BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU 10 CÂU

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU 10 CÂU
Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each question.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's species
have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the
general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and
conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is
the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found
on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early
comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate
and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how thes e patterns vary among
different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within
temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of
numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal
communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and
tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about
the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples
because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by
imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 45: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their adaptation to different habitats B. Their names
C. Their physical characteristics D. Their variety
Question 46: The word consequence in the passage is closest in meaning to "………….".
A. explanation B. result C. analysis D. requirement
Question 47: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation
issues because they …………… .
A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people
Question 48: The word striking in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………..".
A. successful B. noticeable C. confusing D. physical
Question 49: The word exceed in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………".
A. come close to B. locate C. go beyond D. allow
Question 50: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of
diversity EXCEPT ……………….. .
A. migration among temperate and tropical zones
B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. differences between temperate and tropical zones
D. patterns of distribution of species in each region
Question 51: The author mentions tropical Asia in the passage as an example of a location where
……….
A. butterflies are affected by human populations
B. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
C. butterfly behavior varies with climate
D. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
Question 52: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. European butterfly habitats
D. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
Question 53: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that ………… .
A. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
Question 54: The word generated in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………".
A. caused B. assisted C. estimated D. requested
Read the following passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each question.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions
of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the
right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history.
Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the
best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing
she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States.
But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in
history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female
authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians.
Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping
records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s organizations
compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were
saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the
United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the
Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later
Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most
of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just as much of mainstream
American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that women were making significant
contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else
important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the
great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American
histories being published.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of literature in early American histories
B. The place of American women in written histories
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D.The “great women” approach to history used by American historians
Question 56: The word “contemporary” in the 1st paragraph means that the history was
A. informative B. thoughtful C. written at that time D. faultfinding
Question 57: In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ________
A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage
B. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
Question 58: The word “celebratory” in the 2nd paragraph means that the writings referred to ________
A. related to parties B. religious C. serious D. full of praise
Question 59: The word “they” in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
A. efforts B. authors C. counterparts D. sources
Question 60: In the 2nd paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities
B. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
D. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
Question 61: On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely
have been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results
B. Biographies of John Adams
C. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem
D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college
Question 62: What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the Schlesinger
Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers.
D. They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States.
Question 63: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-
century “great women” EXCEPT ________
A. authors B. reformers
C. activists for women’s rights D. politicians
Question 64: The word “representative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. typical B. satisfied C. supportive D. distinctive
Câu hỏi Đáp án
45 D
46 B
47 D
48 B
49 C
50 A
51 D
52 A
53 C
54 A
55 B
56 C
57 B
58 D
59 B
60 C
61 C
62 C
63 D
64 A
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300
million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked into the
atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More than
24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to replenish
the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent. Thus, the
hydrosphere permits organic existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other
liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids contract
on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice sank, the
hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during the summer
season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold currents, which
moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding charateristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This characterisitc enables the oceans to absorb and store vast
quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more substances
than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for minerals which
have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals are being
commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practised, potash is extracted from the Dead Sea,
and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf Coast.
Question 45: The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry
Question 46: The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to __________ .
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 300 million cubic miles of water
Question 47: The word “replenish” in paragraph 1 can best replaced by ________ .
A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form
Question 48: According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because ________ .
A. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle
B. there are currents in the oceans
C. they do not need oxygen
D. ice floats
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characterisitic of water?
A. Water can absorb heat B. Water is good solvent.
C. Water contracts on cooling D. Water expands when it is frozen
Question 50: The word “outstanding” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important
Question 51: According the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT ___________ .
A. the part of the earth covered by water B. responsible for all forms of life
C. in danger of freezing over D. a source of natural resources
Question 52: The author’s tone in the passage can best be described as ________ .
A. dispassionate B. speculative C. biased D. dogmatic
Question 53: The author organizes the passage by _______.
A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas B. comparison and contrast
C. general statement followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof
Question 54: Which of the following statements would be the most likely to begin the paragraph
immediately following the passage?
A. Water has the ability to erode land
B. Droughts and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water
C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength
D. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the questions.
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business,
the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women
entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in
annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray,
an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering
management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the
factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the
corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte
Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked
hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go
out on their own".
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for
example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software
business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and
engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers
keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the
bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired
several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and
sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face
hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still
dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the
situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.
Question 55: What is the main idea of this passage?
A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.
B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small business than men are.
D. Women today are opening more business of their own.
Question 56:The word “excluded” is closest meaning to _________ .
A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to
Question 57: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business
world EXCEPT _________ .
A.Women were required to stay at home with their families.
B. Women lacked ability to work in business.
C.Women faced discrimination in business.
D.Women were not trained in business.
Question 58: The word “that” refers to _________.
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board.
B. Women working hard
C. Women achieving advanced degrees
D. Women believing that business is a place for them.
Question 59: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s _________ .
A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management.
B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today.
D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business.
Question 60: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in order to _________ .
A. Show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand
Question 61: The expression “ keep tabs on” is closest meaning to _________ .
A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of
C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of
Question 62: The word “hurdles” can be best replaced by __________ .
A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups
Question 63: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women
are small because ________ .
A. Women prefer a small intimate setting.
B. Women can’t deal with money.
C. Women are not able to borrow money easily.
D. many women fail at large businesses.
Question 64: The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is ________ .
A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago
and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very
obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected.
A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving
signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or
television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is
enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the
doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder.
It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area
be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by
fitting security lights to the outside of your house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided
to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows
provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe.
Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small
your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through.
For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have
top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar
alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of
breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if
you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have
callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an
identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an
intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait
for help.
Question 45: A well-protected house _________ .
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
Question 46: According to the writer, we should ________ .
A. avoid leaving our house empty.
B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed.
D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
Question 47: The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot __________.
A. is predictable. B. is useful.
C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
Question 48: What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
Question 49: What word best replaces “aforementioned” in paragraph 5?
A. foreseen B. predicted C. foresaid D. forethought
Question 50: Gaining entry to a house through a small window _________ .
A. is surprisingly difficult.
B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.
D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
Question 51: According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms ________.
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
Question 52: The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole _________.
A. will prevent your home being burgled.
B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people.
D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
Question 53: What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
Question 54: The best title for the text is _________.
A. Increasing household crime.
B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
D. Burglary statistics
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to
use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for
your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk
on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His
family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is
some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often.
Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need
it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones
may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile
phone too often
Question 55: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
__________ .
A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.
C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
Question 56: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ .
A. meanings B. expression C. transmission D. method
Question 57: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ .
A. cause some mental malfunction B. change their users’ temperament.
C. change their users’ social behaviours. D. damage their users’ emotions.
Question 58: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ .
A. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.
B. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
C. the negative public use of cell phones.
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
Question 59: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ .
A. the smallest units of the brain. B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
C. the resident memory. D. the arteries of the brain.
Question 60: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________ .
A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family.
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly.
Question 61: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means _________ .
A. certainly B. obviously C. privately D. possibly
Question 62: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________ .
A. their radiant light. B. their raiding power.
C. their power of attraction. D. their invisible rays.
Question 63: According to the writer, people should __________ .
A. keep off mobile phones regularly.
B. never use mobile phones in all cases.
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
Question 64: The most suitable title for the passage could be __________ .
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price.
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
C. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
Câu số Đáp án
45 A
46 D
47 A
48 A
49 C
50 B
51 A
52 D
53 D
54 B
55 A
56 D
57 A
58 A
59 A
60 A
61 D
62 D
63 D
64 A
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London from
New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with technology. Deep
inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s functioning: sleep and wake cycles,
levels of alertness, performance, mood, hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates
all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies
“day”).
This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again between 3-5 p.m.
Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon.
One of the major causes of the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal
body clock with clocks in the external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock,
which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more complex,
not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may adjust to a new time zone at
one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your digestion may be on a different schedule
altogether.
Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend our day beyond 24
hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day. That is why travelling in a westward
direction is more body-clock friendly than flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward
travel was associated with significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying
west, you are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock. Flying
eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s
natural tendency.
One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted. There are many
reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and activity levels, trying to sleep when
your body clock is programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer
hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-
making can be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by 30
percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to
help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you arrive. But it can take the body clock several
days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time zone.
Question 45: The main function of the body clock is to_________
A. govern all the body’s responses. B. regulate the body’s functions.
C. help us sleep. D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle.
Question 46: The word “It” refers to_________
A. the programme B. the body clock C. the function D. the brain
Question 47: Jet lag _________
A. makes our body clock operate badly. B. causes our body clock to change.
C. extends the hours of our body clock. D. upsets our body’s rhythms.
Question 48: The word “malady” is closest in meaning to
A. illness B. bore C. thought D. feeling
Question 49: The direction you fly in_________
A. helps you sleep better. B. alters your body’s natural rhythms.
C. affects the degree of jet lag. D. extends or shrinks your body clock.
Question 50: According to the article, _________
A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly.
B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying.
C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making.
D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.
Question 51: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article_________
A. makes no suggestions.
B. says there is nothing you can do.
C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock.
D. suggests changing the time on your watch.
Question 52: According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’ sleep?
A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m.
B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent.
C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity.
D. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock.
Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that_________
A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward.
B. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones.
C. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones.
D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones.
Question 54: The word “fatigue” is closest in meaning to_________
A. obsession B. exhaustion C. sleeplessness D. frustration
correct answer to each of the following questions from 55 to 64
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid material such as silicon
can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt
(sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct
electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least
one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now
strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the
electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move
they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected
to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such
good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to
encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the
carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric
current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to
create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved
in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot
flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no
charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a
water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter
does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the
problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is
left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP
Question 55: Electrical conductivity is .
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 56: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to .
A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge
C. the way its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
Question 57: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means .
A. the lightest B. nearest to the inside
C. furthest from the inside D. the heaviest
Question 58: The atoms of a metal can bond together because .
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
B. electrons can flow in a single direction
C. they lose all of electrons
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 59: Slat in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because .
A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily
C. it cannot create any charge ions D. it charged ions are not free to move
Question 60: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. charged ions B. electric currents
C. charged particles D. electrical insulator
Question 61: Water is a poor conductor because it contains .
A. no positive or negative electric charge B. only a small amount of fully charged particles
C. only a positive electric charge D. only a negative electric charge
Question 62: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because .
A. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity
B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
C. the water contains too many neutral molecules
D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
Question 63: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
D. Some materials are more conductive than others.
Question 64: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices
C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical Conductivity
Câu số Đáp án
45 B
46 B
47 D
48 A
49 C
50 D
51 A
52 C
53 D
54 B
55 A
56 C
57 C
58 D
59 D
60 D
61 B
62 B
63 A
64 D
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct
or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast
numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What
is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by
poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal
gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals,
such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem.
International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our
planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in
an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then
charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend
on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect
the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products
made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being
hunted and killed.
Question 35. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
Question 36. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
Question 37. The word “poachers” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. illegal hunters B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists D. trained hunters
Question 38. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
Question 39. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast_______.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
Question 40. What does the word “This” in the first paragraph refers to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 41. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
Question 42. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower B. raise
C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
Question 43. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
Question 44. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C . Despite its antiquity, certain aspects
of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile
river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways
and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the
pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The
ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid
were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. .
Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are
prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have
supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial
beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
Question 45. What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events D. A superior race of people built in
Question 46. Extraterrestrial beings are__________.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
Question 47. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
B. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
Question 48. The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to __________.
A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure
Question 49. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
Question 50. In the second passage , the word ‘ prophesied’ is closest in meaning to __________.
A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
Question 51. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Question 52. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
Question 53. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. as an engineering feat
Question 54. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
MOBILE PHONES: Are they about to transform our lives?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly concerned
that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our most intimate secrets, yet we worry
that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet
many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generations phones and
fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term effects of new mobile
technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them. Research
about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond being a mere practical
communications tool to become the backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the report says, who
regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because mobiles are seen as being
beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that mobiles,
especially text messaging was seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact of phones, however, has
been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a
new broader community. Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from
another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobiles phones, the report claims, will be a vastly improved
mobile
infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more sophisticated location-
based services for users. The report calls on government to put more effort into the delivery of services by
mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to
remind patients of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile
navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to
their mobile and presented by voiced, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these devices will also be
able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will also allow for
remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain scientists are developing an asthma management
solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones to
provide fast
internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services and can have no
access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social potential of
the vastly increase,’ the report argues.
Question 45: What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones?
A. We can’t live without them.
B. We are worried about using them so much.
C. We have contradictory feelings about them.
D. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.
Question 46: What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. long-term effects B. new mobile technologies
C. doubts D. benefits
Question 47: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones
B. Mobile phones makes romantic communication easier
C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around
Question 48: Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones?
A. They use text messages more than any other group
C. They feel independent when they use them
B. They are more inclined to be late than older people
D. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicating things that make them uncomfortable.
D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
Question 50: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3?
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
Question 51: How might mobile phones be used in the future?
A. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery
B. To show bus and train timetables
C. To arrange deliveries
D. To cure diseases
Question 52: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because ________.
A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place B. it provides directions orally
C. it tells them which roads are congested D. it shows them how to avoid road works
Question 53: What is the general attitude of the report described here?
A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
Question 54: The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. obvious B. serious C. voiced D. overwhelmed
correct answer to each of the questions.
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object, each slightly
different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw
the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will
produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-
assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequence of
pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the objects in the pictures
as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information.
Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high
degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-dimensional transformation, shading, and
curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special color
terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single
frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer's display screen, but for the highest quality
images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computes the positions and colors for the
figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes,
however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this
process is completed, it is repeated for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the
film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem
right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very
expensive and time consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple
computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-
resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 55: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production process B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost D. The role of the artist
Question 56: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw
the____.
A. first frame B. middle frames C. last frame D. entire sequence of frames
Question 57: The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to____.
A. formulas B. databases C. numbers D. objects
Question 58: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used
to____.
A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images D. create new frames
Question 59: According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by____.
A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations
Question 60: The word "captures" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to____.
A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers
Question 61: The word "Once" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to____.
A. before B. since C. after D. while
Question 62: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolution images.
D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
Question 63: The word "task" in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to____.
A. possibility B. position C. time D. job
Question 64: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. B
31. B 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. A
41. B 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. D 50. A
51. C 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. A 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. D 60. B
61. C 62. A 63. D 64. D
My family consists of four people. There’s my father whose name is Jan, my mother whose name is
Marie, my brother, Peter and of course, me. I have quite a large extended family as well but, only the four of
us live together in our apartment in a block of flats. My father is fifty-two years old. He works as an
accountant in an insurance company. He is tall and slim, has got short brown and gray hair and blue eyes.
My father likes gardening very much as well as listening to music and reading books about political science.
His special hobbies are bird watching and travelling.
Now I’ll describe my mother and my brother. My mother is forty-seven and she works as a nurse in a
hospital. She is small, and slim, has short brown hair and green eyes. She likes bird watching and travelling
too, so whenever my parents are able to they go some place interesting for nature watching. Since we have
a cottage with a garden they both spend a lot of time there. My brother is sixteen. He is slim and has short
brown hair and blue eyes. He also attends high school. He is interested in computers and sports like football
and hockey. He also spends a lot of time with his friends.
I have only one grandmother left still living. She is in pretty good health even at the age of seventy-
eight so she still lives in her own flat. I enjoy spending time with her when I can. Both my grandfathers died
from cancer because they were smokers, which was really a great tragedy because I didn’t get chance to
know them. My other grandmother died just a few years ago. I also have a lot of aunts, uncles, and cousins.
The cousin I’m closest to is my uncle’s daughter Pauline. We have a lot in common because we are both
eighteen and so we are good friends.
My parents have assigned me certain duties around the house. I don’t mind helping out because
everyone in a family should contribute in some way. I help with the washing up, the vacuuming and the
shopping. Of course I also have to help keep my room tidy as well. My brother is responsible for the dusting
and mopping. He also has to clean his own room. Even though my brother and I sometimes fight about who
has to do what job, we are still very close. I am also very close to my parents and I can rely on them to help
me. My patents work together to keep our home well maintained and it seem they always have a project or
another that they are working on. They respect each other’s opinions and even if they disagree they can
always come to a compromise. I hope in the future that I have a family like ours.
Question 45. What is the writer’s father?

