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1 What is antidote for Warfarin ?
Answer Vitamin K
2 What is antidote for paracetamol ?
Answer N-acetylcysteine
3 What is antidote for morphine
Answer Naloxone
Naloxone is Antidote while Methadone used in addiction treatment.
4 What Is treatment of mania ? Also called Bibolar and divided to Mania + Depression
Answer Lithium > chronic For mania= Give Lithium
Antipsychotics like : For depression= Give Antidepressant
chlorpromazine, haloperidol, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, ziprasidone, aripipr
azole, and asenapine in acute mania
5 Which the antibiotic safe in pregnant ?
Answer Penicillin > also cephalosporin
6 What is the medication use in of Hyperthyroidism ? But we can use B-blocker to treat symptoms
Answer Propylthiouracil (PTU) > for pregnant PTU 1 trimester
And methimazole Methimazole 2-3 trimester
7 What is the medication use in Hypothyroidism ? Also called Hashemoto deaces
Answer Levothyroxine ‫قبل الحمل نمشيها على الجرعة العادية وإذا حملت أزود الجرعة وبعد الوالدة أرجع الجرعه عاديه‬
8 What the vaccines are safe in pregnant ? Not give live vaccines
Answer Influenza, Tetanus, diphtheria, whooping cough (pertussis) (Tdap, Td)
9 Who is responsible from pharmacist in Saudi
Answer A- ministry of health (for patient)
B- FDA (for products)
C- Saudi Commission for Health Specialties
10 Antidote for diazepam ?
answer Flumazenil
11 Wha h h li id ?
Answer Phospholipids are a class of lipids that are a major component of all cell membranes. They
can form lipid bilayers because of their amphiphilic characteristic. The structure of the
phospholipid molecule generally consists of two hydrophobic fatty acid "tails" and
a hydrophilic "head" consisting of a phosphate group. The two components are joined
together by a glycerol molecule. The phosphate groups can be modified with simple
organic molecules such as choline, ethanolamine or serine.
12 Vaccines for deep wounds and not deep wounds?
Answer Tetanus
13 What are minoxidil side effects ? Edema and hypotension
Answer Tachycardia and hypertrichsis ‫شعر بالجسم‬
14 What is MOA of Digoxin
Answer Increases the force of contraction of the muscle of the heart by inhibiting the activity of an
enzyme (atpase)
15 Which of the following is positive/ negative inotrops ?
Answer Negative inotropic agents decrease myocardial contractility and are used to decrease
cardiac workload like B-blocker
Positive inotropic agents can increase myocardial contractility like digoxin
16 Fixed dose of vasopresor ?
Answer Meaning it has two or more therapeutic ingredients in a single dose.
Like : dopamin and epinephrine
17 What is chlorothiazide side effects
Answer Hypokalemia Hyperglycemia + Hypomagnecima + Hypercalcemia
18 What is best antibiotics for Pregnant has UTI?
Answer Used to be: ampicillin
And Kefalixin
Recently research says : Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
20 What is passive immunity ? ‫يجي مع الحمل والرضاعة‬
Answer Passive immunity is the administration of antibodies to an unimmunized person from
an immune subject to provide temporary protection against a microbial agent or toxin.
21 What is lamotrigen side effects ?
Answer Skin rash
22 What are hypertension Stages ?
Answer STAGE 1 or Prehypertension is 120/80 to 139/89 40% or 50% of
dayly total dose
STAGE 2 or Mild Hypertension is 140/90 to 159/99

STAGE 3 or Moderate Hypertension is 160/100 to 179/109

STAGE 4 or Severe Hypertension is 180/110 or higher

23 Basel insulin calculation ? If weight by pound= pound / 4= 2 ‫الناتج أقسمو على‬
Answer Study calculations of insulin If weight by kg= kg * 0.55= 2 ‫الناتج أقسمو على‬
24 What is test for phenytoin toxicity ?
Answer Total serum phenytoin concentration, and serum albumin. > blood culture
The level of unbound phenytoin may be calculated using the corrected winter-tozer
formula: Because it may cause liver failure

Corrected phenytoin levels (mg/dl): serum phenytoin level (milligrams/liter)

(0.25 x albumin [grams/deciliter]) +0.1
25 What is use of Colchicine In Acute Gout not chronic
Answer Gout and Behçet's disease.
26 Carbamazepine, HLA-B ????
Answer Asia population HLA-B 1502
Carbamazepine-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis in
people having this allel
27 What is dose of Enoxaparin Treatment: 1 mg/kg BID or 1.5 mg/kg OD
Answer 1 mg/ kg bid Prophylaxis: 30 mg SC
28 What are classification of heart failure?
Answer Class i (mild) Patients with cardiac disease but without
resulting in limitation of physical activity.

Ordinary physical activity does not cause

undue fatigue,

Palpitation (rapid or pounding heart beat),

Dyspnea (shortness of breath), or anginal

pain (chest pain).
Class ii (mild) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in
slight limitation of physical activity.

They are comfortable at rest. Ordinary

physical activity results in fatigue,
Palpitation,

Dyspnea, or anginal pain

Class iii (moderate) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in
marked limitation of physical activity.

They are comfortable at rest. Less than

ordinary activity causes fatigue,
palpitation,

Dyspnea, or anginal pain.

Class iv (severe) Patients with cardiac disease resulting in
the inability to carry on any physical
‫حتى لو ما سوا مجهود يتعب‬
Activity without discomfort.
 symptoms of heart failure or the anginal
syndrome may be present even at rest.

If any physical activity is undertaken,

discomfort is increased.
29 Why Long acting beta agonist not used as monotherapy ?
Answer LABA alone can induce asthma related death, should be with coticosteroids
30 What is treatment of intermittent asthma ?
Answer Inhaler SABA PRN
31 Isotretinoin category in pregnancy?
Answer Category X
32 What is anaerobic / aerobic bacteria ?
Answer Aerobic organism or aerobe is an organism that can survive and grow in
an oxygenated environment.[1] in contrast, an anaerobic organism (anaerobe) is any
organism that does not require oxygen for growth. Some anaerobes react negatively or
even die if oxygen is present.
33 What is vaccines during Hajj ?
Answer Yellow fever vaccination
Meningococcal meningitis
Poliomyelitis
Seasonal influenza
Middle eastern respiratory syndrome corona virus (mers-cov)
Zika virus disease and dengue fever
34 What is treatment of H.pylori ?
Answer Omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin (OAC) for 10 days
Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, and tetracycline (BMT) for 14 days
Lansoprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin (LAC)
35 What is treatment of TB ?
Answer Total of 6 months

Two-month intensive TB treatment:

Isoniazid
Plus, rifampicin
Plus, pyrazinamide
Plus, ethambutol

Followed by 4 months of:

Isoniazid
Plus rifampicin
36 PPI equivalent doses ?
Answer Proton pump inhibitors
Ppi Dose
Ex: Esmo 20 = Lanso 30
Esomeprazole ‫كل واحد وإيش يكافئه من أخوانو‬ 20 mg
Lansoprazole 30 mg
Omeprazole 20 40 mg
Pantoprazole 40 mg
37 Warfarin has ? Drug Inducers= Decrees INR such Green tea
Answer Drug food interactions Drug Inhibitors= Increase INR such Genger ‫زنجبيل‬
38 Medication errors uploaded to ?
Answer Ministry of Health (MOH) ADR: By SFDA
39 Lookalike, sound alike ?
Answer Use Tall man Letter Cloured sticker + separate between them
40 Examples of primary resources ?
 Answer Archives and manuscript material.
Photographs, audio recordings, video recordings, films.
Journals, letters and diaries.
Speeches.
Scrapbooks.
Published books, newspapers and magazine clippings published at the time.
Government publications.
Oral histories.
41 Examples of direct cost ? Pharmacist cost is Direct Medical
‫أي شيء أدفعو‬
Answer Examples of direct costs are direct labor, direct materials, commissions, piece rate
wages, and manufacturing supplies. Examples of indirect costs are production supervision‫عشان أجيب خدمة‬
salaries, quality control costs, insurance, and depreciation. ‫أو بضائع او دواء‬
42 Examples of non-sedative antihistamines? Second generation have more selectively
Answer Cetirizine, desloratadine, fexofenadine, levocetirizine and loratadine
43 Examples of cardioselective beta blocker
Answer Atenolol.
Esmolol.
Metoprolol.
Bisoprolol.
44 Patient has heart failure what is the contraindicated oral anti diabetic for him?
Answer Sulfonylureas -glitazones
45 First line treatment in depression
Answer Sertraline and escitalopram > SSRI If not work use Atypical antidepressant
46 Anti-Epileptic Drug (AED) that cause weight gain and weight lose?
Answer Weight gain Weight lose
Divalproex topiramate
Ethosuximide Ethosuximide
Felbamate
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Tiagabine
Vigabatrin
47 Patient has elevated liver enzymes and taking methotrexate?
Answer Folic acid (~1 mg daily)
Or decrease the dose by 75%
Or stop methotrexate
Depend on the level of elevation
48 Methotrexate in pregnancy?
Answer X
49 G6PD enzyme ? More in Male ‫أنيميا الفول تخلي الدم يتأكسد‬
Answer Anti malariag6pd deficiency leads to increased oxidative stress in red blood cells, this may
in turn have a negative influence on the parasite. As such, individuals who possess this
mutation have some protection against malaria
50 What is treatment of Respiratory failure ?
Answer Oxygen therapy
Bronchodilators, steroids and possibly antibiotics
51 What is treatment of pulmonary embolism
Answer Enoxaparin, dalteparin, fondaparinux, and unfractionated heparin (UFH). Subcutaneous
low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) (enoxaparin and dalteparin)
52 What is PH in stomach ?
Answer Ph of gastric acid is 1.5 to 3.5
53 Data expire of medication is 2/2017 when last time will be use medication ?
Answer End of the month (last day of Feb) 2 ‫ أخذه بأخر يوم بشهر‬2 ‫الزم تكون عارف شهور السنة كلها فإذا الدواء يخلص شهر‬
54 Patient takes warfarin 10 mg and INR less than 2 What will be do ? Normal 2-3
Answer C n ide el ading with 1 extra dose of warfarin or Increase warfarin by 5-15%.
Dose dependant side effect: Nystagmus + Ataksia + Blurred vision ‫أغلبها بالعني‬
Non dose dependant side effect: Lethargy + Dizziness + Confusion

Http://www.impactteam.info/documents/warfarindosingalgorithm_000.pdf
55 What is adverse effect of phenytoin ? Purple glove syndrome
Answer Gingival hyperplasia
56 Safest anticonvulsant in pregnancy?
Answer Levetiracetam and probably lamotrigine. Last choice is phenytoin
57 What is best benzodiazepine for elderly?
answer Short-half-life benzodiazepines, such as oxazepam, alprazolam, and triazolam, are
usually recommended for older adults, because these agents do not accumulate in the
blood, are rapidly cleared from circulation, and offer greater dosage flexibility
58 What is medication must be stop before 1 month for woman want to pregnant
Answer Isotretinoin
Http://www.just.edu.jo/DIC/Manuals/Drugs%20contrandicated%20in%20pregnancy.pdf
59 What is Adverse effect of isosorbide dinitrate ?
Answer Vasodilation AE
Nitrate syndrome
Monday syndrome
60 What is fastest route for administration in insulin?
Answer Iv
61 Patient used phenytoin and conc. Of phenytoin 13.5 what should u do ?
Answer Normal range 10-20 Not do anything because he is within normal
62 Patient came to community pharmacy for Nexium but not available what you will give
him? Not use in renal impirtant Give another PPI with equivalents dose ‫الجدول الي فوق‬
Answer Antacids or H2 bocker
63 Patient. Take warfarin and INR 5 without bleeding ?
Answer Hold warfarin ‫ من الجرعة األصلية‬٪75 ‫أوقف الجرعة األولى والثانية وأبدا الجرعة الثالثة وأنقص منها‬
Http://www.impactteam.info/documents/warfarindosingalgorithm_000.pdf
64 What is antidote for heparin ?
Answer Protamine sulfate
65 What is the antidote for iron ?
Answer Deferoxamine
66 Which medication cause peripheral edema
Answer Amlodipine
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (such as ibuprofen and naproxen) Any one cause
Calcium channel blockers (Amlodipine) vasodilation
Corticosteroids (like prednisone and methylprednisolone)
Pioglitazone and rosiglitazone
Pramipexole
67 Medication cause non Productive cough ?
Answer Captoprill Any ACEI
Acei-arbi
68 Usp 797
Answer Sterile
69 Usp 795 USP 800: Hazard Drug
Answer Non sterile
70 What is treatment of myasthenia gravis?
Answer Neostigmine
71 Patient ha S age 2 h e en i n Wha i he ea men
Answer Losartan + amlodipine Stage 1 just one drug ACEI or ARB + CCB or Thiazide If the patient is
Two first-line drugs of different classes are recommended with stage 2 hypertension elderly or African
72 Antidiabetic agent use as off label use for reduce weight ? Not use ACEI

