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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.GOOD LUCK.

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
GOOD LUCK.

1. Review Innovations is located at 14° 36’N latitude and 129° 05’ E longitude.
New Zealand is situated at 37° 48’ N latitude and 125° 24’ W longitude. Find
the distance in nautical miles between Review Innovations and New Zealand.
A. 6046.26 nautical miles C. 3982.76 nautical miles
B. 5572.17 nautical miles D. 1405.72 nautical miles

2. Your girlfriend’s house is in Japan which is located 135 degrees West. If


the time is 3:45 A.M. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), What is the time in your
girlfriend’s watch?
A. 12:45 PM C. 6:45 PM
B. 3:45 PM D.9:45 PM

3. A ship on a certain day is at latitude 30º N and longitude 140º E. After


sailing for 140 hours at a uniform speed along a great circle route, it
reaches a point at latitude 10º S and longitude 170º W. If the radius of the
earth is 3959 miles, find the speed in knots.
A. 23.80 C. 25.80
B. 24.80 D.26.80

4. Two sides of the triangle ABC has side AB = 22 cm and side AC = 8 cm.
Compute the probable perimeter of the triangle.
A. 60 cm C. 44 cm
B. 61 cm D. 45 cm

5. Compute the probable area of the triangle from the previous problem.
A. 72.65 cm2 C. 34.98 cm2
B. 68.03 cm 2 D. 31.12 cm2

6. If sin2x + y = m and cos2x + y = n, find y.


A. (m + n + 1)/2 C. (m + n – 2)/2
B. (m + n – 1)/2 D. (m + n + 2)/2

7. A clock has a minute hand of 16 cm long and an hour hand 11 cm long. Find
the distance between the outer tips of the hands at 2:30 o’clock.
A. 19.6 cm C. 21.6 cm
B. 20.6 cm D. 22.6 cm

8. At a certain instant, a lighthouse is 4 miles north of a ship which is


traveling directly east. If after 10 minutes, the bearing of the lighthouse
is found to be North 21 degrees 15 minutes West, find the speed of the ship
in miles per hour.
A. 11.3 mph C. 9.3 mph
B. 10.3 mph D. 8.3 mph

9. A tree stands vertically on a hillside which makes an angle of 22 degrees


with the horizontal. From a point 60 ft down the hill directly from the base
of the tree, the angle of elevation of the top of the tree is 55 degrees.
How high is the tree?
A. 56.97 ft C. 59.76 ft
B. 57.96 ft D. 57.69 ft

10. Mr. Franklin wants to save for a new sports car that he expects will cost
P 38 000 four and one-half years from now. How much money will he have to
save each year and deposit in a savings account that pays 6.25% per year,
compounded annually, to buy the car in four and one-half years?
A. P 8654.32 C. P 7527.90
B. P 8546.23 D. P 7572.09

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

11. Find the value after 20 years in pesos of an annuity P 20,000 payable
annually for 8 years, with the first payment at the end of 2 years, if money
is worth 5%.
A. P 263,436.34 C. P 326,644.33
B. P 362,634.43 D. P 326,633.44

12. Suppose that a man lends P1000 for four years at 12% per year simple
interest. At the end of the four years, he invests the entire amount which
he then has for 10 years at 8% interest per year, compounded annually. How
much money will he have at the end of the 14-year period?
A. P 3391.71 C. P 3915.12
B. P 3739.11 D. P 3195.21

13. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is
consumed in 4 hours and the second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle
burns at a constant rate, in how many hours after being lighted was the
first candle twice the height of the second?
A. 0.75 C. 2
B. 1.5 D. 2.4

14. In the expansion of (x + y)^n, find the coefficient of the 9th term given
that the coefficients of the 5th and the 12th terms are equal.
A. 5,005 C. 6,435
B. 11,440 D. 12,870

