PYC1501 Basic Psychology Exam Pack: Adeles

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1 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology
PYC1501 (RPY1501) EXAM PREPARATION – Assignments and Exams
This document is an easy to read compilation of past UNISA Assignment and Exam Questions and
Answers
Answers are motivated by a combination of:
• Page references to the prescribed textbook

• Short summaries and/or content regarding the relevant topic(s) in question. (Incorrect
options are also marked where applicable, in order to identify and disregard red-herring
alternatives)
Assignments covered are:
• Assignment 01 for Semester 1 2015

• Assignment 92 (Self-test)
Exams covered are:
• May-June 2011
• October-November 2011
• May-June 2012
• May-June 2013
• May-June 2014
• May-June 2015
• May-June 2016
• May-June 2017
Please note: This document is an additional tool for exam preparation. The Stuvia-user that compiled
and uploaded this document takes no responsibility for incorrect answers. Students must ensure
that they study the prescribed material and understand the content.

Semester 1 - 2015: Assignment 01 (Unique number 595183)

Question 1
The tutor for the first-year psychology group is dealing with the topic of impulse conduction in the
human nervous system. After the group discussion, the tutor asks the students the following
questions to test their knowledge of the study material.
The part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information signals from other neurons is
called ___.
1. Myelin sheath
2. boutons
3. dendrites
4. soma
Answer: The correct answer is 3

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 88
Reasoning: The soma receives messages from other neurons through its dendrites.
Question 2
The part of the neuron that facilitates synaptic transmission of a signal to another neuron is called
___.
1. dendrites
2. boutons
3. axon
4. myelin sheath

Reasoning: The bouton vesicles of the telondendron release the neurotransmitters into the
synaptic cleft.
Question 3
The electrical charge resulting from the difference between the positive and negative ions outside
and inside the cell membrane is called ___.
1. the action potential

2. a threshold
3. the resting membrane potential
4. the refractory period

Reasoning: The resting membrane potential is an electrical charge brought about by the
difference between the positive and negative ions inside and outside the neuron.
This is also called a condition of readiness.
Question 4

Which of the following statement(s) about the neuron, based on the diagram is (are) correct?
1. In accordance with all-or-nothing-law, neurons A, B, C and D will conduct an impulse at

exactly the same speed, or not at all
2. In comparison with neurons A, C and D, neuron B can conduct impulses at the highest speed
and amplitude
3. In comparison with neurons A, B and C, neuron D will conduct impulses at the highest
frequency
4. 1 and 3

Reasoning: Although the strength and speed of an impulse is constant in a particular neuron, it
can vary with nerve fibres of different thickness. The larger the nerve fibre (the
greater the diameter or width), the stronger the impulse and the faster it is
conducted.
Question 5
In the myelinated neuron, the myelin sheaths are separated by a small gap called (an) ___ that
facilitates the neural impulse to jump from one point to another.
1. threshold
2. axon
3. synaptic cleft
4. nodes of Ranvier

Reasoning: The gaps (approximately 1 micrometer wide) formed between myelin sheath cells
along the axons are called Nodes of Ranvier. Since fat serves as a good insulator, the
myelin sheaths speed the rate of transmission of an electrical impulse along the
axon.
Question 6
Low serotonin levels are associated with ___ just as dopamine deficiency is associated with
Parkinson’s disease.
1. seasonal depression
2. muscle spasm
3. suppression of pain

4. mania

Reasoning: Insufficiency of dopamine in the brain contributes to Parkinson’s disease; Low
serotonin levels is associated with seasonal depression.
Question 7
Some students in your group are still confused and request the tutor to provide a different kind of
presentation of the nervous system that would make matters clearer. You think that the information
can best be represented in ___.
A. a flow chart, showing how the different structures are related

B. a flow chart, illustrating the process of how the brain works
C. an expandable tree structure, indicating the hierarchical nature of the nervous system
D. an expandable tree structure, because different branches can be expanded when more
detail is required
E. a flow chart, because detailed information can be presented at the outset
F. an expandable tree structure, because complex information cannot be represented in a
flow chart
1. A, B and C
2. C, D and F
3. A and E
4. C and D

Reasoning: Note that option 1 is incorrect by default – as A and B refers to a flow chart while C
refers to an expandable tree structure.
A flowchart is used when the aim is to represent or model complicated situations,
especially when one wants to represent more than one view of a situation.
Therefore, statement F is factually false and eliminated, thus eliminating option 2.
Option 3 is eliminated; while a flow chart can present detailed information – this is
not presented at the outset.
Question 8
Which of the following illustrates the correct sequence of events in the process of synaptic
transmission?
1. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft, vesicles
attach to presynaptic membrane
2. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, transmitter deactivated by boutons, electrical changes in
receiving cell
3. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, vesicles attach to membrane, neurotransmitters released
and attach to receptors on postsynaptic membrane
4. Nerve impulse stimulates boutons, neurotransmitters attach to receptors, neurotransmitters
cross synaptic cleft


Refer: Tutorial Letter 201/1/2018
Reasoning: This is another question that requires an understanding of the impulse
transmission. Option 3 provides the correct sequence of events in the process of
synaptic transmission of an impulse. Option 1 is incorrect because the vesicles
attach to the pre-synaptic membrane before the neurotransmitters are released
and diffuse across the synaptic cleft. If a neurotransmitter is deactivated by the
boutons, there will be no electrical change in the receiving neuron and therefore
option 2 is incorrect. Option 4 is also incorrect because neurotransmitters have to
cross the synaptic cleft first before they can attach to the receptors in the
postsynaptic membrane.
Question 9
The function of this lobe allows you to recognise elements of an object in the visual field and
integrate them into a meaningful whole.
1. Frontal lobe
2. Temporal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 79-80
Reasoning: The frontal lobe (option 1) is responsible for motor movement, including the
production of speech. This option is therefore eliminated.
The temporal lobe (option 2) is responsible for the perception of sound and to
understand spoken words. This option is therefore eliminated.
The parietal lobe (option 3) is responsible for somatosensory perception, i.e. touch,
temperature, pressure and pain. This option is therefore eliminated.
The occipital lobe (option 4) is responsible for the perception of vision. This is the
correct option.
Question 10
The tutor asks the students on the group site what determines whether a neurotransmitter will have
an inhibitory or excitatory effect on the synaptic process. One student answers that it depends on
the nature of the neurotransmitter. This statement ___.
1. does not provide the correct answer because it is too vague

2. is correct because the effect depends on the quantity of the neurotransmitter in relation to
the enzyme that destroys it.
3. is partially correct, because other factors also play a role
4. is incorrect because the effect depends on the ratio of inhibitory to excitatory
neurotransmitters in a specific synapse

Reasoning: Whether a neurotransmitter has an excitatory or inhibitory effect depends on:
• the nature of the neurotransmitter
• the place where it acts

• the quantity of the neurotransmitter in relation to the enzyme that destroys

it
• the amount of inhibitory neurotransmitters in relation to the amount of
excitatory neurotransmitters at a particular synapse.
Question 11
The main function of this structure is to distribute motor fibres to the muscles and to convey
somatosensory information to the brain. It can work independently of the brain as a result of
reflexive control circuits. This is a description of the ___.
1. spinal cord
2. thalamus
3. somatic nervous system
4. cerebellum

Reasoning: The spinal cord has motor and sensory roots. It carries information to and from the
body and it produces reflexes.
Question 12
James got hold of some drugs at school and decided to use them. After few minutes of taking drugs,
James entered a dreamlike state and started to experience distorted sensory experiences and
imaginary visions and realities. What type of drugs induce this kind of mental state?
1. Inhalants
2. Stimulants
3. Hallucinogens
4. Depressants

Reasoning: Hallucinogens are drugs that bring about distorted sensory experiences. People who
use them have intense sensory experiences and can enter a dreamlike state.
Question 13
John experienced a sudden collapse. He was awake when his friend, James called him but John could
not move. John is suffering from a sleep disorder called ___.
1. catalepsy
2. insomnia
3. sleep apnoea
4. narcolepsy

Reasoning: • Knowing the characteristics of each type of sleep disorder will help you
answer this question. A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden

collapse, whereby a person is awake but is unable to move is called

catalepsy (option 1). Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep
(option 2). Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at
night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep (option 3) Narcolepsy
is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for a
few minutes (option 4).
Question 14
A youth group leader is concerned about the increasing problem of drug abuse in the community. He
wants to organise a workshop for his youth group to provide information about drugs in the hope
that this will reduce the incidence of drug abuse. He asks you to give a presentation on drugs and
their effects on behaviour.
1. The area of interest is the effect of drugs on behaviour

2. The aim of the presentation is to prevent drug abuse
3. The target audience is young people in the community
4. All of the above
Question 15
A strong smell may seem less intense as time passes by. This is because receptor cells get tired of
firing in response to continuous presentation of a stimulus. This process is called ___.
1. habituation
2. sensory adaptation
3. transduction
4. sensation

Reasoning: Adaptation is the decrease of generator potential to prevent overstimulation.
Adaptation occurs in the receptor cells and is different from habituation, which is a
decrease in the frequency of firing in neurons.
Question 16
The tutor asks the class to identify the principle behind the following description: “A process of
perceptual organisation that refers to our tendency to group elements in a way that creates a
balanced figure refers to the principle of ___.”
1. symmetry
2. contour
3. continuity
4. similarity


Reasoning: The principle of symmetry (option 1) is correct because it refers to the tendency of
grouping elements in a way that creates a balanced figure.
Question 17
The system that provides people with information about their movements and orientation in space
is called ___.
1. chemical system
2. visual system
3. proprioceptive system
4. somaesthetic system

Reasoning: Successful adaptation to our environment is made possible by a number of different
bodily systems. The proprioceptive system provides people with information about
their movements and orientation in space. Therefore, option 3 is correct. Option 4
is incorrect because somaesthetic system has to do with sensations in the body,
such a touch, pain and temperature. It is the chemical system that helps us to
differentiate various smells in our environment. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.
Question 18
When you are talking to someone at a party, you are able to focus on the voice of that person and
screen out the background noise. This is an example of which law of perceptual organisation?
1. Closure
2. figure and ground
3. proximity
4. grouping

Reasoning: When we perceive visual information, we often organise it into a meaningful figure
(relevant information) against a less meaningful ground (irrelevant or less relevant
information) without being aware of doing so.
Question 19
Which one of the following statements refers to the orienting reaction?
1. The orienting reaction follows a sudden change in environmental stimulation

2. The orienting reaction occurs when a stimulus is recognized and given meaning
3. Habituation refers to the re-appearance of the orienting reaction
4. Transduction enables the rapid processing orienting reaction

Reasoning: The OR is a state of arousal that follows any sudden change in environmental
stimulation.

Question 20
Which of the following statements about attention is true?
1. Attention is an automatic process that takes place below the awareness level
2. People cannot pay attention to more than one thing at a time
3. There are external and internal determinants of attention
4. Parallel processing is easier when two or more tasks require an individual to pay close
attention

Reasoning: When you pay attention, you consciously decide what should be dealt with. Paying
attention is a form of conscious control over what is being perceived. Therefore
option 1 is incorrect. People have a limited capacity for attending to more than one
thing at a time, therefore option 2 is incorrect. Parallel processing (simultaneous
processing of two different sets of information) is easier when the tasks to be dealt
with are similar, when you’ve had considerable training for them or when both tasks
do not require much attention. Therefore option 4 is incorrect.
Question 21
Which of the following statements is (are) example(s) of inductive reasoning?
1. On the basis of high humidity, James states that it could rain later tonight
2. After making some observations at the crime scene, Detective Sherlock Holmes formed a
theory about who might have committed the crime
3. If Emily studies very hard, she will pass her psychology exam
4. 1 and 2

Reasoning: Inductive reasoning uses available evidence to generate a conclusion about the
likelihood of something.
Question 22
While reading through some material, James comes across the following syllogism:
“All angels are immortal.
Gabriel is an angel.
Therefore, Gabriel is immortal.”
The above statement is an example of ___ reasoning.
1. inductive
2. critical
3. deductive
4. analogical


Reasoning: Deductive reasoning refers to the process of drawing a conclusion that follows
logically from two or more statements or premises.
Question 23
When John came back from a party in the middle of the night, he found that the electricity was off in
the house and it was raining heavily. So, he struggled to open the door with the key since it was dark
in the doorway. Frustrated, John decided to try one by one, only the keys that could possibly open
the door and eventually managed to open it. In this case, John used ___ to open the door.
1. heuristic strategy
2. trial and error strategy
3. insight
4. inductive reasoning

Reasoning: People use a variety of methods to solve a particular problem. The trial-and-error
strategy involves trying out all the keys to open the door until the correct one is
found. Inductive reasoning does not apply here since it deals with generating a
conclusion about the probability of something happening. Therefore, option 4 is
incorrect. Option 3 is incorrect because insight relates to the comparison of new
solutions with old ones to solve a particular problem. Option 1 refers to the
heuristic strategy; this option is incorrect because in this case the heuristic strategy
would apply if John selected only the keys that are more likely to open the door.
Question 24
Your tutor asks your group to explain how informal reasoning differs from formal reasoning. One
student answers: “formal reasoning is logical whereas informal reasoning is illogical.” This answer is
___.
1. correct, because formal reasoning is based on premises and conclusions

2. correct, because formal reasoning is based on inductive and deductive reasoning
3. partially correct, because the difference lies in the topic under discussion
4. incorrect, the difference is that premises and conclusions are explicitly stated in formal
reasoning but usually not so in informal reasoning

Reasoning: The statement that “formal reasoning is logical whereas informal reasoning is
illogical” is incorrect. As a result, option 1 is incorrect because informal reasoning
because informal reasoning is also logical. Option 2 is incorrect because both formal
and informal reasoning are based on the premises and the conclusions. Option 3 is
also incorrect because both formal and informal reasoning may be inductive and/or
deductive in nature. Option 4 is the correct option because premises and
conclusions are explicitly stated in formal reasoning, which is not the case with
informal reasoning.