Answer Metformin Metformin only OFF label

Liraglutide Liraglutide FDA approved
73 Patient take doxycycline for acne what the best advice you will give him
Answer Use protect sunscreen and avoid the sun Because it’s photosensitive
74 Which medication cause oligohydrosis ? ‫الجسم‬ ‫يقلل خروج العرق من‬
Answer Zonisamide Also Topiramate
75 Which medication increase prolactin ? Dopamine antagonist + MOI + TCA + SSRI + Atypical AD +
SNRI + Morphine + CCB + Dompiredone + Clopramide +
Estrogen
 Increase Dopamine= Decrease Prolactin / Decrease Dopamine= Increase Prolactin

Answer Phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors,

estrogens, verapamil
(a) direct-acting dopamine receptor agonists (e.g. Dopamine, apomorphine and the ergot
derivatives); (b) indirect-acting dopamine agonists (e.g. Amphetamine, nomifensine,
methylphenidate, amineptine); (c) drugs which impair serotoninergic neurotransmission
(e.g. The neurotoxin 5,7-dihydroxytryptamine and the serotonin receptor antagonists
methysergide and metergoline); (d) gamma-aminobutyric acid [gaba]-mimetic drugs (e.g.
Gaba, muscimol, ethanolamine-o-sulphate, sodium valproate); (e) histamine h2-receptor
agonists; and (f) cholinergic (muscarinic and nicotinic) receptor agonists
76 Which medication decrease prolactin ? Bromocriptine + Pergolide + Amphetamine
Answer Prolactin-stimulating agents comprise: (a) dopamine receptor antagonists (e.g. Classic and
atypical antipsychotic drugs); (b) drugs differently capable of impairing central nervous
system dopamine function (e.g. Blockers of dopamine neurotransmission such as alpha-
methyl-p-tyrosine and 3-iodo-l-tyrosine, false precursors such as alpha-methyldopa, and
inhibitors of l-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase such as carbidopa and benserazide); (c)
drugs enhancing serotoninergic neurotransmission (e.g. The serotoninergic precursors
tryptophan and 5-hydroxytryptophan, direct-acting serotonin agonists such as quipazine
and mk 212, and indirect-acting serotonin agonists such as fenfluramine); (d) blockers of
serotonin reuptake (e.g. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine and clovoxamine); (e) h1-receptor
agonists; and (f) h2-receptor antagonists (e.g. Cimetidine)
77 Calculate creatinine clearance?
Answer Creatinine Clearance = [[140 - age(yr)]*weight(kg)]/[72*serum Cr(mg/dl)] (multiply by
0.85 for women).
78 What is class of ipratropium?
Answer Bronchodilator , M-antagonist Anticholinergic
79 What is class of atropine ?
Answer Anticholinergic Anticholinergic SE: Blurred vision + Dryness + Urinary retention
80 What is MOA of glipized ? Impotence + Tachycardia ‫إختصار ل زغلوله الناشفه حبست زوجها أبوسريع‬
Answer Sulfonylureas likely bind to ATP-sensitive potassium-channel receptors on the pancreatic
cell surface, reducing potassium conductance and causing depolarization of the membrane.
Depolarization stimulates calcium ion influx through voltage-sensitive calcium channels,
raising intracellular concentrations of calcium ions, which induces the secretion, or
exocytosis, of insulin ‫يقلل البوتاسيوم ف يزود األنسولني سكريشن‬
81 Which of the following not essential amino acid?
Answer The 9 essential amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine,Essential amino acid take it
phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. from outside body like Diet
Nonessential amino acids include: alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, and glutamic acid.
82 Which of the following produced by mitochandria ?
Answer Atp
83 What is side effect of allopurinol ?
Answer Fever, sore throat, and headache with a severe blistering, peeling and red skin rash.
84 What is adverse drug event
Answer Is an injury resulting from medical intervention related to a drug
85 Which of the following more gastrointestinal side effect ?
Answer Nsaid
86 What is class of cetirizine?
Answer Anti-histamine Second generation not sedation + H1 Blocker
87 What is class of aliskiren ?
Answer Direct renin inhibitors
88 What is Clinical use of methadone?
Answer Opioid for pain Also for addiction of heroin
89 What is MOA tricyclic antidepressant?
Answer Increase levels of norepinephrine and serotonin, two neurotransmitters, and block the
action of acetylcholine.
90 What is MOA of sitagliptin ?
Answer DPP-4 inhibitor, which is believed to exert its actions in patients with type 2 diabetes by
slowing the inactivation of incretin hormones Increase GLP + GIP
91 What first line agent in Otitis media in pediatric?
Answer Amoxicillin at a dosage of 80 to 90 mg per kg per day
92 What is first line agent gestational diabetes ?
Answer Metformin Insulin as parental if not found give metformin as oral
93 What is first line agent for hypertension in pregnancy? M-N-H-L
Answer Methyldopa Methyldopa + Nifedipine + Labetalol
94 What is antidote for enoxaparin
Answer Protamine
95 What is antidote for benzodiazepines
Answer Flumazenil
96 What is first line agent in patients with MSSA ? Oxacillin or nafacillin or metacillin as first
Answer Ceftriaxone daptomycine
97 What is first line agent in patient with MRSA ?
Answer Vancomycine If not use linozolid
98 What is anticancer that cause myelosuppression?
Answer Alkylating agents, pyramidine analogs, anthracyclines, anthraquinones, nitrosoureas,
methotrexate, hydroxyurea and mitomycin C
99 Which drug that decrease mortality in patients with stage 4 HF?
Answer Carvedilol,metoprolol succinate (controlled release) or bisoprolol BB or ACEI or ARB
100 Calculate child pugh score
Answer
Decrease mortality:
BB + ACEI + ARB
Aldosterone antagonist
Hydralazine + Dinitrate

Decrease morbidity:
Decrease hospitalization:
Digoxin + Diuretics

‫يستخدم عشان نشوف حالة‬

‫تدهور اللفر قد إيش‬

101 Calculate peptic ulcer risk factor

Answer

Risk factors include: nsaids use, smoking, increase age, history of peptic ulcer disease
(personal or family history), and being in the ICU
102 Calculate CHA2 DS2-vasc score or CHADS2 score?
 As per the Chest Guideline for Antithrombotic Therapy for Atrial Fibrillation 2018:
1. The CHA2DS2-vasc scoring system should be used to evaluate stroke risk.
2. A score of 0 in males or 1 in females does not require treatment.
3. A c e 1 in male 2 in female i an indica i n f an ic ag la i n ea men :
A. Non-vitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants (noacs) are preferred over warfarin.
These include apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban and dabigatran.
B. If warfarin is used, the INR should be within the therapeutic range most of the time.
C. Antiplatelet treatment with aspirin alone, or a combination of aspirin and
clopidogrel, is no longer recommended for stroke prevention.

103 Determine the severity of asthmatic patient..

Answer

104 What is cornerstone for diagnosis of osteoporosis?

Answer Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA or DXA) which measures the bone mineral
density (BMD) and calculates T-score.
A T-score of -2.5 or less is diagnostic of osteoporosis.
105 What is first line agent for pain associated with osteoarthritis?
Answer Acetaminophen
106 What is first line agent for pain in coronary artery disease patient? Morphine
Answer Nitrates
107 What is MOA of Morphine induced respiratory depression?
Answer It reduces the sensitivity of the respiratory center neurons to carbon dioxide.
108 Which insulin can be given with IV route?
Answer Regular insulin Lispro
109 Which drug that is considered contraindicated in breastfeeding?
Answer Lithium (There are many, but lithium was among the options and it is the best answer)
110 Which one of insulin have long acting effect?
Answer Glargine and detemir are long acting insulins
111 Which one of the azole antifungal drugs needs renal adjustment?
Answer Fluconazole
112 What is the first line treatment for extra-pyrimdal symptoms?
Answer Benztropine (1 to 2 mg IM) or diphenhydramine (25-50mg IM) are considered as a first
line treatment. Benzodiazepines (e.g. Lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IM) are second line treatment.
113 What is the role of histamine?
Answer Histamine, which is secreted mainly by mast cells. Plays a pivotal role in many types of
allergic and inflammatory processes, including both acute and delayed hypersensitivity
reactions.
114 Which anti-asthmatic agents can increase cardiac disease when used alone?
Answer LABA (salmeterol, formoterol).
115 Which one of the antibiotics is contraindicated in pediatrics?
Answer Tetracyclines and floruquniolones (e.g. Ciprofloxacin) Also Bactrium who less than 2 month
116 What is maximum dose of prednisone in asthma?
Answer 60mg/day for 3-10 days
117 Which of the following method used to prepare emulsion?
Answer Continental or dry gum method,
 English or wet gum method, and
Bottle method
118 What is first line part of immune system against microbe
Answer Skin
119 What is first line against chlamydia?
Answer Doxycycline or azithromycin.
120 What is role of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy Enhance diffusion of ammonia into colon for excretion
Answer It lowers ammonia blood levels. First line in Acute, chronic
121 What is first line agent for fever in 8 months pediatric patient?
Answer Acetaminophen:
10 to 15 mg/kg/dose orally every 4 to 6 hours; MAX 75 mg/kg/day for infants and either
100 mg/kg/day or 1625 mg/day in children, whichever is less.
(8 months=infant)

Ibuprofen: Not give for less than 6 month

5 to 10 mg/kg orally every 6 to 8 hours as needed, MAX 4 doses/day

The patient needs to be assessed by a specialist to rule out any infection.

122 Which vaccine should be given to patient older than 65 years? Also Flu vaccine
Answer All patients age >= 65 years give PCV 13 one dose (if never received), followed 1 year
later by PPSV 23 one dose (must be spaced 5 years from any previous PPSV23 dose)
123 Which one of Antihistamine can induce sedation?
Answer First generation (sedating) include: diphenhydramine, clorpheniramine, clemastine,
hydroxyzine, etc..
Second generation (non-sedating) include: cetirizine, levocitirizine, loratadine,
desloratadine and fexofenadine
124 All of the following drugs cover psedomonas aerugenosa except?
Answer The an e m likel ld be ei he e a enem cef a ime ( he d n c e
pseudomonas) As a vail as a tablet

Antibiotics that cover pseudomonas include:

Pipercillin-tazobactam, ceftazidime, cefepime, imipenem, meropenem, doripenem,
aztreonam, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, gentamicin, amikacin and tobramycin.
125 What is first line agent in patient with endocarditis?
Answer Empiric treatment often includes vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Definitive treatment and
antibiotic du¬ration for IE are dependent on the pathogen, the type of infected valve (native
or prosthetic) and the susceptibility results. In general, 4 - 6 weeks of IV antibiotic
treatment is required; when prosthetic valves and/or more resistant organisms are involved,
durations will be at the upper end of this range.

