NIGERIA POLICE ACADEMY

WUDIL, KANO

SELECTION EXAMINATION

FOR THE

FIFTH REGULAR COURSE INTO DEGREE PROGRAMME

JULY, 2017
SELECTION EXAMINATIONS FOR THE FIFTH REGULAR COURSE

INTO DEGREE PROGRAMME JULY, 2017

TIME: 3HOURS

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. Read the following instruction carefully before answering the

questions:
a. Write your: NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER, STATE OF
ORIGIN, EXAMINATION CENTRE, FACULTY, COURSE, AND
SUBJECT OF YOUR CHOICE on the answer sheet given to
you!
b. Read the instructions on the answer sheet carefully,
complete and shade all the required details on the
answer sheet.
2. Use the answer sheet to answer all questions.
3. The time allocated for this examination is: 3hours

SECTION A: GENERAL PAPER

All candidates must answer all questions in section A.

SECTION B: FACULTY OF HUMANITIES

(English, History/international studies and linguistics departments)

Candidates for the faculty of humanities are to answer all questions

in all three categories of subjects listed below i.e. one in each
category (where group has more than one subject).

1. Government or History
2. Economics or CRS or IRS
3. Literature in English

SECTION C: FACULTY OF LAW (LLB)

Candidates for the faculty of humanities are to answer all questions

in all three categories of subjects listed below i.e. one in each
category/group (where group has more than one subject).

1. Government or History
2. IRS:: Islamic religious studies or CRS:: Christian religious
studies
 3. Literature-in-English

SECTION D: FACULTY OF SCIENCE

(biological sciences, biochemistry, chemistry, computer science,

forensic science, mathematics and physics departments)

Candidates for the faculty of science are to answer all questions in

all the three subjects listed below!

1. Biology
2. Chemistry
3. Physics

SECTION E: FACULTY OF SOCIAL AND MANAGEMENT SCIENCES

(accounting, economics, management science, political science,

psychology and sociology departments)

Candidates for the faculty of social and management sciences are to

answer all questions in three categories of subjects listed below. i.e.
one in each category/group (where group has more than one
subject).

1. Government or History
2. Economics
3. Principles of accounts or commerce
4. Biology (for BSc. Psychology)

TABLES OF CONTENTS

SUBJECTS PAGE
General paper
Government
History
Economics
CRS
IRS
Literature In English
Biology
Chemistry
Physics
Principles of accounts
commerce
SECTION A: GENERAL PAPER