Question 25
Difficulties often arise when a person assesses a problem from one point of view only and does no t
look at alternatives. This is an example of ___.
1. restricted thinking
2. an emotional barrier to problem solving
3. a perceptual barrier to problem solving
4. 1 and 3

Reasoning: Emotional barrier refers to the fact that sometimes we are unable to solve
problems because of our emotions getting in the way of thinking clearly, i.e. the
fear of being embarrassed. Therefore option 2 is incorrect.
Perceptual barrier refers to the fact that we sometimes see only one aspect of a
problem and ignore others.
This is an example of restricted thinking – therefore option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 1
As a Psychology student, you are asked to explain to the mother why her daughter is having
difficulties at school while her friend who lives in the same community, is not. Your explanation is
based on the finding that children who are least likely to obtain similar scores on an intelligence test
are children who have ___.
1. the same genetic composition and are raised in similar environments

2. different genetic compositions and are raised in the same environment
3. the same genetic composition and are raised in different environments
4. different genetic compositions and are raised in different environments

Reasoning: The “nature versus nurture” debate highlights that people who are raised in a
similar environment tend to obtain similar scores in intelligence tests. This is
because they are exposed to the same stimuli. However, people who are raised in
different environments tend to obtain different scores because they are exposed to
different forms of stimuli. Heredity is also believed to make a major contribution to
intelligence. People who are closely related in terms of genetics were also shown to
obtain similar scores, for example identical and fraternal twins. They have the same
genes, look alike and are the same gender. Similar to other siblings, fraternal twins
share 50% of their genes and can be of different gender. As a result, test scores of
identical twins were shown to be more similar as compared to those of fraternal
twins. Option 4 is therefore the correct answer.
Question 2
Mrs Roberts is worried because her creative son, James, has been performing poorly at school. The
school principal suggests that James should take an intelligence test to determine his IQ level. Which

of the following is a possible explanation for the finding that highly creative people often do not
perform well on traditional tests of intelligence?
1. Performance on intelligence tests relies on convergent thinking

2. Creativity and intelligence are unrelated abilities
3. Creative people are convergent thinkers
4. Creative people do not have above average intelligence

Reasoning: Divergent thinking refers to the ability to produce unusual and unconventional
thoughts or solutions to problems. Creative people are divergent thinkers.
Therefore option 3 is incorrect.
Convergent thinking describes the thought process that produces conventional or
correct answers to problems. Performance on intelligence tests relies on
convergent thinking. Therefore option 1 is correct.
Creative thinking is related to intelligent thinking (although not being the same).
Therefore option 2 is false.
Most highly creative people have above average intellectual ability (Ochse, 1990) –
option 4 is therefore false.
Question 3
Machela is 13 years old. The intelligence test results show that Machela can perform all the tasks
designed for children of 14 years old, half of the tasks for children of 15 years old. Therefore,
Machela’s mental age is ___.
1. 13 years
2. 13 years, 6 months
3. 14 years

Reasoning: As Machela can perform all the tasks for a child of 14, we bank the number 14.
As she can do half the tasks of a 15-year old, we add half of the year (between 14
and 15), which is 6 months.
Therefore, Machela’s mental age is 14 years and 6 months.
Question 4
Which of the following statements about emotional intelligence is not true? People with high
emotional intelligence are able to ___.
1. manage their emotions well

2. recognise emotions in others
3. control impulses and delay gratification
4. understand the needs of others without necessarily knowing what motivates their own
behaviour


Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 4. Some of the qualities of emotionally
intelligent people include the ability to recognise emotions in others, control
impulses and delay gratification, and motivate themselves and keep on trying even
when they experience frustrations. Emotional intelligent people also have self-
awareness and recognise feelings as they happen.
Question 5
Which of the following is not associated with the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion?
1. The perception of physiological arousal is a necessary element after an emotion is

experienced
2. People think before they feel
3. The experience of an emotion involves interpreting physiological arousal with reference to
cognitive content
4. Primary and secondary appraisals are integral components of the experience of an emotion

Reasoning: The correct answer is option 1. The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion claims
that we experience emotions because of the way we think about a situation. This
means that we think about stimuli before we experience emotions. Our
interpretation of a situation informs the different emotions we experience. For
example, a person may experience fear after seeing a snake in the bedroom because
a snake is perceived to be poisonous. However, another person may feel relaxed
when they see a bird inside their bedroom because birds are perceived to be
harmless. Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect because they are associated cognitive
appraisal theory of emotion.
Question 6
Which one of the following criteria is incorrect for identifying primary emotions?
1. They must be evident in all cultures

2. They must contribute to the survival of the species
3. They must be evident in human species only
4. They must be associated with distinct facial expression

Reasoning: Primary emotions are the basic emotions experienced by people of different
cultures, age and religion throughout the world. For example, anger. Primary
emotions also contribute to the survival of human species and are associated with
distinct facial expression. Option 3 is incorrect because primary emotions should
also be evident in non-human species.
Question 7

A fellow student asks you to explain the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, and you decide to do
so by using a flow chart. Which of the following provides the correct sequence in the experience of
emotion?
1. Stimulation → arousal → cognitive appraisal → emotion

2. Stimulation → appraisal → differentiation of emotion → arousal
3. Stimulation → appraisal → differentiation of emotion → aroused behaviour
4. Stimulation → arousal → appraisal → emotion → appraisal → behaviour

Reasoning: This question requires you to identify the correct sequence of emotion according to
Schacter’s two-factor theory. Option 1 is the correct answer because when you
come across a snake (stimulus) you may either experience fear or not as a result of
your appraisal of the situation. For example, you may experience fear when the
snake is aggressive because you will appraise the situation as threatening. However,
you may experience relief when the snake crawls away from you. Therefore, you
will either run away or attack the snake when you experience fear. Or you will walk
freely after you’ve experienced relief.
Question 8
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct about motivation and emotions?
1. Both motivation and emotions activate behaviour

2. Motives are often accompanied by emotions
3. Emotions typically have motivational properties of their own
4. All of the above

Reasoning: Motivation and emotions are related concepts because they activate behaviour
(option 1). For example, a student will be motivated to study more because of the
joy associated with passing their first-year module. Motives are also accompanied
by emotions (option 2), for example, the motive to visit a new country may be
accompanied by anxiety and excitement. Emotions also have motivational
properties (option 3). For example, a student is motivated to focus on their studies
because they are passionate about the programme they are enrolled in. Therefore,
option 4 is the correct answer.
Question 9
What type of learning is traditionally classified as learning by association?
1. Social learning
2. Cognitive learning
3. Classical and operant conditioning
4. Observational learning


Reasoning: Operant conditioning is a form of learning by association. In operant conditioning

the learning that takes place depends on the consequences of the response that the
person makes, i.e. reward or punishment. At times, social learning also rests on
operant conditioning principles.
Question 10
The tutor asks the group about the difference between negative reinforcement and punishment.
Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
1. Leyla puts on her sunglasses to avoid the bright sunlight

2. Every time Sarah is cheeky, she is sent to her room
3. Themba did not do well in a test so his mother has reduced his television viewing time
4. Peter heard about a good restaurant but when he went there, he found that the food was
not good

Reasoning: In order to answer this question correctly you need to understand learning.
Negative reinforcement is the strengthening of a response that is followed by the
removal of an unpleasant stimulus. In this scenario, the sun is an unpleasant event
which is removed by putting on sunglasses. Therefore, option 1 is the correct
answer. Option 2 is incorrect because it is related to punishment. Punishment is a
process by which a consequence immediately follows a behaviour which decreases
the likelihood of that behaviour. In this case, Sarah is more likely to be respectful to
avoid being sent to her room.
Question 11
Michael’s parents have decided to punish him for using bad language at home and at school. They
decided to stop this behaviour by taking away 50 cents from his pocket money every time he swears.
Within a month Michael’s swearing has almost disappeared. What type of learning is illustrated in
this scenario?
2. Operant social learning
4. Social learning

person makes, i.e. reward or punishment.
Question 12
Which of the following is not by definition a learned perceptual-motor skill?
1. To pick up a glass of water, then a spoon and then a dish-cloth lying on the floor
2. To dive from a high diving-board

3. To get the soccer ball from the goalkeeper and pass it to the strikers
4. To cut a diamond to show off its beauty

Reasoning: Learned perceptual-motor skills are learned motor movements. They are skills that
involve muscle movements that are under perceptual control. Perceptual-motor
skills include deliberate mental processes in learning the skill which overtime
(through practice) becomes automatic. The execution of the actions involved in
diving from a high diving board (option 2), getting a soccer ball from the goalkeeper
and passing it to the strikers (option 3), and the cutting a diamond to show off its
beauty (option 4) all involve learned perceptual- motor skills that are sharpened by
practice. Option 1 is the correct answer because it is not a good example of a
perceptual-motor skill. To pick up a glass of water, then a spoon and then a dish-
cloth lying on the floor involves several actions that do not combine to form a single
integrated perceptual motor skill.
Question 13
Cindy ate bad sardines and now she feels nauseous whenever she sees a tin of sardines. Which of
the following describe(s) this state of affairs?
1. The sight of a tin of sardines acts as an unconditioned stimulus for becoming nauseous
2. Eating bad sardines was an unconditioned stimulus for becoming nauseous
3. Becoming nauseous at the sight of a tin of sardines is a classically conditioned response
4. 2 and 3

Reasoning: A conditioned response (option 1) takes place when someone associates a
conditioned stimulus (sight of a tin of sardines) with another stimulus (becoming
nauseous); therefore, option 1 is incorrect. Option 2 is also incorrect because an
unconditioned stimulus naturally triggers a response, for example, Cindy becomes
nauseous at the sight of a tin of sardines. In the above scenario, the sight of a tin of
sardines is an example of a conditioned stimulus eliciting the response of Cindy
becoming nauseous. It occurs naturally and it not learned. Option 3 is therefore the
correct answer.
Question 14
According to Bandura (1986), which of the following are the essential components to observational
learning?
a) Attention
b) Retention
c) Reproduction
d) Motivation
The correct answer is:
1. A and C
2. A, C, and D

3. A, B, and C
4. All of the above

Reasoning: There are four essential components to observational learning:
• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 15
The method of improving memory by summarizing aloud while you are learning is called ___.
1. rehearsal
2. recitation
3. whole learning
4. spaced practice

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 2 because recitation is a method used
to improve memory by summarising aloud while you are learning. This method is
also important for retrieving the information you are learning. The other options
are incorrect. Whole learning (option 3) refers to the method of learning the overall
scheme of what you need to learn instead of concentrating on separate parts.
Spaced practice (option 4) refers to the method used to alternate study sessions
with brief rest periods to ensure that you are paying attention to what you are
learning.
Question 16
The tutor asks you the name of the country that won the 2014 Fifa Soccer World Cup in Brazil and
you say: “I cannot think of the name now but I will remember it in a minute or so.” This indicates a
problem with ___.
1. recognition
2. retrieval
3. decay of information
4. storage of information

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 2 because retrieval failure occurs when
we cannot find cues or stimuli that helps us access our memories. You are more
likely to remember the country that hosted the FIFA world cup when you imagine
the activities you were engaged in during the world cup (recreating the context).
The other options are incorrect because recognition (option 1) refers to identifying
something from previous encounter. Decay of information (option 3) occurs when
we forget information that is too complex and not used over time. Storage of

information (option 4) involves holding or maintaining information in the memory

store.
Question 17
The term ___ refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information we have stored in
memory.
1. memory decay
2. forgetting
3. retrieval
4. interference

Reasoning: Information is processed in various ways in the memory. Option 1 is incorrect
because decay of information takes place when people forget things over time when
the physiological mechanisms responsible for memories fade away. Option 3 is also
incorrect because retrieval is a process of getting stored information out of memory.
Option 4 is also incorrect because interference takes place when other information
interferes with the memory process. Option 1 is the correct answer because
forgetting takes place when we are unable to retrieve information from our
memory.
Question 18
The ___ memory system refers to the store of explicit, factual information and ___ memory system
deals with actions, conditioned responses and implicit memories.
1. declarative, non-declarative
2. non-declarative, declarative
3. procedural, declarative
4. long-term, short-term