126 Births and the first vaccinations they take?

Answer BCG and Hepatitis B vaccines
127 What type of infection is prevented by vaccination?
Answer There are plenty, and the answer depends on the options.
Once you memorize the vaccination schedule, you will get to know the diseases that are
Diphtheria - Tetanus - Pertussis - Poliomyelitis - Measles - Mumps - Rubella - H.Influenza B infection - Hepatitis B - Influenza - Pneumococcal infe
 not preventable.
128 Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Answer Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy, and they include:
MMR, MMRV, varicella, zoster, yellow fever, intranasal influenza, rotavirus, cholera, oral
typhoid, BCG, and oral polio.
129 Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in immunodeficiency?
Answer Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in immunodeficiency, and they include:
MMR, MMRV, varicella, zoster, yellow fever, intranasal influenza, rotavirus, cholera, oral
typhoid, BCG, oral polio, plaque, and epidemic typhus.
130 Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients?
Answer Same answer of question 129
131 Tdap vaccination is given at any trimester for a pregnant woman?
Answer Third trimester (between week 27 and 36)
132 What is antidote for Organophosphate?
Answer Atropine 2 to 5 mg IV for adults and 0.05 mg/kg IV for children. If no effect is noted, the
dose should be doubled every three to five minutes until pulmonary muscarinic signs and
symptoms are alleviated.
Pralidoxime IV bolus therapy least 30 mg/kg in adults, and 25 to 50 mg/kg for children

Pralidoxime should NOT be administered without concurrent atropine in order to prevent

worsening symptoms due to transient oxime-induced acetylcholinesterase inhibition.
133 What type of organism does cause Lyme disease?
Answer Lyme disease, or Lyme borreliosis, is a bacterial infection spread to humans by infected
ticks.
134 Pregnant with HIV and its best treatment?
Answer Regimen should include 2 nrtis (nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors) plus
either a boosted-PI (protease inhibitors) or INSTI (integrase strand transfer inhibitor).
Preferred drugs are listed below. Choose one line from the first column, then add one line
from the second or third column.

135 What is the best HIV test?

Answer As of June 2014, the CDC recommends the following HIV testing algorithm:
Pe f m ini ial HIV c eening ing a FDA-approved combination HIV Ab and
antigen immunoassay test. This test detects both, HIV p24 antigens and HIV antibodies.
HIV antigens can be detected earlier than HIV antibodies, typically at 2 weeks post
infection, thus the benefit of the combination HIV Ab/antigen test is that it can detect HIV
infection sooner than antibody testing alone.
If he ini ial c eening e i eac i e (positive), perform confirmatory testing with an
HIV-l/HIV-2antibody differentiation immunoassay test. This test serves two purposes:
it serves as a confirmation of the positive screening test and it determines whether a
patient has HIV-1 or HIV-2.
If he ini ial e i eac i e ( i i e), b he ec nda e i n n-reactive (negative)
or indeterminate, then a third test should be conducted (the HIV nucleic acid test).

If this algorithm cannot be implemented, the recommendations provide alternative

testing guidance, which includes using the HIV immunoassay screening test [also
referred to as HIV ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)] as an initial
screening. This tests only for the presence of HIV Ab in aperson's blood sample.
Alternative confirmatory tests include the HIV RNA viral load and the Western Blot.
Diagnosis of HIV is confirmed when both the HIV immunoassay
 Screening and supplemental confirmatory tests are positive.

Monitoring:
CD4+ count (an important indicator for the need of opportunistic infections prophylaxis)
HIV viral load (indicator of the response to antiretroviral therapy)
136 What is the most coomon antibiotic that causes diarrhea?
Answer Erythromycin Clindamycin first
137 What is appropriate antibiotic to cover staphylococcus aureus?
Answer Methicillin-sensitive staphylococcus aureus (MSSA): cloxacillin, dicloxacillin,
Methicillin-resistnat staphylococcus aureus (MRSA): Vancomycin, linezolid
138 In which dose measure the Vancomycin?
Answer Before the 4th dose by 30 minutes
139 What is the use of erythromycin eye drop?
Answer Bacterial conjunctivitis (red eye and discharge).
140 What is the major side effect of doxorubicin?
Answer Cardiotoxicity
141 Which of the following is used in breast cancer?
Answer Hormaonal therapy (in estrogen and/or progesterone receptors positive) patientis:
- Selective estrogen receptor modulators (serms): Toamixifen, toremifene, or fulvestrant.
-Aromatase inhibitors (ais): anastrozole, letrozole, or exemestane.
Chemotherapy:
-Palbociclib.
-Trastuzumab with or without pertuzumab (in HER-2 positive patients)
142 What is mechanism of action of tamoxifen?
Answer Tamoxifen is a selective-estrogen receptor modulator that acts as an estrogen antagonist on
breast cancer, but as an agonist on other tissues including the bone and uterus.
143 What is MOA atropine?
Answer Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic agent that specifically antagonizes the muscarine-like
activity of acetylcholine and other choline esters. It is a competitive antagonist of
acetylcholine on the effector cells.
144 What is the most common side effect aminoglycoside?
Answer Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
145 What is the most popular agent that causes acute renal failure?
Answer Drugs commonly associated with kidney injury include:
Aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, Cisplatin, colistin, cyclosporine, loop diuretics, nsaids,
radiographic contrast dye, tacrolimus and vancomycin.
146 Which of the following drugs requires dosage reduction in hypoalbuminemia?
Answer Drugs which are highly albumin bound, needs dosage adjustment in case of
hypoalbuminemia to avoid toxicity. A very common example is phenytoin. Fosphnytoin
147 What is the best treatment for child who has runny nose?
Answer Suction with normal saline | 6 month, more: Desloratidine | more thane 2y: Chlorpheniramine + Loratidine
148 What is the drug of choice for depression in obese patients?
Answer The answer depends on the options because the effect of antidepressants on body weight is
variable. There is some evidence supporting weight loss with fluoxetine (although long
e m die gge eigh gain, b i minimal c m a ed he ssris).
Bupropion and venlafaxine are associated with weight loss.

I e e ab i hed ha he f i g i a e a cia ed i h eigh gai , he

should avoided:
paroxetine, mirtazapine, tricyclic antidepressants (tcas), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors
(maois).
149 Re-feeding Syndrome?
Answer In significantly malnourished patients, the initial stage of oral, enteral, or parenteral
nutritional replenishment causes electrolyte and fluid shifts that may precipitate disabling
or fatal medical complications
 Symptoms
Elec l e di de incl ding h h ha emia, h kalemia and h magne aemia
Dia hea, na ea, mi ing
May become life threatening leading to
A h hmia (b ad ca dia, en ic la ach a h hmia)
h e gl cemia, gl cosuria, dehydration and hyperosmolar coma

Management
" a l and g l "
C ec elec l e abn mali ie bef e a ing n i i nal
Admini e l me and ene g l l
M ni l e, I/O, elec l e cl el
P ide a ia e i amin lemen a i n
A id e feeding
Ade a e e le i n f K, PO-4, Mg, and order daily lab over the 1st week.
150 Wha i he be d g f Pa kin n di ea e a ien h ha nausea?
Answer Nausea is a common adverse effect of levodopa. However, carbidopa helps in reducing the
incidence of it.
In patients on low doses, additional carbidopa may be adequate to relieve nausea. If
additional carbidopa is ineffective or unaffordable, domperidone is a good option.
Avoid metoclopramide and prochlorperazine.
151 What is duration otitis?
Answer For amoxicillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, clarithromycin, oral cephalosporins (eg, cefdinir,
cefpodoxime, cefuroxime), clindamycin, and levofloxacin:
Ten da f child en <2 ea and child en ( f an age) i h m anic membrane
perforation or history of recurrent AOM.
Fi e e en da f child en 2 ea f age i h in ac m anic memb ane and n
history of recurrent AOM
F a i h m cin Five days
F cef ia ne One to three doses, depending upon persistence of symptoms

For adult
Mild to moderate infections for 5 to 7 days
Severe infections 10-day
Answer Dosage 1.5 2.0 g elemental calcium/day the total daily dosage divided into three doses
//d a i n f m 20 eek ge a i n n il he end f egnanc Calcium dose in pregnancy
153 What is dose calcium for osteoporosis?
Answer Getting at least 800 mg of calcium a day from the diet or
taking at least 1,000 mg of supplemental calcium a day increased bone density
Dose is 1.2 gram daily

154 Digoxin level is 2.5 what you do If Digoxin level is 2.4 and above give Digifab
Answer Give digoxin immune Feb
155 ‫اد ع ش ص ا ع ا ا أ ست د تطع ا زا ش ع ا اع ذا‬
Answer ‫ا اع ط‬
156 What Is treatment Duration of Domperidone?
Answer Not more than 1 week
157 What is drug for peptic ulcer?
H. Pylori eradication by triple therapy:
Regime i: me a le 20 mg bd 14 da cla i h m cin 500 mg bd 14 da
amoxycillin 1 gm bds 14 days.
Regime ii: me a le 20 mg bd 14 da am cillin 1 gm bd 14 da me nida le
400 mg tds 14 days
158 What is appropriate drug if heparin cause thrombocytopenia?
There are a number of non-heparin anticoagulants that can be used in a patient with HIT.
These include parenteral direct thrombin inhibitors
(eg, argatroban, bivalirudin), danaparoid (not available in the United States), fondaparinux,
or direct oral anticoagulants (doacs) such as apixaban, edoxaban, rivaroxaban, or
dabigatran .

Direct thrombin inhibitors

Unlike heparin, the direct thrombin inhibitors do not bind to platelet factor 4 (PF4) and
thus are not able to induce or react with the anti-heparin/PF4 antibodies that cause heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).

Non-pregnant normal renal function: not requiring urgent cardiac surgery or PCI
1st option argatroban or danaparoid
2nd option fondaparinux or rivaroxaban

Non-urgent cardiac surgery should be delayed until the patient is HIT antibody negative
(i.e., approximately 60-100 days depending on the type of HIT assay used)

Non-pregnant normal renal function: requiring urgent cardiac surgery

Bivalirudin
Non-pregnant normal renal function: requiring PCI
Bivalirudin or argatroban
Non-pregnant: requiring renal replacement therapy
Argatroban or danaparoid
Non-pregnant: renal insufficiency not requiring renal replacement therapy
Argatroban
Pregnant or breastfeeding
Fondaparinux or danaparoid

Warfarin Cannot be used until stable anticoagulation with another non-heparin

anticoagulant has been established and the platelet count has normalized or returned to
baseline
Can be used in severe renal or hepatic impairment; monitor INR closely
159 Which drug in first dose cause orthostatic hypotension ?
Answer -Adrenergic Antagonists(Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin)
A first-dose phenomenon characterized by orthostatic hypotension
160 Drug class arrhythmia lll?
Answer Amiodarone, dofetilide, ibutilide, sotalol, dronedarone
161 Drug class arrhythmia lc?
Flecainide, propafenone
162 What is herbal safe with warfarin?
Answer Fish oil.
163 What is mean pregnant category b ?
A- no risk in controlled human studies:
B- no risk in other studies: animal reproduction studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to
the
fetus.
C- risk not ruled out: animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on
the fetus.
D- positive evidence of risk: there is positive evidence of human fetal risk.
X- contraindicated in pregnancy
164 What is vitamin contraindication pregnant high dose?
Answer Vitamin a starting from 15,000 iu
165 What is drug use atrial fibrillation + mechanical value?
Answer Warfarin, dabigatran, and rivaroxaban.
166 What is best drug for Asthma is caused by exercise?
Answer (1) Short-acting ß-agonists (e.g., albuterol) should be administered 15 mins before exercise.
These are considered the drug of choice for exercise-induced bronchospasm. (EIB).
(2) Long-acting ß-agonists salmeterol (Serevent) and formoterol (Foradil) should be
administered 30 to 60 mins before exercise. When salmeterol is used chronically for EIB,
some patients may lose protection toward the end of the 12-hr dosing interval. Because of
its rapid onset, formoterol may be dosed 15 mins before exercise. Generally, short-acting
agents are preferred over long-acting ß-agonists.
(3) Nedocromil may be used to prevent EIB and exacerbations related to exposure to other
asthma triggers. Nedocromil should be administered no more than 1 hr before exercise or
exposure.
(4) Leukotriene modifiers given daily help with EIB but should not be used on an as-
needed basis just before exercise.
167 Type wbc cause inflammation?
Answer Basophils

168 Test to preantral?

Answer Continuous follicular growth
169 What is drug no take DM have acute renal?
Answer Dapagliflozin (forxiga)
Dapagliflozin is a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor, which prevents glucose
reabsorption in the kidney. Using dapagliflozin leads to heavy glycosuria (glucose
excretion in the urine), which can lead to weight loss and tiredness
170 Drug DM contraindication contrast?
Answer To avoid this complication, metformin must be withheld after the administration of the
contrast agent for 48 hours, during which the contrast-induced renal failure becomes
clinically apparent. If renal function is normal at 48 hours, the metformin can be restarted.
180 What is mean tolerance?
Answer The Capacity of the Body to Endure or Become Less Responsive to A Substance (As A
Drug) Or Physiological Insult Especially with Repeated Use or Exposure Developed
a Tolerance to Painkillers.
Or The Immunological State Marked By Unresponsiveness To A Specific Antigen
181 What is maximum dose of zolpidem in female?
Answer Insomnia, characterized by difficulty returning to sleep after middle-of-the-night
awakening
(Intermezzo(R) SL tablet, men) 3.5 mg SL taken only once per night; MAX 3.5 mg
(Intermezzo(R) SL tablet, women) 1.75 mg SL taken only once per night; MAX
1.75 mg