All candidates MUST answer all questions in this section

1. What is the main concern of the police as a tool for safety?

a. Maintenance of market peace
b. Indiscriminate arrest of citizens
c. Punishing offenders with detention
2. Who was the first indigenous Inspector General Of Police?
a. Adams smith
b. Solomon arase
c. Louis edet
d. Tafa balogun
3. Police orderliness are attached to VIPs to …………………………
for them.
a. Provide shade
b. Open car doors
c. Provide security
d. Become bags carriers
4. The Nigerian Police Force is an agency of …………………………..
organ of government
a. Judiciary
b. Executive
c. Legislature
d. All of the above
5. One of the following is not a duty of a police officer!
a. Torturing of suspects
b. Investigation of persons
c. Arresting of suspects
d. Persecution of accused persons
6. Which rank are graduates of the police academy expected to
be commissioned on successful completion of their course?
a. Superintended of police
b. Assistant superintended of police
c. Graduate superintended of police
d. Graduate police officer
7. Who is the head of the Nigeria police force in your state?
a. Assistant Inspector General of Police
b. Assistant commissioner of Police
c. Commissioner of Police
d. Divisional Police officer
8. What is the best reason why people give i9nformation to the
Police?
a. To gain Police favour
b. To help the Police and the society
c. To get reward from the Police
d. To revenge against their enemies
9. What are the colours of the Nigeria Police flag?
a. Blue, white and green
b. Blue, yellow and red
c. Blue yellow and green
d. Blue, green purple
10. The head of the Police Force in Nigeria is addressed as?
a. Senior inspector of Police
b. Inspector General of Police
c. Principal inspector of Police
d. Inspector of naval Police
11. In what year was the Nigeria Police Academy Wudil, Kano
being upgraded to a degree awarding institution?
a. June, 2010
b. June, 2011
c. September, 2010
d. September, 2011
12. ………………. Is the longest serving senate president in
Nigeria.
a. Sen. Bukola Saraki
b. Sen. Chuba Okadigbo
c. Sen. Evans Enwerem
d. Sen. David Mark
13. Nigeria was amalgamated in the year:
………………………….
a. 1914
b. 1930
c. 1916
d. 1960
14. Which of these Nigerian states has the lowest number of
local governments?
a. Nasarawa state
b. Delta state
c. Bayelsa state
d. Abia state
15. Which of these is the internal security agency in Nigeria?
a. Nigeria security and civil defence corps
b. Nigeria armed forces
c. Nigeria Police Force
d. Directorate of security service
16. Nigeria is currently in which republic?
a.
5th
b.
1st
c.
4th
d.
6th
17. One of these involves the ability to distinguish right from
wrong and to behave accordingly.
a. Immorality
b. Morality
c. Fanaticism
d. Satanism
18. Today, every country strives to ensure the safety and
security of its citizens for all of these reasons except?
a. To increase the quality of its citizens
b. To ensure peaceful co-existence among its citizens
c. To promote high tradition among its citizens
d. To ensure infrastructural development of the country.
19. The acronym :: NPF :: stands for what?
a. Northern Police Force
b. Nigeria Police Force
c. Non-Pay Payment Funds
d. No Permanent Friend
20. How many federal constituency does Nigeria has?
a. 360
b. 366
c. 108
d. 380
x y
21. If 5 = a and 5 =b, then ab = ?
a. 5xy
b.
5x+y
c. 10x+y
d. 25xy
22. At Police secondary school Kano, 100 students are taking
igbo, and 80 students are taking hausa. If 20 students are
taking both, what is the ratio of the number of students taking
only hausa?
a. ¾
b. 4/5
c. 5/4
d. 4/3
23. In the sequence, 1, 2, 3, -4 1, 2, 3, -4, …, the numbers 1,
2, 3, -4 repeat indefinitely. What is the sum of the first 150
terms?
a. 300
 b. 77
c. 37
d. 3
24. If a set of number consist of ¼ and 1/6, what number can
be added to the set to make the average(arithmetic mean)
also equal to ¼?
a. 1/6
b. 1/5
c. ¼
d. 1/3
25. If x ≠ -2, then 5x2-20/5x+10 =
a. X – 2
b. X – 10
c. 5x + 2
d. X + 2
26. Two positive integers differ by 7, the sum of their square
is 169. Find the larger integer.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 9
d. 12
27. In 40minutes kunle walks 2.5km and binta walks 1.5km,
in kilometres per hour, how much faster is kunle walking?
a. 1
b. 2.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.5
28. If five less than y is six more than x + 1, then by how
much is x less than y?
a. 12
b. 6
c. 10
d. 11
29. What is the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its
radius?
a. π/2
b. π
c. √π
d. 2π
30. What is the surface area of a cube whose volume is 64?
a. 16
b. 128
c. 96
d. 384
31. We shall not ………………….. IJMB next year.
 a. Sit in
b. Sit at
c. Sit for
d. Sit to
32. It is sad that the rich ……………………. The poor
a. Does not
b. Do not
c. Do
d. Did
33. The motorcycle nearly hit jane and …………..
a. Me
b. I
c. Myself
d. Mine
34. I found my friends sitting …….. the beach.
a. In
b. At
c. On
d. Under
35. It is about time you ………………… to bed.
a. Go
b. Have gone
c. Went
d. Going
36. A few days after the resumption of classes, lazy students
started counting down the next ………………..
a. Recreation
b. Vacation
c. Dismissal
d. Reopening
37. Mrs. Ejira is flexible in matters concerning adolescents
but her husband is …………..
a. Aggressive
b. Irrational
c. Agreeable
d. Rigid
38. Ivy has differed her birthday party but her friends insist
that she ………………. The date.
a. Postpone
b. Retain
c. Cancel
d. Call off
39. He informed the villagers that voting is voluntary rather
than ………………..
a. Discretionary
 b. Enforced
c. Necessary
d. Compulsory
40. Is this pattern important? – it′s ………………………………….
To study well.
a. Too important
b. That important
c. Very important
d. Important enough

GOVERNMENT

1. Government as an institution of a state can best be defined as

a body that
a. Recruits and train political leaders
b. Settle disputes and interpret law for the state
c. Legislates, executes, and interpret law for the state
d. Conduct elections for the state.
2. The rule of law refers to the principles of?
a. Legality and impartiality
b. The supreme power of rulers
c. The immunity of judges from legal actions
d. The orderly execution of government policies
3. Which of the following is an obligation of a citizen?
a. Attending political rallies
b. Taking part in independence day celebration
c. Contesting elections
d. Paying respect to the national flag.
4. Diplomatic immunity is a limitation to?
a. The theory of the separation of powers
b. Principle of checks and balances
c. Parliamentary supremacy
d. The rule of law.
5. In which of the following party systems are all shades of
opinions and interests adequately represented?
a. Zero party
b. One party
c. Two party
d. Multi party
6. Which of the following is the lowest class of people in the
hierarchy of feudal system?
a. Nobles
b. Serfs
c. Lords
 d. Manor
7. Which of the following is supreme in the feudal system?
a. Judiciary
b. Legislative
c. Constitution
d. Executive
8. Which of the following is a feature of an elite party?
a. Members are recruited from the working class.
b. The leadership is composed of aristocrats and wealthy
merchants.
c. It usually consists of existing associations, clubs and
trade unions.
d. Its leadership has certain techniques which attract
supporters.
9. The system of voting on behalf of another person is known as?
a. Voting by lot
b. Casting votes
c. Voting by proxy
d. Preference voting
10. In which of the following system of government is
ceremonial and executive powers usually fused?
a. Parliamentary
b. Presidential
c. Collegial
d. Confederal
11. Which of the following is the source of the country’s
constitution?
a. Mandamus
b. Judicial precedence
c. Injunction
d. Political decision
12. Which of the following factors limits the expression of
public opinion
a. The type of government is a state
b. The establishment of private media organisation
c. The high literacy rate of the citizens
d. Religious belief of the citizens
13. Which of the following best describes the relationship
between the central and component government in a
federation?
a. The central government collect revenue for the
component governments
b. The central and component government have equal
powers.
 c. The central government legislates for the component
government
d. The central government is weaker than the component
government
14. The appointments, promotions and discipline of civil
servants are the responsibility of:
a. Civil service union
b. Judicial service commission
c. Civil service commission
d. Electoral commission
15. The grant of the right to vote is called?
a. Enfranchisement
b. Disqualification
c. Prohibition
d. Participation
16. Which of the following factor may work against a
representative system of government?
a. High literacy of the electorate
b. The introduction of universal adult suffrage
c. Independent electoral commission
d. Rigging of elections.
17. The Nigeria federal legislature is called the?
a. Senate
b. Congress
c. National assembly
d. House of representative
18. The Nigeria first constitution was the
a. Lyttleton constitution
b. Clifford constitution
c. MacPherson constitution
d. Independence constitution
19. The concept of regionalism in Nigeria was the first
introduced by the
a. Independence constitution
b. Macpherson constitution
c. Richard constitution
d. Lyttleton constitution
20. Which of the following military regimes in Nigeria played
a prominent role in the liberation of colonized African states?
a. Aguiyi Ironsi
b. Murtala/Obansanjo
c. Muhammadu Buhari
d. Ibrahim Babangida
 OR

