MERCY JUNIOR COLLEGE

PHYSICAL SCIENCE K-12

Pre- Test (2023)
Prepared by: Charity L. Cotejo
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General Direction: Read the questions carefully and write the letter of your answer on a piece of paper.
1. How can you determine the electronegativity of a molecule?
a) Measure the molecule's boiling point.
b) Analyse the molecule's color. 
c) Use the molecule's mass. 
d) Refer to a periodic table or electronegativity scale.
2. Which of the following is not a covalent compound?
a) Methane
b) Carbon tetrachloride
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbohydrates
3. When you have sore throat, you mix table salt and warm water to gargle. What are the chemical formulas in the
gargle mixture?
a) NaO2 and HCl
b) NaCl and H2O2
c) NaCl and H2O
d.) Na2O and H2Cl
4. A cup breaks when the ionic or covalent bonds are broken due to shock, stress, or some other influence. Even if such a
cup were broken into two simple pieces, just putting the pieces back together will not make the bonds re-form. Why?
a) The cup pieces experience irreversible damage.
b) The cup pieces lack sufficient adhesive properties. 
c) The cup pieces undergo chemical changes upon breaking. 
d) The cup pieces require additional external energy for bond reformation.
5. Which of the following is a saccharide?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Nucleic Acid
d) Proteins
6. Which of the following is not a lipids?
a) Waxes
b) Oils
c) Butter
d) Ether
7. A student conducted an experiment to determine the electrical conductivity of three substances: a metal,
a compound, and a non-metal. The metal conducted electricity, while the non-metal did not. However, the compound
also conducted electricity. 
How is it possible for the compound to exhibit electrical conductivity?
a) The compound is an ionic compound, allowing ions to move and conduct electricity
b) The compound is a covalent compound with mobile electrons, enabling it to it to conduct electricity
c) The compound is a semi-conductor, exhibiting partial electrical conductivity
d) The compound contaminated with impurities, which facilitates electrical conductivity
8. A compound is known to be a colorless, volatile liquid that has a sweet aroma. It is highly soluble in water and readily
evaporates at room temperature. Upon combustion, it produces carbon dioxide and water. Which of the following
compounds is a possible identity for the described compound?
a) Ethanol (C2H5OH)
b) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
 c) Acetone (CH3COCH3)
d) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
9. What will happen once the reaction is used up?
a) It stops.
b) It blows.
c) It continues.
d) It disappears
10. To increase the reaction rates, which of the following should be done?
a) Increase the temperature
b) Increase the reactant concentration
c) Increase the surface area of solid reactants
d) All of the above.
11. A student reacts 50 g of H2 with an excess of oxygen and produces 350 g of H2O. Find the percent yield for this
reaction.
a) 77.78 %
b) 78.77%
c) 87.77%
d) 97.78%
12. Brad and Matt are working in the lab. They noticed that when they mixed two dilute solutions together, the reaction
between them happened very slowly. Which of Matt's suggestions would BEST help to increase the rate of this reaction?
a) Increase the concentration of both solutions
b) Decrease the concentration of both solutions
c) Increase the concentration of one of the solutions
d) Decrease the concentration of one of the solutions
13. Which of the following would speed up a reaction?
a) Using lumps instead of powder
b) Increasing the concentration of an acid
c) Decreasing the temperature
d) All of the above
14. Two beakers are filled with the same volume and concentration of a chemical reactant, but one beaker is kept at
room temperature (25°C), while the other is placed in a water bath at 50°C. Which beaker is likely to have a faster
reaction rate, and why?
a) The beaker is at room temperature (25°C) because lower temperatures speed up reactions. 
b) The beaker is at room temperature (25°C) because higher temperatures slow down reactions. 
c) The beaker in the water bath at 50°C because higher temperatures speed up reactions. 
d) The beaker in the water bath at 50°C because lower temperatures slow down reactions.
15. Which of the following is true about a catalyst?
a) It is a limiting reactant.
b) It is an excess reactant.
c) It is a substance that increases the rate of reaction without itself being consumed.
d) None of the above.
16. Which natural resource is commonly used as fuel in vehicles? 
a) Biomass 
b) Hydropower 
c) Geothermal energy
d) Crude oil
17. The extraction of natural gas through hydraulic fracturing, or "fracking," has been a controversial practice due to its
potential environmental impact. Which of the following statements best represents a critical perspective on fracking? 
a) Fracking is a safe and efficient method for accessing abundant natural gas resources. 
b) Fracking poses significant risks to groundwater contamination and can contribute to seismic activity. 
c) Fracking is a necessary process to meet increasing energy demands and reduce reliance on fossil fuels. 
d) Fracking should be completely banned to protect the environment, despite its economic benefits.
18. A country is facing a significant shortage of clean drinking water due to drought and population growth. The
government is exploring different options to address this issue sustainably. 
Which of the following solutions would be the most effective in conserving and managing the 
Country’s water resources?
a) Construct new dams and reservoirs to increase water storage capacity. 
b) Implementing strict water rationing measures for domestic and industrial use.
c) Promoting the use of desalination plants to produce freshwater from seawater. 
d) Investing in rainwater harvesting systems for households and public buildings.