Insomnia, Short-term treatment

 Immediate-release tablet, men) Initial, 5 or 10 mg orally as a single dose
immediately before bedtime with at least 7 to 8 hours remaining before planned
awakening; do not read minister during the same night; MAX 10 mg/day; use lowest dose
possible
(Immediate-release tablet, women) Initial, 5 mg orally as a single dose immediately
before bedtime with at least 7 to 8 hours remaining before planned awakening; do not
readminister during the same night; may increase to MAX 10 mg/day; use the lowest dose
possible
(Extended-release tablet, men) Initial, 6.25 or 12.5 mg orally as a single dose
immediately before bedtime with at least 7 to 8 hours remaining before planned
awakening; do not readminister during the same night; MAX 12.5 mg/day; use lowest dose
possible
(Extended-release tablet, women) Initial, 6.25 mg orally as a single dose
immediately before bedtime with at least 7 to 8 hours remaining before planned
awakening; do not readminister during the same night; may increase to MAX 12.5 mg/day;
use the lowest dose possible
182 Hypersensitive by food called?
Answer Anaphylaxis, hypersensitivity type 1

183 What is Test before taking drug infliximab?

Answer Pre-infusion Checklist:
1-Tuberculosis Screening
2-Confirm that the patient is hepatitis B negative (particularly hepb Surface Antigen).
If you test positive for either of these, you may need treatment before starting infliximab.
3- HIV test. If you have HIV, this should be well controlled before starting infliximab.
4- If patient has a history of moderate to severe heart failure, infliximab has been
associated with an exacerbation of heart failure; doses > 5 mg/kg are contraindicated. Close
monitoring is recommended.
If patient has demyelinating diseases, such as multiple sclerosis, infliximab is
contraindicated.
5-Evaluate patient for: (review affirmative answers with ordering provider)
Any current or recent bouts of fever, illness or infection
 Taking any antibiotics
Recent or upcoming surgeries
Recent or planned live virus vaccinations (live virus vaccinations are not
recommended during therapy with infliximab).
184 Which medication for parkinson causes dizziness?
Answer Apomorphine, pramipexole, ropinirole, rotigotine
185 ‫ا شاك سا ا ط ع ا سبب تاركة ا طرة فت ح ب ا فترة عشا تب ة ا ة ا حد ا ذت ك رتز طرة سببت‬
‫تسبب شاك‬ ‫ا طرة فت حة ا ت ت‬ Maximum time for eye drops: 28 days or 1 month
Answer 1 month
186 What is duration supervision control medication? 7 days NOT 28 days
Answer A prescription for a controlled drug is valid for 28 days from the date on the prescription
187 What is duration no control medication?
Answer 6 months
188 Which type headache cause bilateral headache with increased tension?
Answer Tension-type headache
189 189-esophageal ulcer drug cause?
Answer Antibiotics Tetracycline, doxycycline, and clindamycin
Anti-inflammatory medications Aspirin
Bisphosphonates risedronate
Other potassium chloride, quinidine preparations, iron compounds, emepronium,
alprenolol, and pinaverium
190 What is polysaccharide?
Answer Starch
191 What is mechanism oxybutynin
Answer Antispasmodic, antimuscarinic agent
Oxybutynin acts as a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at postganglionic muscarinic
receptors, resulting in relaxation of bladder smooth muscle

xybutynin is an anticholinergic medication used to relieve urinary and bladder

diffic l ie , incl ding f e en ina i n and inabili c n l ina i n
192 Patient in ICU what is the best acute kidney test for the patient
Creatinine Clearance Is The Test or GFR
193 Sh age in medicine h c n ac
Saudi food and drug authority
194 DM + have allergic of sulfa what drug contraindication?
Sulfonamide antibiotics that can cause a reaction

Antibiotics containing chemicals called sulfonamides can trigger a reaction if you have a
sulfa allergy. These antibiotics include combination drugs:

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Septra, Bactrim)

Erythromycin-sulfisoxazole

Other medications that may cause a reaction

Other types of sulfa medications may trigger a reaction in some people who have a sulfa
allergy:

Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), used to treat Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis and

rheumatoid arthritis
Dapsone, used to treat leprosy, dermatitis and certain types of pneumonia

Keep in mind, if you have a reaction to a sulfonamide antibiotic, you may still be able to
take other sulfonamide medications without having a reaction.
Sulfonamide medications that may be OK

Certain diabetes medications glyburide (Glynase, Diabeta) and glimepiride (Amaryl),

for example
 Some nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as celecoxib (Celebrex)
The migraine medication sumatriptan (Imitrex, Sumavel Dosepro)
Certain "water pills" (diuretics), such as furosemide (Lasix) and hydrochlorothiazide
(Microzide)
195 The bacteria of its outer membrane?
Answer The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria invariably contains a unique component,
lipopolysaccharide (lps) in addition to proteins and phospholipids
196 What is side effect may cause from vancomycin
Answer Red man syndrome
198 What is laxative contraindication in pregnant woman?
Answer Senna and castor oil
199 The genetic material of hiv?
Answer Rna
200 Case with acute gout due to use
Answer Furosemide
201 What is first dose of mmr vaccine
Answer Children should get two doses of MMR vaccine, starting with the first dose at 12 to 15
months of age, and the second dose at 4 through 6 years of age.
202 What is effect of smoking in theophylline metabolism
Answer Smokers taking theophylline generally tend to require higher doses than non-smokers as
tobacco smoke contains polycyclic hydrocarbons, which induce CYP1A2.
203 What is drug of choice for severe Alzheimer?
Answer Donepezil
Three cholinesterase inhibitors are commonly prescribed: Donepezil (Aricept) is approved
to treat all stages of Alzheimer's. Rivastigmine (Exelon) is approved to treat mild to
moderate Alzheimer's. Galantamine (Razadyne) is approved to treat mild to moderate
Alzheimer's. Memantine: use it alone or compilation with Donepezil to treat moderate to sever
204 Side effect of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?
Answer Jaundice If the
205 Example of tertiary resource? patient
Answer Textbook refractory:
206 Epileptic patient has skin rash after use of oxcarbazepine what is alternative therapy Vigabatrin
Answer Gabapentin ( NEURONTIN ) If the patient newly diagnosed: Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Topiramare, Valproic
207 What is strongest evidence based study ? At least one RCT or from Meta analysis
Answer Clinical practice guidelines>systemic review> meta-analysis>randomized controlled trial
208 Type cyp interaction between omeprazole + clopidogrel ?
Answer Cyp2c19
209 What is best way use salbutamol by device?
Answer The canister should always fit firmly in the actuator.
Breathe in deeply and slowly to make sure you get all the medicine.
Hold your breath for about 10 seconds after breathing in the medicine. Then breathe
out fully.
Always keep the protective cap on the mouthpiece when your inhaler is not in use.
Always store your inhaler with the mouthpiece pointing down.
Clean your inhaler at least 1 time each week.
210 Patient use metformin have side effect GIT what best time to take it ?
Answer A- with meal b- after meal c- before meal
211 211-Female deficiency iron?
Answer A- take iron with coffee b- with juice c- with antacid
212 212-drug dyslipidemia high intensity ?
Answer A- Simvastatin 60mg b- Atorvastatin 20mg c- Rsouvastatin 20 mg
213 What is symptom of hyperthyroidism?
Answer Nervousness, anxiety, rapid heartbeat, hand tremor, excessive sweating, weight loss, and
sleep problems, evaluated blood pressure
214 When you want convert captopril to losratan how many days stop captorpil to start losartan
Answer 36 hour If the patient has angioedema with ACEI, he can take ARB after 32 to 48 h of DC ACEI and may be 6 weeks
215 What Is Best Primary to Position Emergency? Breathing + CPR
Answer Breathing Check 8For Breathing by Looking for Chest Movements (Up and Down). ... CPR
(Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) If an Adult Is Unconscious and Not Breathing, Make
Sure They Are Flat On Their Back and Then Place the Heel of One Hand in The Centre of
Their Chest and Your Other Hand On Top
Preserve Life, Prevent Further Injury & Promote Recovery
216 What is ingredient use to prepare suppository ?
Answer Suppositories contain one or more active ingredients dispersed or dissolved in a suitable
basis that may be soluble or dispersible in water or may melt at body temperature. When
prepared by moulding, suppository bases such as marigolds, gelatinous mixtures
consisting of, for example, gelatin, water and glycerol, hydrogenated vegetable oils, hard
fat or cocoa butter are usually employed.
Excipients such as diluents, adsorbents, surface-active agents preferably of nonionic type,
lubricants, antimicrobial preservatives and colouring matter authorized by the appropriate
national or regional authority, may be added when necessary
217
Answer
218 Which of the following are from communication skill
Answer Verbal , non verbal , visual & interpersonal communication
219 What is treatment child with non-productive cough and fever?
Answer Paracetamol or ibuprofen with a lot of warm liquids & honey
220 What is Contraindication vaccine in pregnant?
Answer The measles, mumps, rubella,(MMR) and chickenpox (varicella) vaccines are particularly
important for women of childbearing age who are susceptible to these infections and who
may become pregnant because these vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy
LAIV Pregnancy has always been a contraindication to use of the live-attenuated
influenza vaccine (LAIV)
Zoster Two zoster vaccines are available for prevention of herpes zoster and
postherpetic neuralgia. One is a live vaccine (Zostavax) that should not be administered to
pregnant women
Tuberculosis Use of BCG vaccine (Bacillus Calmette Guerin) to prevent tuberculosis is
not recommended during pregnancy,
221 The creatine release from where? Primary in KIDNEY and completed in LIVER
Answer Synthesis primarily takes place in the kidney and liver, with creatinine then being
transported By 3 amino acids: Glycine, Arginine, Methionine
to the muscles via the blood Amino convert to creatine then stored in skeletal muscle and use for energy
222 What happen Interaction Between TMZ-SMZ And Warfarin?
Answer Tmz( trimethoprim:antibiotic), smz( sulfamethoxazole:antibiotic)- increase effect of
warfarin by increasing protein binding & decreasing metabolism
Increase INR

Increase inr and increase risk of bleeding

223 Mention the cyp of codeine?
Answer Cyp2d6
224 What is Natural product for burning ?
Answer 1. Cool water and compress
2. Aloe vera
3. Honey
4. Coconut oil is packed with vitamin E
5. Vinegar The healing properties of acetic acid in vinegar
225 When we give a child MMR vaccine?
Answer MMR vaccine, starting with the first dose at 12 to 15 months of age, and the second dose at
4 through 6 years of age.
Children can receive the second dose earlier as long as it is at least 28 days after the first
dose
226 What is treatment of ringworm?
Answer Ring m n he kin like a hle e f ( inea edi ) and j ck i ch ( inea c i ) can
usually be treated with non-prescription antifungal creams, lotions, or powders applied to
the skin for 2 to 4 weeks.
There are many non-prescription products available to treat ringworm, including:
Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Terbinafine. Ketoconazole
Ringworm on the scalp (tinea capitis) usually needs to be treated with prescription
antifungal medication aken b m h f 1 3 m n h . C eam , l i n , de d n
work for ringworm on the scalp. Prescription antifungal medications used to treat
ringworm on the scalp include:
Griseofulvin. Terbinafine. Itraconazole, Fluconazole
227 What is the test do before giving infliximab?
Answer Pre-infusion Checklist:
1-Tuberculosis Screening
2-Confirm that the patient is hepatitis B negative (particularly hepb Surface Antigen).
If you test positive for either of these, you may need treatment before starting infliximab.
3- HIV test. If you have HIV, this should be well controlled before starting infliximab.
4- If patient has a history of moderate to severe heart failure, infliximab has been
associated with an exacerbation of heart failure; doses > 5 mg/kg are contraindicated. Close
monitoring is recommended.
If patient has demyelinating diseases, such as multiple sclerosis, infliximab is
contraindicated.
5-Evaluate patient for: (review affirmative answers with ordering provider)
Any current or recent bouts of fever, illness or infection
Taking any antibiotics
Recent or upcoming surgeries
Recent or planned live virus vaccinations (live virus vaccinations are not
recommended during therapy with infliximab).
228 What is important monitoring for Lisinopril?
Renal function BP, heart rate, BUN, CBC with differential LFT, serum K and creatinine
levels. Assess for signs of angioedema all of these should be monitored
229 What is important monitoring for metformin?
Monitor glucose and ketones (urine and blood), fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c at
least twice yearly in stable glycaemic control; quarterly if not meeting therapy goals.
Monitor renal function prior to initiation of therapy and annually thereafter; haematologic
parameters at baseline and annually thereafter; vitamin B12 serum concentration every 2-3
years (prolonged use). Monitor for signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis.
230 What is absolute bioavailability?
Answer 100 %
 Serum osmolality= ( 2* Na + ( BUN / 2.8 ) + ( Glucose / 18 ) + ( Ethanol / 4.6 )
Osm= ( 2 * Na ) + ( Glucose / 18 ) + ( BUN / 2.8 )

231 What is calculation of osmolarity?

Answer The sum of the molarities of the dissolved particles of a solution is known as osmolality,
denoted by the unit osmol.
Molarity, denoted by the unit m, is the number of moles of a solute dissolved in one liter (l)
of solution. It can be written as mol/l

Osmolarity is the sum of molarities of the dissolved particles of a solution..