Reasoning: The declarative memory’s (option 1) function is to store explicit and factual
information, data, images and events. For example, your ability to understand the
concept of mathematics; another relevant example is when remember what you
wore last week and recall the events of a hurricane. Information regarding past
experiences is stored in the non-declarative memory. Ideas and concepts that are
not drawn from personal experience are processed in the semantic memory;
general knowledge for example, is stored in the semantic memory. Examples of
semantic memory are, understanding the difference between trees and flowers.
Temporarily storing information encoded as images or sound are stored in the
short-term memory. For example, you may hold on to a piece of information
temporarily in order to complete a task. Long-term memory is responsible for
storing explicit and factual information and events over long periods. Anything that
you can remember that took place more than a day, week or a year ago is stored in
the long-term memory. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 19
With regard to memory, the ___ monitors and regulates the information needed for reasoning and
problem solving.
1. visuospatial sketchpad
2. phonological loop
3. executive control system
4. long-term memory

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 3 because the executive control system
is responsible for controlling and regulating information needed for reasoning and
problem solving. Your ability to understand concepts is an example of the functions
of the executive control system. Option 1 is incorrect because the visuospatial
sketchpad is responsible for manipulating visual images. Option 2 is also incorrect
because the phonological loop is responsible for retrieval of verbal information. For
example, when someone verbally tells you his or her phone number, this is accessed
directly by the phonological loop in the form of a speech. Option 4 is also incorrect
because long-term memory is responsible for storing explicit and factual
information and events over long periods.
Question 20
You are about to call your friend when you hear the announcement of the weather report on TV.
After the report you realise that you are holding your cell phone in your hand but, you don’t
remember who you wanted to call and why. The reason that you forgot is due to ___.
1. ineffective selection of information

2. lack of rehearsal
3. poor organisation of information in memory
4. interference

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 4 because people forget information
when there is competition from other material that interferes with the memory
process. In this case, you were about to make a call to your friend and the weather
report interfered with your concentration. You therefore were unable to remember
who you wanted to call and why after you gave attention to the weather report. The
other options are incorrect. People can remember information by selecting key
words or important facts to provide cues for the information they need to
remember. They are however more likely to forget information when they select it
ineffectively (option 1). However, in this scenario you did not select the information
you wanted to remember when making a phone call. The more people rehearse
information the more likely they are to remember information. However, people are
more likely to forget information because of lack of rehearsal (option 2). However,
in this scenario you did not rehearse making a phone call. Memory skills are
improved by organising information into smaller and more manageable chunks.
Poor organisation (option 3) leads to forgetfulness. However, in this scenario you
did not organise information poorly.

Question 21
A person who is able to cope with stress by means of personal commitment, taking control over the
situation, and see challenges rather than problems, can be described as having ___.
1. stress response specificity

2. hardy personality
3. biological homeostasis
4. type A personality

Reasoning: Psychological hardiness refers to the tendency to commit ourselves, an aptitude for
challenges and the ability to take control over a situation.
Question 22
Which statement provides the best definition of the term, character?
1. the heredity aspects of a person’s emotional nature

2. stable qualities that a person shows in most situations
3. the individual characteristics that influence behaviour
4. a person’s values and the ability to behave according to those values

Reasoning: The word character has a narrower meaning than personality and refers to those
aspects of the personality involving the person’s values and his or her ability to
behave according to those values.
Question 23
Which of the following describes Cattell’s trait theory of personality?
1. The most important traits are motivational traits related to our values
2. Personality is made up of cardinal, central and secondary traits
3. Source traits represent an underlying personality characteristics
4. The core of human nature can be described in terms of five basic personality factors

Reasoning: Cattell observed that surface traits often appear in clusters or groups. Some traits
appeared together so often that they seemed to represent a more basic trait or
underlying personality characteristic, called a source trait.
Question 24
In terms of Psychoanalytic approach, personality is shaped by ___.
1. the power struggle between the id, ego and superego

2. attempts to keep a balance between self-image and actions

3. learning in the form of operant and classical conditioning
4. hereditary factors that accounts for individual differences in personality

Reasoning: The psychoanalytic approach sees personality as a dynamic system directed by three
mental structures – the id, the ego and the superego.
Question 25
Dimensions such as general activity level, sociability, impulsivity, and emotionality are part of ___ of
a person.
1. traits
2. character
3. temperament
4. self-esteem

Reasoning: Temperament has four main characteristics:
• general activity level
• emotionality
• sociability
• impulsivity

Question 1
You made notes during the discussion and when you look at your notes some time later, you wonder
whether you wrote down all the information correctly. Which of the following statements about the
nature of impulse conduction are correct? The process of impulse conduction ___.
A. comprises a basis for all human behaviour

B. can contribute to individual differences in behaviour
C. can explain all human behaviour
D. allows sensory energy to be conducted to the brain
E. communicates information from the external and internal environment
F. depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters
1. A, B, C, D, E, and F
2. C, E and F
3. A, B, and E
4. C, D, and F

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 65
Reasoning: All human behaviour is based on the complicated interactions among neurons in the
nervous system. Therefore, statement A is correct, eliminating options 2 and 4.

Impulse conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters (that

has excitatory or inhibitory effects), therefore statement F is correct.
Question 2
The process whereby an impulse moves much faster by jumping from node to node when travelling
through the myelin sheath is called ___.
1. myelination
2. nodes of Ranvier
3. saltatory conduction
4. speed

Reasoning: Impulses travel faster along axons that are myelinated because the impulse jumps
from node to node, instead of moving smoothly along the axon as in the case of un-
myelinated axons. In myelinated axons impulse conduction is known as salutatory
conduction and in un-myelinated axons, it is known as action potential conduction.
Question 3
When the electrical charge is strong enough to exceed the threshold, the resting membrane
potential is changed into ___.
1. absolute refractory period

2. action potential
3. synapse
4. postsynaptic potential

Reasoning: Action potential is what is triggered when the resting membrane potential is
achieved plus the threshold potential has been achieved.
Question 4
After discussing synaptic transmission, the tutor asks you to describe the effects of noradrenalin in
one sentence. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Noradrenalin is released by the sympathetic nerves and too much can lead to mania
2. People who experience seasonal depression have low levels of noradrenalin
3. A lack of noradrenalin can explain the decline in cognitive functioning seen in Alzheimer’s
disease
4. Noradrenalin is involved in the experience of pleasure and suppression of pain

Reasoning: Noradrenalin is released by the brain cells and sympathetic nerves as well as the
adrenal glands and has an excitatory effect. A lack of NA is associated with
depression and excess with mania.

Question 5
With regard to impulse conduction in the neuron, the resting membrane potential occurs when the
sodium ions are ___ charged and the potassium ions are ___ charged. The total electrical charge on
the inside of the membrane is ___.
1. positively, positively, negative

2. positively, negatively, negative
3. negatively, positively, negative
4. positively, positively, positive

Reasoning: To answer this question correctly, you need to understand the balance of ions in a
cell. Impulse conduction occurs due to the changes in electrical charge across the
cell membrane. Before a neuron can fire an impulse, there should be a difference
between the positive and negative ions inside and outside the neural membrane.
The outside of a cell membrane is positively charged with sodium ions because of a
high concentration of these ions. The potassium ions inside the neural membrane
are also positively charged but the total electrical charge on the inside of the
membrane is negative. This is because the fluid on the inside of the neural
membrane contains proteins and nucleic acid molecules that are negatively
charged. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 6
You are chased away by a large, mean dog on the street. When you are safe some distance away,
you stop to catch your breath. The physical symptoms that you now experience are controlled
mainly by ___.
1. sympathetic nervous system

2. central nervous system
3. neurotransmitters
4. parasympathetic nervous system

Reasoning: After a period of intense emotion, the parasympathetic nervous system allows
heart rate to slow, pupil size to return to normal and blood pressure to drop.
Question 7
Low serotonin level is associated with ___ just as an excess of dopamine is associated with ___.
1. muscle spasm, aggression

2. Schizophrenia, suppression of pain
3. mania, skeletal muscle contraction
4. seasonal depression, schizophrenia


Reasoning: Insufficiency of dopamine in the brain contributes to Parkinson’s disease; Excess
dopamine is associated with schizophrenia; Low serotonin levels is associated with
seasonal depression.
Question 8
What term is used to refer to the process whereby a postsynaptic potential is reinforced by action
potentials from the terminals of several axons reaching the same synapse simultaneously?
1. Spatial summation
2. Inhibition
3. Temporal summation
4. Excitation

Reasoning: Spatial summation occurs when a postsynaptic potential is reinforced by action
potentials from the terminals of several axons reaching the same synapse at more
or less the same time. The action potential is reinforced because more of the
neurotransmitter is released and accumulates in the synaptic cleft, strengthening
the postsynaptic potential.
Question 9
During the group discussion, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses continuously.
You say that this statement is ___.
1. correct, because neurons are never inactive

2. incorrect, because the resting potential has to be restored before another impulse can fire
3. incorrect, because impulses cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period
4. correct, because the refractory period prevents over-stimulation of the nervous system

Reasoning: During the absolute refractory period, the axon cannot conduct an impulse and the
neuron does not respond to any stimulus. Therefore options 1 and 4 are incorrect.
During the relative refractory period (towards the end of the refractory period), a
very intense stimulus can trigger an impulse. Therefore option 3 is incorrect.
Question 10
The hypothalamus is concerned with ___.
1. regulation of basic survival needs

2. memory
3. planning
4. relaying sensory information


Reasoning: If you have chosen option 2, you are probably confusing the hypothalamus with the
hippocampus, which plays an important role in memory. Option 3 is incorrect
because planning is a function of the frontal lobes in the brain. Option 4 is also
incorrect because it is the thalamus that is concerned with relaying sensory
information. The correct answer for this question is therefore, option 1.
Question 11
The tutor asks you to identify the correct statement about the brain. The correct statement is that
___.
1. both hemispheres have to work together for effective language use

2. the cerebral hemispheres are connected by the cerebral cortex
3. the left hemisphere regulates the logical and holistic organisation of information
4. the blood-brain barrier protects the brain from being bumped or injured.

Refer: A – Z of Psy, pg. 74
Reasoning: Language is processed mainly by the left hemisphere, but the right hemisphere also
plays a role in how language is used.
The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain, therefore option 2 is incorrect.
Question 12
Which of the following refers to the condition of breathing difficulties during sleep, whereby an
individual wakes up gasping for breath, and then goes back to sleep?
1. insomnia
2. catalepsy
3. sleep apnoea
4. narcolepsy

Reasoning: Knowing the characteristics of each type of sleep disorder will help you answer this
question. A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden collapse, whereby a
person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy therefore, option 2 is
incorrect. Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night,
gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is correct. Narcolepsy is
characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for few minutes,
therefore option 4 is incorrect.
Question 13
During group discussion you are asked to provide information about altered states of consciousness.
One student asks you whether sleep apnoea is a characteristic of narcolepsy. Your answer is ___.
1. no, because narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep

2. no, because insomnia is the main characteristic of narcolepsy
3. no, because narcolepsy is characterised by an inability to move
4. no, because sleep apnoea is a characteristic of insomnia


question. Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night,
gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Narcolepsy is characterised by an
overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for few minutes.
Question 14
When you wake up and clearly remember what you were dreaming about, what stage of sleep have
you woken up from?
1. phase 2 sleep
2. phase 3 sleep
3. phase 4 sleep
4. D-sleep

Reasoning: S-Sleep is characterised by restful sleep occurring in four phases. Phase 3 sleep is a
deeper form of sleep that is characterised by delta waves and people being very
relaxed. Option 2 is incorrect. Option 3 is incorrect because Phase 4 sleep is a very
deep sleep that is characterised by people being confused, having slurred speech
and poor motor co-ordination if they are woken up. Option 4 refers to D-Sleep
which is characterised by dreaming, as result when people are woken up they can
remember what they have dreamt about. Therefore, based on the description
Question 15
2. habituation
3. transduction
4. sensation

Question 16
Which of the following statement(s) refer(s) to the orienting reaction?
1. The orienting reaction occurs when a stimulus is recognised or given meaning


4. All of the above

stimulation.
Question 17
The theory that explains colour vision on the basis of red, green and blue retinal systems is called . . .
1. Hering theory
2. Retinex theory
3. Opponent-process theory
4. Trichromatic theory

Reasoning: The opponent-process theory explains colour blindness, a phenomenon that the
trichromatic theory or the retinex theory alone cannot explain. People with normal
colour vision have three kinds of iodopsin (red, blue and green), but most colour-
blind people have two kinds of iodopsin.
Question 18
A white shirt may look slightly grey when viewed in a shade, but you still perceive it as white. Which
type of perceptual constancy refers to this phenomenon?
1. Constant brightness
2. Constant form
3. Constant size
4. None of the above

Reasoning: Your knowledge of the characteristics of how objects appear in any situation refers
to perceptual constancy. In this example, we are not concerned with the size and
form of the shirt, therefore options 2 and 3 are incorrect. Option 1 is the correct
answer because even though the shirt may look slightly grey when viewed in the
shade, it is still perceived as white, this is a function of constant brightness.
Question 19
We have a tendency to group elements that are close together as though they represent a
meaningful figure. Which aspect of perceptual organisation is operative here?
1. Principle of closure
2. Perceptual constancy
3. Principle of symmetry
4. Principle of proximity