A. a cashier B an accountant C. a receptionist D. a writer
Question 46. Which of the followings is NOT the hobby of the writer’s father?
A listening to music B. bird watching C. painting D. doing the gardening
Question 47. Where does the writer’s mother work?
A an a clinic B at home C in a company D. in a hospital
Question 48. What does the writer’s mother look like?
A She is slim and small B She is small and has grey hair
C. She has blue eyes D. She has long brown hair.
Question 49. What does the writer’s brother do?
A. a computer programmer B. a high school student
C. a college student D. a football player
Question 50. What happened to the writer’s grandfathers?

A. They died because they smoked too much. B. They got lung cancer a few years ago,
C. They had to leave their own flat. D. They had an accident and died..
Question 51. The word “tragedy” in the third paragraph mostly means ______
A. bad luck B. sudden accident C. sad event D. boring result
Question 52. The word “assigned” in the fourth paragraph mostly means ______
A. allowed B. appointed C. forced D. encouraged
Question 53. What does the writer do to help her parents at home?
A. She does the dusting. B. She does the mopping.
C. She does the washing. D. She does the shopping.
Question 54. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A The writer’s mother likes travelling.
B. One of the writer’s grandmothers is living with her.
C. The writer’s brother has to clean his own room.
D. The writer has a cousin whose age is the same as hers.
We are descendents of the ice age. Periods of glaciation have spanned the whole of human
existence for the past 2 million years. The rapid melting of the continental glaciers at the end of the last ice
age spurred one of the most dramatic climate changes in the history of the planet. During this interglacial
time, people were caught up in a cataclysm of human accomplishment, including the development of
agriculture and animal husbandry. Over the past few thousand years, the Earth’s climate has been
extraordinarily beneficial, and humans have prospered exceedingly well under a benign atmosphere.
Ice ages have dramatically affected life on Earth almost from the very beginning. It is even possible
that life itself significantly changed the climate. All living organisms pull carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere
and eventually store it in sedimentary rocks within the Earth’s crust. If too much carbon dioxide is lost, too
much heat escapes out into the atmosphere. This can cause the Earth to cool enough for glacial ice to
spread across the land.
In general the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has been equalized by the
input of carbon dioxide from such events as volcanic eruptions. Man, however, is upsetting the equation by
burning fossil fuels and destroying tropical rain forests, both of which release stored carbon dioxide. This
energizes the greenhouse effect and causes the Earth to warm. If the warming is significant enough, the
polar ice caps eventually melt.
The polar ice caps drive the atmospheric and oceanic circulation systems. Should the ice caps melt,
warm tropical waters could circle the globe and make this a very warm, inhospitable planet.
Over the past century, the global sea level has apparently risen upwards of 6 inches, mainly because
of the melting of glacial ice. If present warming trends continue, the seas could rise as much as 6 feet by the
next century. This could flood coastal cities and fertile river deltas, where half the human population lives.
Delicate wetlands, where many marine species breed, also would be reclaimed by the sea. In addition, more
frequent and severe storms would batter coastal areas, adding to the disaster of the higher seas.
The continued melting of the great ice sheets in polar regions could cause massive amounts of ice to
crash into the ocean. This would further raise the sea level and release more ice, which could more than
double the area of sea ice and increase correspondingly the amount of sunlight reflected back into space.
The cycle would then be complete as this could cause global temperatures to drop enough to initiate another ice
age.
Question 55. According to the passage, carbon dioxide is stored in each of the following EXCEPT
A. polar ice caps. B. sedimentary rocks. C. rain forests. D. fossil fuel.
Question 56. What does the final paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The relationship between the ocean and the sun B. The amount of sunlight reflected into space
C. A rise in global temperatures D. The conditions that could lead to an ice age
Question 57. Which of the following does the author NOT mention as a consequence of a large rise in global
sea level?
A. The destruction of wetlands B. The flooding of cities
C. A more diverse marine population D. Severe storms
Question 58. According to the passage, what is the relationship between carbon dioxide and the Earth’s
climate?
A. Carbon dioxide, which is trapped in glacial ice, is released when warm temperatures cause the ice melt.
B. The greenhouse effect, which leads to the warming of the climate, is result of too much carbon
stored in the Earth’s crust.
C. Rain causes carbon dioxide to be washed out of the atmosphere and into the ocean.
D. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide results in the warming of the climate.
Question 59. The word "beneficial" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. calm B. inviting C. thoughtful D. favorable
Question 60. The word "massive" can be replaced to
A. wide B. huge C. dense D. thick
Question 61. It can be inferred from the passage that the development of agriculture
A. preceded the development of animal husbandry. B. withstood vast changes in the Earth’s climate.
C. did not take place during an ice age. D. was unaffected by the greenhouse effect.
Question 62. The word “this” in the third paragraph refers to
A. man’s upsetting the equation B. the reduction of the level of carbon dioxide.
C. a volcanic eruption D. the melting of the polar ice caps
Question 63. The word “inhospitable” is closest in meaning to
A. imperfect. B. uninhabitable. C. unlikable D. cruel.
Question 64. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The possibility that the popular ice caps will melt
B. The coming of another ice age
C. Man’s effect on the 45 B carbon dioxide level in the
atmosphere
46 C
D. The climate of the Earth over the years.
47 D
48 A
49 B
50 A
51 C
52 B
53 D
54 B
55 A
56 D
57 C
58 D
59 D
60 B
61 C
62 A
63 B
64 A
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person
conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle
or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and
regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before
a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the
tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the
participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or
interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener.
Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for
obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing,
the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine
the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive,
outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or
mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker
perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter
the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the
voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and
lethargic qualities of the depressed.
A. The function of the voice in performance B. Communication styles
C. The connection between voice and personality D. The production of speech
Question 46: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Question 47: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to _____ .
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
Question 48: The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
Question 49: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Question 50: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's
____ .
A. general physical health B. personality C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
Question 51: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide _____ .
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Question 52: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to _____ .