O m l=( # f m le f di l ed a icle ) / (# f li e f ln) e am le ; 4 m les nacl
in ne li e h2
Osmol=(4 mole na ions + 4 mole cloride / 1)=8/1=8 osmol
232 What is shelf life efficacy?
Answer Shelf life is the period of time, from the date of manufacture, that a drug product is
expected to remain within its approved product specification while stored under defined
conditions. Shelf life is typically expressed in units of months, i.e. 24 months, 36 months,
to a maximum of 60 months
233 What is treatment of af with heart failure First: Amiodarone help contol rate before Electrical cardioversion
Answer Antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone Second: Electrical cardioversion
Electrical cardio version, oral anticoagulant, b-blockerStart Carvedalol or ER Metoprolol or Bisoprolol
234 What is medication has qunindine similar mechanism of action with?
Answer Procainamide, disopyramide Decrease vascular resistance
(class i na channel blockers)
235 What is uses of acetylecystiene?
Answer Mucolytic in cough, bronchitis, pneumonia
antidote for acetaminophin
236 What is Drug Contraindicated in pregnant with UTI?
Answer Some antibiotics should not be used during pregnancy, because of their effects on the fetus.
These include the following:
Tetracyclines (adverse effects on fetal teeth and bones and congenital defects)
Trimethoprim in the first trimester (facial defects and cardiac abnormalities)
Chloramphenicol (gray syndrome)
Sulfonamides in the third trimester (hemolytic anemia in mothers with glucose-6-
phosphate dehydrogenase [G6PD] deficiency, jaundice, and kernicterus)
237 Air bubbles in injection?
Answer When an air bubble enters a vein, it's called a venous air embolism. When an air
bubble enters an artery, it's called an arterial air embolism. These air bubbles can travel to
your brain, heart, or lungs and cause a heart attack, stroke, or respiratory failure
238 What is refrigerator temp? The fridge should be Lockable
Answer Refrigerate: (2 8ºcentigrade / 35 46degrees Fahrenheit).
Freeze: (Below 0 degrees Celsius, between -10 and -25 ºc).
Room temperature: Between (15 25ºc)
Cool place: between 8 - 15 ºc
Corrective action for units displaying temperature outside desired range should be taken
immediately by first calling the maintenance department for repair within 30 minutes. If
not repaired, then transfer all contents to a similar unit within the department
((f + 40) 1.8) 40 = c.
F= 1.8c+32=c
239 What is Warfarin level in mechanical valve?
Answer -Mechanical mitral valve, VKA therapy with a target INR of 3.0 (range 2.5 to 3.5) is
recommended
-Mechanical aortic valve, VKA therapy with a target INR of 2.5 (range 2.0 to 3.0) is
recommended
-Mechanical valves in both the aortic and mitral position, a target INR of 3.0 (range 2.5 to
3.5) is recommended
240 What is Anticoagulation in valve replacement?
Answer Warfarin
241 Bridging of warfarin to enoxaprin and level ? ??? When the INR is not within the RANGE
Answer Warfarin should be stopped 5 days before surgery. The main decision is whether to
give bridging anticoagulant therapy with full treatment doses of low molecular weight
heparin (lmwh) or, less commonly with unfractionated heparin (ufh) once the inr is less
than 2.0.
242 What medication contraindication in asthmatic patient?
-All patients with a mechanical heart valve replacement need life-long anticoagulation with
Warfarin BB: Propranolol - Atenalol - Metoprolol - Aspirin - Ibuprofen - Naproxen
243 Calculate 97% bound level?
Answer For confidence level 97% the Z Score is 2.17009
244 Child had nail injury what bacteria he might have? Fungal infection: Onychomycosis
Answer He will have paronychia. (most commonly staphylococci bacteria) As Bacterial infection
245 Osteomyelitis caused which organism?
Answer Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism seen in osteomyelitis
246 What is treatment of endocarditis in icu?
Answer Empiric antibiotic therapy is chosen based on the most likely infecting organisms. Native
valve endocarditis (nve) has often been treated with penicillin g and
gentamicin for synergistic coverage of streptococci
Ampicillin + Gentamicin for 6 weeks
Initial empiric therapy in patients with suspected endocarditis should
include vancomycin or ampicillin/sulbactam (unasyn) plus an aminoglycoside
Plus (plusrifampin in patients with prosthetic valves). Valve replacement should be considered
in selected patients with infectious endocarditis.
247 What is treatment cap in ward unit?
Answer In ward, iv beta lactam plus macrolide (level a) or fluoroquinolone alone (level a)

if outpatient ttt with macrolides, fluoroquinolone, doxycycline.

Current guidelines recommend fluoroquinolones as monotherapy for treatment of cap in

general medical wards and doxycycline (vibramycin) monotherapy for outpatient therapy
only
248 Calculate loading dose
Answer LD = CP desired * VD /F
VD = dose / concentration
 F = bioavailability
249 Calculate Infusion Rate and Flow Rate? ????
Answer 1 L = 1000 Ml, For Example If an Iv Infusion Drug Administered as 1 L/ 10 hrs So Infusion
Rate is: 1000/ 10= 100 ml/ hr
Flow Rate ( Y ) = ( Volume(Ml) / Time (Min ) ) * Drop Factor= ( 1000 / 600 ) * Df ( Will Be
Provided ) = Gttn / Min
250 When we increase dose of theophylline?
Answer If the current dose is well tolerated.
If co-administration of drugs increase its metabolism applied like: acebutalol, rifampin, b-
blocker acute bronchospasm
Smokers taking theophylline generally tend to require higher doses
251 What is treatment breast cancer ?
Answer Drugs Approved to Prevent Breast Cancer:
Raloxifene Hydrochloride Tamoxifen Citrate
252 What is Natural product used in stress ?
Answer Chamomile , lavender, lemon
253 Bond interaction in aspirin ?
Answer Hydrogen bond
254 Most risk factor in using warfarin ?
Answer Bleeding
255 What is dose of enoxaprain ?
Answer 40 mg as prophylaxic dose
256 What is pharmaceutical sociology ?
Answer It is a research program to increase profit and get the best health
257 What is the type of medication error ?
Answer

258 What is non-adherence ?

Answer Patient are not able to follow the recommendation for the prescribed treatment
259 What is mean Polypharmacy ?
Answer Use multi medication by patient ( more than 4 meds)
260 Which medication is dose dependent ?
Answer EX : phenytoin , ethanol ,Aspirin
261 Which medication need renal adjustments in antipsychotic?
Answer Clozapine, paliperidone, risperidone, and lurasidone
262 First line prophylaxis in dental procedures ?
Answer Amoxicillin
263 When measure to phenytoin level ?
Answer With recommended dosage a period of seven to ten days may be required to achieve steady
state serum levels with Phenytoin and changes in dosage should not be carried out at
intervals shorter than seven to ten days
264 What is antidote for Snake bites ?
Answer Antivenom IV
265 What is Vaccine for Minor wound
Answer Td vaccine
266 What is vaccine for Major wound
Answer Tetanus vaccine
267 What is Side effect of captopril
Answer Common
Hypotension, Rash, Hyperkalemia (11% ), Disorder of taste, Cough (0.5% to 2%)
Serious
Stevens-Johnson syndrome, Intestinal angioedema, Anaphylactoid reaction
Agranulocytosis (0.1% to 0.2% ), Neutropenia (0.1% to 0.2% ), Angioedema (0.1% )
268 What is Levothyroxine counseling?
Answer Advise patient that improvement of symptoms may not be evident for several weeks
Instruct patient to take on an empty stomach (30 minutes to 1 hour prior to breakfast)
Advise patient against sudden discontinuation of drug
Instruct patient to take 4 hours apart from antacids, iron, and calcium supplements
Side effects may include hyperthyroidism (fatigue, heat intolerance, fever, sweating,
hyperactivity, tremors, palpitations, myocardial infarction), pseudotumor cerebri in
children (nausea, vomiting, headache, pulsating intracranial sounds), or seizures
269 What is Alndronate prevention dose ?
Answer Prevention in postmenopausal : 5 mg PO OD
Or 35 mg PO once weekly
270 What is Nitroglycerin counseling ?
Answer -Counsel patient to report severe hypotension
-Tell patient to avoid activities requiring mental alertness or coordination until drug effects
are realized as drug may cause dizziness
-Side effects may include headaches, flushing, rash, and paresthesia
-ER capsule, ointment, or patch: Advise patient to have drug-free interval of 10 to 12
hr/day to avoid nitrate tolerance
-SL tablet, spray: Instruct patient to rest in a sitting position when using drug
-Patch: Warn patient against sudden discontinuation as withdrawal effects may include
chest pain and myocardial infarction
-Patch: Advise patient to remove patch before MRI procedure
-Warn patient to limit alcohol use due to additive hypotension
271 What is Calculation of child dose from adult dose ?
Answer Y g ule

Dose for Child = Age of child ( years ) X adult dose

age ( years ) + 12
C i g e

Dose for Child = Age at next birthday ( years ) X adult dose

24
F ied ef i fa

Dose for Infant = Age (months ) X adult dose

150
Ca e

Child dose = weight (lb ) X adult dose

150

272 Which Vaccine considered Live attuned vaccine ?

Answer Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine)
Rotavirus.
Smallpox.
Chickenpox.
 Yellow fever.
273 What is Tertiary information resources ?
Answer 1. Textbooks (sometimes considered as secondary sources)
2. Dictionaries and encyclopedias
3. Manuals, guidebooks, directories, almanacs
4. Indexes and bibliographies
274 What medication give to avoid asthma induced by activists?
Answer Short-acting β2-agonists(Albuterol)
275 What is monitoring Warfarin ?
Answer Inr
276 What will do with warfarin if INR 12 ?
Answer If the INR is >10 and the patient does not have clinically significant
bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K can be administered as an oral dose of
2.5 to 5 mg . Administration of vitamin K should produce a substantial reduction in the
INR within 24 to 48 hours .The INR should be monitored closely (eg, daily, every other
day), and oral vitamin K may be repeated as necessary.
277 What are Types of study design ?
answer A-Descriptive studies
Case Reports/Case Series
B-Analytical studies
Case-Control Study
Cohort Study
Cross-sectional
Randomized Controlled Trial
C- Systematic Review
D- Meta-analysis
278 What is the possible complications if Phenytoin level 200
Answer At concentrations greater than 50 mcg/ml (200 m l/L), hen in can e ace ba e
Seizures.
Adverse Drug Reaction: Hypotension and cardiac arrhythmia; nystagmus
The infusion rate should be slowed if the QT interval widens or if hypotension or
arrhythmias develop; horizontal nystagmus suggests serum concentration above the
reference range and toxicity;
279 Blood pressure in children, is more or less than in adult?
Answer Is low in infancy, and rises slowly as children age
280 10 day ?
Answer Neonate
Neonate (newborn): up to 4 weeks of age
Infant: 1 month to 2 years of age
Child: 2-12 years of age
Adolescent: 12 to 20 years of age
Premature or Preterm: Born before 37 weeks of gestation
281 What to use to prevent recurrence uti in females?
Answer Abx prophylaxic : Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) (40 mg/200 mg daily or
thrice weekly)
282 What is Contraception in breastfeeding?
Answer Progestin-only contraceptives are the preferred choice for breastfeeding mothers when
something hormonal is desired or necessary
Progestin-only contraceptives come in several different forms:
-Progestin- nl ill (POP) al called he mini- ill
-birth control injection (Depo-Provera)
-Progesterone-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) (Mirena, Skyla)
-birth control implant (Implanon, Nexplanon)
283 What is pharmacokinetics?
Answer Is the quantitative measurement of drug absorption, distribution, and elimination (i.e.,
excretion and metabolism) and includes the rate processes for drug movement into the body,
within the body, and out of the body
284 What is Example of adverse drug reaction ?
Answer A-Definition: compares the costs of two or more treatment alternatives that have a
demonstrated equivalence in therapeutic outcome (i.e., therapeutically equivalent
alternatives).
B. Results expressed as a total cost per treatment alternative.
C. Used to determine the least costly alternative
285 What is Cost-minimization ?
Answer A-Definition: compares the costs of two or more treatment alternatives that have a
demonstrated equivalence in therapeutic outcome (i.e., therapeutically equivalent
alternatives).
B. Results expressed as a total cost per treatment alternative.
C. Used to determine the least costly alternative.
286 Cost-effectiveness
Answer Definition method to compare treatment alternatives, or programs where cost is measured
in monetary terms and consequences in units of effectiveness or natural units.
B. Results are expressed as average cost-effectiveness ratios, or as the incremental cost of
using one alternative over another.