Reasoning: This question requires your knowledge about perceptual grouping. The tendency to
group elements that are close together as if they represent a particular figure is a
principle of proximity. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer. The principle of
closure (option 1) is incorrect because it refers to the tendency to complete
something so that it has a meaning. Perceptual constancy (option 2) is incorrect
because it refers to the process of perceiving objects as unchanging despite the
different conditions in which we perceive them. The principle of symmetry (option
3) is incorrect because it refers to the tendency of grouping elements in a way that
creates a balanced figure.
Question 20
You are walking past the garden when you notice a nice smell from the flowers. Your friend tells you
that your olfactory nerve has been triggered. Which sensory system does the olfactory nerve form
part of?
1. Proprioceptive system
2. Somaesthetic system
3. Auditory system
4. Chemical system

their movements and orientation in space. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect. The
auditory system is responsible for auditory information such as sound, therefore
option 3 is the incorrect option. Option 2 is also incorrect because somaesthetic
system has to do with sensations in the body, such a touch, pain and temperature.
It is the chemical system that helps us to differentiate various smells in our
environment. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.
Question 21
Michael drove over a red robot and was stopped by the traffic cop. He does not want to pay the fine
and pleads with the traffic cop: “If I pay the fine, my family will have nothing to eat for the whole
week. I still have to pay my electricity account. Please, help me out.” What kind of fallacious
reasoning is Michael using here?
1. Relying on group characteristics to gain support for his conclusion

2. False analogy
3. Playing on sympathy to support the conclusion
4. Trying to discredit the issue by discrediting the person who supports it
Question 22

What type of reasoning refers to the process of drawing a conclusion that follows logically from two
or more statements or premises?
1. Logical reasoning
2. Inductive reasoning
3. Critical reasoning
4. Deductive reasoning

logically from two or more statements or premises.
Question 23
Conceptual errors can lead to errors of thinking. Which of the following is not an example of such
conceptual errors?
1. All-or-nothing thought
2. Stereotypes
3. Prototypes
4. Oversimplification of complex concepts

Reasoning: Errors of thinking generally result from inaccurate use of concepts. One-
dimensional or all-or-nothing thought (option1), stereotypes (option 2) and
oversimplifying complex concepts (option 4) are examples of errors of thinking and
therefore these options do not provide the correct answer to the question. A
prototype (option 3) is a model of a concept and forming a prototype is an example
of conceptual thinking, but is not a form of thinking error. Therefore, option 3 is the
correct answer.
Question 24
Peter wants to see the movie at 20:00. He reasons that he must be in the queue around 19:30 to get
a seat. He also works out that it would take him about 15 minutes to find the parking slot and
another five minutes to walk from the parking to the movie house and 30 minutes to drive from his
home to the parking. So, he works out that he must leave home around 18:30 to get to the ticket
office on time. Which of the following heuristic methods did Peter apply to solve his problem of time
calculation?
1. analogic analysis
2. analysing the available means to attain the desired goal
3. analysing the steps necessary to attain the desired goal
4. checklist analysis


Reasoning: Analogical reasoning means that you infer patterns of relations between things. I.e.
to describe similarities and differences between two things or events. Therefore
option 1 is incorrect.
Question 25
Sarah’s baby cries a lot during the night and Sarah does not sleep well and cannot cope with her
daily work. What is the first thing Sarah should do to solve the problem?
1. Adopt a trial and error strategy until she finds a solution

2. Try the likeliest solution first
3. Recognise and define the problem
4. Decide on the advantages of different solutions

Reasoning: The first step in the process of problem solving is recognising and defining the
problem.

Question 1
The tutor discusses the concept of intelligence. After the discussion, the tutor asks the students to
show their understanding by answering the following questions. Which of the following statement(s)
about intelligence is (are) not correct?
A. Intelligence refers to the ability to adapt successfully to the demands of life

B. Intelligence can be measured objectively
C. What is regarded as intelligent behaviour various from one context to another
D. The concept of intelligence includes speed of task performance
1. A
2. A and D
3. B
4. C and D

Refer: PYC1501 Studyguide. Pg. 96
Reasoning: Each one of us has his or her own ideas of what it means to be intelligent. Perhaps
the ultimate test of intelligent behaviour is being able to cope successfully in your
particular situation. The different views of what constitutes intelligent behaviour
make it very difficult to measure intelligence. Performance on an intelligence test
provides an intelligence quotient (IQ) but the question still remains whether an IQ is
equal to one’s intelligence. Even psychologists do not agree on how to define
intelligence, how to explain exactly how it functions, or how it should be measured.
Therefore, intelligence cannot be measured objectively, and statement B is
incorrect.
Question 2

Another student states that when intellectual development is normal, an IQ increases gradually over
the lifespan. This statement is ___.
1. correct, because mental age increases with chronological age

2. incorrect, because IQ increases up to the age of sixteen and then decreases gradually
3. incorrect, because mental age and intellectual ability increase annually more or less up to
the age of sixteen
4. incorrect, because mental age increases more rapidly than chronological age

Reasoning: MA generally increases until the age of 16 and then it remains on the same level.
Question 3
The tutor asks you to identify the main difference between the theories of intelligence proposed by
Spearman and Thurston. Which of the following is correct?
1. Initially Thurston could not identify the existence of a general ability

2. Thurston identified more specific factors than Spearman
3. Thurston rejected the notion that intelligence is based on a general factor
4. Thurston singled out interpersonal skills as part of intelligence

Reasoning: Option 4 is incorrect, as it was Gardner that stated interpersonal skills were a part
of intelligence.
Thurston acknowledged that the primary mental abilities were related to a general
factor, therefore option 3is incorrect.
Initially Thurston believed that the specific factors were independent of each other,
but later acknowledged that mental abilities were related to a general factor.
Therefore option 1 is correct.
Question 4
Mrs Robertson is worried about her son’s progress at school. David is 9 years old. The results of
intelligence test indicate that David can pass all the test items passed by 8 year-old children, half of
the items passed by 9 year-old children and a quarter of the items passed by 10 year-old children.
The test results indicate ___.
A. David’s chronological age

B. that David’s mental age is 8 years
C. that David’s mental age is 8,9 years
D. an IQ of 98.8
E. that David is not intelligent
1. A, B, D, and E
2. A and C
3. C and D
4. A, C, D, and E


Reasoning: As David can perform all the tasks for a child of 8, we bank the number 8.
As he can do half the tasks of a 9-year old, we add half of the year (between 8 and
9), which is 6 months.
As he can do a quarter the tasks of a 10-year old, we add a quarter of the year
(between 9 and 10), which is 3 months.
Therefore, David’s mental age is 8 years and 9 months.
IQ = MA/CA x 100
(Mental age divide by chronological age) x 100
= 9,8/9 x 100
= 98,8
David’s chronological age is not the result of the test, therefore option A is
eliminated, eliminating alternatives 1, 2 and 4.
Question 5
To test your creativity, the tutor asks you to think of different possible uses of a pencil. You suggest
that a pencil could be used as a lever. This is an example of ___.
1. divergent thinking
2. cognitive complexity
3. convergent thinking
4. insight

thoughts or solutions to problems.
Convergent thinking describe the thought process that produces conventional or
correct answers to problems.
Question 6
Emotions are usually expressed in body language or non-verbally, whereby bodily gestures and facial
expressions are used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ component of emotions.
1. cognitive-perceptual
2. physiological
3. social
4. behavioural

Reasoning: This question requires you to understand the components of emotion. People
experience emotions as a result of their cognitive processes about the events in
their lives. This process is referred to as the cognitive-perceptual component of
emotion (option 1). For example, sky diving can be pleasurable for some people
while highly threatening for others. People experience physiological arousal
activating the body for action (e.g. fight or flight) when an emotion is experienced.
This process is referred to as the physiological component of emotion (option 2).

The correct answer is option 4 because emotions are expressed using bodily
gestures and facial expressions.
Question 7
According to the two-factor theory of emotion, the experience of emotion depends on ___.
1. autonomic arousal followed by cognitive interpretation of the arousal

2. interpretation of cognitive content followed by physiological arousal
3. using environmental cues to label emotions
4. 1 and 3
Answer: The correct answer is

Reasoning: According to the Two-factor theory of emotion, the experience of emotion depends
on the following factors, autonomic arousal and cognitive interpretation of that
arousal. This occurs when you attach meaning to a stimulus. For example, your
interpretation of the snake you see in your garden. Your interpretation of the
stimulus will then result in a physiological arousal. You may experience fear or relief
depending on whether you interpret the snake to be dangerous or not. Option 3 is
therefore the correct answer.
Question 8
Which of the following statement/s about emotions and motivation is/are not true?
1. Emotions and motivation are both triggered by some kind of stimuli

2. Emotions and motivation activate and affect behaviour
3. We can predict the kind of behaviour that can be produced by both emotions and
motivation
4. All of the above

Reasoning: All motives are triggered by some kind of stimulus. Like motives, emotions also
activate and affect behaviour, but it is difficult to predict the kind of behaviour that
a particular emotion will prompt, therefore option 3 is incorrect and therefore the
correct option, as the question refers to “incorrect”.
Question 9
Unfortunately, your children have done something bad and you want to punish them. Your friend
tells you that for punishment to be effective, it depends on three aspects. These are ___.
A. consistency
B. timing
C. spontaneity
D. intensity
1. A, B, and C
2. B, C, and D
3. A, B and D

4. A, C and D

Reasoning: The effectiveness of punishment depends on timing, consistency and intensity.
Question 10
Learning can be defined as ___.
1. any change in behaviour

2. a relatively permanent change in behaviour due to past experience
3. a permanent change in behaviour due to physical development
4. any change in behaviour caused by punishment

Reasoning: Learning is formally defined as a ‘relatively permanent change in behaviour due to
experience.’
Question 11
The effect of a conditioned stimulus can be extended to include other similar stimuli. After
conditioning, stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus may also trigger the same response.
In classical conditioning, this process is called ___.
1. stimulus discrimination
2. higher-order conditioning
3. stimulus generalization
4. a conditioned response

Reasoning: Stimulus generalization refers to the tendency to respond to similar but not
identical stimuli.
Stimulus discrimination is the opposite, where the person or animal that learned
the response does not respond with the same response to new and similar stimuli.
Question 12
In Classical conditioning, the term extinction refers to ___.
1. the situation that after conditioning, stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus may
trigger the same response
2. the reappearance of a response which seemed to have been extinguished
3. the process of discriminating or detecting differences among similar stimuli and only
responding to a specific stimulus
4. the disappearance of a previously learned response


Reasoning: The disappearance of a previously learned response is called extinction.
Question 13
You are teaching your dog to catch a ball and bring it back to you. On every third occasion that the
dog brings the ball back, you give him a biscuit as a reward. What kind of reinforcement schedule
this refers to?
1. Fixed interval schedule

2. Variable interval schedule
3. Fixed ratio schedule
4. Variable ratio schedule

Reasoning: An understanding of the different schedules of reinforcement will help you answer
this question. In operant conditioning, a fixed interval schedule (option 1) is
reinforcement that takes place for the correct response after a specific amount of
time has passed, therefore option 1 is incorrect. In the case of the scenario, the dog
receives a biscuit on every third occasion it brings the ball back. A variable ratio
schedule (option 4) is a reinforcement taking place after an unpredictable number
of responses. Variable ratio schedules create a high rate of response. Option 4 is
also incorrect. A variable interval schedule (option 2) consists of reinforcement that
is given for a response after different intervals of time have passed. A fixed ratio
schedule (option 3) is reinforcement that takes place after a fixed number of correct
responses. In the context of the scenario, the dog receives a reward in the form of a
biscuit on every third occasion that it brings the ball back. Therefore, option 3 is the
correct answer.
Question 14
In operant conditioning terms, reinforcement refers to ___.
1. the tendency to respond to similar but not identical stimuli

2. the unpleasant consequences of a response
3. the process that occurs when a pleasant or desirable reinforcer follows a response
4. the reappearance of a response which seems to have been extinguished

person makes, i.e. reward or punishment. A reinforcer is anything that follows a
response and increases the likelihood that the desired response will occur again –
i.e. a reward.
Question 15
Which of the following is true about short-term memory?
1. It has an unlimited storage capacity

2. It can store information for at least 30 minutes

3. It is affected by any interruption or interference
4. Once information is placed in STM, it is stored permanently

Reasoning: Temporarily storing information encoded as images or sound are stored in the
the long-term memory. Therefore options 1 and 4 are incorrect.
Question 16
Which memory system would Sarah use to demonstrate to her classmates on how to bake a cake?
1. Short-term memory
2. Working memory
3. Declarative memory
4. Procedural memory

Reasoning: Non-declarative memory (procedural or implicit) answers the question “how”.
Declarative (explicit) memory answers the question “what”.
Question 17
What term is used to describe the process whereby we forget things after a time because the
physiological mechanisms responsible for memories fade away?
1. Ineffective coding
2. Memory decay
3. Forgetting
4. Interference

Reasoning: Decay of information takes place when people forget things over time when the
physiological mechanisms responsible for memories fade away.
Question 18
You have studied the chapter on memory in details. Your tutor asks you the name of the part of the
brain involved in storing long term memories. You say, “I cannot think of the name now but I’ll
remember it in a minute or two.” This indicates a problem with . . .
1. retrieval
2. recognition


Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 1 because retrieval failure occurs
when we cannot find cues or stimuli that helps us access our memories. The other
options are incorrect because recognition (option 2) refers to identifying something
from previous encounter. Decay of information (option 3) occurs when we forget
information that is too complex and not used over time. Storage of information
(option 4) involves holding or maintaining information in the memory store.
Question 19
Which of the following are the methods to improve encoding of information in memory?
A. Elaboration, linking of one fact to other bits of information