HISTORY

1. Jaja of Opopo was one of the unfortunate victims of the evil

machinations of the
a. Royal Niger Company
b. British Niger Company
c. American Rubber Industry
d. British Shell Company
2. The Royal Niger Company was founded in 1877 by
a. George taubman goldie
b. Lord lugard
c. Herbert macaulay
d. Dr. Nnamdi azikiwe
3. Chief obafemi awolowo was the founder of
a. Action group
b. Northern people congress
c. People redemption party
d. National party of Nigeria
4. The old oyo empire was founded by
a. Kunrumi
b. Afonja
c. Oranmiyan
d. Bayajjida
5. The first and last prime minister of Nigeria was
a. Dr. Nnamdi azikiwe
b. Sir ahmedu bello
c. Abubakar tafawa balewa
d. Chief obafemi awolowo
6. Nigeria became a republice in
a. 1961
b. 1972
c. 1964
d. 1963
7. Mai umme jilmi succeeded dunamal in
a. Kano
b. Zaria
c. Borno
d. Central sudan
8. Many domestic slaves were prisons captured during the
a. War
b. Festival
c. Ceremony
d. Hunting
9. Islam first arrived in the Kanuri empire before spreading to the
hausa state of Kano and
a. Benue
b. Jos
c. Kaduna
d. Katsina
10. One of the most important features of the contact
between Nigeria and north African
a. Traditional religion
b. Islam
c. Christianity
d. Hindus
11. The earliest contact between north Africa and Nigeria
were established by traders as early as the
a. 4th century A.D
b. 5th century A.D
c. 6th century A.D
d. 7th century A.D
12. From about the sixteenth century the Igbo came in
contact with the
a. Portuguese
b. British
c. Germany
d. French
13. Nri civilization was believed to have thrived from about
the ninth to the sixteenth century in
a. Igbo land
b. Yoruba land
c. Tiv land
d. Hausa land
14. It is believed the first settlement in Igbo land was located
in the
a. Nri awka orlu region
b. Onitsha
c. Umuahia
d. Aba
15. Age grade was organized on a village basis in
a. Yoruba land
b. Hausa land
c. Igbo land
d. Igala land
16. In the oyo tradition polical system the alafin of oyo was
elected or chosen by a group known as:
a. Tributary chiefs
b. Bales
 c. Obas
d. Oyo mesi
17. The checks and balance embodied in the oyo constitution
were intended to:
a. Make the alafin a mere figurehead
b. Make the basorun very powerful
c. Prevent tyranny and abuse of power
d. Prevent the aremo from becoming the alafin
18. Which of these was man’s earliest activity in Nigeria
a. Agriculture
b. Blacksmithing
c. Warfare
d. Hunting and gathering
19. Tradition holds it that Benin bronze casters were taught
their craft by an artist from
a. Daima
b. Ife
c. Igbo ukwu
d. Iwo Eleru
20. According to oral tradition the ancestral father of the
Yoruba is
a. Lamurudu
b. Moremi
c. Oduduwa
d. Okanbi

ECONOMICS

1. Utility means
a. Power to satisfy a want
b. Usefulness
c. Willingness of a person
d. Harmfulness
2. At point of satiety, marginal utility is
a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Maximum
d. Negative
3. Economic planning is an essential feature of
a. Capitalist economy
b. Socialist economy
c. Mixed economy
 d. Dual economy
4. Commercial banks perform the following functions except
a. Accepting deposit
b. Giving out loans
c. Issuing new currency
d. Making payment to customers
5. What is the total number of commercial banks we have in
Nigeria?
a. 22
b. 23
c. 24
d. 25
6. Which of these banks is the apex bank in Nigeria?
a. First bank
b. Zenith bank
c. Central bank
d. Bank of industry
7. Selecting from available alternatives is
a. Choice
b. Scarcity
c. Opportunity cost
d. Scale of preference
8. The arrangement of wants according to their importance is
called
a. Choice
b. Scarcity
c. Opportunity cost
d. Scale of preference
9. Which of these is a necessity good?
a. Rice
b. Beans
c. Maize
d. Salt
10. The fastest growing economy in Africa is
a. South Africa
b. Kenya
c. Ghana
d. Nigeria
11. …………………………………………………
diagram……………………………… what is the equilibrium price
and quantity?
a. 5, 55
b. 5, 65
c. 10, 75
d. 10, 65
12. The bank that controls all other banks in Nigeria is
a. Central bank
b. First bank
c. Agricultural bank
d. Unity bank
13. When Qd = 2p – 1, and Qs = 4. Find the equilibrium price
a. 1.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.0
d. 2.5
14. The following are cash crops except
a. Rubber
b. Cocoa
c. Ginger
d. Beans
15. When the negative income effect is greater than
substitution effect, it is the case of which one of the following?
a. Giffen goods
b. Inferior goods
c. Luxury goods
d. Normal goods
16. Which of following statement is correct? Consumption
possibility frontier is same as
a. The indifference curve
b. The budget line
c. The production possibility frontier
d. The demand curve
17. A firm has certain initial equilibrium price, when demand
function QD = 50 – 3P and supply function is 20 + 3P. if the
firm’s demand function is shifted to C = 68 – 3P, what is the
initial equilibrium price and the new equilibrium price,
respectively?
a. 5 and 6
b. 5 and 8
c. 6 and 8
d. 8 and 5
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Demand for factors of production is an independent
demand
b. Demand for factors of production is a derived demand
c. Demand for factors of production is a reciprocal demand
d. Demand for factors of production is same as the demand
for commodities.
19. The value of money is
 a. Its purchasing power
b. Its ability to reduce demand
c. Its ability to increase supply
d. Its ability to increase production
20. If MPC is equal to 0.7, what is the value of MPS?
a. 1.0
b. 3.0
c. 0.13
d. 0.30