A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
Question 53: The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated
Question 54: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. lethargy B. depression C. boredom D. anger
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the
crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since
man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely
comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand
its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found.
The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is
open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is
largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the
word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive
if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes.
So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to
hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches
down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 55: The title for this passage could be .
A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Life Underground”
Question 56: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means .
A. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”
B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants”
C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
D. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”
Question 57: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as .
A. water is an essential part of his existence
B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
C. very few lager animals are found in the desert
D. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
Question 58: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. many large animals B. water-loving animals
C. moist-skinned animals D. the coyote and the bobcat
Question 59: According to the passage, creatures in the desert .
A. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
B. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
C. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
D. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest
Question 60: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT .
A. they dig home underground B. they sleep during the day
C. they are watchful and quiet D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 61: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .
A. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm”
B. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with”
C. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water”
D. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating”
Question 62: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
C. they live in an accommodating environment
D. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
Question 63: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means .
A. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found”
B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in”
C. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young”
D. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept”
Question 64: We can infer from the passage that .
A. desert life is colorful and diverse B. living things adjust to their environment
C. healthy animals live longer lives D. water is the basis of desert life
49. B 57. A
50. B 58. A
51. B 59. D
52. C 60. D
45. C 53. C 61. C
46. B 54. D 62. A
47. A 55. A 63. B
48. D 56. C 64. B

the correct answer to each of the following questions from45to54
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects
of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s
rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant
body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which
would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise
to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been
measured in Grant’s gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night,
and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the
camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming
up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be
fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water
without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body
weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert
animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over
100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water
to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too
rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of
obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but
can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the
further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that
appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
Question 45: 1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert C. Diseased of desert animals

B. Adaptations of desert animals. D. Human use of desert animals.
Question 46: According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators C. It helps them see their young at night.
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors D. It keeps them cool at night.
Question 47: The word “maintaining” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
Question 48: The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
Question 49: When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise C. Just after sunset

B. In the middle of the day D. Just after drinking
Question 50: The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce
Question 51: What causes water intoxication?

A. Drinking too much water very quickly C. Bacteria in water.
B. Drinking polluted water. D. Lack of water.
Question 52: Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels. C. To give instructions about desert survival.
B. To contrast them to desert mammals D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
Question 53: The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. digest B. carry C. save D. get
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures. C. Drinking water quickly.

B. Eating while dehydrated D. Being active at night
the correct answer to each of the following questions from 55to 64.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air
pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution
laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds
that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today.
As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has
increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be
considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered
by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as
an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a
global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the
cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations
at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would
have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance
to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this
represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide
has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural
level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its
level reaches about 15 ppm.
A. The economic impact of air pollution. C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant D.The effects of compounds added to the
atmosphere
Question 56: The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 58:The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_.
A. the various chemical reactions C. the compounds moved to the water

B. the pollutants from the developing Earth D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 59: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in
controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.

B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed
Question 60: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _______.
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants

B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 61: The word "localized" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 62: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a
substance is only useful if _______.
A. the other substances in the area are C. the natural level is also known
known B. it is in a localized area
D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 63: The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
Question 64:Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
Câu Đáp án
45 B
46 B
47 C
48 C
49 A
50 A
51 A
52 B
53 D
54 D
55 B
56 A
57 C
58 D
59 A
60 B
61 A
62 C
63 C
64 D
best answer to each of the following questions.
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do
outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a
person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The
truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s ability
to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one
psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins
that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was
based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing,
and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and
given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree
of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between
intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or
how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One
professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary
performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least
ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
 Marry an intelligent person.
 Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
 Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
 Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a
child who wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 30: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires .

A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
Question 31: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to .
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
Question 32: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that .
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability.
Question 33: Scientists chose twins for their study because .
A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
Question 34: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nutured.
B. They practice playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.
Question 35: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow .
A. their own interests
B. their parent’s interests
C. only their interests in musical instruments
D. only their interests in computer games
Question 36: When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid .
A. pushing their children too hard.
B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their own interests
D. starting their education at an early age
Question 37: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage
means that in order to become a genius .
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
Question 38: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means .
A. “good for someone and making him/her likely to be successful”
B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
Question 39: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT .
A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
B. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
C. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
D. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is the big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive
to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling
movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes
and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging:
usually paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that
are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality
products. When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss
of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be
easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a
product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles,
wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some
parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps
have relatively little glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used
again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum
can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans),
they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
Question 50:. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America B. Middle East C. Europe D. Asia
Question 51: What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. cautious B. logical C. responding D. friendly
Question 52: The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.