B. Using visual imagery
C. Making information personally meaningful
D. Storing encoded information
1. A, C, and D
2. A, B and C
3. A, B, and D
4. B, C, and D

Reasoning: Elaboration (statement A), visual imagery (statement B) and ascribing meaning
(statement C) are strategies to improve memory.
Question 20
Mr Donald is a very competitive man. He strives for success and time is very important for him. He
also gets frustrated and impatient when other people do not do things his way. This is a description
of ___.
2. type B personality
4. 1 and 3

Reasoning: Type A individuals strive hard for success in everything they do. Time urgency,
chronic anger and hostility are obvious signs.
Question 21
The term ___ refers to manner in which people express and deal with their emotions.
1. character
2. personality
3. temperament

4. traits

Reasoning: Temperament (option 3) refers to people’s emotions and the ways in which they
express and deal with these emotions.
Character (option 1) refers to the personality aspects involving a person’s values
and their ability to behave according to those values.
Question 22
Which theoretical approach to personality development focuses on the unique qualities of people,
their freedom and potential for growth?
1. The behaviourist approach

2. The trait approach
3. The humanist approach
4. The psychoanalytic approach

Reasoning: The theoretical orientation of humanists focuses on the unique qualities of humans,
in particular their freedom and potential for growth.
Question 23
Sam’s personality test results indicate that he is an extrovert. Extroversion describes his . . .
1. temperament
2. personality type
3. character
4. self-concept

Reasoning: The correct answer is option 2 because a personality type refers to a collection of
personality traits thought to occur together consistently on a personality test. Carl
Jung proposed that a person is either an introvert or extrovert. The other options
are incorrect because temperament (option 1) refers to people’s emotions and the
ways in which they express and deal with these emotions. Character (option 3)
refers to the personality aspects involving a person’s values and their ability to
behave according to those values. Self-concept (option 4) involves people’s ideas,
perceptions and feelings about who they are.
Question 24
Which of the following describe(s) Cattell’s source trait theory of personality?
1. an important aspect is the way traits are organised or related to each other
2. people have cardinal, central and secondary traits
3. source traits represent an underlying personality characteristic

4. 1 and 3

Question 25
If you describe your friend as sociable, friendly, and easy to get along with, what personality
approach are you using?
1. Humanistic approach
2. Trait approach
3. Behavioural approach
4. Biological approach

Reasoning: Trait theories of personality are more concerned with describing people in terms of
traits than explaining the origins of traits.
Semester 1 - 2016: Assignment 01 (Unique number: 713558)

Question 1
During impulse conduction the resting membrane potential occurs when the sodium ions are ___
charged and the potassium ions are ___ charged. The total electrical charge on the inside of the
membrane is ___.


Question 2

In the myelinated neuron, the myelin sheaths are separated by a small gap called ___ that facilitates
the neural impulse to jump from one point to another.
1. synaptic cleft
2. nodes of ranvier
3. bouton terminal
4. telondenron

Reasoning: The gaps (approximately 1 micrometer wide) formed between myelin sheath cells
along the axons are called Nodes of Ranvier. Since fat serves as a good insulator, the
myelin sheaths speed the rate of transmission of an electrical impulse along the
axon.
Question 3
The tutor asks you to provide an example of a person whose behaviour is the result of autonomic
homeostasis. Your answer is that a person who ___ is dominated by autonomic homeostasis.
1. is very tense and cannot concentrate well

2. sleeps well, is efficient at work and can deal with tension
3. has low blood pressure and digestive problems
4. has poor motivation and concentration difficulties

Reasoning: A person who is autonomically balanced would have a moderate level of tension,
reactions would be appropriate, and concentration drive and motivation would be
good.
Option 1 refers to a person who has sympathetic dominance, and options 3 and 4
refers to a person with parasympathetic dominance, neither of which is
autonomically balanced (in a state of autonomic homeostasis)
Question 4
The term spatial summation refers to ___.
1. the deactivation of neurotransmitters by enzymes in the synaptic cleft

2. the effect of impulses arriving from different axons fibres at the same synapse to reinforce a
postsynaptic potential
3. increased frequency of firing that triggers the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic
cleft
4. the effect of successive impulses in the same axon to reinforce a postsynaptic potential



Question 5
The function of the ___ lobes is to help people recognize elements of an object in the visual field and
integrate them into meaningful patterns.
1. frontal
2. temporal
3. parietal
4. occipital

The occipital lobe is responsible for the perception of vision. This is the correct
option.
Question 6
The electrical charge resulting from the difference between the positive and negative ions outside
and inside the cell membrane results in ___.

2. a threshold
3. the refractory period

Reasoning: The resting membrane potential is an electrical charge brought about by the
difference between the positive and negative ions inside and outside the neuron.
This is also called a condition of readiness.
Question 7
Which term refers to the period whereby no impulse can be generated, even with intense
stimulation?
1. Absolute refractory period

2. Action potential
3. Relative refractory period
4. Resting membrane potential


Reasoning: During the refractory period the membrane returns the sodium and potassium ions
to their original states. At the beginning of the refractory period the neuron does
not respond to any stimulus. This is called the absolute refractory period.
Question 8
The relationship between emotion and autonomic physiological arousal forms the basis for the use
of a polygraph (lie detector) test. A polygraph ___.
1. measures the lies told by the person being tested

2. records psychological changes in relation to the lies being told
3. makes people to respond differently during questioning
4. monitors the physiological changes when a person lies

Reasoning: A polygraph, popularly referred to as a lie detector, measures and records several
physiological indices such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin
conductivity while a person is asked and answers a series of questions.
Question 9
Your tutor asks what determines whether a neurotransmitter will have an inhibitory or excitatory
effect. One student answers that it depends on the nature of the neurotransmitter. This statement
___.
1. does not provide the correct answer because it is too vague

2. is correct because the effect depends on the quantity of the neurotransmitter in relation to
the enzyme that destroys it
3. is partially correct, because other factors also play a role
4. is incorrect because the effect depends on the ratio of inhibitory to excitatory
neurotransmitters in a specific synapse

Reasoning: Whether a neurotransmitter has an excitatory or inhibitory effect depends on:
it
Question 10
The neurotransmitter called ___ is released by the sympathetic nerves and acts on the heart, blood
vessels, large skeletal muscles and accelerates metabolism.
1. acetylcholine
2. serotonin

3. endorphin
4. adrenalin

Reasoning: Adrenalin increases the heart rate and the contraction of blood vessels, skeletal
muscles and heart muscle. It also speeds up metabolism and the release of glucose
into the blood.
Question 11
After your group watched the movie called “Insomnia”, Susan tends to fall asleep during group
discussion and one group member asks why Susan falls asleep. You explain to the group that Susan is
suffering from the sleep disorder called ___.
1. catalepsy
2. sleep apnoea
3. insomnia
4. narcolepsy

person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy (option 1). Insomnia is
characterised by an inability to fall asleep (option 3). Sleep apnoea is marked by a
condition of waking up mostly at night, gasping for breath and then going back to
sleep (option 2) Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that
usually lasts for a few minutes, therefore option 4 is correct.
Question 12
The phenomenon of Rapid Eye Movement (REM) occurs during ___.
1. D-sleep, in which dreams usually occur

2. phase 2 of sleep, whereby brain wave frequencies are mixed
3. phase 3 of sleep, in which autonomic activity slows down
4. Phase 4 of sleep, in which delta brain waves are high

Reasoning: During D-sleep there are rapid eye movements. Even though the eyes are closed.
This is the type of sleep where dreaming most often takes place.
Question 13
You explain to your fellow students on myUnisa group-site that the main effect of a depressant is to
decrease arousal level. One group member asks for an example of a depressant and you say that ___
is an example of a depressant.
1. cocaine

2. marijuana
3. caffeine
4. alcohol

Reasoning: The two most common types of depressants are alcohol and tranquilisers.
Question 14
The tutor gives your group a task to explain what problem-solving is. Which of the following
statements should be included in the explanation?
A. Problem solving requires two phases to successfully solve a problem

B. Problem solving is a process with distinct steps and various strategies
C. Problems are universal and it does not matter how the problem is defined
D. Each potential solution to a problem may give rise to other problems
1. A, B, and C
2. A, B, and D
3. B, C, and D
4. All of the above

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp.1-4
Reasoning: Problem solving start with a recognition that there is a problem, followed by a
definition of the problem. A clear definition is necessary, therefore alternative C is
incorrect, thus eliminating options 1, 3 and 4
Question 15
Which of the following is not an example of visual representation as a form of thinking?
1. Recognising an actor you once saw in another movie

2. Remembering a love song you heard on the radio
3. Remembering how you got lost and how you had to follow road signs to your friend’s house
4. Using visual cues to make meaning such as in public places

Reasoning: The actor was “seen” (option 1), the road signs were seen (option 3) and visual cues
(option 4) relates to seeing. Therefore option 2 (hearing) does not relate to visual
representation.
Question 16
Critical reasoning consists of a variety of attitudes, procedures and skills. Which one of the following
cannot be seen as part of critical reasoning?
1. Identifying the problem

2. Being open-minded about an issue under consideration
3. Finding the one right answer
4. Developing collective thinking in a task-oriented group


Reasoning: Critical reasoning involves identifying the problem correctly (option 1) and being
open minded about alternative explanations to a problem (option 2). Another
source of critical reasoning is collective thinking (option 4) that involves not making
decisions on your own. Options 1, 2 and 4 describe critical reasoning but since the
question asks which option does not pertain to critical reasoning, these options do
not provide the correct answer. Critical reasoning requires one to deal precisely and
accurately with information yet remain open to new ideas and approaches.
Assuming that there is just one right answer goes against the definition of critical
reasoning. This is because critical reasoning by definition implies that there is
seldom one right answer. Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.
Question 17
Once in a while, all of us engage in inner speech. Which one of the following statements indicates
inner speech?
1. James thinks angry: “If I had listened, then I would not be in this mess today”
2. Peter shouts at John: “Do as you please, but don’t blame me when things go wrong”
3. Cindy sadly tells her friend: “I’ll never see my darling Jimmy ever again”
4. Jack reads: “The recent incidence of xenophobia in South Africa has left many foreign
nationals homeless”

Reasoning: Inner speech is the silent expression of conscious thought to oneself in a coherent
linguistic form.
Question 18
David wants to see the movie at 20:00. He reasons that he must be in the queue at about 19:00 to
get a front seat ticket. He also works out that it will take him about 15 minutes to find a parking bay
and another 5 minutes to walk from the parking area to the cinema and 30 minutes to drive from his
home to the cinema. So, he works out that he must leave home around 18:00. Which of the
following heuristic methods did David apply to calculate the exact time?
1. Analogical analysis
2. Analysing the steps necessary to attain the desired goal
3. Analysing the available means to attain the desired goal
4. Checklist analysis

Question 19

Sara’s baby cries a lot at night with the result that Sarah does not sleep well and cannot cope with
her daily work and studies. What is the first thing that Sarah should do to deal with the situation?
1. She should adopt a trial-and-error strategy until she finds a solution

2. She should recognise and define the problem
3. She should try the most likely solution first
4. She should decide on the advantages of different solutions

problem.
Question 20
An artist wants to design an advertisement to attract people into buying a certain brand of clothes.
He thinks that the advertisement will attract attention if he uses rap music to convey the message.
He asks for your opinion. You say that the advertisement ___.
1. would attract attention if it is inherently interesting and of personal importance

2. would attract the right kind of attention, because rap music is loud and unusual
3. may not attract attention because rap music is too repetitive
4. all of the above

Reasoning: Options 3 and 4 are opposites, therefore option 4 is incorrect.
Question 21
Which one of the following statements relates to the orienting reaction?

4. The brain’s ability to process incoming information rapidly and below the awareness level

stimulation.
Question 22
All of us become accustomed to the continuous ticking of a clock, so that in time we no longer hear
it. When for some other reason the clock stops ticking we become aware of it. This increased
awareness can best be explained in terms of ___.
1. dishabituation following habituation

2. habituation followed by dishabituation
3. stimulus change following dishabituation
4. orienting reaction following dishabituation


Reasoning: Habituation refers to the disappearance of ORs after repeated stimulation of the
event that initially triggered them. However, if the stimulation that initiated the ORs
then re-appears in a slightly different situation, the OR is triggered again and this is
called dishabituation.
Question 23
Which type of perceptual constancy explains the fact that a piece of charcoal is always black,
whether you look at it in the light or in the shadow?
1. constant brightness
2. constant colour
3. constant form
4. constant size

shape of the charcoal, therefore options 3 and 4 are incorrect. Option 2 is the
correct answer because even though the charcoal may look slightly different when
viewed in the shade, it is still perceived as black, this is a function of constant colour.
Question 24
Your groupmate on myUnisa asks for your help in organising the information on sensation and
perception in a logical sequence. Which of the following sequence is correct?
1. Stimulus received on the retina → nerve impulses sent to the brain → threshold crossed →
perceptual constancy
2. Sensory information sent to the brain → information is organised → meaning given
3. Sensory stimulus → transduction → monitoring → perceptual constancy
4. Sensory stimulus → transduction → increase in conscious awareness → perceptual
constancy

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 295-298
Reasoning: Refer to Sensation and Perception in A-Z of Psy.
Question 25
When sensory information is received in the brain, the process of interpreting and making meaning
from sensory information is called ___.
1. sensation
2. adaptation
3. transduction
4. perception


Reasoning: Sensation refers to the process of receiving sensory information from the
environment. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect. Option 2 is also incorrect because if a
receptor cell keeps on receiving stimulation, the generator potential decreases to
prevent overstimulation, and this leads to the process of adaptation. Transduction
describes a process whereby the receptors transform one form of energy to
another. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect. Option 4 is the correct answer because the
process of interpreting and making meaning from sensory information is called
perception.