C. Used to compare competing programs or treatment alternatives that differ in therapeutic

outcome:
I. May be less expensive, and at least as effective as the comparator.
Ii.May be more expensive while providing an additional benefit worth the additional cost.
Iii. May be less expensive and less effective when the extra benefit is not worth the extra
cost.
287 P.value is used to determine?
Answer The P-value is used as an alternative to rejection points to provide the smallest level of
significance at which the null hypothesis would be rejected.
288 Set 11 numbers which number Is the median? ????
Answer Median: The median is the point in a distribution that divides scores in half. Consider the
following set of values
2 2 3 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9

Mode: The mode is the number that occurs most frequently in a distribution. In the
following distribution, the mode is 53
50 51 51 52 53 53 53 53 54 55 56

Mean: The mean equals the sum of all values divided by the number of participants-
commonly referred to as the average.
55 61 66 72 78 86 92
In this example, the mean is 72.

289 Which drug to avoid in patient with penicillin allergy ?

Answer -In severe penicillin allergy (e.g. Anaphylaxis, bronchospasm, urticaria,
angioedema), avoid ALL penicillins, cephalosporins and other beta-lactam antibiotics
-In non-severe penicillin allergy (e.g. Mild rash) use cephalosporins and carbapenems with
caution
290 Which drug to be avoided in patient with sulfa allergy ?
Answer Antibiotic combination drugs, such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra and
Bactrim) and erythromycin-sulfisoxazole
-dapsone, a treatment for leprosy, dermatitis, and some types of pneumonia
-sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), which treats Crohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and
ulcerative colitis
-sulfacetamide (BLEPH-10), which are eye drops for treating eye infections
-sulfadiazine silver (Silvadene), a cream that doctors prescribe to treat burn infections

Not every medication that contains sulfonamides will trigger a reaction in people with a
sulfa allergy
291 Woman 23 years old has UTI What is best option for her ?
Answer Trimethoprim-sulfamethazol 160mg/800 mg BID for 3 days
292 What will do in the Pharmacy if patient want antibiotic with symptoms sore throat
productive cough and greenish yellow phlegm?
Answer Patient should be visit doctor first
293 What is Example of Direct cost ?
Answer Costs are the resources consumed by a program or treatment alternative.

Direct medical costs costs used for the prevention, detection, and treatment of a
disease.
Examples: hospitalization, drugs, laboratory testing
Direct nonmedical costs costs for nonmedical services that are the result of illness
or disease, but do not involve purchasing medical services.
Examples: special food, transportation for health care, family care
294 What is Example of indirect cost ?
Answer C. Indirect costs costs of morbidity and mortality resulting from illness or disease
Examples: lost productivity, premature death.
295 Questions regarding plasma conc ?????
Answer
296 P ake IV l idem h man ime d efill ?
Answer Refill this medication up to five times in 6 months.
297 Who the person has responsible about Hazardous and High alert medication ?
Answer Pharmacist responsibility
298 Who is responsible for the equivalence of pharmaceutical certificate from foreign
universities
Answer Ministry of Education (MOE)
299 What is Characteristics of chemical cholesterol?
Answer A waxy substance that is present in blood plasma and in all animal tissues.
Chemically, cholesterol is an organic compound belonging to the steroid family; its
molecular formula is c27h46o. In its pure state it is a white, crystalline substance that is
odorless and tasteless.
It is a primary component of the membrane that surrounds each cell, and it is the starting
material or an intermediate compound from which the body synthesizes bile acids, steroid
hormones, and vitamin d.

Cholesterol is insoluble in the blood; it must be attached to certain protein complexes

called lipoproteins in order to be transported through the bloodstream.

Cholesterol is a waxy substance that's found in all of your cells and has several useful
functions, including helping to build your body's cells. It's carried through your
bloodstream attached to proteins. These proteins are called lipoproteins.
300 What is principle of human cell membrane
Answer The cell membrane is a biological membrane that separates the interior of all cells from the
outside environment. The cell membrane is selectively-permeable to ions and organic
molecules and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. It consists of the
phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins. Cell membranes are involved in a variety of
cellular processes such as cell adhesion, ion conductivity and cell signaling and serve as the
attachment surface for the extracellular glycocalyx and cell wall and intracellular
cytoskeleton
301 What is bacteria related to gastric ulcer ?
Answer Helicobacter pylori (H. Pylori)
302 When you have the right to pharmacist you refuse prescription
Answer A pharmacist may refuse to fill a prescription if the pharmacist feels that the prescription
would harm the patient if they were to fill it or if the pharmacist does not feel comfortable
with the prescription based on their professional judgement.
303 Which hormone release from posterior pituitary gland
Answer The posterior pituitary does not produce any hormones of its own, rather, it stores and
secretes two hormones made in the hypothalamus:
 Antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Stimulates water reabsorption by kidneys
Oxytocin: Stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth.
The anterior pituitary receives signaling molecules from the hypothalamus, and in
response, synthesizes and secretes important hormones including:
-Growth hormone (GH): Promotes growth of body tissues
-Prolactin (PRL): Promotes milk production from mammary glands
-Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): Stimulates thyroid hormone release from thyroid
-Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Stimulates hormone release by adrenal cortex
-Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): Stimulates gamete production in gonads
-Luteinizing hormone (LH): Stimulates androgen production by gonads
304 Where is synthesis HDL ?
Answer Synthesized and secreted by the liver and small intestine.
305 What is MOA Allopurinol ?
Answer Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, the enzyme responsible for the conversion of
hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol is metabolized to oxypurinol which is
also an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase; allopurinol acts on purine catabolism, reducing the
production of uric acid without disrupting the biosynthesis of vital purines.
306 What is MOA aliskiren ?
Answer Decreases plasma renin activity and inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
307 What is enzyme used to deficient chloramphenicol?
Answer Phenobarbital (P450 (CYP) enzymes) h en chl am henic l half-life, thereby
reducing its therapeutic effectiveness.
308 What is properties of amphetamine?
Answer Amphetamines are lipophilic compounds that readily cross the blood-brain barrier, This
property results in rapid onset of effects when injected, inhaled, or insufflated.
CNS stimulant increase blood pressure and insomnia.
309 What is MOA glycerol trinitrate ?
Answer Nitroglycerin (glyceryl trinitrate)
Nitroglycerin, an organic nitrate, is a vasodilating agent that relieves tension on vascular
smooth muscle and dilates peripheral veins and arteries.
It increases guanosine 3'5' monophosphate (cyclic GMP) in smooth muscle and other
tissues by stimulating guanylate cyclase through formation of free radical nitric oxide. This
activity results in dephosphorylation of the light chain of myosin, which improves the
contractile state in smooth muscle results in vasodilation.
310 Which Diuretic increase excretion of sodium , potassium , magnesium and promote
reabsorption of uric acid ?
answer Loop diuretic (Bumetanide, Torsemide )
311 What is side effects of doxorubicin
Answer Common
Alopecia (92% ), Nausea (greater than 10% ), Vomiting (34% to 37% )

Serious ‫هيا املهمة‬

Ca di a c la : Ca di m a h , C nge i e hea fail e, La e n e , Lef en ic la
failure, acute, Myocardial infarction, Myocarditis, Pericarditis, Tachyarrhythmia
De ma l gic: Injec i n i e e a a a i n, Radia i n ecall nd me, Ti e nec i
Ga in e inal: Panc ea i i
Hema l gic: Ac e m el id le kemia, Le k enia, G ade 3 4 (3.7% ),
Myelodysplastic syndrome, Myelosuppression, Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, Grade 3
or 4 (0.1% )
He a ic: He a i i , Ven -occlusive disease of the liver
Imm n l gic: Ana h la i , Se ic h ck (2% )
Re i a : Radia i n ne m ni i
O he : T mor lysis syndrome

312 What is first line therapy for treatment of esophagus candidiasis?

Answer Most cases of esophageal candidiasis are secondary to C. Albicans.
The general duration is 14 to 21 days
 Candida esophagitis requires systemic antifungal therapy : it should never be managed with
local agents . The general duration of treatment is 14 to 21 days

The treatment of esophageal candidiasis can include:

Azoles( fluconazole, itraconazole solution, voriconazole, and posaconazole),echinocandins

(caspofungin, micafungin, and anidulafungin) ,or amphotericin B.

We recommend fluconazole (400 mg loading dose followed by 200 to 400 mg daily for 14
to 21 days) for the treatment of esophageal candidiasis due to its ease of administration,
lack of toxicity, and lower cost .

For patients with documented esophageal candidiasis that is refractory to fluconazole after
one week of treatment,

We recommend voriconazole or posaconazole for outpatients .

In patients in whom intravenous therapy is necessary, we suggest use of an echinocandin,

rather than amphotericin B .
313 What is safest anticoagulant for pulmonary embolism during pregnancy?
Answer Subcutaneous LMWH is preferred over IV UFH or subcutaneous UFH in most patients
because it is easier to use and it appears to be more efficacious with a better safety profile.
UFH (either IV or subcutaneous) is preferred over subcutaneous LMWH in patients who
have severe renal failure.
314 What will happen if Pt take Citalopram and take linezolid ?
Answer Concurrent use of CITALOPRAM and LINEZOLID may result in an increased risk of
serotonin syndrome (hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, myoclonus, mental status
changes).
315 What is Class Doluexitine ?
Answer Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
316 What is Anxiolytic has slow onset action?
Answer SSRI treatment, the onset of effect is delayed 4 to 8 weeks and maximum benefit is often
not observed until 12 weeks or longer.
Gabapentin onset of effect of 2 to 4 weeks.
317 What is structure of quinine?
Answer

Molecular Formula C20H24N2O2

318 What is lead compound?
Answer Th and f c m nd a e e ed in he lab a find a lead ( leading ) c m nd
that may act on specific genes or proteins involved in a disease. Once a lead compound has
been found, the chemical structure is used as a starting point to make a drug that has the
most benefits and the least harms. Finding a lead compound is the first step in making a
new drug to treat a disease.
319 Which is the following is fatty acid ?
Answer Fatty acids are long-chain hydrocarbons that can be separated into four categories:
saturated, mono-unsaturated, polyunsaturated, and trans fats.

More than 20 types of fatty acids are found in foods; some of these are
Saturated (Palmitic acid, Stearic acid)
Monounsaturated (Oleic acid)
Polyunsaturated (Linoleic acid, Linolenic acid, Arachidonic acid, Eicosapentaenoic acid,
Docosahexaenoic acid)
Sources of fatty acids include fruits, vegetable oils, seeds, nuts, animal fats, and fish oils.
 Essential fatty acids, such as omega-3 fatty acids, serve important cellular functions.
320 Which is one of the characterestics of fungi ?
Answer Cell wall composed of polysaccharides provides protection from the environment
-Fungal cell walls are composed of chitin or other polysaccharides
-They are non photosynthetic, generally saprophytic, eukaryotic organisms.
-Their shapes either:
Filamentous (Molds) or Unicellular (Yeasts) .
The other form is made up of thread like structures. Individual threads are known as
hyphae whose singular form is hypha.
-Reproduction may be asexual, sexual, or both.
-Fungi grow better at a ph of 5, which is too acidic for most bacteria.
-Almost all molds are aerobic. Most yeasts are facultative anaerobes.
-Fungi are more resistant to high osmotic pressure than bacteria.
-Fungi can grow on substances with very low moisture.
-Fungi require less nitrogen than bacteria to grow.
-Fungi can break down complex carbohydrates (wood, paper), that most bacteria cannot.
-Fungi are multinucleate, meaning that one cell can contain two or more nuclei.
-All fungi produce spores.
-Pathogenic fungi can cause diseases: skin infections (superficial mycoses) or serious,
systemic infections (deep mycoses).