A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference
Question 53: It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they have to be repaired many times. B. they will soon throw them away
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap. .
Question 54: What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to live sensitively to the environment. B. How to reduce garbage disposal.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement. D. What people understand the term “recycle”
Question 55: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy more hamburgers
Question 56: What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
B. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
C. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
Question 57: The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. deed D. belief
Question 58: Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. each returned bottle is paid D. few bottles are made of glass or plastic
Question 59: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. TV sets and aluminum cans. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 D
34 A
35 A
36 A
37 B
38 A
39 A
50 C
51 D
52 C
53 B
54 A
55 D
56 A
57 C
58 C
59 D
Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the following questions.
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite
technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment
for scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became
sluggish, and their mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their
speech organs, communication among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today, most
oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and
make direct obervations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take from
the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor can be
made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the technology of
sophisticated aerial photgraphy from vantage points above the surface of more than seven miles and cruise
at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in
order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important for ocean study are
data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea
ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the
temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents from
laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze
information from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement and
characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or
even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively.
Some of humankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with
the help of observations
made possible by this new technology.
Question 45. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?

A. Communication among drivers. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor.
C. Undersea vehicles. D. Technological advances in oceanography.
Question 46. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. very weak B. nervous C. confused D. slow moving
Question 47. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _______.
A. vehicles as well as divers B. controlling currents and the weather
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. the limitations of diving equipment
Question 48. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the water destroyed their speech organs
C. the pressure affected their speech organs D. the vehicles they used have not been perfected
Question 49. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.
A. travel at a constant speed B. function without problems
C. stay in communication D. remain still
Question 50. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers have B. are too small for a man to fit inside
C. make direct observations of the ocean floor D. are very slow to respond
Question 51. The word “data” is closest in meaing to _______.
A. samples B. photographs C. information D. articles
Question 52. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?

A. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform.
B. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore.
C. By operators outside the vehicle on ship.
D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater.
Question 53. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. The location of sea ice. B. Cloud formations over the ocean.
C. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. D. A model of the ocean’s movements.
Question 54. The words “those” refers to __________.
A. vehicles B. problems C. ships D. computers
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object, each slightly
different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw
the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will
produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-
assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequences of
pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the objects in the pictures
as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information.
Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high
degrees of realism involves computer techniques from three-dimensional transformation, shading, and
curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special color
terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single
frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest quality
images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the positions and colors for the
figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes,
however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this
process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the
film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem
right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very
expensive and time- consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple
computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-
resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 55: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production procession B. The equipment needed C. The high cost D. The role of the artist
Question 56: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw
the ____.
A. first frame B. middle frames C. last frame D. entire sequences of frames
Question 57: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. formulas B. objects C. numbers D. database
Question 58: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to ___.
A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images D. create new frames
Question 59: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by _____.
A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations
Question 60: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers
Question 61: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. before B. since C. after D. while
Question 62: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings. B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolutions images. D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
Question 63: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possibility B. position C. time D. job
Question 64: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
61 C
62 A
63 A
64 D
45 D
46 D
47 A
48 C
49 A
50 C
51 C
52 B
53 D
54 B
55 A
56 B
57 B
58 C
59 B
60 B
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has
been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed
through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power.
Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not
much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful
voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the
huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are
powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal
in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been
harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task
for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be
supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In
Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive
the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several
countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an
atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through
radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the
environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap
sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity
of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the
world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 45. Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?
A. Wind. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Sunlight.
Question 46. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. the tides B. scientists C. harmful effects D. new ways
Question 47. What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages B. Generators or turbines. C. Pipes and radiators. D. Electric magnets.
Question 48. Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Gas. B. Hot wind C. Steam D. Petrol
Question 49. The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph
to ______.
A. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
B. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 50. What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It is used to drive motor engines. B. It can be adapted to various uses.
C. It can be made with ease. D. It is cheap and easy to use.
Question 51. The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______.
A. atomic power and water B. wind and gas
C. water and coal D. sunlight and wind power
Question 52. Electric magnets are used in steel works to ______.
A. heat the molten steel B. lift heavy weights up to ten tons
C. test the steel for strength D. boil a jug of water
Question 53. The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is
that they _____.
A. do not require attention B. are more adaptable
C. do not pollute the environment D. are more reliable
Question 54. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
C. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life” D. “How to Produce Electricity”
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying,
smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh
milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas
Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail
Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became
more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By
1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from
tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets.
Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more
produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances
and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern
and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six
months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy
means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more
than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture
in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were
heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families
could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied
fare.
Question 55. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
Question 56. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ________ .
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
Question 57. During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ .
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
Question 58. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use _________ .
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
Question 59. The word” them” in line 12 refers to _________ .
A. refrigerator cars B.growers C. perishables D. distances.
Question 60. The word” fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device
Question 61.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice _________ .
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
Question 62. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to _________ .
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
Question 63. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
Question 64. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners
49. A
50. B
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. B
55. D
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. C
60. A
45. D 61. C
46. A 62. B
47. B 63. B
48. C 64. C
answer to each of the questions.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name
from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general
public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as
seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or
volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of
water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers
per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters.
It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two
areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic
activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the
tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the
tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska,
so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time
for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous
tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the
Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record
occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion,
sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano
actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
Question 45: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _________ .
A. tides B. storm surges
C. tidal waves D. underwater earthquakes
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____ .
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
Question 47: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ________ .
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
Question 49: In line 9, water that is “shallow” is NOT __________ .
A. deep B. coastal C. tidal D. clear
Question 50: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are
more likely to _________ .
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning D. be less of a problem
Question 51: The possessive “their” in line 16 refers to _________ .
A. the Hawaiian Islands B. these tsunamis
C. thousands of miles D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
Question 52: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 17, is one that is _________ .
A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault
Question 53: From the expression “on record” in line 19, it can be inferred that the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ___________ .
A. was filmed as it was happening B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
Question 54: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
answer to each of the questions from.
Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by
Polish eye doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to
alleviate some of the misunderstandings among cultures.
In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as
uncomplicated as possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did
not result in a workable language in that these monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to
understand or to retain.
Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his
language sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One
example of how he simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as
in the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means
“pretty”. Another example of the simplified language can be seen in the prefix mal-, which makes a word
opposite in meaning; the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means
“ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.
In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr.
Esperanto, when signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person
who hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950,
Esperanto had spread from Europe to America and Asia.
In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately700 attendees
from 20 different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were
registered for the Tenth World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and
forced its cancellation.
Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was
introduced, it is estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a
large number, but it is really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion
Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably
and are taking steps to try to make this happen.
Question 55: The topic of this passage is
A. a language developed in the last few years
B. one man’s efforts to create a universal language
C. using language to communicate internationally
D. how language can be improve
Question 56: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language
A. to provide a more complex language B. to create one world culture
C. to resolve cultural differences D. to build a name for himself
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means
A. hopelessness B. hopeless C. hope D. hopeful
Question 58: The expression “popping up” in line 17 could best be replaced by
A. hiding B. shouting C. leaping D. opening
Question 59: It can be inferred from the passage that the Third World Congress of Esperanto took place
A. in 1909 B. in 1907 C. in 1913 D. in 1905
Question 60: According to the passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress?
A. It was scheduled for 1915 B. It had attendees from20 countries
C. It never took place D. It had 4,000 attendees
Question 61: The expression “ups and downs” in line 23 is closest in meaning to
A. takeoffs and landings B. floors and ceilings
C. highs and lows D. tops and bottoms
Question 62: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
Question 63: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. applied linguistics B. European history C. English grammar D. world government
Question 64: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses
A. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments
B. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the 1920s
C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language
D. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth
45 B
46 A
47 C
48 C
49 A
50 C
51 B
52 A
53 D
54 C
55 B
56 C
57 B
58 D
59 B
60 C
61 C
62 B
63 A
64 D
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the decorative
arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed in a great
country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family, Winterthur has been a private
estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the
house remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum.
The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only
a short while ago whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house
can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture
and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic structure;
the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years.
The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the
part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-
room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private
house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an effort
to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give them more
meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, the period room
represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an opportunity to assemble
objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses
C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned
Question 26: The phrase "devoted to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. specializing in B. sentimental about C. surrounded by D. successful in
Question 27: What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
A. The old furniture was replaced B. The estate became a museum
C. The owners moved out D. The house was repaired
Question 28: What does the author mean by stating "the impression of a lived-in house is apparent to
the visitor"?
A. Few people visit Winterthur
B. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable
C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum
D. Winterthur is very old
Question 29: The word "assembled" in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. summoned B. appreciated
C. fundamentally changed D. brought together
Question 30: The word "it" in line 10 refers to _________ .
A. collection B. English country house
C. visitor D. Winterthur
Question 31: The word "developing" in line 11 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. evolving B. exhibiting C. informative D. traditional
Question 32: According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT
_________ .
A. place of manufacture B. date
C. past ownership D. style
Question 33: What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
A. Paragraph 2 explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with that explained in Paragraph 1.
B. Paragraph 2 explains a term that was mentioned in Paragraph 1.
C. Each paragraph describes a different historical period
D. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum
Question 34: Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed?
A. lines 6-8 B. lines 4-5 C. lines 1-2 D. lines 10-12
correct answer for each of the questions.
MOBILE PHONES: ARE THEY ABOUT TO TRANSFORM OUR LIVES?
We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly
concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our most intimate secrets,
yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than the Internet to cope with
modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generation phones and
fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term effects of new mobile
technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them. Research
about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond being a mere practical
communications tool to become the backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers, the report says,
who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This is partly because mobiles are seen as being
beyond the control of parents. But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that mobiles,
especially text messaging, were seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact of phones, however, has
been local rather than global, supporting existing friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a
new broader community. Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody from
another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobile phones, the report claims, will be a vastly improved
mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more sophisticated
location-based services for users. The report calls on government to put more effort into the delivery of
services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text
messages to remind patients of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden,
a mobile navigation product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is automatically
downloaded to their mobile and presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these
devices will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will
also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain, scientists are developing an asthma
management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones to
provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services and can
have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social
potential will vastly increase,’ the report argues.
Question 55: What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones?
A. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.
B. We are worried about using them so much.
C. We cannot live without them.
D. We have contradictory feelings about them.
Question 56: What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. long-term effects B. new mobile technologies
C. benefits D. doubts
Question 57: What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?
A. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around.
B. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones.
C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
D. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier.
Question 58: Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones?
A. They feel independent when they use them.
B. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations.
C. They use text messages more than any other group.
D. They are more inclined to be late than older people.
Question 59: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicate things that make them uncomfortable.
D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
Question 60: In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3?
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. It depends on local dialects.
C. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighbourhood.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
Question 61: How might mobile phones be used in the future?
A. To show bus and train timetables
B. To cure diseases
C. To arrange deliveries
D. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery
Question 62: The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because _____.
A. it tells them which roads are congested B. it shows them how to avoid road works
C. it can suggest the best way to get to a place D. it provides directions orally
Question 63: What is the general attitude of the report described here?
A. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
B. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
D. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
Question 64: The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. overwhelmed B. serious C. obvious D. voiced
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms' bodies that are used grown
larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular
muscles, they grow. Those that are never used dimish. By examining a man's body, we can tell which
muscles he uses and which he doesn't. we may even be able to guess his profession or his reaction.
Enthusiasts of the "body- building" cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to "build" their bodies,
almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar
minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk
barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at
their hands alone. The farmer's hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller's
hands are relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world,
progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans, through direct exposure to
sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the particular local
conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible to skin
cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment
melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect the underlying
tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate,
the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented
as an instance of the principle of use
and disuse: skin goes brown when it is "used", and fades to white when it is not.
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people's concepts of themselves.
B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 46: The phrase "wither away" in line 2 is closest in meaning to____.
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 47: The word "Those" in line 3 refers to___.
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 48 : According to the passage, men who body build____.
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 49: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building____.
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefic
Question 50: The word "horny" in line 9 is closest in meaning to____.
A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense
Question 51: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables organisms
to____.
A. survive in any condition B. automatically benefit
C. change their existence D. improve their lifetime
Question 52: The author suggests that melanin_____.
A. helps protect fair-skinned people
B. is beneficial in sunless climates
C. is necessary for the production of vitamin-D
D. is a synthetic product
Question 53: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of____.
A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer
Question 54: The word " susceptible" could be best replaced by____.
A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View
a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time
and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and
rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences
virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the
factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin
by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do
you want to work with children ? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or
wrong answers ; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which
ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If
not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great
deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is
concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand,
many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.If a
high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance
sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience,
additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does
not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that
are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be
as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop
new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be
your final one.
Question 55. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______.
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 56: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 57: The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 58: According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does
not want to live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising

Question 59: Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
except__________.
A.Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 60: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
Question 61: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
Question 62: In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ________.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 63: Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4 ?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is true ?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased.
The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization
and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise
to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were
viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling
to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened.
Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling
extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial
cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools,
corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs
of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young
women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many
educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education
gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as
well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and
outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,
overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was
viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers
cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic
necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions
seem quite out-of-date.
Question 45: The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the nineteen century.
B. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
D. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century.
Question 46: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of
education in the United States was _____.
A. the expanding economic problems of schools
B. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
C. an increase in the number of trained teachers
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
Question 47: The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. qualifications B. method C. advantages D. probability
Question 48: The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. happened at the same time as B. ensured the success of
C. was influenced by D. began to grow rapidly
Question 49: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's
was that _____.
A. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
B. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
C. adults and children studied in the same classes
D. most places required children to attend school
Question 50: “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate
_____.
A. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the importance of educational changes
D. the increased impact of public schools on students
Question 51: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____.
A. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. different groups needed different kinds of education
D. more women should be involved in education and industry
Question 52: The word "it" in line 19 refers to _____.
A. education B. consumption C. production D. homemaking
Question 53: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Question 54: Which paragraph mentions the importance of abilities and experience in formal schooling?
A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 4 C. Paragraph 1 D. Paragraph 3
In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and
did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which
received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to
keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England
if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre-revolutionary
period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and
tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of any foreign
coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American
colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual
states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that
by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign
coins still flourished during this period.
By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system
was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States,
approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their own
money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United
States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were
legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
Question 55: The passage mainly discusses
A. American money from past to present.
B.the English monetary policies in colonial America.
C.the effect of the Revolution on American money.
D.the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
Question 56: The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was
A. supplied by England. B. coined by colonists.
C. scarce. D. used extensively for trade.
Question 57: The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins
A. continuously from the inception of the colonies.
B. throughout the seventeenth century.
C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War.
D. for a short time during one year.
Question 58: The expression “a means of” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by.
A. an example of B. a method of C. a result of D. a punishment for
Question 59: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during the
colonial period?
A. Wampum B. Tobacco C. Cotton D. Beaver furs
Question 60: The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following
A. the Continental Congress B. Paper money
C. the War D. Trade in goods
Question 61: It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was worth
A. exactly one dollar B. just under one dollar C. just over one dollar D. almost nothing
Question 62: The word “remedy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. resolve B. understand C. renew D. medicate
Question 63: How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?
A. Only the US Congress could issue money.
B. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
C. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.
D. The dollar was made official currency of the US.
Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary
system?
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
C. The monetary system was based on two matters.
D. It was established in 1792
correct answer to each of the following question
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also
contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact,
contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven egg
sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to
eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but
they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol
rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good
for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called
‘designer’ eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-flat diets consisting of ingredients such
as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the
same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs
will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back
up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have
brought mixed result. It may be that it is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol but
the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than
other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of blood
cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it
seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
Question 45: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary at increases the blood cholesterol level
B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat ‘designer’ eggs and egg substitutes.
Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
Question 47: What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol
Question 48: What is meant by the phrase ‘mixed result’?
A. The result are blended B. The result are a composite of things
C. The result are inconclusive D. The result are mingled together
Question 49: According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
Question 50: Which of the following could best replace the word ‘somewhat’?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
Question 51: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested
daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
Question 52: The word ‘portrayed’ could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
Question 53: What is the meaning of ‘back up’?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
Question 54:According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of
eggs EXCEPT____.?
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Diamond value is based on four characteristics: carat, color, clarity, and cut. A diamond’s size is measured
by carat weight. There are 100 points in a carat and 142 carats in an ounce. Each point above 1 carat is
more valuable than each point below 1 carat. Thus, a stone that weighs more than 1 carat is more valuable
per point than a stone that is smaller than 1 carat.
The scale used for rating a diamond’s color begins with “D,” which means the stone is absolutely colorless
and therefore most valuable. “E” and “F’ are almost colorless. All three are good for investments. A stone
rated between “G” and “J” is good for jewelry. After that the stones take on a slightly yellowish color, which
gets deeper as the grade declines.
The clarity of a stone is determined by its lack of carbon spots, inner flaws, and surface blemishes. While
most of these are invisible to the unaided eye, they do affect the diamond’s brilliance. For jewelry, a diamond
rated VVS1 (very very slight imperfections) is as close to flawless as one will find. After that the scale goes to
VVS2, VS1, VS2, SI1, SI2, I1, I2, and so on.
The final characteristic is cut. When shaped (round, oval, emerald, marquise, pear, or heart), the diamond
should be faceted so that light is directed into the depths of the prism and then reflected outward again. A
well-cut diamond will separate the light into different colors when the light is reflected. Only stones of similar
shape should have their reflective qualities compared, as some shapes are more reflective than others. For
example, the round shape is the most reflective.
Question 55: The passage is mainly about _________ .
A. the cost of diamond B. quanlities affecting diamond values
C. how to judge an expensive diamond D. buying diamonds for jewelry
Question 56: What can be said about a l- carat diamond?
A. It has 100 points B. It weighs an ounce
C. It cost twice as much as a small one D. It has the same quality as a half- carat diamond
Question 57 : A stone that has no color at all is rated _________ .
A. A B. Z C. D D. J
Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that a stone rated ‘H’ is _________ .
A. Good for jewelry B. Good for investment C. Very colorful D. Deep yellow
Question 59: clarity of a stone
A. is invisible to the unaided eye B. affects the diamond’s brilliance
C. has spots, flaws, and blemishes D. is determined by imperfections
Question 60: All of the following ratings refer to the clarity of a stone EXCEPT _________ .
A. perfection B. very slight imperfection C. slight slight imperfection D. imperfection
Question 61: It can be inferred from the passage that a diamond which perfec is ________ .
A. not used for jewelry B. rated VVSI
C. very large D. invisible to the unaided eye
Question 62: Diamonds reflect

