NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar

SAS 1 1) 6. How many levels of nursing experience did Patricia

Benner identify?
1. Florence Nightingale’s theory focused on
environment. Which of the following did she define and a. 3
describe in her theory? b. 4
c. 5
a. Food, air, water, elimination, and shelter d. 7
b. Ventilation, warmth, light, diet, cleanliness, and noise
c. Physical, emotional, mental and spiritual
d. Physiologic, safety, love & belongingness, self-esteem, 7. According to Katie Eriksson’s nursing theory, she
and self-actualization saidto take which of the following into use when caring
forthe human being in health and suffering?

2. In Jean Watson’s Theory of Human Caring, she has a. Charity

stated that nursing is concerned with the following b. Chastity
EXCEPT c. Comfort
d. Caritas
a. Promoting health
b. Preventing illness 8. Which of the following is NOT a part of
c. Caring for the sick DorotheaOrem’s nursing theory?
d. Identifying the basic needs a. The theory of self-care
b. The self-care deficit theory
3. According to Jean Watson, which one is central to c. The 21 nursing problems
nursing practice and promotes health better than a d. The theory of nursing systems 4 of 9
simple medical cure?
a. Caring 9. This theory from Dorothea Orem focuses on the
b. Compassion performance or practice of activities that individuals
c. Dedication initiate and perform on their own behalf to maintain
d. Empathy life, health and well-being.
a. Theory of self-care
4. In Jean Watson’s theory she has stated to focus on b. The self-care deficit theory
which of the following? c. The theory of nursing systems
a. Treatment of diseases d. All of the above
b. Rehabilitation
c. Health promotion 10. How many methods of helping did Dorothea Orem
d. Control of environment identify?
a. 3
5. In Patricia Benner’s nursing theory she has described b. 5
the advanced-beginner nurse as c. 7
a. They are taught general rules to help perform tasks, d. 9
and their rule-governed behavior is limited and
inflexible. 11. In Martha E. Roger’s Theory of Human Beings
b. Shows acceptable performance, and has gained prior shedefined nursing as
experience in actual nursing situations.
c. Generally, has two or three years’ experience on the a. “The act of assisting others in the provision and
job in the same field. management of self-care to maintain or improve human
d. Perceives and understands situations as whole parts. functioning at home level of effectiveness.”
b. “Unique profession in that is concerned with all of the
variables affecting an individual’s response to
stress.”
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
c. “An art and science that is humanistic and 1)
humanitarian.”
d. “Health care profession that focuses on human life
processes and patterns and emphasizes promotion of
health for individuals, families, groups, and society as a
whole.”
12. Which of the following sentences is NOT a concept
related to Florence Nightingale’s theory?
a. "Poor or difficult environments led to poor health and
disease"
b. "Environment could be altered to improve conditions
so that the natural laws would allow healing to occur"
c. The goal of nursing is “to put the patient in the best
condition for nature to act upon him”
d. "Human beings are open systems in constant
interaction with the environment"
13. In Martha E. Roger’s the Science of Unitary Human
Beings contains two dimensions: the science of nursing,
which is the knowledge specific to the field of nursing
that comes from scientific research; and
a. Art of nursing
b. Adaptation Model
c. Behavioral Systems Model
d. Carative caring
14. What are the five variables identified in Betty
Neuman’s System model?
a. Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latent, and Genital
b. Physiologic, safety and security, love and
belongingness, self-esteem, and self actualization
c. Ventilation, warmth, light, diet, cleanliness, and noise
d. Physiological, psychological, sociocultural,
developmental, and spiritual
15. In Betty Neuman’s model, the focus is on the client
as a system (which may be an individual, family, group,
or community) and on the client’s responses to
a. Illness
b. Stressors
c. Needs
d. Health promotion
16. In Imogene King’s nursing theory, her model focuses
on the attainment on which of the following?
a. Goal
b. Well-being
c. Balanced nutrition
d. Basic needs
17. Which of the following is the theory associated with
Sister Callista Roy?
a. Behavioral System Model
b. Theory of Carative Caring
c. Adaptation Model of Nursing
d. Theory of Bureaucratic Nursing 6 of 9
18. In Dorothy Johnson’s Behavioral System Model,
shedefined which of the following statements?
a. “Nursing is a science and the performing art of
nursing is practiced in relationships with persons
(individuals, groups, and communities) in their
processes of becoming.” – Parse
b. “participation in care, core and cure aspects of
patient care, where CARE is the sole function of nurses,
whereas the CORE and CURE are shared with other
members of the health team.” Lydia Hall
c. “People may differ in their concept of nursing, but few
would disagree that nursing is nurturing or caring for
someone in a motherly fashion.” Ernestine Wiedenbachd.
“an external regulatory force which acts to preserve the
organization and integration of the patients’ behaviors at
an optimum level under those conditions inwhich the
behavior constitutes a threat to the physical or social
health, or in which illness is found.”
19. According to Myra Levine’s theory, she states that
nursing is
a. An art
b. Human interaction
c. Concerned with promoting health, preventing illness,
caring for the sick, and restoring health.
d. Science and the performing art of nursing is practiced
in relationships with persons (individuals, groups, and
communities) in their processes of becoming.”