321 Which is the following is composition of membrane wall of fungi?

Answer The major constituents of the fungal cell wall are chitin, glucans, and glycoproteins.
322 Which is one of the igs is responsible of hypersensitivity?
Answer Type I Immediate in onset and caused by immunoglobulin (Ig)E-mediated activation of
mast cells and basophils

Immunologic drug reactions are divided into four categories according to the Gell
and Coombs system :
Type I Immediate in onset and caused by immunoglobulin (Ig)E-mediated activation of
mast cells and basophils
Mechanism Antigen exposure causes ige-mediated activation of mast cells and basophils,
with release of vasoactive substances, such as histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes

Type II Delayed in onset and caused by antibody (usually igg-mediated) cell destruction
Mechanism An antigen or hapten that is intimately associated with a cell binds to antibody,
leading to cell or tissue injury.

Type III Delayed in onset and caused by immune complex (igg:drug) deposition and
complement activation
Mechanism Damage is caused by formation or deposition of antigen-antibody complexes
in vessels or tissue. Deposition of immune complexes causes complement activation and/or
recruitment of neutrophils by interaction of immune complexes with Fc igg receptors.

Type IV Delayed in onset and T cell-mediated

Mechanism Antigen exposure activates T cells, which then mediate tissue injury.
Depending upon the type of T cell activation and the other effector cells recruited, different
subtypes can be differentiated (ie, types iva to ivd).

323 Which is one of the igs is responsible of ? Igs functions ( IGE, IGA, IGM , Ect)
Answer There are five isotypes: igg (the heavy chain is designated gamma), iga (alpha), igm (mu),
ige (epsilon), and igd (delta).

Igg:

Enhances phagocytosis, neutralizes toxins and viruses, protects fetus and newborn,
Compliment activation.
 All four igg subclasses act as opsonins, binding to microbes and facilitating phagocytosis.

Igm:

First antibodies produced during an infection. Effective against microbes and agglutinating
antigens.

Iga:

Localized protection of mucosal surfaces. Provides immunity to infant digestive tract.

One important function appears to be activation of the phagocytic system through the
binding of the Fc portion to the cell surface receptors

Immunologic functions of iga include protection from microbial invasion, intestinal

homeostasis with commensal organisms and immune modulation, and dampening of
inflammatory pathways that could lead to autoimmune processes

Igd:

In serum, function is unknown. On B cell surface, initiate immune response.

Ige:

A very potent immunoglobulin. It is associated with hypersensitivity and allergic reactions,

as well as the response to parasitic worm infections.
324 Which is of the following responsible of pricing of drugs?
Answer The SFDA is the main body responsible for the price regulation of pharmaceuticals in
Saudi Arabia
In he fi e , he SFDA a k he ha mace ical c m an ma ke a h i a i n h lde
(MAH) to provide an authenticated updated Price Certificate (Form 30) containing the
following information on the product intended to be registered:
-Fac ice in c n f igin (in he c n f igin l cal c enc ).
-Wh le ale ice in c n f igin (in he c n f igin l cal c enc ).
-Public (retail) prices in country of origin (in the c n f igin l cal c enc ).
-Proposed cost, insurance, and freight (CIF) price to Saudi Arabia.
-Price of the product in countries where it is marketed (reference countries in Form 30).

325 Questions about cytochrome p 450 branches ????????? Understand from RXprep
Answer Cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzymes are essential for the production of cholesterol,
steroids, prostacyclins, and thromboxane A2. They also are necessary for the detoxification
of foreign chemicals and the metabolism of drugs.
There are more than 50 CYP450 enzymes, but the CYP1A2, CYP2C9, CYP2C19,
CYP2D6, CYP3A4, and CYP3A5 enzymes metabolize 90 percent of drugs.
CYP2D6 It is One of the Most Greatest Important CYP 450. It is just Only represent 1% of
all types of CYP 450.It is responsible for the metabolism of 25% of the most common
Ingested Medications (about 100 drugs).
 Substrate:
Drug is metabolized by the enzyme system
CYP1A2 (Caffeine, clozapine, theophylline)
CYP2C9 (Carvedilol, celecoxib, glipizide, ibuprofen, Irbesartan, losartan)
CYP2C19 (Omeprazole (Prilosec), phenobarbital, phenytoin)
CYP2D6 (Amitriptyline, carvedilol, codeine, donepezil, haloperidol, metoprolol,
paroxetine, risperidone, tramadol)
CYP3A4 and CYP3A5 (Alprazolam, amlodipine, atorvastatin, cyclosporine, diazepam,
estradiol, simvastatin, sildenafil, verapamil, zolpidem)

326 Questions about bacteria ????????????

Answer
327 Which is the following is triazole azole ( chemical structures )?
Answer Five membered aromatic ring
Four imidazoles: clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole and ketoconazole
Two triazoles: itraconazole and fluconazole,
Three new generation triazoles: voriconazole, posaconazole and ravuconazole.

Molecular Formula C2H3N3

328 Which is the following is responsible of binding between OH and Nitrogen ( Chemical
structures )?
Answer H d gen b nd h d lamine n h3
329 Which is the following is class III antiarrythmia ?
Answer Class I
Ia -Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide (depress phase 0, prolonging repolarization)
Ib -Lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine (depress phase 0 selectively in abnormal/ischemic
tissue, shorten repolarization)
 Ic -Flecainide, propafenone, moricizine (markedly depress phase 0, minimal effect on
repolarization)
Class II: Beta blockers (partial list)
Propranolol, Esmolol, Timolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol
Class III: Potassium (K) channel blockers
Amiodarone (prolongs phase 3; also acts on phases 1, 2, and 4)
Sotalol (prolongs phase 3, decreases slope of phase 4)
Ibutilide (prolongs phase 3)
Dofetilide (prolongs phase 3)
Class IV: Slow calcium (Ca) channel blockers
Ve a amil ( l ng ha e 2)
Dil ia em ( l ng ha e 2)

330 Questions about antiplatelet?

Answer Aspirin is an antiplatelet drug that may be used.
P2Y12 receptor blockers are another group of antiplatelet drugs. This group of drugs
includes: clopidogrel, ticlopidine, ticagrelor, prasugrel, and cangrelor
Antiplatelet drugs may be used to:
-Prevent heart attack or stroke for those with PAD.
-Clopidogrel (Plavix, generic) may be used in place of aspirin for people who have
narrowing of the coronary arteries or who have had a stent inserted.
-Sometimes 2 anti-platelet drugs (one of which is almost always aspirin) are prescribed for
people with unstable angina, acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina or early signs of
heart attack), or those who have received a stent during PCI.
-For heart disease primary and secondary prevention, daily aspirin is generally the first
choice for antiplatelet therapy. Clopidogrel is prescribed instead of aspirin for people who
are aspirin allergic or who cannot tolerate aspirin.
-Clopidogrel and aspirin is recommended for people who are undergoing angioplasty with
or without stenting.
-Prevent or treat heart attacks.
-Prevent stroke or transient ischemic attacks (tias are early warning signs of stroke. They
are also called "mini-strokes.")
-Prevent clots from forming inside stents put inside your arteries to open them.
-Acute coronary syndrome.
-After bypass graft surgery that uses a man-made or prosthetic graft performed on arteries
below the knee.
Side effects of this medicine may include:
Diarrhea. Itching, Nausea, Skin rash, Stomach pain
Before you start taking these medicines, tell your provider if:
You have bleeding problems or stomach ulcers.
You are pregnant, plan to become pregnant, or are breastfeeding.
There are a number of other possible side effects, depending on which drug you are
prescribed. For example:
Ticlopidine may lead to a very low white blood cell count or an immune disorder that
destroys platelets.
Ticagrelor may worsen kidney function and cause episodes of shortness of breath.
Taking P2Y12 Inhibitors
Take this medicine with food and plenty of water to reduce side effects. You may need to
stop taking clopidogrel before you have surgery or dental work.
Antiplatelets can be passed to the infant through breast milk.

331 Which is the following is used when warfarin is stop or contraindicated ?

Answer Dabigatran (Pradaxa) and rivaroxaban (Xarelto). A third, apixaban (Eliquis)
332 Question about median ( a group of ages or weights ) EX: 64+70+35+80+75/ 5?
Answer Median: The median is the point in a distribution that divides scores in half. Consider the
following set of values
Example: The median of the data 40, 50, 99, 68, 98, 60, 94 is
(a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 68 (d) 99
 Find the median of the data: 3, 11, 7, 2, 5, 9, 9, 2, 10, 15, 7
Arranging in ascending order. 2, 2, 3, 5, 7, 7, 9, 9, 10, 11, 15
The middle most value is 7, so median is 7.
333 Calculate of Median?
Answer The median is also the number that is halfway into the set. To find the median, the data
should be arranged in order from least to greatest. If there is an even number of items in the
data set, then the median is found by taking the mean (average) of the two middlemost
numbers.
334 Equation about Specific gravity?
Answer The specific gravity determination is applicable only to liquids, and unless otherwise
stated, is based on the ratio of the weight of a liquid in air at 25° to that of an equal volume
of water at the same temperature.
Calculated by dividing the weight of a given substance by the weight of an equal volume of
water, that is:

Examples: if 54.96 ml of an oil weigh 52.78 g, what is the specific gravity of the oil?
54.96 ml of water weigh 54.96 g specific gravity of oil = 52.78 g/54.96 = 0.9603, answer
335 Equation about Equivalent ?
Answer Equivalent Equation are system of equation that have the same solution . Ex: 3+2=5 ,
4+1=5 , 5+0=5 .
336 Which is the following is derived of belladonna?
Answer Atropine
Atropa belladonna is a medicinal plant and main commercial source of tropane alkaloids
(tas) including scopolamine and hyoscyamine
337 Which is the following leucocyte produce antibodies?
Answer The lymphoid cells (the lyphocytes) are of two types, the B cells and T cells. The B cells
produce antibodies that are used to attack invading bacteria, viruses, and toxins.
The T cells though not directly involved in antibody production can assist the B cells to
produce antibodies through the release of certain cytokines and chemokines.
338 Question in microbiology .. An image . Antibiotics in disks . Which is the following is
sensitive antibiotic to bacteria ?
Answer If the bacteria are sensitive to the antibiotic, a clear ring, or zone of inhibition, is seen
around the wafer indicating poor growth. Sensitive= ‫أكبر وأغمق دائرة‬
Resistance= ‫أصغر دائرة‬

339 Which is hormone responsible of contraction of uterus during in delivery ?

Answer During labor, prostaglandins stimulate myometrial contractions. The posterior pituitary
hormone oxytocin is the strongest stimulator of uterine contractions.

As the time of delivery approaches, estrogen increases responsiveness to oxytocin by

increasing expression of oxytocin receptors
340 Monophase of estrogen contain?
Answer Monophasic preparations contain fixed amounts of progesterone and estrogen only
341 PC abbreviation what does it mean ?
Answer After meals
342 Which is the following medication or drug used in hyperthyroidism?
Answer Methimazole (Tapazole) , carbimazole and propylithiouracil

P a ( -blocker) is useful for rapid relief of thyrotoxic symptoms (e.g.