Question 1
The highest positive correlation between IQ scores is between ___.
1. fraternal twins that are raised in similar environments

2. identical twins that are raised in similar environments
3. identical twins that are raised in different environments
4. fraternal twins that are raised in different environments

Question 2
Which one of the following statements about the nature of intelligence is incorrect?
1. Intelligence can be measured objectively

2. The concept of intelligence includes speed on task performance
3. Intelligence refers to the ability to adapt successfully to the demands of life
4. What is regarded as intelligent behaviour varies from one context to another


Therefore, intelligence cannot be measured objectively, and option 1 is the
incorrect statement.
Question 3
According to Spearman’s theory, performance in intellectual tasks is determined by ___.
1. multiple intelligences
2. heredity
3. a general intellectual ability
4. 1 and 2

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 3. Spearman is the first person to
suggest that people’s intellectual ability is explained by the general intellectual
ability, also abbreviated as the “g factor”. The g factor refers to the broad mental
capacity influencing performance on cognitive ability measures. Option 1 is incorrect
because the concept of multiple intelligence was introduced by Gardner because he
believed that there are eight separate kinds of intelligence. Option 4 is thus also
incorrect.
Question 4
Which one of the following statements about emotions and motivation is incorrect?

motivation

Question 5
Which one of the following is not associated with the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion?

experienced
2. The experience of an emotion involves interpreting physiological appraisal with reference to
cognitive content


example, a person may experience fear after seeing a snake in the bedroom because
a snake is perceived to be poisonous. However, another person may feel relaxed
when they see a bird inside their bedroom because birds are perceived to be
harmless. Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect because they are associated cognitive
Question 6
Which of the following is an example of the way emotions can contribute to individual differences?
1. The people you work with influence your opinions

2. You develop a headache whenever music is played too loud
3. You are very shy and don not mix easily with other people
4. As a child you loved going to the park and now every time you hear the music played in the
park, you become happy
Question 7
According to the Two-Factor theory of emotion, which of the following provides the correct
sequence in the experience of emotion?
1. Stimulation → Primary appraisal → Differentiation of emotion → Physiological arousal

2. Stimulation → Arousal → Differentiation of emotion →Behaviour
3. Stimulation→ Arousal → Appraisal → Emotion → Behaviour
4. Stimulation→ Emotion → Arousal → Label/Appraisal → Behaviour

you may experience relief when the snake crawls away from you. Therefore, you will
either run away or attack the snake when you experience fear. Or you will walk
Question 8
Michael’s parents are worried because Michael is bullying other children at school. The parents
therefore, decide to stop this behaviour by taking 50 cents off Michael’s pocket money every time

he bullies someone. Within a month Michael’s bullying behaviour disappeared. What type of
learning is illustrated in this scenario?
1. Operant learning
4. Classical learning

Question 9
Your child has done something wrong and you want to punish him/her. Your friend tells you that for
punishment to be effective, it depends on three aspects. These are ___.
A. consistency
B. spontaneity
C. timing
D. intensity
1. B, C, and D
2. A, B, and D
3. A, C, and D
4. A, B, and C

Question 10
Which of the following is not one of the principles of classical conditioning?
1. Reinforcement
2. Higher order conditioning
3. Stimulus generalisation
4. Punishment

Reasoning: Options 1, 2and 3 are principles of classical conditioning.
Question 11
What kind of learning is traditionally classified as learning by association?

1. Social learning
4. Discovery learning

Question 12
dog brings the ball back, you give him a biscuit as a reward. What kind of reinforcement schedule are
you using?


schedule (option 4) is a reinforcement taking place after an unpredictable number of
responses. Variable ratio schedules create a high rate of response. Option 4 is also
incorrect. A variable interval schedule (option 2) consists of reinforcement that is
given for a response after different intervals of time have passed. A fixed ratio
correct answer.
Question 13
Which of the following is not an example of a learned perceptual-motor skill?

3. To get the rugby ball from the scrum and pass it to the fly-half


diving from a high diving board (option 1), getting a rugby ball from the scrum and
passing it to the fly-half (option 3), and the cutting a diamond to show off its beauty
(option 4) all involve learned perceptual- motor skills that are sharpened by
Question 14
Based on the four components of observational learning by Bandura (1986, in Van Deventer &
Mojapelo-Batka, 2013), you observe your supervisor making a cappuccino. Then you make a mental
picture in your memory so that you can do the same. This is an example of ___.
1. retention; reproduction
2. attention; reproduction
3. motivation; retention
4. attention; motivation

Reasoning: Attention: you must pay attention to the model’s behaviour
Retention: you must save a mental representation of what you have observed
Reproduction: you must be able to reproduce the observed behaviour
Motivation: you must be motivated to reproduce the behaviour (want to do the
same).
Question 15
Your tutor asks you the name of the country that won the Copa America Soccer Cup held in Chile in
2015 and you say, “I cannot think of the name now but I’ll remember it in a minute or so.” This
indicates a problem with ___.
1. recognition
2. retrieval

Reasoning: Retrieval describes the process of getting stored information out of memory.
Question 16
Remembering how to swim many years after you first learned to swim is an example of ___.
1. encoding

2. explicit memory
3. episodic memory
4. procedural memory

Reasoning: Non-declarative or procedural memory deals with actions. Perceptual motor-skills,
conditioned responses and implicit memories. It deals with “how”.
Explicit or declarative memory deals with “what”, or explicit, factual information.
Question 17
One of the easiest ways to recall a cell phone number is to use ___.
1. long-term knowledge

Reasoning: The phonological loop allows access to verbal information or sounds. I.e. if you
wanted to recall a telephone number, it would be accessed by the phonological
loop.
Question 18
Which one of the following is not a strategy to improve memory and make encoding effective?
1. Elaboration
2. Visual imagery
3. Executive control system
4. Ascribe meaning

Reasoning: Options 1, 2 and 4 is strategies to improve memory.
Question 19
Which one of the following represents the most correct sequence on the phases of memory?
1. Sensory information sent to the brain - information organised - meaning stored

2. Retrieval of raw information - encoding information - storage into general knowledge
3. Coding information - storing of memory cues - rehearsal of coded memory
4. Information encoded - encoded information stored - accessing stored information by
retrieval

Reasoning: Memory involves three phases, 1) encoding, 2) storage and 3) retrieval.

Question 20
Which of the following is an example of information stored in semantic memory?
1. John vividly recalls his first day at school and what his teacher looked like
2. Peter knows that South Africa has nine provinces
3. Sarah knows the rules of arithmetic
4. Thandeka knows what formula should be used to calculate the area of a circle

Reasoning: Semantic memory refers to the store of general knowledge, such as who is
president of the country, as well as the meaning of words and the relation between
words and concepts.
Question 21
According to research, people with ___ personalities are at high risk for developing coronary heart
disease.
1. Type A
2. Type B
3. Hardy
4. 1 and 3

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 1. People with type A personalities
have high risk for developing coronary heart disease. Some of the factors
contributing to people with type A personalities to develop coronary heart disease
include their chronic anger and hostility, they push themselves too hard, they also
bottle their emotions and not express them. This increases their heart rate and
blood pressure which places a heavy strain on the heart. The other options are
incorrect because people with Type B and hardy personalities are resistant to stress.
Question 22
The ___ approach to personality is based on the idea that behaviour is shaped by the wishes, desires
and feelings that people are unaware of.
1. behaviourist
2. biological
3. humanist
4. psychoanalytic

Reasoning: The central theme of Freud’s theory is that behaviour is the outcome of wishes,
dreams and feelings that people are unaware of.
Question 23

Which of the following relates to the emotional aspects of an individual’s biological and
psychological self and forms the raw material of the individual’s personality?
1. Self-concept
2. Traits
3. Temperament
4. Character

Reasoning: Temperament focuses on the emotional aspects of a person’s biological and
psychological self and may be referred to as the raw material from which
personality is formed.
Question 24
Which statement provides the best definition of personality?
1. An individual’s value and his ability to behave according to those values

2. The hereditary aspects of a person’s emotional nature
3. Stable qualities that a person shows in various situations
4. A person’s evaluation of himself or herself

Reasoning: Option 4 refers to self-esteem.
Option 3 refers to traits.
Option 1 refers to character.
Question 25
1. An important aspect is the way traits are organised or related to each other
2. People have cardinal, central and secondary traits
3. Source traits represent an underlying personality characteristic
4. 1&3


Question 1
You walk into the local bakery and you are overwhelmed by the delicious smell of freshly-baked
cookies. After some time, you no longer notice the smell of cookies. This is because receptor cells
get tired of firing in response to continuous presentation of a stimulus. This process is called ___.

1. habituation
3. transduction
4. sensation

Question 2
You are walking down the street when suddenly you see a mean, vicious dog running towards you.
You start panicking and your knees are shaking, your pupils dilate and your heart beats faster. These
symptoms that you experience are controlled mainly by the ___.


Reasoning: When an emotion is experienced, arousal increases and the sympathetic nervous
system activates the body for emergency action.
Question 3
Which one of the following statements about noradrenaline is correct?
1. Noradrenalin is released by the sympathetic nerves and speed up the metabolism and the
release of glucose into the blood
2. A lack of noradrenalin can explain the decline in cognitive functioning seen in Alzheimer’s
disease
3. Noradrenalin is involved in the experience of pleasure and suppression of pain
4. People that experience depression and mania have low levels of noradrenalin

depression and excess with mania.
Option 1 refers to adrenalin.
Option 3 refers to endorphins.
Option 2 refers to acetylcholine.
Question 4
Which one of the following statements about the brain is correct?

1. Both hemispheres have to work together for effective use of language

2. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by the cerebral cortex
3. The left hemisphere regulates the logical and holistic organisation of information
4. The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from being bumped

Question 5
A low serotonin level is associated with ___ whereas a low level of dopamine is associated with ___.
1. muscular spasms; seasonal depression

2. seasonal depression; Parkinson’s disease
3. suppression of pain; aggression
4. mania; Alzheimer’s disease

Reasoning: Insufficiency of dopamine in the brain contributes to Parkinson’s disease; Low
serotonin levels is associated with seasonal depression.
Question 6
People with damage to the ___ can hear the words spoken to them but the words have no meaning
for them.
1. frontal lobe
2. temporal lobe
3. parietal lobe
4. occipital lobe

understand spoken words. This option is therefore correct.
The occipital lobe is responsible for the perception of vision. This option is therefore
incorrect.
Question 7
The term temporal summation refers to ___.

cleft

Question 8
The tutor explains the nature of impulse transmission and asks you to complete the following
sentence:
Stimulus intensity is to impulse frequency as ___ is to the amplitude of the impulse.
1. diameter of the nerve fibre

2. conduction speed
3. intensity of light stimulus
4. a synapse

can vary with nerve fibres of different thickness.
Question 9
The tutor discusses the characteristics and the effects of neurotransmitters. Which of the following
statements about neurotransmitters is incorrect?
1. Curare causes paralysis because it functions as an antagonist which suppresses the action of
acetylcholine
2. High levels of acetylcholine may explain deteriorating cognitive functions in Alzheimer’s
disease
3. Seasonal depression is associated with low level of noradrenaline in the brain
4. High levels of dopamine is associated with schizophrenia

depression and excess with mania. An excess of dopamine is believed to be
associated with schizophrenia.

Question 10
You made some notes during the discussion on impulse conduction, but later, you wonder whether
you wrote down all the information correctly. Which of the following statements about the nature of
impulse conduction are correct? The process of impulse conduction ___.
A. comprises a basis for all human behaviour

B. can contribute to individual differences in behaviour
C. can explain all human behaviour
D. allows sensory energy to be conducted to the brain
E. communicates information from the external and internal environments
F. depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters
1. A, B, and E
2. C, E, and F
3. C, D, and F
4. A, B, C, D, E, and F

Reasoning: All human behaviour is based on the complicated interactions among neurons in the
nervous system. Therefore, statement A is correct, eliminating options 2 and 3.
Impulse conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters (that
has excitatory or inhibitory effects), therefore statement F is correct, thereby
eliminating option 1.
Question 11
Opiate drugs are ___ and work by ___ in the body.
1. stimulants - decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

2. depressants - producing drowsiness and insensitivity to pain
3. stimulants - mimicking other drugs
4. hallucinogens - increasing the release of dopamine

Reasoning: This question refers to different types of drugs and their effects in the body. Opiates
are the drugs that act as the depressants on the nervous system. Depressants
decrease a person’s physiological arousal levels by producing drowsiness and
insensitivity to pain. Option 2 provides the correct answer. Stimulant drugs increase
alertness, produce a pleasant feeling and activate motivational centres in the brain
by inhibiting (or depressing) the activities of other neurons. They also mimic the
activities of other drugs. This option is therefore, incorrect. A hallucinogen leads to
distorted sensory experiences and is associated with serotonin. Therefore, option 4
is also incorrect.
Question 12
John experienced a sudden collapse. He was awake when his friend called him but John could not
move. John is suffering from a sleep disorder called ___.