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES(CRS)

1. In the creation story, the responsibility of giving names to all

living creatures was performed by
a. God
b. Adam and Eve
c. Eve
d. Man
2. To attain the true life in Christ, Paul advised the Colossians to
put away:
a. Faith, love and charity
b. Kindness, meekness and patience
c. Wrath, malice and slander
d. Compassion, humility and forbearance
3. According to peter, the genuineness of faith is tested through:
a. Work
b. Miracle
c. Prayer
d. Trials
4. According to Paul’s teaching, the relationship between wives
and their husbands should be:
a. The states demand
b. Is fitting in the lord
c. Is written in the books of Moses
d. The husband command
5. Which two tribes in Israel led the rebuilding of the temple after
the exile?
a. Judah and Benjamin
b. Manasseh and Reuben
c. Naphtali and joseph
d. Judah and Ephraim
6. The effect of suffering on a Christian is to:
a. Strengthen his faith
b. Temp his faith
 c. Destroy his faith
d. Hinder his faith
7. Which of the following brethren introduce paul to the disciples
in Jerusalem after his conversion?
a. Peter
b. Barnabas
c. James
d. Barsabas
8. In 1st Corinthians, paul says he was the least of the apostles
because he:
a. Was not one of the twelve
b. Persecuted the church
c. Was the least to be called by jesus
d. Was an apostle to the gentiles
9. God fed Israelites with manna in the wilderness of?
a. Horeb
b. Sinai
c. Sin
d. Meriba
10. John hesitated to Baptize jesus because:
a. Jesus was a Galilean and not from Judah
b. Jesus was not a sinner
c. John consider himself inferior to jesus
d. John believed that jesus had not repented
11. Which of the following is not a manifestation of the man
of lawlessness?
a. Power
b. Signs and wonders
c. Wicked deception
d. Adherence to truth
12. Adam called Eve woman, because she:
a. She was the author of woes
b. Caused the fall of man
c. Taken out of man
d. Was a weaker vessel
13. Joseph named one of his sons Ephraim, meaning
a. I am a stranger in the land
b. God has made me fruitful on the land of affliction
c. Yahweh is my hope
d. Yahweh is my salvation
14. The voice from heaven during the baptism of jesus
signifies God′s :
a. Confirmation of jesus sonship
b. Revelation of his righteousness
c. Delight in the baptism
 d. Support for john ministry
15. The delegation from Antioch to the council of Jerusalem
consisted of
a. Paul and peter
b. Peter and barnabas
c. John and peter
d. Paul and barnabas
16. Which of the following did God do on the seventh day
after he had completed the work of creation?
a. He blessed and hallowed the seventh day
b. Worshipped on the seventh day
c. Took record of all that he had created
d. Blessed all that he had created
17. Which of the following was Ezekiel ordered to eat on his
call?
a. A cake of honey
b. The word of God
c. A written scroll
d. A basket of figs
18. Upon king Solomon’s request to God at Gibeon, God
endowed him with all the following, except?
a. An understanding mind
b. Ability for good governance
c. Righteousness and faithfulness to God
d. Riches, honor and the ability to discern good and evil
19. Amos condemned the people of Israel for all the following
sins except their:
a. Selling the righteous for silver
b. Trampling upon the head of the poor
c. Upholding the way of the afflicted
d. Laying themselves down beside every altar upon
garments taken in pledge
20. According to Luke, the third temptation of jesus by the
devil was that he should:
a. He should throw himself down from the pinnacle of the
temple
b. Command stone to become bread
c. Jump down from the high mountain
d. Bow down to the devil!