15. RI bought a printer which will print 500 pages in 8 minutes. The admin
wishes to procure another printer so that when both are operating together,
they will print 500 pages in 2 minutes. How many minutes it would require
the second printer to print 500 pages alone?
A. 3-2/3 B. 2-1/2
B. 2-2/3 D. 3-2/3

16. Two boys A and B start at the same time to ride from Tacloban to Abuyog, 60
miles away. A travels 4 miles an hour slower than B. B reaches Abuyog and
at once turns back meeting A 12 miles from Abuyog. The rate of A was:
A. 4 mph C. 12 mph
B. 8 mph D. 16 mph

17. If 8 men take 12 days to assemble 16 machines, how many days will it take
15 men to assemble 50 machines?
A. 18 C. 20
B. 22 D. 24

18. The excursion boat on the river takes 2-1/2 hours to make the trip to point
12 miles upstream and to return. If the rate at which the boat travels in
still water is 5 times the rate of the river current, what is the rate of
the current?
A. 8 mph C. 4 mph
B. 6 mph D. 2 mph

19. Find the product of two numbers such that twice the first added to the
second equals 19 and three times the first is 21 more than the second.
A. 16 C. 24
B. 18 D. 20

20. If x is 40% less than y and y is 25% greater than z. Express x in terms of
percentage of z?
A. x is 35% of z C. x is 75% of z
B. x is 85% of z D. x is 25% of z

21. If one root of the quadratic equation with integer coefficients is 3 + 4i,
what is the constant term of the equation?
A. 22 C. 24
B. 25 D. 21

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

22. A mercury barometer at the base of a mountain reads 736 mm. At the same
time, another barometer at the top of the mountain reads 590 mm. Assuming
air weighs 12 N/m3, the height of the mountain is nearest to:
A. 1849 m C. 1623 m
B. 2708 m D. 2017 m

23. An open tank contains a liquid 5 m deep of unit weight 7 kN/m3. Water, of
unit weight 9.81 kN/m3, is poured over the liquid and the total depth of
both liquids is 8 m. Obtain the gage pressure in kPa at the point 6 m from
the surface:
A. 44.8 C. 50.4
B. 64.4 D. 29.4

24. A building is 82.5 m high above the street level. The water line at the top
of the building requires a static pressure of 2 kg/cm2. What must be the
pressure in kPa in the main waterline located 4.25 m below the street level?
A. 956 C. 1120
B. 1568 D. 1047

25. A barometer reads 76 cm Hg and a pressure gage attached to a tank reads 38


cm of Hg. Determine the absolute pressure (kPa) in the tank.
A. 152 C. 148
B. 164 D. 170

26. A capillary tube of a uniform bore is dipped vertically in water which rises
7 cm in the tube. Find the radius of the capillary, in mm, if the surface
tension is 0.07 N/m.
A. 0.4 C. 0.6
B. 0.2 D. 0.8

27. If the surface tension of water at 20 degrees Celsius is 0.0739 N/m, what
is the pressure inside a water droplet 0.5 mm in diameter.
A. 645 C. 148
B. 591 D. 296

28. Two pipes on the same elevation convey water and oil of specific gravity
0.88 respectively. They are connected by a U-tube manometer with the
manometric liquid having a specific gravity of 1.25. If the manometric
liquid in the limb connecting the water pipe is 2 m higher than the other
find the pressure difference in two pipes, in kPa, if h = 3 m.
A. 11.1 C. 12.1
B. 9.9 D. 10.8

29. Determine the unit weight (N/m3) of dry air at 6°C and at 93 kPa absolute.
R = 287 J/kg•K.
A. 1.16 C. 12
B. 11.38 D. 9.81

30. If the Philippine Trench is observed to be 10.5 km deep. The pressure on


the trench is greater than the atmospheric pressure. What is the gage
pressure at the bottom of the ocean at that location. Use specific gravity
of water = 1.03.
A. 968 atm C. 1017 atm
B. 997 atm D. 1047 atm