1. catalepsy
2. insomnia
3. sleep apnoea
4. narcolepsy

correct. Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep, therefore option 2 is
gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is also incorrect.
Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for
few minutes, therefore option 4 is incorrect.
Question 13
One of your groupmate on myUnisa gives a brief description on the nature of sleep. After the
description the tutor thanks the student but says that three statements are incorrect. The tutor then
asks you to identify the correct statement about sleep.
1. During sleep, people do not respond to things happening around them

2. Dreaming occurs during the fourth stage of S-sleep
3. The function of S-sleep is to allow the brain to re-organise information and prevent overload
4. Sleep deprivation can lead to deterioration in cognitive functioning

Reasoning: Options 2 and 3 are obviously incorrect. Option 2 is incorrect because dreaming
occurs during D-sleep. Option 3 is also incorrect because the function described
relates to REM or D-sleep and not S-sleep. Option 1 is a little tricky. Although many
people sleep very soundly, they are not necessarily “out of touch” with the
surrounding environments and they can be woken up by loud noise or other events
in the environment. Therefore, option 1 is also incorrect. The correct answer is
provided by option 4 because sleep deprivation can have a detrimental effect on
cognitive functioning, such as concentration and thinking.
Question 14
Formal conceptual hierarchies are based on the exact definitions about attributes in an objective
sense. For example, an extreme emotion of sadness is usually expressed in crying. This is the ___ of a
concept.
1. denotative meaning
2. conceptual rule
3. connotative meaning
4. 1&3


Reasoning: Denotative meaning = based on exact definitions or agreements about attributes in

an objective sense.
Connotative meaning = personal meanings of concepts – therefore subjective and
not universally agreed.
As extreme sadness being expressed by crying is a more universal concept, this is a
denotative meaning.
Question 15
Which one of the following statements is an example of inductive reasoning?
1. After observing the dark clouds forming, John states that it could rain later tonight
2. Sipho is training very hard for the marathon. He will win the race
3. Emily studies very hard until late at night. She will pass her psychology exam
4. Driving at 120 kilometres per hour, James will reach his destination soon

Question 16
The tutor asks you to think of different possible uses for an old car tyre. You suggest that an old car
tyre could be used as a flowerpot in the garden. This is an example of ___.
4. insight

Question 17
Sipho has been recruited to the National Rugby team. Sipho and his personal trainer are planning
about the different skills that Sipho should include during the training that would allow him to
produce a coordinated performance on the field. This verbal plan is an example of ___.
1. discovery learning
2. a cognitive map
3. the cognitive component of a perceptual-motor skill
4. an intellectual skill

Question 18
In order to help the students understand the process of reasoning, the tutor uses the following
example: “Thoughts are like a string of wires connected to the computer. Each piece of wire has its
own function that contributes to the whole process of typing and reading. Our thoughts work the
same way.” This is an example of ___.
1. critical reasoning, because it critically analyses the different functions of each thought
2. inductive reasoning, because it is based on the probability of an event occurring
3. analogical reasoning, because it demonstrates the similarities between the concepts
4. deductive reasoning because it is based on logical reasoning that if the premise is true, then
the conclusion must also be true

Reasoning: We use analogical reasoning to find patterns in events. It describes similarities and
differences.
Question 19
During your group discussion on myUnisa, Peter says that he understands why some people tend to
steal in order to make a living. Upon reading this, Susan then claims that Peter is in favour of
stealing. What kind of reasoning fallacy is displayed by Susan?
1. Using a slightly changed version of someone else’s point of view as a basis for reasoning
2. Trying to discredit the issue by discrediting the person who supports the issue
3. Playing on someone’s sympathy to get something done
4. Relying on the characteristics of a certain group to gain support for a particular conclusion

Reasoning: The error in reasoning here is that Peter was expressing his understanding of some
others who stealing order to make a living, and is not necessarily in favour of
stealing.
Question 20
People have a tendency to group elements that are close together as though they represent a
meaningful figure. This is a principle of ___.
1. closure
3. symmetry
4. proximity


something so that it has a meaning. The principle of symmetry (option 3) is incorrect

because it refers to the tendency of grouping elements in a way that creates a
balanced figure.
Question 21
Which one of the following statements about attention is correct?
1. Attention is an automatic process that takes place below the level of awareness
2. People cannot attend to more than one thing at a time
3. There are internal and external determinants of attention
4. Parallel processing is easier when both tasks require an individual to pay close attention

Question 22
from sensory information is called ___.
1. perception
2. monitoring
3. sensation
4. transduction

environment. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect. Transduction describes a process
whereby the receptors transform one form of energy to another. Therefore, option
4 is incorrect. Option 1 is the correct answer because the process of interpreting and
making meaning from sensory information is called perception.
Question 23
You are watching a six-year-old child playing with Lego toy blocks. He starts arranging the blocks
according to their shapes and sizes. What principle of perceptual grouping is the child using?
3. Principle of similarity
4. Principle of continuity


Reasoning: The principle of similarity is the tendency to group elements that are similar in
colour, shape or texture as though they represent a figure.
Question 24
The brain’s ability to process incoming information rapidly and without any level of awareness to
enable a person to respond quickly to potentially important events is called ___.
1. sensation
2. perceptual organization
3. generator potential
4. monitoring

Reasoning: Monitoring refers to the brain’s ability to process incoming information very rapidly
and below the level of awareness, so that the person can respond quickly to
potentially important events.
Question 25
screen out the background noise. This is an example of which law of perceptual organisation?
1. Closure
2. Proximity
3. Grouping
4. Figure and ground


Question 1
Mr Norwood’s neighbours describe him as an easy-going person, someone who communicates well
and gets along with other people. According to Gardner’s theory of intelligence, Mr Norwood can be
described as having ___ intelligence.
1. naturalistic
2. interpersonal
3. spatial
4. intrapersonal


Reasoning: Interpersonal intelligence refers to getting on with people
Question 2
According to Guilford’s theory of intelligence, which of the following is part of the component of
intellectual activity?
1. Naturalist intelligence
2. Spatial ability
3. Products
4. Verbal comprehension

Reasoning: According to Guilford’s theory, intellectual ability has three components,
operations, content and products.
Question 3
In your psychology module you learned that intelligence is measured by means of psychological
tests. Which of the following statements is correct about psychological tests of intelligence?
1. Intelligence tests provide standardized measures of a person’s behaviour

2. Psychological tests are individualized and not based on norms
3. Intelligence tests take time because they are based on tasks that measure all human
behaviour
4. Intelligence tests are standard and not contextualized

Reasoning: One way to understand the concept of intelligence is to look at how it is measured.
Intelligence is measured using psychological tests, which provide standardised
measures of a person’s behaviour. (therefore option 1 is correct)
This means that the person’s behaviour is compared to predetermined norms.
(therefore option 2 is incorrect)
An intelligence test is made up of only a sample of all the possible tasks that
measure intelligent behaviour. (therefore option 3 is incorrect)
In the case of children, tests of intelligence is based on the tasks children are able to
perform at certain ages (therefore contextualised, making option 4 incorrect)
Question 4
Learning can be defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of past

experience. Which one of the following statements indicates that learning has occurred?
1. Before the boxing match Leornardo jumps around in fleeting movements. After the match
he drags his feet as he moves
2. After failing the module three times, Mary decides to attend tutorial classes and study
harder

3. Cheerful Themba is suddenly withdrawn now that he has started studying at a boarding
school
4. Sophie becomes weak and has slurred speech whenever she takes her medication

Reasoning: Options 1, 3 and 4 refers to tiredness, emotional reaction and the effects of
medication and has nothing to do with the definition of learning.
Question 5
Sipho is excited about the new television set that he bought. After many attempts to get it right, he
decides to read the manual and follow the instructions to get it to work properly. This is an example
of ___.
1. social learning
2. operant conditioning
3. cognitive learning
4. classical conditioning
Question 6
Mrs Khumalo rewards good behaviour and punishes bad behaviour. Last December she bought
presents for Pamela and Mpho because they passed with good marks in their psychology
examinations. This is an example of ___.
4. perceptual-motor learning

Question 7
Mrs Khumalo does not allow her youngest son Tom, to play with his favourite Playstation game
when he is rude towards his sisters. This serves as ___ for Tom.
1. partial reinforcement
2. negative reinforcement
3. positive reinforcement
4. punishment


Reasoning: Operant conditioning is based on the notion that behaviours that are reinforced or
rewarded are likely to be repeated and behaviours that are punished are not.
Question 8
In ___ terms such as extinction, stimulus discrimination, and spontaneous recovery are some of the
basic principles of learning.
1. latent learning

Reasoning: See the section on Classical Conditioning in A-Z of Psy.
Question 9
According to Bandura (1986, in Van Deventer & Mojapelo-Batka, 2013), which of the following are
essential components of observational learning?
1. modelling and consequences

2. attention, consistency and motivation
3. retention and reproduction
4. all of the above

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 10
After watching the movie called “Orange is the new Black” that depicts the reality of hard life in
prison, James learned that committing a crime is a serious offense and that he must avoid going to
jail. This is an example of ___.
1. social learning
2. observational learning
4. operant learning

Reasoning: Observational learning means learning by watching and imitating the behaviour of
others and observing the consequences of those actions.

Question 11
The term ___ refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information we have stored in the
long-term memory.
1. forgetting
2. memory decay
3. retrieval
4. interference

interferes with the memory process. Option 1 is the correct answer
Question 12
There are strategies available to improve our memory skills. Which of the following is not a strategy
for improving memory skills?
1. Serial position
2. Recitation
3. Phonological loop
4. Spaced practice

Reasoning: Options 1, 2 and 4 refer to strategies to improve memory skills.
Question 13
The tutor posts on your group-site (on myUnisa) the slides on the characteristics of memory. Which
of the following statements about memory are correct?
A. Memory is an active process that stores, organizes, and retrieves information

B. Encoding of information can be improved by using elaboration, visual imagery, and
making information personally meaningful
C. Declarative and procedural memory are part of the short-term memory that has limited
capacity for holding information
D. Memory is generally influenced by factors such as age, gender, and activities that people
perform
1. A, C, and D
2. B, C, and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C


Reasoning: Declarative and procedural memory are part of long-term memory, therefore
statement C is incorrect, eliminating options 1, 2 and 4.
Question 14
While relaxing on the beach James notices that someone is drowning and he rushes in the water to
rescue the victim. It has been a long time since James was swimming in any water, but he still knows
how to swim safely. The information of knowing how to swim is stored in the ___.
2. long-term memory
3. explicit memory
4. episodic memory

Reasoning: Procedural memory refers to “how to”, whereas explicit (declarative) memory refers
to “what”.
Although procedural memory is part of long-term memory, option 2 is incorrect, as
long-term memory consists of both procedural and explicit memory.
Question 15
A friend asks you the name of the country that has been experiencing xenophobia and electricity
load shedding recently. You know the answer but you can’t recall it at the time. This is a result of
___.
1. recognition
2. retrieval failure
4. ineffective coding

Reasoning: Retrieval describes the process of getting stored information out of memory.
Question 16
The tutor asks your group to do a presentation on how memory impacts on the ability to study. The
first slide explains the three phases of memory and has the following information that needs to be
organized sequentially. Memory involves:
A. information encoded
B. storage into general knowledge
C. encoded information stored
D. accessing stored information by retrieval
Which is the correct sequence?

1. D, A, and B
2. A, C, and D
3. A, B, and D
4. B, D, and A

Question 17
Which memory system refers to the store of explicit, factual information such as names, places, and
events?
1. Non-declarative memory
3. Sensory memory

Question 18
The Two-factor theory of emotions states that ___.
1. Cognitive control of the quality and intensity of feelings is possible

2. The differentiation of an emotion involves the interpretation of physiological appraisal
3. The perception of physiological arousal is not important in differentiation of an emotion
4. An emotion is interpreted based on the meaning given to it

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg.39
Reasoning: When we are aroused, we have a need to interpret our feelings, therefore the type
of emotion we experience depends on our interpretation of the arousal, according
to the context.
Question 19
Which of the following is not a strategy to improve memory and make encoding effective?
1. Elaboration
2. Visual imagery
4. Ascribe meaning

Reasoning: Elaboration, visual imagery and ascribing meaning is strategies to improve memory.

Question 20
Emotions are highly personal and relate to subjective experience. This statement refers to the ___
component of emotions.
1. behavioural
3. physiological
4. all of the above

Reasoning: Emotions are highly personal and relate to subjective experience. People’s cognitive
processes about events in their lives are therefore the key determinants of the
emotions they experience. This refers to the cognitive-perceptual component of
emotions.
Question 21
Which one of the statements is incorrect about emotional intelligence?
1. Emotional intelligence is synonymous to intellectual ability

2. Being emotionally intelligent means using and expressing our emotions wisely and
appropriately
3. People with high emotional intelligence know themselves well and have greater self-control
as compared to people with low emotional intelligence
4. Emotional intelligence allows people to control their impulses

Question 22
According to Allport’s trait theory of personality, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Cardinal traits are the basic traits that dominate an individual’s life
2. Personality is made up of traits that allow people to develop their potential for growth
3. To learn how the traits are linked, visible aspects of personality should be studied
4. Personality can be described in terms of five basic traits that are innate and universal

Reasoning: Allport believed that there are cardinal, central and secondary traits, ranked in order
of importance. Cardinal traits are those that are so important to an individual that
the dominate the individual’s life.