20. In Hildegard Peplau’s Theory of Interpersonal
Relations, she has identified four components which are
a. Digestion, respiration, elimination, and sleep
b. Person, environment, health, and nursing
c. Orientation, identification, exploitation, and
resolution
d. Air, food, water, and shelter
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1)
21. Which phase of interpersonal relations in Peplau’s
Theory of Interpersonal Relations should the nurse
establish rapport with the client?
a. Orientation
b. Identification
c. Exploitation
d. Resolution
22. The nursing theorist who identified the 5 stages of
the nursing process is
a. Lydia Hall
b. Madeleine
Leiningerc. Ida Jean
Orlando
d. Imogene King
23. According to Joyce Travelbee’s theory, nursing
isaccomplished through
a. Human-to-human relationships
b. Nurse-patient relationship
c. Manipulation of the environment
d. Promoting health
24. In Lydia Hall’s Core, Care, Cure model, she
hasidentified the core as which of the following?
a. Primary role of a professional nurse such as providing
bodily care for the patient
b. The patient receiving nursing care
c. The aspect of nursing which involves the
administration of medications and treatments
d. the purpose of nursing was to help and support an
individual, family, or community
25. Faye Glenn Abdellah’s 21 nursing problems were
categorized into which of the following?
a. Physical, sociological, and emotional needs
b. Prevention, treatment, and rehabilitation
c. Physiological, psychological, and spiritual
d. Food, air, and water
SAS 2
1. Nurse Edberg is about to perform physical assessment
of the abdomen. Which order of assessment must Nurse
Edberg do?
a. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation
b. Auscultation, percussion, palpation, and inspectionc.
Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation
d. Any order that the nurse desires
ANSWER: C
RATIO: With abdominal assessment, you inspect first,
then auscultate, percuss, and palpate. This order is
different from the rest of the body systems, for which
you inspect, then percuss, palpate, and auscultate.
2. Nurse Ann is going to assess a newly admitted client
who is suspected to have Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever.
Which of the following should she record as subjective
data?
a. Body temperature of 38.8 degrees Celsius
b. Complete blood count result
c. Patient’s complaint about abdominal pain
d. Client’s blood pressure of 110/78
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Subjective data are information from the client's
point of view (“symptoms”), including feelings,
perceptions, and concerns obtained through interviews.
3. Which of the following is the purpose of physical
examination?
a. To obtain subjective data from the patient
b. To know about the patient’s chief complaint
c. To determine changes in a patient’s health status and
how to respond to a problem as well as promote healthy
lifestyles and wellbeing.
d. To evaluate the outcome of the nursing interventions
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The purpose of physical examination is to
determine changes in a patient’s health status and howto
respond to a problem as well as promote healthy
lifestyles and wellbeing.
4. A student nurse is instructed to perform an
intramuscular injection by using the Z-track method. The
student nurse must know that the purpose of doing the Z-
track method is
a. To enhance blood flow to the injection site
b. To allow faster absorption of the drug into the musclec.
To prevent drug leakage into the subcutaneous tissue,
helps seal the drug in the muscle, and minimizes skin
irritation.
d. To allow faster drug clearance.
ANSWER: C
RATIO: By leaving a zigzag path that seals the
needletrack, this technique prevents drug leakage
into the
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1)
subcutaneous tissue, helps seal the drug in the muscle,
and minimizes skin irritation.
5. Nurse Aladdin Abdulrahman is reviewing the patient’s
blood pressure after administering an oral
antihypertensive 30 minutes before. The nurse is
employing which stage of the nursing process?
a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Planning
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation
ANSWER: D
RATIO: The last phase of the process is the evaluation
phase. This is where the medical professionals assess and
evaluate the success of the planning and implementation
processes. This phase ensures that theindividual is
making progress towards his/her goals andis achieving
the desired outcome.
6. A patient named Jasmine Allamudin is in the
bathroom when Nurse Belle enters to give a prescribed
medication. What should the nurse in charge do?
a. Wait for the patient to return to her bed then leave
the medication at her bedside.
b. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there
until the patient takes her medication.
c. Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication and
then leave it at her bedside.
d. Leave the medication at her patient’s bedside.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the proper action that the nurse
should impose upon giving medications.
7. Dr. Rodrigo Robredo orders heparin, 7500 units, to be
administered subcutaneously every 6 hours. The vial
reads 10000 units per milliliter. Nurse Leni should
anticipate giving how much heparin for each dose?
a. 0.25 ml
b. 0.5 ml
c. 0.75 ml
d. 1.25 ml
ANSWER:
C c. Taking supplemental vitamins and minerals
RATIO: 0.75 ml is anticipated to be administered to the
patient as per doctor’s order.
8. Rosa is suffering from hypoxia. The physician is
mostlikely to order which of the following tests?
a. Arterial blood gas analysis
b. Total hemoglobin and hematocrit
c. Chest X-ray
d. Complete blood countANSWER: A
RATIO: One of the principal utilities of arterial blood
gas(ABG) analysis is to help assess blood oxygenation
status. The two ABG parameters used for this
assessment are pO2(a) (partial pressure of oxygen in
arterial blood) and sO2(a) (% of total hemoglobin that is
saturated with oxygen).
9. Nurse Ishbelle uses a stethoscope to auscultate a
female patient’s chest. Which statement about the
stethoscope with the bell and the diaphragm is true?
a. The bell detects thrills best
b. The bell detects high-pitched sounds best
c. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best
d. The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds best
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The stethoscope has two different heads to
receive sound, the bell and the diaphragm. The bell is
used to detect low-frequency sounds; the diaphragm,
high-frequency sounds.
10. Nurse Vincent is teaching the community about the
importance of exercise to prevent the occurrence of
type II diabetes mellitus.
a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. Passive prevention
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or
injury before it ever occurs. This is done by preventing
exposures to hazards that cause disease or injury, altering
unhealthy or unsafe behaviours that can lead todisease or
injury, and increasing resistance to disease orinjury
should exposure occur.
11. When observing universal precaution, the nurse
must always practice which of the following to prevent
the transmission of infection?
a. Having a proper diet
b. Maintain adequate exercise
d. Practice hand hygiene at all times
ANSWER: D
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1)
RATIO: Universal precautions are intended to prevent
parenteral, mucous membrane, and nonintact skin
exposures of health-care workers to bloodborne
pathogens.