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

Situation 1. An embankment was constructed with a clayey soil at a moisture


content of 12%. Just after construction, the degree of saturation of the
soil was found to be 55%. The soil absorbed water during the monsoon and
its degree of saturation increased to 90%. Assume Gs = 2.68
31. Determine the water content of the soil at this stage
A. 18.2% C. 22.9%
B. 23.8% D. 19.6%
32. Determine the degree of saturation if the moisture content reduces to 5% in
the dry season?
A. 18.2% C. 22.9%
B. 19.6% D. 23.8%
33. Determine the porosity of the soil
A. 0.37 C. 0.25
B. 0.58 D. 0.44

Situation 2. Following are the result of a field density test performed on the
same soil by means of the sand cone method:
 Calibrated dry density of Ottawa sand = 1570 kg/m3
 Calibrated mass of Ottawa sand to fill the cone = 0.545 kg
 Mass of jar + cone + sand (before use) = 7.59 kg
 Mass of jar + cone + sand (after use) = 4.78 kg
 Mass of moist soil from hole = 2.835 kg
 Moisture content of moist soil = 10.2%

34. Determine the in situ dry density of the soil?


A. 2046.4 kg/m3 C. 1965.1 kg/m3
B. 1783.2 kg/m3 D. 1783.2 kg/m3
35. If the maximum dry density is 1885.24 kg/m3. Determine the relative
compaction in the field?
A. 96.11% C. 94.59%
B. 95.88% D. 92.87%
36. Determine the minimum dry unit weight of the soil if relative density is
93.67%?
A. 9.58 kN/m3 C. 9.46 kN/m3
B. 9.71 kN/m3 D. 9.29 kN/m3

Situation 3. From the table below:


Sieve No. SOIL
(Percent
A B C
Finer)
4 (4.75 mm) 100 100 95
10 (2 mm) 95 80 80
40 (0.42 mm) 82 61 54
200 (0.075 mm) 65 55 4
LL 42 38 NP
PL 26 25 NP
Classify the soils according by the AASHTO Soil Classification system and
give the group indices.
37. Soil A
A. A-7-6 (9) C. A-7-6 (14)
B. A-7-5 (9) D. A-7-5 (14)
38. Soil B
A. A-5 (5) C. A-6 (5)
B. A-5 (10) D. A-6 (10)
39. Soil C
A. A-3 (1) C. A-3 (8)
B. A-3 (0) D. A-3 (-8)

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

40. Two circular shafts, one hollow and one solid, are made of the same material
and have the diameters as shown in the figure. If 𝑻𝒉 is the twisting moment
that the hollow shaft can resist and 𝑻𝒔 is the twisting moment that the
solid shaft can resist, which of the following gives the ratio of 𝑻𝒉 to 𝑻𝒔 .

D D/2

A.15/16 C. 16/15
B. 10/7 D. 7/10

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

41. A steel bar having a rectangular cross section 𝟏𝟓 𝒎𝒎 𝒙 𝟐𝟎𝒎𝒎 and 𝟏𝟓𝟎 𝒎 long
𝒌𝒈
is suspended vertically from one end. The steel has a unit mass of 𝟕𝟖𝟓𝟎
𝒎𝟑
and 𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝑮𝑷𝒂 , If a load 𝟐𝟎 𝒌𝑵 is suspended at the other end of the rod,
determine the total elongation of the rod.
A.58.66 mm C. 54.33 mm
B. 8.66 mm D. 50 mm

42. A steel bar 50 mm diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by a shell of cast


iron 5 mm thick. Compute the load that will compress the bar a total of 1
mm in the length of 2m. Use 𝑬𝒔𝒕𝒆𝒆𝒍 =200 GPa and 𝑬𝒄𝒂𝒔𝒕 𝒊𝒓𝒐𝒏 =100 GPa.