20. You are conducting a chemical reaction in the lab and need to determine the exact amount of reactants required for
the desired outcome. The balanced equation for the reaction is:
2A+3B→4C+D
You have 5 moles of A and an unlimited supply of B. However, you only have 7 moles of C. What is the maximum
number of moles of D that can be produced?
a) 1.75 moles
b) 1.70 moles
c) 1.90 moles
d) 1.40 moles
21. A flask containing a colorless solution is heated, and a reddish-brown gas is evolved. What type of reaction is likely
occurring, and what is the gas being released?
a) Oxidation reaction, releasing nitrogen gas. 
b) Combustion reaction, releasing carbon dioxide gas.
c) Reduction reaction, releasing hydrogen gas. 
d) Decomposition reaction, releasing chlorine gas.
22. Balance the equation:  __ C7H6O2 + __ O2 → __ CO2 + __ H2O.
a) 1 C7H6O2 + 9 O2 → 7 CO2 + 6 H2O
b) 2 C7H6O2 + 14 O2 → 14 CO2 + 12 H2O
c) 3 C7H6O2 + 20 O2 → 14 CO2 + 10 H2O
d) 4 C7H6O2 + 12 O2 → 28 CO2 + 22 H2O
23. Balance the equation: __H2 + __O2 → __H2O
a) 2H2 + 1O2 → 2H2O
b) 1H2 + 2O2 → 2H2O
c) 4H2 + 2O2 → 4H2O
d) 2H2 + 2O2 → 2H2O
24. You have a severe grease stain on your favorite shirt. Which cleaning product ingredient is most effective at
removing grease stains? 
a) Surfactants 
b) Solvents 
c) pH adjusters 
d) Emollients
25. You are cleaning your bathroom and notice that there is a stubborn stain on the porcelain sink. You want to
effectively remove the stain using a household product. 
Which of the following options would be the best choice based on its chemical properties?
a) Vinegar
b) Ammonia
c) Bleach
d) Rubbing alcohol
26. Which is not true about saponification?
a) Saponification is a chemical reaction that involves the hydrolysis of ester bonds.
b) Saponification is commonly used in the production of soap.
c) Saponification is an exothermic reaction that releases heat.
d) Saponification is a reversible reaction that can be easily reversed by applying heat.
27. Which of the following substances cannot be found in personal care products?
 a) Phenols
b) Alpha hydroxyl acid
c) Sulfuric Acid
d) Water
28. There is a difference between a disinfectant and a sanitizer. Which of the following supports this statement?
a) False, because disinfectants and sanitizers have an equal efficacy against pathogens.
b) False, because sanitizers and disinfectants are often used in healthcare and education settings.
c) True, because disinfectants usually have a greater efficacy against pathogens than sanitizers.
d) True, because sanitizers and disinfectants are designed to kill the types of bacteria that cause foodborne illness.
29. According to Aristotle, what are the two types of motion?
a) Circular and Linear
b) Static and Dynamic
c) Newtonian and Quantum
d) Rotational and Translational
30. Which of the following is not a law of Kepler’s Laws of Motion?
a) The law of Ellipses
b) The Law of Equal Areas.
c) The Law of Universal Gravitation.
d) The Law of Planetary Motion.
31. What does the theory of modern Physics tells us about light?
a) Demonstrate wave property only
b) Exclusively shows particle property
c) It combines wave and particle properties
d) It has neither wave nor particle properties

32. Which of the following statements accurately represents a key discovery or concept in the field of astronomy?
a) The heliocentric model, proposed by Nicolaus Copernicus, states that the Sun is at the center of the solar
system, with the Earth and other planets orbiting around it.
b) The Hubble Space Telescope, launched by NASA in 1990, provided crucial evidence for the existence of
extraterrestrial life.
c) The concept of retrograde motion, observed by ancient astronomers, refers to the apparent backward
movement of stars against the backdrop of the planets.
d.) Edwin Hubble's discovery of sunspots on the surface of the Sun contributed to our understanding of its
magnetic activity.
33. A hiker is planning to climb a mountain that is 10 kilometers away. The hiker can walk at a constant speed of 4
kilometers per hour. If the hiker starts the journey at 9:00 AM, what time will they reach the summit?
a) 10:00 AM
b) 11:30 AM
c) 12:00 PM (noon)
d) 1:00 PM
34. According to Newton's third law of motion, when one object exerts a force on another object, the second object
exerts a force of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction on the first object. This illustrates that force is:
a) A scalar quantity
b) An electromagnetic phenomenon
c) An interaction between two objects
d) Dependent on an object's mass
35. A person pushes against a stationary wall with a certain force. According to Newton's third law of motion, the wall
exerts an equal and opposite force on the person. Which of the following statements best explains the difference in the
effect of the forces on the person and the wall?
a) The person experiences a greater effect because they are exerting force.
b) The wall experiences a greater effect because it is stationary.
c) Both the person and the wall experience the same effect due to the equal and opposite forces.
d) The effect of the forces depends on the mass of the person and the wall.