Tachycardia) and may be used in conjunction with antithyroid drugs.
343 Calculate flow rate?
Answer IV flow rate calculations determine the flow rate of solution administered over a given
time. This is normally expressed as ml/Hr or ml/min.
The flow-rate calculation below is determining how long it would take to deliver a volume
at a particular rate.
EXAMPLE:
A physician orders a drug to be infused at:10mcg/kg/min. The patient weighs 70kg. The
total dose the patient is to receive is 21mg. How long must the IV continue for the patient
to receive this dose?
1) First, we know we want to solve for time.
Volume ÷ Rate = Time
2) Next, figure out each factor.
Volume = 21mg
Rate = 10mcg/kg/min - (patient is 70kg)
Time = Minutes
3) Do your conversions and Math.
Volume = 21,000mcg
Rate = (10mcg)(70kg)/min = 700 mcg/min
Time = Minutes
4) Calculate your answer using the formula.
Volume ÷ Rate = Time
21,000 ÷ 700 = 30 Minutes

344 What is Antiepileptic for pregnant women?

Answer Levetiracetam or lamotrigine
345 Which medication exacerbate heart failure?
Answer Some drugs and classes of drugs that may cause or exacerbate HF
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (nonselective or cyclooxygenase [COX]-2 selective
[coxibs])
Calcium channel blockers
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Oral hypoglycemic agents (thiazolidinediones and metformin)
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
-PDE-3 inhibitors(Cilostazol )
-PDE-4 inhibitor(Anagrelide)
-PDE-5 inhibitors ( sildenafil, vardenafil, and tadalafil)
Antiarrhythmic agents( class III agents ibutilide, sotalol, and dofetilide.)
Chemotherapy agents (Cardiotoxic agents include anthracyclines, high-dose
cyclophosphamide, trastuzumab, and bevacizumab. )
Sodium-containing preparations(sodium bicarbonate)
Antihistamines (terfenadine and astemizole)
Theophylline
TNF-alpha inhibitors(infliximab dosed over 5 mg/kg.)
Natural" remedies and supplements( ephedra (also called Ma huang) is a plant source of
ephedrine)
346 What is drug use for pinworm?
Answer The medications used for the treatment of pinworm are either mebendazole, pyrantel
pamoate, or albendazole.
347 What is drug for H1N1?
Answer H1n1 influenza (swine flu)
Antiviral agents used for treatment and prevention of swine flu are:
Oseltamivir (tamiflu) and zanamivir (relenza).
Swine flu is resistant to amantadine (symmetrel) and rimantadine (flumadine).
348 Digoxin electrolyte monitoring?
Answer Potassium, calcium, and magnesium

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia may result in cardiac arrhythmias, especially in

patients receiving digoxin
349 What is first anti hypertension for adult?
Answer 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, recommend that initial therapy be chosen from among the
following four classes of medications

-Thiazide diuretics

-Long-acting calcium channel blockers (most often a dihydropyridine such as amlodipine)

-Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

-Angiotensin II receptor blockers (arbs)

Additional considerations in choice of initial therapy:

-A thiazide-like diuretic or long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be

used as initial monotherapy in black patients

-An ACE inhibitor or ARB should be used for initial monotherapy in patients who have
diabetic nephropathy or nondiabetic chronic kidney disease complicated by proteinuria.

-When more than one agent is needed to control the blood pressure, we recommend therapy
with a long-acting ACE inhibitor or ARB in concert with a long-acting dihydropyridine
calcium channel blocker.

-If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, despite use of two antihypertensive medications,
we recommend therapy with ACE inhibitor or ARB in conjunction with both a long-acting
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker and a thiazide-like diuretic.

-if a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker is not tolerated due to leg
swelling, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (ie, verapamil or diltiazem) may
be used instead.

If a thiazide diuretic is not tolerated or is contraindicated, a mineralocorticoid receptor

antagonist (ie, spironolactone or eplerenone) may be used.
350 What is rout of administration vit k in newborns?
Answer Intramuscular (IM) administration of vitamin K1 to prevent vitamin K deficient bleeding
(VKDB)
351 What are symptoms and drugs for hyperthyroidism
Answer Symptoms :
Heat intolerance.
Increased bowel movements.
Tremor (usually fine shaking)
Nervousness, agitation, anxiety.
Rapid heart rate, palpitations, irregular heart rate.
Weight loss.
Fatigue, weakness

Drugs for hypothyrodisim:

Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Methimazole
Radioactive iodine
352 Which inhibit conversion of micoalbumin to macroalbumin in diabetes?
Answer Prevention: attaining and maintaining glycemic and blood pressure control, dietary protein
restriction, and the use of ACEI or ARB

Treatment for microalbuminuria or macroalbuminuria should be with an ACE-I or ARB to

slow the progression of renal disease. Arbs have data to support their use in individuals
with T2DM and macroalbuminuria.
353 What are treatment of Multiple sclerosis
Answer Acute relapse affecting function
Methylprednisolone 1000 mg intravenously once daily for 3 days

Relapsing-remitting MS ( to prevent further attack)

1st immunomodulators
Primary options (Interferon beta 1a or interferon beta 1b or peginterferon beta 1a or
glatiramer or teriflunomide or dimethyl fumarate)

Secondary options (fingolimod or natalizumab or alemtuzumab or ocrelizumab)

Tertiary options (Cladribine)

Symptomatic treatment
With fatigue (amantadine or modafinil or armodafinil )
With urinary frequency
Primary options
Lifestyle modifications: avoid caffeine and 'vitamin waters'; consider mind-body therapies,
such as yoga and relaxation
Secondary options
Oxybutynin or tolterodine or solifenacin or darifenacin or fesoterodine or botulinum toxin
type A
With sensory symptoms (pain and dysaesthesia)
Low-dose anticonvulsants
Primary options
Gabapentin or pregabalin or carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine

With increased muscle tone (with or without spasms)

Primary options ( gentle stretching )
Secondary options (baclofen or tizanidine or clonazepam or gabapentin or » botulinum
toxin type A)
Tertiary options ( baclofen intrathecal)
With tremor
Primary options (propranolol or primidone or clonazepam )
With gait impairment
(fampridine)
Primary progressive MS

Primary options (ocrelizumab)

354 Which structure is Triazole

355 What is rifampicin side effect

Answer Decreased blood pressure, flushing
Skin rash
Abnormal hepatic function tests
GI side effect
Orange-red discoloration of body fluids
356 Meaning of category D
Answer Category A
Adequate and well-controlled studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the
first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters).
Category B
Animal reproduction studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus and there are no
adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women.
Category C
Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus and there are no
adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of
the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
Category D
There is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from
investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may
warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
Category X
Studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities and/or there is positive
evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or
marketing experience, and the risks involved in use of the drug in pregnant women clearly
outweigh potential benefits.

357 In high volume distribution, the plasma conc. Will be ?

Answer High Low .. because high VD mean that drug distribution in the tissue so it’s conc in the plasma decrease
358 Which of the follwing enzyme inducer ?
Answer Aminogluthimide, barbiturates, carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampin, simvastatin
359 Which of the follwing enzyme inhibitors
Answer Drugs that their mechanism of action involves enzyme inhibition are many.
Options are needed in order to determine the answer
360 Patient has acute migraine came to emergency with severe migraine headaches , what
medication will be used
Answer Nsaids , Sumatriptan
361 What is side effect of spironolactone
Answer Vomiting, diarrhea, and stomach pain or cramps
Dry mouth and thirst
Gynecomastia (enlarged breast tissue) in men, and breast pain in women
Hyperkalemia

362 Which vit(B) related to peripheral neuropathy ?`

Answer Vitamin B12
363 What is MOA Omeprazole?
Answer Selective and irreversible proton pump inhibitor
364 Meaning of aerobic intolerance
Answer Exercise intolerance is a condition of inability or decreased ability to perform physical
exercise at what would be considered to be the normally expected level or duration.

365 What is name of synthesis glucose from fat

Answer Gluconeogenesis
366 What is dyslipidemia drugs?
Answer The 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-coa) reductase inhibitors (the
"statins")
The fibrates (gemfibrozil, clofibrate, and fenofibrate)
Niacin/nicotinic acid,
Bile acid binding resins (colestipol and cholestyramine)
367 Difference between leadership and management
Answer Leaders have people to follow them
Managers have people to work for them
368 Which is form has more moisture? Ointment
Answer The question is not clear
369 What is barrier in counseling patient?
Answer Mental disorder patients
370 The amphetamine act as
Answer Increasing release of dopamine from nerve terminals (stimulants)
371 Side effect of senna occur because presence of
Answer Electrolyte disturbance
372 What is meaning of lead compound
Answer Chemical compound that has pharmacological or biological activity likely to be
therapeutically useful
373 (The representative gave you a free sample of the medicine what is the correct behavior
Answer Give it to a patient I know the history Stored in locked cabinet in OPD pharmacy
374 Pt. Has lung infection and use levofloxacin his inr is 5 his fluctuation of inr considered as
which interaction
Answer Drug-drug interaction
375 Safest laxative in chronic constipation
Answer Fiber laxative Bulk forming laxatives
376 Fingolimod and pregnancy which category
Answer Category C
377 Which medication contraindicated in breastfeeding
Answer The answer depends on the options. Lithium , Antneoplasics , Immunesuppressant , Ergot alkaloid , Iodine
Read about common medications contraindicated in breastfeedig.
378 What is properties of cholesterol ?
Answer Cholesterol is a sterol (a combination steroid and alcohol) and a lipid found in the cell
membranes of all body tissues, and transported in the blood plasma of all animals
Cholesterol is present in higher concentrations in tissues which either produce more or
have more densely-packed membranes, for example, the liver, spinal cord and brain
Cholesterol plays a central role in many biochemical processes
Cholesterol also aids in the manufacture of bile (which helps digest fats), and is also
important for the metabolism of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamins A, D, E and K. It
is the major precursor for the synthesis of vitamin D and of the various steroid
hormones

379 Pharmacovigilance in which phase?

Answer Phase IV
380 Post marketing in which phase
Answer Phase IV
381 Benefit of drug formulary ?
Answer Drug formulary is a list of prescription drugs that includes generics & trade names thus the
physicians & pharmacists can evaluate the ones of greatest value & can be updated
regularly
382 What is tonicity of eye drops ?
Answer Isotonic
383 Method Corona virus transmission ?
Answer Infected person respiratory secretions like coughing (By the air)
384 The patient forgot the treatment of aspirin inside the water cycle, what is the problem that
became the drug ‫؟‬
Answer It will dissolve and form acetic acid
385 Quinidine If delete OH group what become?
Answer Quinidine barbiturate
386 Patient came to hospital with has low of thyroxine which medication cause this effect ?
Answer Glucocorticoids
Dopamine agonist Amiodarone
Lithium
Amiodarone
387 Patient when pregnant was take levothyroxine 100 after pregnant what is the dose ?
Answer Continue with same dose
388 Patient has severe rheumatoid arthritis for 1 month which medication you will give him ?
Answer Nsaids + dmards ( Methotrexate , Hydroxychloroquine , Sulfasalazine )
389 What is hydrophobic ?
Answer Hydrophobic means resistant to water.
Hydrophobic molecules only dissolve in oil-based substances.
Hydrophobic molecules are suitable for passive diffusion in cellular activities.
Hydrophobic molecules are non-polar.
390 What is hydrophilic
Answer Hydrophilic means water loving
Hydrophilic molecules get absorbed or dissolved in water
Hydrophilic molecules require facilitated diffusion
Hydrophilic molecules are polar and ionic
391 Use of Sulfaslazine ?
Answer Rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and Inflammatory bowel diseases (
ulcerative colitis )
392 Prescription Hydrocentrozone Cream Concentration 2% Required to be prepared from
silicone for injection 100 ml / ml ?
Answer
393 Prepare 250 ml of dextrose 5% and 0.45% Sodium chloride How much do you take
dextrose?
Answer
394 Pregnant patient the test of her has low hemoglobin,and hcv what is indication for her ?
Answer Hgb level is needed in order to determine the best treatment approach
395 Patient 7 years old has asthma and we can start with him
Answer Short Acting beta agonist (SABA) PRN
396 Vitamin deficiency causes stomatitis?
Answer Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) , B3, B6, B9 ,B12
397 Patient has increased liver function due to any vitamin?
Answer Niacin. Vit b3 , vit a Niacin Vitamin B 3
398 Patient take digoxin and GFR is 55 what is the dose of digoxin No more than 0.125
Answer 0.125-0.250 mg daily
399 Smoke is considered an inducer and inhibitor and for which enzyme ?
Answer The most common CYP450 isoenzyme interacting with smoking is CYP 1A2
(i.e. Smoking induces CYP 1A2)
400 Patient had dry cough what you will give him ?
Answer Dextromethorphan
Throat lozenge
401 Propranolol is considered selective and not???????