IISLAMIC RELIGIOUS STUDIES

1. Prophet muhammad mothers name is:

 a. Aminah
b. Haulatu
c. Saadiyya
d. Khadija
2. Abu – talib was the prophet muhammads ?
a. Grandfather
b. Friend
c. Uncle
d. Brother
3. Abraha led an expedition against____________
a. Madina
b. Taif
c. Makkah
d. Ugonda
4. The event took place in the year prophet ____________ was
bborn:
a. Isa
b. Dawud
c. Muhammad
d. Musa
5. The attack of kaábah was lauched by the govern of:
a. Syria
b. Yemen
c. Abyssinia
d. Makkah
6. Suratul humazah was revealed in____________
a. Madinah
b. Tabuk
c. Makkah
d. Yemen
7. _____________ is responsible for recording of human deeds.
a. Ridwan and malik
b. Israfil and azrail
c. Raqib and atid
d. Umar and usman
8. Hadith number 10 ask all Muslims to ensure that their outward
appearance is as neat as their _______________ appearance.
a. Visible
b. Inward
c. Obvious
d. Honest
9. Tayammum is permitted:
a. Where there is too much water
b. When there is no water at all
c. When there is too much cold
 d. When there is rainfall
10. From dawn to sunrise is the time for_______________
a. Subh prayer
b. Isha prayer
c. Zuhr prayer
d. Asr prayer
11. Abu lahab was the _________________ of the religion of
Islam.
a. Opposed
b. Hated
c. Believed
d. Follower
12. Actions must be nudged according to____________
a. Aims
b. Efforts
c. Intention
d. Manners
13. Idul-Fatr is performed to_____________
a. Mark the pilgrimage day
b. Seek happiness from Allah
c. Mark the end of Ramadan fasting
d. Arfat darj
14. In hadith number two, the tradition covers
the____________ pillars of Islam.
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
15. Al-Malik means_____________
a. Sovereign
b. The creator
c. The forgiver
d. The maker
16. And I shall _____________ worship that which you worship
a. Ever
b. Always
c. Never
d. Forever
17. The first half of suratul maún was revealed
at______________
a. Makkah
b. Taif
c. Madina
d. Israil
18. Hadith number 6 states that ___________ things are clear
 a. Valid
b. Lawful
c. Likable
d. Unlawful
19. Nabi means___________
a. Messenger of Allah
b. Angels
c. Prophet of Allah
d. Human beings
20. Angels are created from________________
a. Light
b. Fire
c. Sand
d. Rock

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

1. One of these statements is true of the novel______________

a. It is an exact reproduction of historical events
b. Characters are unimportant in it
c. It is always the story of the author’s life
d. It deals with human experience
2. One of the following writers is better known as a playwright
than a novelist
a. C. Achebe
b. C. Ekwensi
c. W. Soyinka
d. J.P. Clark
3. The plot of a novel is best described as?
a. The bare outline of the story arranged in logical order
b. The story in all its details
c. The story grossly elaborated
d. A summary of the story
4. A narrative poem must………………..
a. Preach a sermon
b. Tell a story
c. Describe natural scenery
d. Argue a question
5. Literature is studied as a subject in school because?
a. It exposes students to the reality of life
b. It provides entertainment
c. It merely gives additional work to students
d. It teaches the use of words
6. Poetry deals with one of the following.
 a. Emotion only
b. Ideas only
c. Death only
d. Emotion and ideas
7. Drama is essentially different from poetry because it…
a. Always involves many characters
b. Exists mainly in action
c. Uses elevated language
d. Uses local imagery
8. Which of these statements best describe a comedy?
a. A play in which nobody dies
b. A play which makes us laugh
c. A play in which the hero is a clown
d. A play that ends happily
9. Which of the following adjectives best describes the character
of okonkwo in things fall apart?
a. Gentle
b. Quick tempered
c. Considerate
d. Meek
10. Artistically, okonkwo’s seven years exile is a devise used
to ___________
a. Introduce comic relief
b. Keep okonkwo at a distance from the mind of umuofia
c. Serve as warning to other members of the umuofia
community
d. De-emphasize the role of okonkwo in the novel
11. The novel things fall apart by chinua achebe ws first
published in_________
a. 1948
b. 1952
c. 1958
d. 1960
12. A sonnet is a poem of_____________
a. Three lines
b. Four lines
c. Seven lines
d. Fourteen lines
13. The antagonist in the tragedy is?
a. Any character in the tragedy
b. The wife of the protagonist
c. The character who provides comic relief
d. The character in opposition of the main character
14. A statement that appears to say something opposite to
common sense or the truth, but which may contain a truth is?
 a. Oxymoron
b. Parable
c. Irony
d. Paradox
15. The leaves are withered.

Roses fold are shrink

Dog, the painting athlete shows his tongue

A dwarled shadow flees

Hides under legs.

Nuts wrinkle and crack

“poems in four parts” by W. Kamera

One dominant image presented in the poem above is that of?

a.
Spent life
b.
Summer
c.
Death
d.
Tiredness
16. An insincere literary work is known as?
a. Parody
b. Paradox
c. Satire
d. Pathos
17. A novel which depicts the adventures of the main
character who is something of a rogue is?
a. Comedy
b. Fable
c. Prose
d. Picaresque
18. “now I feared disturbance of the quiet season

winter shall come brink death from the sea

ruinous spring shall beat at our doors

roots and shoots shall eat our eyes and ears”.

the dramatic technique employed in this passage is?

a. Anti-climax
b. Foreshadowing
c. Flashback
 d. Irony
19. A creative technique in which abstract entities such as
virtues and vices are used with intended double meaning is
called?
a. Tragedy
b. Fallacy
c. Allegory
d. Farce
20. In literature, a round character is associated
with_____________
a. Change and growth
b. Stability and determination
c. Simplicity and modesty
d. Running down other characters.