12. Nurse Jason is going to feed the patient via the
nasogastric tube. Which nursing action is essential in
performing enteral feeding?
a. Elevating the head of the bed
b. Positioning the patient to the left side
c. Warming the formula before administering it
d. Hanging a full day’s worth of formula at one time
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Position patient sitting up at 45 to 90 degrees
(unless contraindicated by the patient's condition), witha
pillow under the head and shoulders. This allows the NG
tube to pass more easily through the nasopharynx and
into the stomach.
13. Nurse Joy is going to administer a tablet via the
sublingual route. She should instruct her patient to
place the tablet on the:
a. Inside of the cheek
b. Floor of the mouth
c. Roof of the mouth
d. Top of the tongue
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Sublingual administration involves placing a
drugunder your tongue to dissolve and absorb into your
blood through the tissue there.
14. Which of the following best describes Kussmaul
respirations?
a. Increased rate and depth of breathing over a
prolonged period of time. In response to metabolic
acidosis,the body's attempt to blow off CO2 to buffer a
fixed acid acid such as ketones.
b. Gradual increase in volume and frequency, followed
by a gradual decrease in volume and frequency, with
apnea periods of 10 - 30 seconds between cycle.
c. Short episodes of rapid, deep inspirations followed by
10 - 30 second apneic period.
d. Only able to breathe comfortable in upright position
(such as sitting in chair), unable to breath laying down.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Your body maintains a steady pH level of 7.35 to
7.45. When this pH level becomes higher or lower, your
body has to find ways to try make up for the pH changes.
This is where Kussmaul breathing comes in.
15. Doctor Rodrigo Robredo has ordered dextrose 5% in
water, 1000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V.
tubing is delivering 15 drops per milliliter. Nurse Bong
should run the infusion rate at:
a. 15 drops per minute
b. 21 drops per minutec.
31 drops per minute
d. 125 drops per minute
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Infusion rate is 31 drops per minute.
16. Which of the following is true about the working
phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
a. Obtain subjective data
b. Make the patient comfortable
c. Greet the patient
d. Establish rapportANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is true about the working phase of the
nurse-patient relationship.
17. Which of the following interventions is considered as
a primary level of prevention?
a. Using physical therapy to help the patient cope with
above-the-knee amputation.
b. Obtaining a breast biopsy to detect breast cancer
c. Administering an anti-Hepatitis B immunization to an
infant
d. Administering Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient
who has gonorrhea
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is is considered as a primary level of
prevention
18. Nurse JM is tasked to do a nursing care plan in the
ward. The identification of actual or potential health
problems is done during which step of the nursing
process?
a. Assessment
b. Nursing diagnosis
c. Planning
d. Implementation
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
19. A female patient named Mikasa Ackerman1)has been a. Twice a dayb.
found to be suffering from deepvein thrombosis. Which Thrice a day
nursing diagnosis should Nurse Eren prioritize at this c. Once a day
time? d. Four times a day
a. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous ANSWER: B
congestion
b. Risk for injury related to edema RATIO: TID means thrice a day.
c. Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular 23. A physician orders 250 mg of an antibiotic
disease suspension, the label on the suspension read “500
d. Impaired gas exchange related to decreased blood mg/5 ml” how much would the nurse administer?
flow
a. 2.5 ml
ANSWER: A b. 5 ml
RATIO: Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to c. 7.5 ml
venous congestion is the priority of Nurse Eren. d. 10 ml
ANSWER:
20. Nurse Erina has found out that after giving proper
interventions to Soma who has fever brought about by A
meningitis, the patient’s fever has not subsided yet. Sheis
revising patient Soma’s nursing care plan. During which RATIO: Option A is valid.
step of the nursing process does revision take place? 24. A nurse is to administer 500 mg of a drug
a. Nursing diagnosis intramuscularly. The label on the multidose vial reads
b. Planning 250 mg/ml. How much of the medication would the
c. Evaluation nurse prepare on the syringe?
d. Assessment a. 0.5 ml
ANSWER: C b. 1 ml
c. 1.5 ml
RATIO: During the evaluation step of the nursing process d. 2 ml
the nurse determines whether the goals established have
been achieved, and evaluates the success of the plan.21. ANSWER: D
A client named Kakashi has been prescribed with RATIO: Option D is correct.
diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for his allergies. He then
contacts the nurse and complains of drowsiness after 25. When assessing for the liver functioning of a patient
taking the medication making it almost impossiblefor who is receiving hepatotoxic drugs the nurse must check
him to do his work. This is an example of which of the following?

a. Drug synergism a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

b. Side effect b. Creatinine clearance (CLcr)
c. First-pass effect c. Complete blood count
d. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartame
ANSWER: B aminotransferaseANSWER: D
RATIO: A side effect is an unwanted symptom caused by RATIO: ALT and AST are liver enzymes
medical treatment. All medicines can cause side effects,
including prescription, over-the-counter and
complementary medicines.
22. Doctor Eren has ordered Nurse Misaka to administer
cefuroxime (Ceftin) 500 mg via IV bolus t.i.d to a patient
with acute glumerulonephritis. The nurse would expect
to give the drug to be given SAS 3

1. Which of the following statements by Nurse Stella is a

 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
great example of the therapeutic communication 1)
technique known as giving recognition?
a. “I’m glad that you are already taking your medication.
They will help you a lot.”
b. “I can see that you have a new dress today and it
seems that you have washed your hair.”
c. “I will sit beside you until it is time for your group
session.”
d. “I’ve noticed that you did not attend the group
session today. Are you willing to talk about that?”