A. the brism B. the depths C. facets D. light
Question 63: Two diamonds of the shape ________ .
A. have the same value B. can be compared for reflective qualiy
C. are usually the same weight D. are equally brillian.
Question 64: . Even though they affect a diamond’s brilliance, slight carbon spots, inner flaws, and surface
blemishes _________ .
A. lack imperfections B. are rated VVS1
C. cannot be seen with the naked eye D. can make a diamond more valuable
45 B
46 B
47 D
48 C
49 C
50 B
51 B
52 D
53 D
54 C
55 B
56 A
57 C
58 A
59 D
60 A
61 A
62 D
63 B
64 C
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business, the
demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs
small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in annual revenues,
and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official of the
Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women entering management, and
the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur". What are some of the factors behind
this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporateworld,
they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a
management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked hard they
could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that isn't going to happen, so they go out on
their own".
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics and clothing, for
example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software
business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and
engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly newspapers
keep tabs on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox under the
bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired
several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were marketed and
sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face
hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still
dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But the
situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.
Question 45:What is the main idea of this passage?
A.Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.
B.The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small business than men are.
D. Women today are opening more business of their own.
Question 46:The word “excluded “ in line 8 is closest meaning to_____.
A. not permitted in B. often invited to C. decorators of D. charged admission to
Question 47: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business
world EXCEPT___.
A.Women were required to stay at home with their families.
B. Women lacked ability to work in business.
C.Women faced discrimination in business.
D.Women were not trained in business.
Question 48: in line 10, “that” refers to____.
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board. B. Women working hard
C. Women achieving advanced degrees D. Women believing that business is a place for them.
Question 49: According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in 1970s ____.
A. Were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management.
B.Were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C.had fewer obstacles in business than they do today.
D. were unable to work hard enough to success in business.
Question 50: The author mentions the “ shoesbox under the bed” in the third paragraph in order to ____.
A. Show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. Point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig’s business were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand
Question 51: The expression “ keep tabs on “ in line 16 is closest meaning to ____.
A. recognize the appearance of B. keep records of
C. provide transportation for D. pay the salaries of
Question 52: The word “hurdles” in line 21 can be best replaced by ____.
A. fences B .obstacles C. questions D. small groups
Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that business operated by women
are small because____.
A. Women prefer a small intimate setting. B. Women can’t deal with money.
C. Women are not able to borrow money easily. D. Many women fail at large businesses.
Question 54:The author’s attitude about the future of women in business is____.
A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in the
United Stases before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American homes
had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit with tallow
candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome- a dish of fish oil or other animal or vegetable oil in
which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal underneath to
keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a
new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an remained expensive, had an
unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850 it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States was
the wider use of gas. In the 1840s American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for
producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high that until
mid- century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854
a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New
Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil that he called “kerosene” (from “keros”,
the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than
camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a
new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of North American mines.
Question 55. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become
necessary by the mind- nineteenth century?
A. development of railroads B. demand for better medical facilities
C. increases in the number of new factories D. growth of cities
Question 56. The phrase “served as” inline 5 is closest meaning to __________.
A. differed from B. functioned as C. rested upon D. reacted to
Question 57. The word “this” in line 6 refers to __________.
A. lard B. charcoal C. wick D. oil
Question 58. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of camphene?
A. high cost B. bad smell C. potential to explode D. greasy texture
Question 59. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the paragraph?
A. It was first developed in the United States. B. It was not allowed to be used in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid- century. D. It had an unpleasant smell.
Question 60. The word “resembled” in line 15 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. was similar to B. cost the same as C. was made from D. sounded like
Question 61. According to the passage, what advantage did the kerosene patented by Gesner have over
camphene?
A. Kerosene had a more pleasant smell. B. Kerosene was less expensive.
C. Kerosene burned more brightly. D. Kerosene was safer to use.
Question 62. The word “it” in line 16 refers to__________.
A. fortune B. odor C. camphene D. kerosene
Question 63. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order B. a comparison of two events
C. an analysis of scientific findings D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
Question 64. Where in the passage does the author mention the origin of a word?
A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 7-8 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 13-16
45 D
46 A
47 B
48 A
49 A
50 C
51 B
52 B
53 C
54 B
55 B
56 B
57 D
58 D
59 C
60 A
61 B
62 D
63 A
64 D
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg
'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as
canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same
amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not
raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up
their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought
mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the
person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than
other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood
cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes.
Question 47: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'?
Question 49: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
Question 50: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
Question 51: What is the meaning of 'back up'?
Question 52: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'?
A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
Question 53: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following
types of eggs EXCEPT?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has
been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed
through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power.
Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not
much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful
voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the
huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are
powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal
in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been
harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task
for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be
supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In
Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive
the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several
countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an
atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through
radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the
environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap
sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity
of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the
world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 55: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph
to ______.
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 56: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Gas. B. Petrol. C. Steam. D. Hot wind.
Question 57: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease.
Question 58: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages. B. Electric magnets. C. Generators or turbines. D. Pipes and radiators.
Question 59: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______.
A. atomic power and water B. water and coal C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas
Question 60: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways
Question 61: Electric magnets are used in steel works to ______.
A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. test the steel for strength
C. heat the molten steel D. boil a jug of water
Question 62: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is
that they ______.
A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable
C. are more adaptable D. do not require attention
Question 63: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?
A. Sunlight. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Wind.
Question 64: The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”
C. “How to Produce Electricity” D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
Câu Đáp án
45 B
46 B
47 B
48 D
49 B
50 D
51 D
52 C
53 C
54 C
55 B
56 C
57 C
58 C
59 B
60 B
61 A
62 A
63 B
64 D
contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg
'designer' eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as
canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same
amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not
raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up
their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought
mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the
person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than
other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood
cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes.
Question 47: Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'?
Question 49: According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the
suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 2/3
Question 50: The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. described B. destroyed C. tested D. studied
Question 51: What is the meaning of 'back up'?
Question 52: What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'?
A. The results are blended. C. The results are a composite of things.
B. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
Question 53: According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following
types of eggs EXCEPT?
A. decreasing egg intake and fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. reducing egg intake but not fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the
planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5
million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias,
however, Wikepedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their
names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.
Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human
knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real
popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States, with the
publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same
amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to
create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even
Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of
Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an
Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that
information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time.
But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the
articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long
time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone
would have access not only to the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To
do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to
create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply
search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that
interests you – about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on
until no one is interested in making any more changes.
Question 55: Wikipedia is a(n) ____.
A. book B. journal C. article D. dictionary
Question 56: Wikipedia is written by____.
A. paid written B. millionaires C. normal people D. world experts
Question 57: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to ____.
A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people
C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject
Question 58: The phrase “the word” in the second paragraph refers to____.
A. knowledge B. encyclopedia C. writing D. collection
Question 59: Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of ____.
A. CD-ROM dictionary B. printed encyclopedia
C. online encyclopedia D. updateable online encyclopedia
Question 60: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by____.
A. born B. child C. product D. father
Question 61: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means____.
A. idea B. time C. method D. writing
Question 62: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT____.
A. have access to information B. determinate the website
C. modify information D. edit information
Question 63: We can say that Jimmy Wales____.