A.200 kN C. 320 kN
B. 240 kN D. 280 kN

Situation 4. The cable shown carries the uniformly distributed load w0 = 80


N/m, where the distance is measured along the horizontal. If the cable
tension does not exceed 10 000 N,

43. Determine the slope at B (in degrees).


A. 62.98° C. 57.36°
B. 31.49° D. 28.68°

44. Determine the length of the shortest cable.


A. 253.1 m C. 307.1 m
B. 334.1 m D. 280.1 m
45. Determine the corresponding vertical distance H.
A. 68.4 m C. 109.2 m
B. 90.8 m D. 131.6 m

Situation 5. The center diagonals of the truss in the figure can support tension
only.

B D F 300 lb

20’

A C H
20’ 20’ E 15’ G 15’

200 lb 600 lb 600 lb

46. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at H?


A. 460 lb C. 550 lb
B. 40 lb D. 990 lb
47. In space BCDE, find which diagonal is acting and the force in it.
A. BE, 1050 lb C. BE, 198 lb
B. CD, 1050 lb D. CD, 198 lb

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

48. In space DEFG, find which diagonal is acting and the force in it.
A. DG, 233 lb C. DG, 175 lb
B. EF, 233 lb D. EF, 175 lb

Situation 6. Data of a beam section is given below.


B×H = 250 mm × 600 mm
Bar diameter = 20 mm
Clear concrete cover to 10 mm
diameter ties = 40 mm
Concrete fc’ = 35 MPa
Steel fyl = 415 MPa
ϕ=0.90
The beam is simply supported with a span of 6m. It will carry a 5kN/m total
factored dead load and 85 kN factored live load at midspan.
49. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical factored moment (kN-
m).
A. 150.0 C. 231.0
B. 217.5 D. 186.5
50. Determine the required number of tension bars.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
51. If a 4 kN/m service live load is added, determine the required number of
tension bars.
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6

Situation 7. Data of a beam section is given below.


Beam width = 300 mm
Effective depth = 435 mm
Concrete fc’ = 35 MPa
Steel fyl = 420 MPa
Bar diameter = 20 mm
52. Based on the given dimensions and properties of materials, the code requires
to provide a tension steel area (mm2) of at least?
A. 435 C. 590
B. 385 D. 460
53. For the beam to be singly-reinforced, tension-controlled, the tension area
(mm2) must not exceed?
A. 3,169 C. 2,773
B. 3,367 D. 2,946
54. If the factored bending moment is 190 kN-m, determine the required number
of tension bars.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5

Situation 8. A cover plated steel simple beam spans over a length of 10m and to
carry a total uniform load of 7.5 kN/m. Fb = 138Mpa.
Properties of WF
A = 12,700 mm2 300
d = 415 mm 12
bf = 260 mm
tw = 10 mm
Ix = 398 x 106 mm4

12
55. Find the moment of inertia of the section in mm4.
A. 613.6 x 106 C. 802.7 x 106
B. 703.6 x 10 6 D. 726.3 x 106

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April 2023 – Eval Exam 1 Review Innovations

56. Compute the allowable moment in kN-m.


A. 681.1 C. 456.6
B. 265.4 D. 542.3
57. Determine the allowable concentrated load that could be applied at the
midspan in kN.
A. 145 C. 157
B. 201. D. 264

Situation 9. Situation: A wide flange section has the following properties:


bf = 150 mm tw = 9 mm
tf = 12 mm d = 350 mm
Fy = 250 MPa

58. Determine the safe uniform load that the section could carry if length of
the beam is 10 m based on shear if Fv = 0.4Fy.
A. 77.1 kN/m C. 67.3 kN/m
B. 99.6 kN/m D. 63.0 kN/m
59. Determine the moment capacity of the section if Fb = 0.6Fy.
A. 188 kN-m C. 110 kN-m
B. 123 kN-m D. 92.5 kN-m
60. Determine the shear flow of the portion of the flange 25 mm from the edge
if V = 267840 N.
A. 105 N/mm C. 133 N/mm
B. 152 N/mm D. 128 N/mm

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