ANSWER: B
RATIO: This is an example of the therapeutic
communication technique of giving recognition. Giving
recognition acknowledges and indicates awareness. This
technique is more appropriate than complimenting the
client, which reflects the nurse's judgment.
2. A client named Rodrigo De Lima tells the nurse,
“Whenever I am furious, I always get into a fistfight
with my spouse, sometimes I punch my children as
well.” The nurse states, “I have observed you smiling
while you talk about domestic violence.” The therapeutic
communication technique employed by thenurse is
a. Making observations
b. Formulating a plan of action
c. Providing general leads
d. Explorin
gANSWER:
A regaining consciousness, the patient states, “What
RATIO: Option A is valid.
3. A client named Agot tells Nurse Jinky, “I feel awful
because my mom does not allow me to go back home
after I am discharged from the hospital.” Which
response from Nurse Jinky is therapeutic?
a. “Your mom sounds like she is an empathic person. I’ll
help you talk to her.”
b. “You feel that your mom will not allow you to return
to your home?”
c. “Why will you not speak this out with your mom? You
may probably learn that she really does not feel that
way?”
d. “It’s somehow common for patients to have feelings
like this after long periods of being in the hospital.”
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is the appropriate therapeutic response
from Nurse Jinky.
4. Nurse Ronald is conducting an interview to a
depressed patient. Which statement from Nurse Ronaldis
a great example of giving general leads?
a. “I can see that and then?”
b. “Why are you feeling so depressed right now?”
c. “Can you give me the date and time we are currently
in today?”
d. “You seem so tense right now.”
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Statement A is a great example of giving
generalleads.
5. Nurse Roque has told to his patient who will undergo
an major surgery, “Don’t worry, we’ve got some great
doctors here at the hospital. You’ll be in good shape
once the operation is done.” The type of non-
therapeutic technique applied in the statement is
a. Interrogation
b. Giving advice
c. False reassurance
d. Defending
ANSWER:
C
RATIO: The type of non-therapeutic technique applied in
the statement is “false reassurance.”
6. A patient named Panfilo has had a left above-the- knee
amputation after a motor vehicular accident. Upon
happened? I can’t recall anything.” What is the nurse’s
initial response?
a. “I think you will recall more about the incident as you
get better.”
b. “It was necessary to amputate your leg after the
accident.”
c. “You were in a motor-vehicular accident last night.”
d. “Tell me what you think happened?”
ANSWER: C
RATIO: This is truthful and gives the patient
informationthat may initiate recollection about the
accident.
7. After giving anxiolytics, the patient says to Nurse Tina,
“It seems that you are too busy to stay with me.” How
should nurse Tina respond?
a. “You’ll feel better after I’ve given you the medication.”
b. “You will be able to sleep after the drug starts to take
effect.”
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
c. “I have to attend to other patients, however, I1)
will be
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
back after 10 minutes.” 1)
d. “I apologize but I need to attend to other patients in
the ward.”
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is an appropriate response from Nurse
Tina.
8. A patient named Historia seems tense and anxious
during a nurse-client interaction, which nursing
statement belittles the patient’s feelings and concerns?
a. “You seem to be assuming a lot of things.”
b. “I have observed that you are biting your nails again.”
c. “You seem anxious today.”
d. “Come on, I know you can do better than that.”
ANSWER: D
RATIO: This nursing statement is an example of a non-
therapeutic communication known as belittling feelings.
This occurs if the nurse misjudges the degree of the
client’s discomfort showing a lack of empathy.
9. Which of the following statements from Nurse Katrina
shows a good example of focusing?
a. “You mentioned about growing up with your mother.
Let’s discuss that further.”
b. “Your time with me today is for an hour. I’ll stay with
you until then.”
c. “I’m finding it hard to understand what you mean.”
d. “Tell me one of the wonderful things that has
occurred to you this week.”
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A is valid.
10. A patient named Mocha tells the nurse, “You will not
believe what my father said to me during visiting hours.
How dare he talk to me that way. I don’t deserve any of
that.” Which would be the best response by the nurse?
a. “Describe to me what has occurred during your time
with your father.”
b. “Why do you think your father has behaved that
way?”
c. “What do you think is your role in this relationship
with your father?”
d. “Does your father often treat you in that manner?”
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Option A would be the best response by the
nurse.
11. A patient named Bong is experiencing hallucinations
and tells the nurse, “I can hear voices telling me to eat a
lot of soap.” Which of the following therapeutic
communication skills must the nurse employ?
a. Focusing
b. Seeking
clarificationc. Present
reality
d. Provide general leads
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The nurse must employ the therapeutic
communication technique known as present reality
whenever a patient is experiencing either a
hallucination, illusion, or delusion.
12. When Nurse Martha visits a patient at home the
patient tells her, “I haven’t slept during the last couple
of nights.” Which of the following statements from the
nurse is therapeutic for the patient?
a. “I too have trouble sleeping sometimes.” b.
“I see that you have difficulty of sleeping.”
c. “Is that so?”
d. “I see.”
ANSWER: BRATIO: The nurse is employing
restatementas a therapeutic communication skill in this
situation. This type of skill assists the nurse in
obtaining a more specific perception of the problem of
the patient.
13. Nurse Mona is assigned 4 patients in the infectious
disease ward. Which of the following patients must
Nurse Mona attend to first?
a. A 54-year old male patient who is recently diagnosed
to have pulmonary tuberculosis
b. A 66-year old female patient who has community
acquired pneumonia
c. A 37-year old male patient who is diagnosed to have
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
d. A 24-year old female patient who is suspected to havea
streptococcus infection
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is valid.