BIOLOGY

1. The basic unit of classification is the___________

a. Class
b. Kingdom
c. Species
d. Genus
2. The process that leads to the bursting of red blood cells placed
in hypotonic solution is called?
a. Plasmolysis
b. Haemolysis
c. Osmosis
d. Cyclosis
3. Which of the following is a saprophyte?
a. Fern
b. Hydra
c. Mushroom
d. Spirogyra
4. Which of these organisms exists as colony?
a. Volvox
b. Euglena
c. Amoeba
d. Paramecium
5. The nucleus of a living cell is considered the most important
organelle because?
a. Its removal will cause the cell to die
b. It’s responsible for the synthesis of metabolic waste
c. It is the power house
d. It is responsible for the storage of genes
6. Active cells expend a lot of energy and are characterized by
large number of_______________
a. Ribosomes
b. Mitochondria
c. Vacuoles
d. Golgi bodies
7. The display of feather in male turkey to attract the opposite
sex is a behaviour called__________
a. Courtship
b. Adaptive
c. Defensive
d. Attractive
8. The response of plants to light stimulus is called?
a. Phototropism
b. Geotropism
c. Hydrotropism
d. Chemotropism
9. Angiosperm belongs to
a. Bryophytes
b. Pteridophytes
c. Gymnosperm
d. Spermatophytes
10. Which of the following group of plants is most advanced
a. Bryophytes
b. Pteridophytes
c. Spermatophytes
d. Thallophytes
11. Which of the following animals exhibits metamorphosis
a. Fish
b. Fowl
c. Frog
d. Lizard
12. The causes of wilting in plants is due to the lost of
a. Water
b. Air
c. Mineral salt
d. Chlorophyll
13. An example of a carnivorous plant is
a. Mucor
b. Lichen
c. Sundew
d. Mushroom
14. The mode of nutrition in tapeworm is
a. Parasitic
b. Saprophytic
 c. Symbolic
d. Predatory
15. Which of these mammalian teeth is structurally adapted
for tearing flesh?
a. Incisor
b. Canine
c. Premolar
d. Molar
16. Adult male mosquitoes feed on
a. Stagnant water
b. Animals blood
c. Human blood
d. Plant juice
17. Which of the following is the end product of protein
digestion?
a. Amino acid
b. Glucose
c. Glycerol
d. Protease
18. The vector that transmits malaria parasite (plasmodium)
is
a. Female anopheles
b. Male anopheles
c. Aedes
d. Culex
19. Association between bacteria and root noodles of
legumes is called
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
d. Predation
20. Which of the following is not a soil type?
a. Humus
b. Sand
c. Loam
d. clay

CHEMISTRY

1. what happens to a cation during the electrolysis of a molten

salt? The cation moves towards the
a. anodes and undergoes reduction
b. anodes and undergoes oxidation
c. cathode and undergoes reduction
d. cathode and undergoes oxidation
2. which property decreases from left to right across the periodic
table and increases from top to bottom?
a. Atomic radius
b. Electronegativity
c. Ionization energy
d. Melting point
3. According to the aufbau principle, which is the sequential order
of filling sub shells in a ground state atom?
a. 3s3p3d
b. 3p4s3d
c. 3d4s4p
d. 4p4d4f
4. What is the oxidation product of a primary alcohol?
a. Aldehyde
b. Alkene
c. Ester
d. Ketone
5. How many different compounds have the formula C5H12?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
6. Aluminium (AI) is preferred in overhead power cables because
a. It is a good conductor
b. It acts as an insulator, in case of lightening
c. It prevents accidents
d. It is lighter in weight
7. In exothermic reactions, final energy content of products
a. Is lower than energy content of reactants
b. Is higher than energy content of reactants
c. Does not depend upon energy content of reactants
d. Forms highly stable compounds
8. Upon heating, sodium nitrate NaNO3(s) gets converted into
a. Sodium oxide
b. Nitric acid
c. Sodium hydrogen oxide
d. None of the above
9. Rate of diffusion is
a. Increased if temperature is increased
b. Decreased if kinetic energy decreases
c. Decreased if molecular mass is increased
d. All of these
10. If acidified potassium dichromate(VI) (K2Cr2O7) acts as
oxidizing agent, colour changes from
a. Orange to red
 b. Orange to green
c. Yellow to green
d. Yellow to red
11. Brass is an allow of
a. Copper and tin
b. Copper and zink
c. Copper and iron
d. Zink and aluminium
12. Bleaching power is prepared by passing chlorine through
a. Limestone
b. Quicklime
c. Milk of lime
d. Dry slaked lime
13. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from
a. Butadiene
b. Ethylene
c. Isoprene
d. Propylene
14. Smelting process of extraction of iron contains
a. Lime
b. Coke and limestone
c. Coke
d. Coke and aluminium
15. Plaster of Paris is made from
a. Bauxite
b. Gypsum
c. Epsomite
d. Lime
16. When 157.0 grams of CaSO4 are dissolved in enough
water to yield a volume of 7.25x 102 millilitres of solution. The
molarity of this solution will be…
a. 0.0016 M
b. 0.837 M
c. 1.15 M
d. 1.59 M
17. How many millilitres of 4.00 M NaOH must be added to
100.0 mL of 0.2000 M H2SO4 solution to completely neutralize
the acid? The balanced chemical equation is…. H 2SO4 (aq) +
NaOH (aq) Na2SO4 (aq) + 2 H2O (1)
a. 0.04 mL
b. 5.0 mL
c. 10.0 mL
d. 500 mL
18. If you react 1.00 L of ethane at STP with 3.00 L of oxygen
at STP, how many grams of carbon dioxide will be formed? One
 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L at STP. The balanced chemical
equation is…. 2 C2H6 (g) + 7 O2 (g) 4 CO2 (g) + 6 H2O(g)
a. 1.96 g
b. 3.37 g
c. 3.93 g
d. 5.89 g
19. One of the functions of catalytic converter in your car is
to oxidize carbon monoxide reacts with 9.0 g of oxygen, how
many grams of which compound remains unreacted? The
balanced chemical equation is… 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2 (g)
a. 0.4 g of oxygen remains unreacted
b. 0.8 g of carbon monoxide remains unreacted
c. 7.1 g of carbon monoxide remains unreacted
d. 8.1 g of oxygen remains unreacted
20. What is the major attraction between water molecules in
the solid physical state?
a. Dipole-dipole interactions
b. Electrostatic interactions between charged atoms
c. Hydrogen-bonds
d. Physical entanglement of the molecules

