercial lists and the liked d. Circumstantial Evidence 68. Evidence of statements of matters of interest to persons engaged in an occupation contained in a list, register, periodical, or other published compilation is admissible as tending to prove the truth of any relevant matter. a. Classical (Juristic) Theory c. Common Law Crimes b. Commercial lists and the liked d. Circumstantial Evidence 69. Any person who shall commit a felony after having been convicted by final judgment. a. Commission of another crime during service of penalty imposed for another offense c. Common Law Crimes b. Commercial lists and the liked d. Circumstantial Evidence 70. The body of principles, usages and rules of actions which do not result from the express act of the legislature. There is no such crime in the Philippines. a. Classical (Juristic) Theory c. Common Law Crimes b. Commercial lists and the liked d. Circumstantial Evidence 71. Is the definite opinion of the community in which the fact to be proved is known or exists. It means the general or substantially undivided reputation, as distinguished from a partial or qualified one, although it need not be unanimous. a. Common Reputation c. Common Law Crimes b. Commercial lists and the liked d. Circumstantial Evidence 72. It is the reduction of the period of imprisonment of the offender or the amount of the fine. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Competent Evidence b. Competency Of A Witness d. Complaint 73. Is the legal fitness or ability of a witness to be heard on the trial of a cause. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Competent Evidence b. Competency Of A Witness d. Complaint 74. One that is not excluded by these Rules, a statute or the Constitution. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Competent Evidence b. Competency Of A Witness d. Complaint 75. Sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other public official charged with the enforcement of the law violated. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Competent Evidence b. Competency Of A Witness d. Complaint 76. Is an agreement made between two or more parties as a settlement matter in dispute. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Competent Evidence b. Compromise d. Complaint 77. The class of evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Competent Evidence b. Compromise d. Conclusive Evidence 78. A contract between the president and the convict the former will release the latter upon compliance with certain conditions. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Confrontation b. Conspiracy and Proposal to Commit Rebellion or Insurrection d. Confession 79. Categorical acknowledgment of guilt made by an accused in a criminal case, without any exculpatory statement or explanation a. Commutation of Sentence c. Confrontation b. Conspiracy and Proposal to Commit Rebellion or Insurrection d. Confession 80. It is the act of setting a witness face to face with the accused so that the latter may make any objection he has to the witness, and the witness may identify the accused, and this must take place in the presence of the court having jurisdiction to permit the privilege of cross examination. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Confrontation b. Conspiracy and Proposal to Commit Rebellion or Insurrection d. Confession 81. Conspiracy and proposal to commit rebellion or insurrection shall be punished, respectively, by prisión correccional in its maximum period and a fine which shall not exceed 5,000 pesos, and by prisión correccional in its medium period and a fine not exceeding 2,000 pesos. a. Commutation of Sentence c. Confrontation b. Conspiracy and Proposal to Commit Rebellion or Insurrection d. Confession 82. two or more persons come to an agreement to a. Levy war against the government or adhere to the enemies and to give them aid or comfort. a. Conspiracy and Proposal to Commit Treason c. Confrontation b. Conspiracy and Proposal to Commit Rebellion or Insurrection d. Confession 83. Persons conspiring to commit the crime of sedition shall be punished by prision correccional in its medium period and a fine not exceeding 2,000 pesos. a. Conspiracy to Commit Sedition c. Confrontation b. Confession d. Corporate surety 84. When an instrument is equally susceptible of two interpretations, one in favor of natural right and the other against it, the former is to be adopted. a. Construction in favor of natural right c. Confrontation b. Confession d. Corporate surety 85. When all the elements necessary for its accomplishment and execution are present. a. Consummated c. Confrontation b. Confession d. Corporate surety 86. Trial once commenced shall continue from day to day as far as practicable until terminated; but it may be postponed for a reasonable period of time for good cause. a. Corporate surety c. Continuous Trial System b. Correspondence with hostile country d. Corroborative Evidence 87. Any domestic or foreign corporation, licensed as a surety in accordance with law and currently authorized to act as such, may provide bail by a bond subscribed jointly by the accused and an officer of the corporation duly authorized by its board of directors. a. Corporate surety c. Continuous Trial System b. Correspondence with hostile country d. Corroborative Evidence 88. There is a war in and Philippine is involved. a. Corporate surety c. Continuous Trial System b. Correspondence with hostile country d. Corroborative Evidence 89. Is additional evidence of a different character to the same point. a. Corporate surety c. Continuous Trial System b. Correspondence with hostile country d. Corroborative Evidence 90. Any person who shall have made the offers or promises or given the gifts or presents as described in the preceding articles. a. Counterfeiting the great seal of the Government of the Philippine Islands, forging the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive c. Corruption of public officials b. Counterfeiting, importing and uttering instruments not payable to bearer d. Counsel De Officio 91. He is counsel appointed by the court to represent and defend the accused in case he cannot afford to employ one himself. a. Counterfeiting the great seal of the Government of the Philippine Islands, forging the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive c. Corruption of public officials b. Counterfeiting, importing and uttering instruments not payable to bearer d. Counsel De Officio 92. Any person who shall forge the Great Seal of the Government of the Philippine Islands or the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive. a. Counterfeiting the great seal of the Government of the Philippine Islands, forging the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive c. Corruption of public officials b. Counterfeiting, importing and uttering instruments not payable to bearer d. Counsel De Officio 93. Any person who shall forge, import or utter, in connivance with the forgers or importers, any instrument payable to order or other document of credit not payable to bearer. a. Counterfeiting the great seal of the Government of the Philippine Islands, forging the signature or stamp of the Chief Executive c. Corruption of public officials b. Counterfeiting, importing and uttering instruments not payable to bearer d. Counsel De Officio 94. Any person who in act directed the others, spoke for them, signed receipts and other documents issued in their name or performed similar acts on behalf of the rebels. a. Court supervision of detainees c. Craft b. Coup d'etat d. Crime 95. He court shall exercise supervision over all persons in custody for the purpose of eliminating unnecessary detention. a. Court supervision of detainees c. Craft b. Coup d'etat d. Crime 96. Is a circumstance characterized by trickery or cunning resorted to by the accused, to carry out his design. It is the use of intellectual trickery and cunning on the part of the accused. a. Court supervision of detainees c. Craft b. Coup d'etat d. Crime 97. Is an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or commanding it. a. Court supervision of detainees c. Craft b. Coup d'etat d. Crime 98. One by which the State prosecutes a person for an act/omission punishable by law. a. Criminal Action c. Criminal Law b. Criminal Jurisdiction d. Crime 99. It is the authority to hear and try a particular offense and impose the punishment for it. a. Criminal Action c. Criminal Law b. Criminal Jurisdiction d. Crime 100. Branch of public law which defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment. a. Criminal Action c. Criminal Law b. Criminal Jurisdiction d. Crime