14. A 7-year old child recently had German measles or
rubella. Being immune to rubella after having the
disease would be
a. Natural active acquired immunity
b. Artificial active acquired immunity
c. Natural passive acquired immunity
d. Artificial passive acquired immunity
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
ANSWER: A 1)
RATIO: Being immune to rubella after having the
diseasewould give the child natural active acquired
immunity.
15. Nurse Susan is currently assigned to the medical
ward. She is tasked to properly practice the proper
isolation techniques. Which of the following patients
should Nurse Susan place in reverse isolation?
a. A 45-year old patient who is suffering from
pneumonia
b. A 28-year old patient who is diagnosed with acute
myelogenous leukemia
c. A 33-year old patient who has a diabetic foot
d. A 55-year old patient who is suffering from
pulmonary tuberculosis
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Reverse Isolation refers to the practice of
healthcare workers and visitors wearing barriers (i.e.,,
gown, gloves, mask, etc.) routinely upon entry to the
client room, for the purpose of preventing client exposure
to external microbes.
16. A patient named Bato who has an infected would of
the head is positive for methicillinresistant
staphylococcus aureus. Nurse Chel must practice which
of the following?
a. Standard precautions
b. Respiratory isolation
c. Reverse isolation
d. Contact Isolation
ANSWER: ARATIO: Standard precautions are a set of
infection control practices used to prevent transmissionof
diseases that can be acquired by contact with blood,body
fluids, non-intact skin (including rashes), and mucous
membranes.
17. Nurse Joyce is teaching the community the best way
to prevent the transmission of infection. This is best
done by teaching which of the following to the
community?
a. Proper wearing and using face masks
b. Hand hygiene
c. Cleaning the surroundings
d. Eating nutritious food
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Washing your hands properly with soap and
water can help prevent the spread of the germs (like
bacteria and viruses) that cause these diseases. Some
forms of gastrointestinal and respiratory infections can
cause serious complications, especially for young
children, the elderly, or those with a weakened immune
system.
18. Nurse Jessie is currently adhering to the principles of
medical asepsis when performing patient care in the
hospital setting. Which nursing action performed by the
nurse follows these recommended guidelines?
a. The nurse carries the patient’s soiled bed linens close
to the body to prevent spreading microorganisms into
the air.
b. The nurse places soiled bed linens and hospital gowns
on the floor when making the bed.
c. The nurse moves the patient table away from the
nurse’s body when wiping it off after a meal.
d. The nurse cleans the most soiled items in the
patient’s bathroom first and follows with the cleaner
items.
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Option C is valid.
19. A 44-year old female is recently diagnosed to have
pulmonary tuberculosis. She is currently undergoing
treatment at the DOTS center. The nurse assigned to her
must know that the tubercle bacilli is transmitted in
which of the following?
a. Airborne
b. Contact
c. Droplet
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: The tubercle bacilli is transmitted through air.
20. Nurse Naya is teaching the community about the
importance of hand hygiene. Which
component of hand washing should the nurse include
that is most important for removing microorganisms?
a. Friction
b. Water
c. Time
d. Soap
ANSWER:
A
RATIO: Friction is the component of hand washing that
is most important for removing microorganisms
SAS 4
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
1) time from the ninth week until birth is known as the
SITUATION : Aling Nena, a 32 year old fish vendor
fromBarangay Carael came to see you at the prenatal
clinic.She brought with her all her three children.
Feliza, 1 year 6 months; Loreta, 3 and Voltaire, 7 years
old. Shementioned that she stopped taking oral
contraceptivesseveral months ago and now suspects
she is pregnant.She cannot remember her LMP.
1. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy
test?
a. Progesterone
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin
c. Estrogen
d. Lactogen
ANSWER:
B
RATIO: A pregnancy test can tell whether you are
pregnant by checking for a particular hormone in your
urine or blood. The hormone is called human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG). HCG is made in a woman's
placenta after a fertilized egg implants in the uterus.
2. With this pregnancy, Aling Nena is
aa. P3 G3
b. Primigravida
c. P3 G4
d. P0 G3
ANSWER:
A
RATIO: Gravidity is defined as the number of times that
a woman has been pregnant. Parity is defined as the
number of times that she has given birth to a fetus witha
gestational age of 24 weeks or more, regardless of
whether the child was born alive or was stillborn.
3. In explaining the development of her baby, you
identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus
as it occurs in pregnancy as
a. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
b. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
c. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
d. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The process of prenatal development occurs in
three main stages. The first two weeks after conception
are known as the germinal stage, the third through the
eighth week is known as the embryonic period, and the
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
fetal period. 1)

4. When teaching Aling Nena about her pregnancy,

youshould include personal common discomforts.
Which ofthe following is an indication for prompt
professional supervision?
a. Constipation and hemorrhoids
b. Backache
c. Facial edema
d. Frequency of
urinationANSWER: C
RATIO: Some swelling during pregnancy is normal.
Sudden swelling in your face and hands or around
theeyes could be a red flag for a serious condition
called preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is excessive
swelling and accompanied by other symptoms such
as high blood pressure and high levels of protein in
your urine.
5. Which of the following statements would be
appropriate for you to include in Aling Nena’s
prenatalteaching plan?
a. Exercise is very stressful, it is not recommended
b. Limit your food intake to vegetables only
c. Alcohol has no harmful effects on the fetus
d. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should
beincluded in your schedule
ANSWER: D
RATIO: It's common to feel tired, or even
exhausted,during pregnancy, especially in the first
12 weeks.
Hormonal changes at this time can make you feel tired,
nauseous and emotional. The only answer is to rest as
much as possible.
SITUATION: Nurse Dina is assigned at the City
Health Office to teach contraception to Mang Jess and
Aling Sion who are respectively 35 and 34 years old.