PHYSICS

1. The dimension of pressure is

a. MLT-1
b. MT-1
c. ML-1T-2
d. MLT-2
2. What is the center of mass of a body?
a. The center of gravity of the body
b. The point at which the weight of the body act
c. A point of no rotation for the body
d. A point at which an applied force produces an
acceleration but no rotation
3. The image formed on a plane mirror is?
a. Real, lateral inverted, same distance from the mirror as
the object
b. Virtual, lateral inverted, same distance from the mirror as
the object
c. Real, same height as the object, same distance from the
mirror as the object
d. Real, same height as the object, lateral inverted.
4. The term activity of a radioactive substance is defined by
 a. The strength of the radioactive substance
b. The number of emissions from the radioactive substance
c. The number of nuclei in the specimen that decay per unit
mass.
d. The number of nuclei in the specimen that decay per unit
time
5. For a convex lens, when the object distance is < the focal
length; the image is
a. Real, inverted and magnified
b. Real, inverted and same size
c. Real, erect and magnified
d. Virtual, erect, and magnified
6. A toy rocket of 25g ejects 20g of gas at the rate 20m/s 2, what
will be the acceleration of the rocket?
a. 25m/s2
b. 20 m/s2
c. 10 m/s2
d. 16 m/s2
7. A pressure cooker is made to cook food faster by
a. Increasing the internal pressure within the cooker
b. Increasing the external pressure of the cooker
c. Making the food to boil faster
d. Reducing the rate of vapour escape
8. Boiling occurs when________
a. Internal and external pressure are equal
b. When the heat applied exceed the heat inside the system
c. When the rate of heat escape is zero
d. When the internal pressure exceed the external pressure
9. Evaporation is enhanced by
a. Large surface area and high temperature
b. Large surface area and dry weather
c. Large surface area and low temperature
d. Large surface area and high pressure
10. A charge of 2C flow in a conductor of 1s, determine the
current in the conductor
a. 2A
b. 0.2A
c. 0.5A
d. 0.0A
11. Center of gravity of the body is the point at which
a. The resultant mass of the body act
b. The resultant pressure of the body act
c. The resultant weight of the body act
d. The resultant impulse of the body act
12. The second law of motion states that
 a. Action and reaction are equal but opposite
b. Everybody continues in its state of rest or uniform motion
unless an external fore act on it
c. The line that joins the sun and the planet sweep out
equal area at equal times
d. The time rate of change of momentum is directly
proportional to the force applied and it takes place in the
direction in which the force act
13. In a potentiometer experiment, a cell of EMF 12V is
balanced with a length os 56cm. if another cell is connected to
replace the first cell and a balance point of 14cn is obtained,
what is the EMF of the second cell?
a. 15V
b. 14V
c. 16V
d. 20V
14. Spherometer measures
a. The radius of curvature of curved surface
b. The radius of a circle
c. The radius of an arc
d. The radius of a round peg
15. Given that the resistance of a conductor is 2.2Ω and the
potential difference across its terminal is 2.4V, what is the
current in the circuit on closing the circuit?
a. 2.2A
b. 2.0A
c. 2.4A
d. 2.3A
16. What effect explains the reason why the insect pond
scatter walks on water?
a. Biological effect
b. Hall effect
c. Surface tension effect
d. The effect of weightlessness
17. Advances in Nano technology is responsible for
a. Size shrinking in technological product
b. Depletion of the ozone layer
c. The discovery of atomic bomb
d. The discovery of liquid crystal technology
18. Weightlessness is as a result of
a. Reduced temperature
b. Reduced pressure
c. Reduced humidity
d. Reduced acceleration due to gravity
19. Physics is the study of
a.Nuclear energy generation
b.Nuclear and solar energy
c.Matter
d.Matter in relation to energy
20. A 2500Kg liquid is contained in a 1000m 3 container
placed on platform 25m above the ground. What is the
potential energy of the liquid? (g = 10m/s2).
a. 600J
b. 625J
c. 625000J
d. 62.5J

PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTS

1. A total of 400,000 shares of N1 each are to be issued by

Suleiman company Ltd at a price of N1.20 per share.
Applications were received for 600,000 shares out of which
100,000 were dishonoured. If the available shares were
distributed prorate, what refund will be due to a subscriber
who applied for 5000 shares.
a. N1,000
b. N1,200
c. N4,800
d. N6,000
2. Departmental accounts are maintained to ascertain the
a. Profit of the entire organization
b. Contribution of each department
c. Expenses of each department
d. Sales of each department
3. Which of the following statements is correct about the head
office current account and the branch current account?
a. Both always have debit balances
b. Both always have credit balances
c. The head office current account has a credit balance
while the branch account has a debit balance
d. The head office current account has a debit balance while
the branch account has a credit balance
4. …
5. A governmental accounting system must make sure that
a. Revenue go above expenditure
b. All applicable legal provisions are compiled with
c. Capital expenditure is equal to revenue
 d. Capital project fund is tied to recurrent expenditure
6. Sales of goods for N6000 to Ade were not posted. This is an
error of
a. Omission
b. Commission
c. Principle
d. Compensation
7. The excess of current assets over current liabilities is
a. Authorised share capital
b. Working capital
c. Loan capital
d. Called-in capital
8. A partner who has full powers of participating in the conduct of
a partnership business is
a. A general partner
b. Limited partner
c. Sleeping partner
d. Nominal partner
9. When goods are purchased on account, the accounting entries
are
a. Debit purchases account, credit supplier’s account
b. Credit purchases account, debit supplier’s account
c. Credit bank account, debit purchases account
d. Debit bank account, credit purchases account
10. The entries necessary for recording profit loaning on
goods sent to branch are
a. Debit branch stock account, credit branch stock
adjustment account
b. Credit branch stock adjustment account, debit goods sent
to branch account
c. Debit goods sent to branch account, credit branch stock
account
d. Debit branch stock adjustment account, credit branch
stock account
11. The understatement of closing value of work in progress
would have the effect of
a. Understanding cost of goods manufactured
b. Overcasting prime cost of goods manufactured
c. Overcasting cost of goods manufactured
d. Understanding prime cost of goods manufactured
12. The difference between a trading account and a
manufacturing account is that while the manufacturing
account
a. Has no particular period, the trading account has
 b. Does not consider the cost of goods involved, the trading
account does
c. Is concerned with the cost of production, the trading
account is not
d. Is not concerned with the stock of raw materials, the
trading account is
13. The principal function of a sales ledger control account is
to
a. Serve as internal check and provide quick information for
the preparation of interim financial statements
b. Serve as external check and provide quick information for
the preparation of interim financial statements
c. Provide quick information for the preparation of
customers’ statements
d. Provide information for the control of salesman’s
activities
14. The correct closing balance of musas current account is
a.
15. The correct closing balance of lawals current account is
a.
16. Alabede (Nig.) limited issued 50,000 ordinary shares of
N1 each at a market value of N2.50
a.
17. A dividend of 10% in accompany on 500,000 ordinary
shares of N1 nominal value has been declared. How much will
a shareholder receive if he has 200 shares
a. N500,000
b. N50,000
c. N200
d. N20
18. What is the working capital
19. The acid test ratio in the company is
20. If goods are invoiced to the branch at cost and the
invoice par value is N2000 with 5% discount rate

COMMERCE

1. An employer insures against his employees’ dishonesty by

taking up…
a. Fidelity guarantee insurance
b. Accident insurance
c. Group life assurance
 d. Endowment policy
2. The mode of transportation that conveys a limited variety of
products through fixed laid routes is
a. Water ways
b. Road
c. Rail
d. Pipeline
3. The limit of functions, activities and personnel that a
supervisor can effectively manage in a business organization is
a. Span of control
b. Delegation of authority
c. Chain of command
d. Authority and responsibility

Use the balance sheet below to answer question 4 and 5

POLAC Block Company’s Balance Sheet As At 31-12-2015

4. The total sum of financing short term project is

a. N3,000
b. N4,000
c. N7,000
d. N20,000
5. What is the capital employed?
a. N17,000
b. N20,000
c. N30,000
d. N34,000
6. The safety and quality of products are the social responsibility
of
a. The standards organization of Nigeria
b. The manufacturers association of Nigeria
c. Corporate affairs commission
d. Business organizations.
7. The headquarters of the lake chad basin commission is in
a. Niamey
b. N’Djamena
c. Abuja
d. Lagos
8. The most important advantage of privatization is the
enhancement of
a. Liquidity
b. Accountability
c. Profitability
 d. Efficiency
9. The customs and excise department is responsible for the
collection of
a. Royalties
b. Tariffs
c. Taxes
d. Charges
10. An objective of the farmers’ association is to
a. Ensure that prices of goods are fair and reasonable
b. Correct the imbalance between consumers and producers
c. Improve the method of selling and advertising
d. Provide a stable market outlet for farm inputs
11. Money is generally acceptable for transactions due to
a. The legal backing
b. Its acceptability in the global market
c. The rule of law
d. The central bank government signature
12. The setting of objectives for an organization and
determining how to accomplish them is
a. Decision making
b. Social responsibility
c. Organizing
d. Planning
13. Equity interest in a company is represented by
a. Preference share
b. Dividend
c. Debenture
d. Ordinary share
14. A country is said to be experiencing unfavourable
balance of trade if her
a. Import and export are equal
b. Visible imports exceed visible exports
c. Exports exceed imports
d. Visible exports exceed visible imports
15. The document lodged with the customs authorities before
the ship can leave the port is a
a. Ship manifest
b. Dock warrant
c. Shipping note
d. Ship report
16. When a bank customer writes a cheque in his own name
and withdraws cash from his account, he is both
a. Drawee and payee
b. Drawer and payer
c. Drawer and payee
 d. Drawer and drawee
17. Retail outlets which sell from specialized vans are called
a. Supermarket
b. Multiple shop
c. Mail order firms
d. Mobile shop
18. Where two or more companies agree to work on a project
too large for one of them, this is called
a. Consortium
b. Merger
c. Cartel
d. Combination
19. In a law of contract, what is given in exchange for a
promise to perform is
a. Offer
b. Acceptance
c. Consideration
d. Warranty
20. Which of the following is an intangible asset of a firm?
a. Good Will
b. Reserve
c. Right issue
d. Personnel

The End