A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. is the father of Wikipedia
C. made a great profit from Wikipedia D. decides who can use Wikipedia
Question 64: Wiki software enables ____.
A. exchanging articles B. a purchase of information
C. limited access D. editing
CÂU SỐ ĐÁP ÁN
45 B
46 B
47 B
48 D
49 D
50 A
51 D
52 B
53 C
54 A
55 B
56 C
57 B
58 B
59 C
60 C
61 A
62 B
63 B
64 D

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU 10 CÂU

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61. C 62. A 63. D 64. D

Question 45. What is the writer’s father?

Question 50. What happened to the writer’s grandfathers?

Question 52: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to _____ .

45. C 53. C 61. C

46. B 54. D 62. A

47. A 55. A 63. B

48. D 56. C 64. B

Question 45: 1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert C. Diseased of desert animals

Question 47: The word “maintaining” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying

Question 48: The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of

A. an animal with a low average temperature

B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

Question 49: When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

A. Just before sunrise C. Just after sunset

Question 50: The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce

Question 51: What causes water intoxication?

Question 53: The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. digest B. carry C. save D. get

A. Variation in body temperatures. C. Drinking water quickly.

Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably

A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

A. the various chemical reactions C. the compounds moved to the water

A. They function as part of a purification process.

A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants

A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled

A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable

Question 64:Which of the following is best supported by the passage?

Question 30: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires .

Question 52: The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.

Question 45. With what topic is the passage primarily converned?

Question 52. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?

Question 64: The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.

Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss?

C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.

D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.

A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink

Question 47: The word "Those" in line 3 refers to___.

A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles

Question 48 : According to the passage, men who body build____.

A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance

C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable

A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefic

Question 50: The word "horny" in line 9 is closest in meaning to____.

A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense

A. survive in any condition B. automatically benefit

C. change their existence D. improve their lifetime

Question 52: The author suggests that melanin_____.

A. helps protect fair-skinned people

B. is beneficial in sunless climates

C. is necessary for the production of vitamin-D

A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions

A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible

A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.