36. Two cars, Car A and Car B, collide head-on with each other. Car A has a mass of 1000 kg, and Car B has a mass of
1500 kg. After the collision, Car A moves backward with a velocity of 10 m/s. What is the velocity of Car B after the
collision, assuming no external forces are involved?
a) 6.67 m/s backward
b) 6.67 m/s forward
c) 10 m/s backward
d) 10 m/s forward
37. Which of the following statements accurately represents the heliocentric model of the universe proposed by
Nicolaus Copernicus?
a) The heliocentric model states that the Earth is at the center of the solar system, with the Sun and other planets
orbiting around it.
b) The heliocentric model states that the Earth and the Sun are stationary, while all other celestial bodies, including
the planets, revolve around them.
c) The heliocentric model states that the Sun is at the center of the solar system, with the Earth and other planets
orbiting around it.
d) The heliocentric model states that the Earth and the Sun are both moving in elliptical orbits around a common
center of mass.
38. Consider the heliocentric model of the universe proposed by Nicolaus Copernicus. Which of the following statements
reflects a potential criticism or challenge to the acceptance of the heliocentric model during Copernicus' time?
a) The heliocentric model provided a simpler and more elegant explanation for the observed motions of the
planets compared to the geocentric model.
b) The heliocentric model contradicted the religious beliefs and scriptural interpretations prevalent at the time,
leading to resistance and skepticism from religious authorities.
c) The heliocentric model accurately predicted the occurrence of celestial events such as eclipses, providing
empirical evidence for its validity.
d) The heliocentric model offered a comprehensive understanding of the universe that was embraced by the
scientific community without any significant challenges or debates.
39. Two planets, Planet A and Planet B, have the same orbital period. However, Planet A has a greater average distance
from the Sun compared to Planet B. Which planet has a higher orbital speed?
a) Planet A
b) Planet B
c) Both planets have the same orbital speed
d) It cannot be determined from the given information
40. Which of the following supports the wave nature of electrons? 
a) dispersion of white light in a prism 
b) double-slit experiment
c) image formation in a mirror 
d) diffraction grating 
41. Which of the following options best explains why a submarine periscope will no longer work if it springs a leak and
the bottom prism is covered with water?
a) The water will distort the image seen through the periscope.
b) The water will block the light from entering the periscope. 
c) The water will break the total internal reflection within the prisms. 
d) The water will make the periscope too heavy to operate properly.
42. According to Newton's third law of motion, when one object exerts a force on another object, the second object
exerts a force of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction on the first object. This illustrates that force is:
a) A scalar quantity
b) An electromagnetic phenomenon
c) An interaction between two objects
d) Dependent on an object's mass
43. A person pushes against a stationary wall with a certain force. According to Newton's third law of motion, the wall
exerts an equal and opposite force on the person. Which of the following statements best explains the difference in the
effect of the forces on the person and the wall?
 a) The person experiences a greater effect because they are exerting the force.
b) The wall experiences a greater effect because it is stationary.
c) Both the person and the wall experience the same effect due to the equal and opposite forces.
d) The effect of the forces depends on the mass of the person and the wall.
44. Two cars, Car A and Car B, collide head-on with each other. Car A has a mass of 1000 kg, and Car B has a mass of
1500 kg. After the collision, Car A moves backward with a velocity of 10 m/s. What is the velocity of Car B after the
collision, assuming no external forces are involved?
a) 6.67 m/s backward
b) 6.67 m/s forward
c) 10 m/s backward
d) 10 m/s forward
45. Teacher Charity discussed on what’s so “special” about Special Relativity Theory. He explained the Inertial
Reference frame and he presented a video. He then asked the class which of the following reference frames is NOT
an inertial reference frame?
a) A woman on the street not moving.
b) A woman in a car that is not accelerating.
c) A man on a car speeding up on a freeway.
d) A man on a train that is moving at constant velocity.
46. According to special relativity, in which frames of reference does light in a vacuum travel at less than 3.0 x 10^8 m/s?
a) only frames of reference not accelerating
b) all frames of reference
c) no frames of reference
d) only frames of reference accelerating
47. How would an observer on a train that is moving at close to the speed of light view a stationary clock in a passing
train station, compared with an identical clock sitting next to the observer?
a) The clock in the train station would appear narrower and run faster.
b) The clock in the train station would appear wider and run more slowly.
c) The clock in the train station would appear wider and run faster.
d) The clock in the train station would appear narrower and run more slowly
48. What is Galileo's concept of falling objects in his experimentation?
a) object falling with changing speed
b) object falling with changing direction
c) object falling with uniform acceleration
d) object falling with changing acceleration
49. Which of the following options best describes how the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of a planet would
depend on its radius if all planets had the same average density?
a) The acceleration due to gravity would decrease as the radius increases. 
b) The acceleration due to gravity would increase as the radius increases. 
c) The acceleration due to gravity would remain constant regardless of the radius. 
d) The acceleration due to gravity would follow a complex pattern not solely dependent on the radius.
50. What phenomenon occurs when colors of a rainbow are seen when light passes through a glass prism?
a) diffraction of light
b) dispersion of light
c) scattering of light
d) reflection of light