The couple has had 4 children and has decided to use
contraceptives. The couple seems interested in both the
artificial methods and surgical methods of
contraception.
6. Aling Sion asks Nurse Dina about the details of
bilateral tube ligation. Which of the following
information is NOT true with regard to bilateral
tubeligation?
a. It is a surgical procedure that can be done through
laparoscopy.
b. It is a surgical procedure that creates a temporary
contraception or sterilization that can be easily reversed
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
in the future. 1)
c. There is a risk of ectopic pregnancy albeit a rare
occurrence
d. No other contraceptive methods will be used once
the female undergoes the minor surgery.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Risks associated with tubal ligation include:
Damage to the bowel, bladder or major blood vessels.
Reaction to anesthesia. Improper wound healing or
infection.
7. Mang Jess on the other hand wants information
about vasectomy. Which of the following is NOT true
regarding vasectomy?
a. A vasectomy can be done in an ambulatory setting,
such as in a primary health care clinic.
b. The man may experience a small amount of local pain
afterward, which can be managed by taking a mild
analgesic and applying ice to the site.
c. The male can have unprotected sex with his spouse
immediately after the surgery has been done.
d. The surgical procedure is about 99.5% effective.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Vasectomy offers many advantages as a method
of birth control. The main benefit is effectiveness. A
vasectomy is over 99.99% effective in preventing
pregnancies. Like female tubal ligation, vasectomy is a
one-time procedure that provides permanent
contraception.
8. During the discussion about oral contraceptive pills
Aling Sion asked Nurse Dina, “Whatdo I do if I forget
totake an oral contraceptive pill?” Nurse Dina must
replywhich of the following?
a. “If the pill omitted was one of the placebo ones,
ignore it and just take the next pill on time the next
day.”
b. “If you forgot to take one of the active pills, take it as
soon as you remember. Continue the following day with
your usual pill schedule. Missing one pill this way should
not initiate
ovulation.”
c. “If you miss two consecutive active pills, take two pills
as soon as you remember. Then, continue the following
day with your usual schedule. You may experience some
vaginal spotting with two forgotten pills.”
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: If you just missed one, take it as soon as you
remember. If you don't remember until the next day, go
ahead and take 2 pills that day. If you forget to take your
pills for 2 days, take 2 pills the day you remember and 2
pills the next day.
9. The couple has finally chosen the intrauterine device
as a method of contraception. Nurse Dina must inform
Aling Sion of which of the following?
a. Breast tenderness after insertion of the IUD
b. Vaginal discoloration 1 week after insertion of the IUD
c. Amenorrhea for 6 months after the insertion of the
IUD
d. Vaginal spotting and uterine cramping during the first
2 or 3 weeks after IUD insertion.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: However, it's perfectly normal to have discomfort
and spotting that lasts for several hours afterward.
These cramps may gradually decrease in severity but
continue on and off for the first few weeks after
insertion. They should subside entirely within the first
three to six months.
10. Aling Sion asks Nurse Dina, “How long should I be
having the intrauterine device?” Nurse Dina must tell
Aling Sion that the effectiveness of the Copper T380 IUD
is at around
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 6 months
ANSWER:
B
RATIO: Copper T 380 A, the intrauterine device (IUD),
has now been clinically approved by the US Food and
Drug Administration (FDA) to have a longer lifespan.
According to a population council news release, the
device, which originally had a 4-year term duration, has
been found out to be effective for 6 years.
SITUATION: Rodrigo a 35-year-old male and Leni a
33-year-old female is visiting a fertility
clinic. The couple has mentioned that they have been
married for 7 years and have been trying since then to
conceive a child. They have always been unsuccessful. It
was found out that the female has obstructed fallopian
tubes. The physician has recommended the couple to
undergo in vitro fertilization (IVF).
11. The nurse must know that the process of in vitro
fertilization involves which of the following procedures?
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
a. Oophorectomy 1)
b. Laparoscopy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Drug therapy
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Typically, transvaginal ultrasound aspiration is
used to retrieve eggs. During this procedure, an
ultrasound probe is inserted into your vagina to identify
follicles, and a needle is guided through the vagina and
into the follicles.
12. How many hours after fertilization will the
laboratory-grown zygotes be inserted into the woman’s
uterus?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 40 hours
ANSWER:
B RATIO: Before beginning IVF, women will first
RATIO: For patients with at least one normal fallopian
tube, GIFT may be an option. Zygote intrafallopian
transfer (ZIFT), another variation of IVF, involves
transferring pre-embryos into the fallopian tubes just 24
hours after in vitro fertilization. At this stage, the
fertilized eggs are called zygotes.
13. Based from the information above, how many
fertilized eggs will be inserted in the woman’s uterus?
a. 1 only
b. 1-2 fertilized ova
c. 3-4 fertilized ova
d. Up to 5 fertilized ova may be transferred
ANSWER: D
RATIO: During IVF, mature eggs are collected (retrieved)
from ovaries and fertilized by sperm in a lab. Then the
fertilized egg (embryo) or eggs (embryos) are transferred
to a uterus. One full cycle of IVF takes aboutthree weeks.
Sometimes these steps are split into
different parts and the process can take longer.
14. Why is progesterone or luteinizing hormone
prescribed a woman after undergoing IVF?
a. Due to the blockage of the fallopian tubes b.
Hormonal imbalances brought about by the
procedure
c. The corpus luteum can be injured by the aspiration of
the follicle
d. Due to cysts growing on the mother’s ovaries
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Progesterone production is the domain of the
ovary until the placenta takes over progesterone
production at around 8-10 weeks gestational age.
Because of the estimated timing and the desire to be
conservative, most IVF clinics in the US recommend
progesterone supplementation for 8-10 weeks after egg
retrieval/FET.
15. Prior to aspiration of ova from the female which of
the following hormones will be given to the woman 1
month prior to the procedure?
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
ANSWER: A
undergoovarian reserve testing. This involves taking a
blood sample and testing it for the level of follicle
stimulatinghormone (FSH). The results of this test will
give your doctor information about the size and quality
of your eggs. Your doctor will also examine your uterus.
SITUATION: Aling Leni, a 33-year old mother came to
thehealth center for her prenatal check-up. She is
currentlyin her second trimester of her pregnancy, at
about 22 age of gestation with a score of P2G4.
16. Upon interview, Aling Leni told Nurse Kristine
that she can feel fetal movements. Nurse Kristine that
thefetal movements can be felt by the mother as early
as
a. 12-15 weeks AOG
b. 16-20 weeks AOG
c. 21-25 weeks AOG
d. 8-11 weeks AOG
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Often called 'quickening', the fetus will
movearound 18 weeks into the client’spregnancy.
17. Nurse Kristine began assessing Aling Leni’s
pregnancy. Which of the following findings would
indicate for a positive pregnancy?
a. Linea nigra that has formed on the mother’s
abdomen
b. Goodell’s sign
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
c. Fetal movements felt by the mother 1)
d. Fetal heart tone heard by the nurse through the
stethoscope
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Positive signs of pregnancy are those signs that
are definitely confirmed as a pregnancy. They include
fetal heart sounds, ultrasound scanning of the fetus,
palpation of the entire fetus, palpation of fetal
movements, x-ray, and actual delivery of an infant.
18. Nurse Kristine has told Aling Leni about the
importance of taking folic acid supplements. Aling Leni
asks the significance of taking these supplements. Nurse
Kristine must state that
a. Folic acid prevents the occurrence of mental
retardation in the fetus
b. Folic acid prevents iron deficiency anemia in the
pregnant mother
c. Folic acid prevents neural tube defects from
developing in the fetus
d. Folic acid prevents gestational diabetes in the mother
ANSWER: A
RATIO: When the baby is developing early during
pregnancy, folic acid helps form the neural tube. Folic
acid is very important because it can help prevent some
major birth defects of the baby's brain (anencephaly) and
spine (spina bifida).
19. Aling Leni has observed that there was a change in
the color of her vagina which went from pink to violet.
Which of the following statements by Nurse Kristine is
correct with this finding?
a. “It is a normal occurrence during pregnancy known as
Chadwick’s sign.”
b. “It is a normal occurrence during pregnancy known as
Goodell’s sign.”
c. “It is a normal occurrence during pregnancy known as
Hegar’s sign.”
d. “It is a normal occurrence during pregnancy known as
Braxton-Hicks’ sign.”
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Chadwick sign is a bluish discoloration of the
cervix, vagina, and labia resulting from increased blood
flow. It can be observed as early as 6 to 8 weeks after
conception, and its presence is an early sign of
pregnancy.
20. Which of the following is TRUE with regard to
AlingNena’s psychological change during her second
trimester of her pregnancy?
a. The woman and her partner both spend time
recovering from the surprise of learning that they are
pregnant and concentrate on what it feels like to be
pregnant.
b. The woman and her partner move through emotions
such as narcissism and introversion as they concentrate
on what it feels like to be a parent.
c. The woman and her partner prepare clothing and
sleeping arrangements for the baby but also grow
impatient as they ready themselves for birth.
d. The woman has a common reaction of ambivalence,
or feeling both pleased and not pleased about the
pregnancy.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Fatigue, morning sickness, and moodiness
usually improve or go away. You may feel more forgetful
and disorganized than before. You may feel lots of
emotions about things like the way you look or feeling
the baby move
SAS 5
SITUATION: Baby James, an 8-hour old newborn is
admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score.
Hismother had a prolonged second stage of labor.
1. Which of the following is the most important concept
associated with all high-risk newborn?
A.Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary
adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the
high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical
complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their
request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Option B is valid.
2. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find
in a newborn with birth asphyxia?
A.Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C.Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
ANSWER: C 1)
RATIO: Difficulty breathing, which may cause
symptomssuch as nasal flaring or abdominal breathing.
3. When planning and implementing care for the
newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which
of the following would be important to assess?
A.Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Option D is valid.
4. When assessing the head of the newborn’s head, the
nurse has observed for swelling and the appearance of
the head is as though it appears like a cone. Which of
the following terms must the nurse note on her chart?
a. Caput succedaneum
b. Molding
c. Cephalhematoma
d. Craniosynostosis
ANSWER: A
RATIO: “Caput succedaneum” refers to swelling, or
edema, of an infant's scalp that appears as a lump or
bump on their head shortly after delivery. This condition
is harmless and is due to pressure put on the infant's head
during delivery. It doesn't indicate damage to the brain or
the bones of the cranium.
5. For this newborn who is experiencing birth asphyxia,
which of the following would be the most appropriate
nursing diagnosis?
a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
b. Risk for hypothermia
c. Ineffective breathing pattern
d. Impaired gas exchange
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Impaired gas exchange is the most appropriate
nursing diagnosis for a newborn with asphyxia.
SITUATION: Rhea, a 32-year-old primigravida at 39-40
weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to
hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. Internal examination
revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix.Station 0.
6. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which
of the following conditions signify that delivery is near?
a. A desire to defecate
b. Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
c. Perineum bulges
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: All options signifies that a delivery is near.
7. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of
the following nursing diagnoses is the priority?
a. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
b. Risk for injury related to prolapsed cord
c. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of
uterine contraction
d. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Infection is probable once membranes are
ruptured.
8. Rhea complains of severe abdominal pain and back
pain during contraction. Which two of the following
measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain?
a. Rubbing the back with a tennis ball and effleurage
b. Guided imagery
c. Proper breathing techniques
d. Offer warm compressesANSWER: C
RATIO: Proper breathing techniques help relieve pain.
9. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of
the following nursing responsibilities should be done
immediately following procedure?
a. Reposition from side to side
b. Administer oxygen
c. Increase IV fluids as indicated
d. Assess for maternal hypotension
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Maternal hypotension may occur due to
vasodilating effects of the anesthesia.
10. Which is NOT the drug of choice for
epiduralanesthesia?
a. Sensorcaine
b. Xylocaine
c. Ephedrine
d. Marcaine
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
ANSWER: B 1)
RATIO: This medication is used to prevent and relieve
pain during certain medical procedures (such as
inserting a tube into the urinary tract). It is also used to
numb the lining of the mouth, throat, or nose before
certain medical procedures (such as intubation).
SITUATION: Mocha, a 27-year-old mother is at G4P3
atfull term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush
offluid passes through her vagina while shopping at
the supermarket.
11. Mocha is brought to the emergency room. The fetal
heart tone (FHT) is noted to be 116 beats per minute.
Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?
a. Monitor FHT every 15 minutes
b. Administer oxygen inhalation
c. Ask the charge nurse to notify the obstetrician
d. Place her on the left lateral position
ANSWER: B
RATIO: A normal fetal heart rate (FHR) usually ranges
from 120 to 160 beats per minute (bpm) in the in utero
period. It is measurable sonographically from around 6
weeks and the normal range varies during gestation,
increasing to around 170 bpm at 10 weeks and
decreasing from then to around 130 bpm at term.
12. Nurse Jhunela checks the perineum of Mocha.
Which of the following characteristic ofthe amniotic
fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse?
a. Greenish
b. Scanty
c. Colorless
d. Blood tinged
ANSWER: A
RATIO: All the other choices are normal signs of the
amniotic fluid, or as to what it should look like. Fluid
that looks green or brown usually means that the baby
has passed the first bowel movement (meconium) while
in the womb. (Usually, the baby has the first bowel
movement after birth.) If the baby passes meconium in
the womb, it can get into the lungs through the amniotic
fluid.
13. Mocha asks nurse Jhunela, "Why do I have to be on
complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this
position." Which of the following response of the nurse
is most appropriate?
a. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent the possibility of
cord prolapse
b. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid
to escape
c. You need to conserve your energy so you will be
strong enough to push later during the delivery
d. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to
check on you
ANSWER: C
RATIO: In most cases, bed rest is used to give the body
it's best chance to normalize. Bed rest will be used with
women who have conditions related to high blood
pressure in order to decrease stress and lower blood
pressure.
14. Mocha wants to know how many fetal movements
per hour is normal, the correct response of nurse
Jhunela would be
a. Twice
b. Thrice
c. Four times
d. 10-12 times
ANSWER: D
RATIO: A common way to do a kick count is to see how
much time it takes to feel 10 movements. Ten
movements (such as kicks, flutters, or rolls) in 1 hour or
less are considered normal. But do not panic if you do
not feel 10 movements. Less activity may simply mean
the baby is sleeping.
15. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted
that Mocha is in the early stage of labor. Which of the
following istrue in this state?
a. Self-focused
b. Effacement is 100%
c. Lasts for 2 hours
d. Cervical dilatation of 1-3 cm
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Your cervix starts out three to four centimeters
long. When it is 50 percent effaced, it is about two
centimeters long. When it is 100 percent effaced, it is
"paper-thin." Effacement can happen over days before
labor starts.
SITUATION: Baby boy Berlin was delivered
spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores
are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried
out.
 NUR 099 (Nursing Seminar
1) RATIO: Preterm birth, intrapartum-related complications
16. When is the APGAR Score taken? (birth asphyxia or lack of breathing at birth), infections
and birth defects cause most neonatal deaths.
a. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
b. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birthc. 20. According to the WHO, when should the mother
At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth starts breastfeeding the infant?
d. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
a. Within 30 minutes after birth
ANSWER: C b. Withing 12 hours after birth
c. Within a day after birth
RATIO: The Apgar score describes the condition of the d. After infant’s condition establishes
newborn infant immediately after birth and, when
properly applied, is a tool for standardized assessment ANSWER: A
18. It also provides a mechanism to record fetal-to-
RATIO: WHO and UNICEF recommend that children
neonatal transition. Apgar scores do not predict
initiate breastfeeding within the first hour of birth and
individual mortality or adverse neurologic outcome.
be exclusively breastfed for the first 6 months of life –
17. The best way to position a newborn during the first meaning no other foods or liquids are provided,
week of life is to lay him including water. Infants should be breastfed on demand
– that is as often as the child wants, day and night
a. Prone with head slightly elevated
b. On his back, flat
c. On his side with his head flat on bed
d. On his back with head slightly elevated
ANSWER: B
RATIO: In addition to avoiding inclined surfaces, the
commission is reminding parents that babies can
suffocate if they sleep with blankets, pillows, or other
items. The safest way for a baby to sleep is flat on their
back, in a bare crib, and on a flat, firm surface.
18. Baby boy Berlin has large sebaceous glands on his
nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as
a. Milia
b. Lanugo
c. Hemangiomas
d. Mongolian spots
ANSWER: A
RATIO: A sebaceous gland is a microscopic exocrine
gland in the skin that opens into a hair follicle to secrete
an oily or waxy matter, called sebum, which lubricates
the hair and skin of mammals.
19. Baby boy Berlin must be carefully observed for the
first 24 hours for?
a. Respiratory distress
b. Duration of cry
c. Frequency of voiding
d. Range in body temperature
ANSWER: A