Question 23
In terms of the psychoanalytic approach, personality is shaped by ___.

3. unconscious processes
4. 1&3

Question 24
According to Psychoanalytic theory, which psychological structure of personality functions on the

principle of meeting the social standard, and the deviation thereof can lead to feelings of guilt?
1. The id
2. The libido
3. The superego
4. The ego

Reasoning: The superego refers to the conscience. It is like a judge or censor. If someone does
not adhere to society’s standards for acceptable behaviour, the superego allows the
person to experience guilt feelings and anxiety.
Question 25
The African perspective to understanding personality believes that ___.
1. the group and the community are more important than the individual
2. values such as independence and self-sufficiency are highly regarded
3. behaviour is a result of an individual’s needs and wishes
4. individual initiative and personal achievement are more important than collective
achievements

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pg. 286, Table 2
Assignment 92 (Self-test)
Question 1
You logged onto the internet because you wanted to book a holiday. Your phone rings and you talk
to your friend. After the conversation you don’t remember what you wanted to do on the internet.
The reason that you forgot is due to ___.
1. interference

2. ineffective selection
4. poor organisation

process. In this case, you were about to book a holiday and the friend phoning
interfered with your concentration. You therefore were unable to remember what
you wanted to do on the internet after you gave attention to phone ringing. The
information the more likely they are to remember information. However, people
are more likely to forget information because of lack of rehearsal (option 3).
However, in this scenario you did not rehearse making a phone call. Memory skills
are improved by organising information into smaller and more manageable chunks.
Question 2
1. habituation
3. transduction
4. sensation

Question 3

3. the strengthening of a likelihood of a response


Question 4
Emotions are usually expressed in body language, whereby bodily gestures and facial expressions are
used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ component of emotions.
1. physiological
2. psychological
4. behavioural

Question 5
Many researchers use four criteria to identify primary emotions. Which one of the following is not a
criterion for identifying primary emotions?
1. Emotions must be evident in all cultures

2. Emotions must be associated with distinct facial expression
3. Emotions must be evident only in human species
4. Emotions must contribute to the survival of the species

Question 6
Thandi is 13 years old. The intelligence test results show that Thandi can perform all the tasks
designed for children of 14 years old, half of the tasks for children of 15 years old. Therefore,
Thandi’s mental age is ___.
1. 13 years
3. 14 years


Reasoning: As Thandi can perform all the tasks for a child of 14, we bank the number 14.
Therefore, Thandi’s mental age is 14 years and 6 months.
Question 7
The term character refers to ___.
1. the heredity aspects of a person’s emotional nature

2. stable qualities that a person shows in various situations
3. the individual characteristics that influence behaviour
4. a person’s values and the ability to behave according to those values

Question 8
The trigger point at which a neuron will “fire” is called ___.
1. postsynaptic gap
2. threshold
3. action potential
4. resting potential

Refer: A-z of Psy, pg. 68
Reasoning: Threshold refers to the level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse.
Question 9
Formal conceptual hierarchies are based on ___.
1. the denotative meanings of the concepts

2. the connotative meanings of the concepts
3. conceptual rules
4. 1 and 2

Reasoning: Formal conceptual hierarchies are based on the exact definitions about attributes in
an objective sense. For example, an extreme emotion of sadness is usually
expressed in crying. This is the denotative meaning of a concept.
Denotative meaning = based on exact definitions or agreements about attributes in
an objective sense.


Question 10
1. Insomnia
2. Catalepsy
3. sleep apnoea
4. narcolepsy

incorrect. Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep, therefore option 1
is also incorrect. Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at
night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is therefore correct.

Question1
Which of the following combination of statements about the nature of impulse conduction are
correct?
A. Impulse conduction is a basis for all human behaviour

B. Impulse conduction can contribute to individual differences in behaviour
C. Impulse conduction allows sensory energy to be conducted to the brain
D. Impulse conduction communicates information from the external and internal environments
E. Impulse conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters
The correct answer is:
1. A, B, D, and E
2. B, C, D, and E
3. A, B, C, and E
4. A, C, D, and E

Reasoning: To answer this question correctly you need to understand impulse conduction in
the human nervous system. Human behaviour is based on impulse conduction
therefore, statement A is correct. Individual differences in people’s behaviour can
result from things going wrong during impulse conduction. Differences in the
efficiency of impulse conduction will also result in behavioural differences.
Therefore, statement B is correct. Sensory energy has to be converted into

electrochemical energy in order to be conducted as a nerve impulse therefore,

statement C is incorrect. Impulse conduction is the process that allows the passage
of information (or communication) from the outside and inside environments to the
brain, as a result statement D is correct. Statement E is also correct because impulse
conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters. Given that
statements A, B, D and E are correct, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 2
membrane is ___ charged.
1. positively; negatively; negatively

2. negatively; positively; negatively
3. positively; positively; negatively
4. positively; positively; positively

Question 3
Which one of the following neurotransmitters helps to control aggression and appetite?
1. Endorphin
2. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
3. Acetylcholine
4. Dopamine

Reasoning: Endorphins are involved in the experience of pleasure and the suppression of pain
as a result, option 1 is incorrect. Acetylcholine is related to memory and the
contraction of skeletal muscles, as a result, option 3 is incorrect. Dopamine plays a
role controlling motor behaviour and good mental health. Option 4 is incorrect. This
leaves option 2, which refers to gamma-aminobutyric acid. Gamma-aminobutyric
acid is a neurotransmitter that is involved in the regulation of excitability in the
human brain. It controls muscle tone and helps to manage aggression and appetite.
As a result, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 4
The opening across which one neuron communicates with another neuron is known as the ___.
1. threshold
2. channel
3. synaptic cleft
4. membrane

Reasoning: This question refers to the nature of synaptic transmission. Option 3 is the correct
answer because the correct term for the small gap between neurons is the synaptic
cleft and not a channel as referred to in option 2. The membrane refers to the thin
outer covering of a neuron therefore option 4 is incorrect. Option 1 is incorrect
because the threshold refers to a point at which a neuron can fire in the process of
impulse conduction.
Question 5
transmission?
1. Nerve impulse stimulates the terminal bouton - Neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic
cleft - Vesicles attach to presynaptic membrane
2. Nerve impulse stimulates the terminal bouton - Transmitter deactivated by bouton -
Electrical changes in receiving cell
3. Nerve impulse stimulates terminal bouton - Neurotransmitters attach to receptors -
Neurotransmitters cross synaptic cleft
4. Nerve impulse stimulates terminal bouton - Vesicles attach to the membrane -
Neurotransmitters are released - Neurotransmitters attach to receptors on postsynaptic
membrane

Question 6
The hypothalamus is concerned with ___.
1. regulating temperature
2. memory

3. planning
4. relaying sensory information

Reasoning: If you have chosen option 2, you are probably confusing the hypothalamus with the
hippocampus, which plays an important role in memory. Option 3 is incorrect
because planning is a function of the frontal lobes in the brain. Option 4 is also
incorrect because it is the thalamus that is concerned with relaying sensory
information. The correct answer for this question is therefore, option 1.
Question 7
Complete the following statement by choosing the correct options from the list below: “The ___
activates the body while the ___ restores normal functioning”.
1. autonomic nervous system; peripheral nervous system

2. autonomic nervous system; homeostasis
3. sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system
4. sympathetic nervous system; somatic nervous system

Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect because the autonomic nervous system regulates internal
organs and glands so that the body functions normally. The peripheral nervous
system is made up of the somatic and autonomic nervous system, this means that
all the systems are part of the peripheral nervous system. Even though the
autonomic nervous system consists the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system, this question is based on the functions of the sympathetic and
parasympathetic nervous system. Option 3 is the correct combination because the
sympathetic nervous system activates the body and the parasympathetic nervous
system restores normal functioning. Option 2 is incorrect because homeostasis
refers to the maintenance of the body balance. Option 4 is incorrect because the
somatic nervous system refers to nerves that conduct information from the sensory
receptors in the body to the central nervous system.
Question 8
Susan tends to always fall asleep during group discussions. One group member asks why Susan
always falls asleep and you explain to the group that Susan is suffering from a sleep disorder called
___.
1. catalepsy
2. sleep apnoea
3. insomnia
4. narcolepsy



night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 2 is also incorrect.
few minutes, therefore option 4 is correct.
Question 9
1. stimulants; decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

2. depressants; producing drowsiness and insensitivity to pain
3. stimulants; mimicking other drugs
4. hallucinogens; increasing the release of dopamine

is also incorrect.
Question 10
One of your groupmate on myUnisa gives a brief description on the nature of sleep. After the
description the tutor says that three statements are incorrect. The tutor then asks you to identify the
correct statement about sleep.
1. During sleep, people do not respond to things happening around them

2. Dreaming occurs during the fourth stage of S-sleep
3. The function of S-sleep is to allow the brain to re-organise information and prevent overload
4. Sleep deprivation can lead to deterioration in cognitive functioning

Reasoning: Options 2 and 3 are obviously incorrect. Option 2 is incorrect because dreaming
occurs during D-sleep. Option 3 is also incorrect because the function described
relates to REM or D-sleep and not S-sleep. Option 1 is a little tricky. Although many
people sleep very soundly, they are not necessarily “out of touch” with the
surrounding environments and they can be woken up by loud noise or other events
in the environment. Therefore, option 1 is also incorrect. The correct answer is
provided by option 4 because sleep deprivation can have a detrimental effect on
cognitive functioning, such as concentration and thinking.

Question 11
Stimulants act by increasing alertness, boost energy and activity and produce a pleasant feeling.
Which of the following is an example of a stimulant?
1. Marijuana
2. Alcohol
3. Ecstasy
4. Caffeine

Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect because Marijuana is a hallucinogen that distorts sensory
experiences. Alcohol depresses the nervous system resulting in decreased arousal
levels. Therefore, option 2 is incorrect. Option 3 refers to ecstasy which destroys
axons, resulting in brain damage. Option 3 is the incorrect answer. Option 4 is the
correct answer because caffeine increases alertness, boost energy and activity and
produce a pleasant feeling.
Question 12
Psychologists and therapists have used hypnosis in various settings for specific purposes. The chief
characteristic of hypnosis is ___.
1. increased suggestibility
2. enhanced creativity
3. improved memory
4. heightened ability to concentrate

Reasoning: The chief characteristic of hypnosis is that it leads to increased suggestibility, which
means that people are more susceptible to suggestion under hypnosis therefore,
option 1 is the correct answer. Option 2 refers to enhanced creativity however,
hypnosis does not enhance a person’s creative ability. Hypnosis does not improve a
person’s memory. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect. Although hypnosis may generally
lead to a heightened ability to concentrate, this is not a chief characteristic of
hypnosis. As a result, option 4 is incorrect.
Question 13
you woken up?
1. S-sleep
2. phase 3 sleep
3. D-sleep
4. phase 4 sleep


Reasoning: S-Sleep is characterised by restful sleep occurring in four phases. Therefore, option
1 is the incorrect answer. Phase 3 sleep is a deeper form of sleep that is
characterised by delta waves and people being very relaxed. Option 2 is incorrect.
Option 4 is incorrect because Phase 4 sleep is a very deep sleep that is characterised
by people being confused, having slurred speech and poor motor co-ordination if
they are woken up. Option 3 refers to D-Sleep which is characterised by dreaming,
as result when people are woken up they can remember what they have dreamt
about. Therefore, based on the description option 3 is the correct answer.
Question 14

Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect because logical reasoning refers to a series of steps in the
reasoning process that leads to a conclusion. In inductive reasoning conclusions are
based on the likelihood of an event occurring, but the premises do not guarantee
the conclusions. Therefore, option 2 is incorrect. Option 3 is incorrect because
critical reasoning involves evaluating information, exploring various options,
explanations and making good judgment. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect.
Deductive reasoning is informed by the formal rules of logic. In this type of
reasoning, if the premise is true then the conclusion must also be true. Therefore,
option 4 is correct.
Question 15
Conceptual errors can lead to errors of thinking. Which of the following is not an example of
conceptual errors?
1. All-or-nothing thought
2. Stereotypes
3. Prototypes
4. Oversimplification of complex concepts

Reasoning: Errors of thinking generally result from inaccurate use of concepts. One-
dimensional or all-or-nothing thought (option1), stereotypes (option 2) and
oversimplifying complex concepts (option 4) are examples of errors of thinking and
therefore these options do not provide the correct answer to the question. A
prototype (option 3) is a model of a concept and forming a prototype is an example
of conceptual thinking, but is not a form of thinking error. Therefore, option 3 is the
correct answer.

Question 16
Your tutor asks your group to explain how informal reasoning differs from formal reasoning. One
student answers: “formal reasoning is logical whereas informal reasoning is illogical.” This answer is
___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, because formal reasoning is based on premises and conclusions
3. incorrect, because formal reasoning is based on inductive and deductive reasoning
4. incorrect, the difference is that premises and conclusions are explicitly stated in formal
reasoning but usually not so in informal reasoning

Reasoning: The statement that “formal reasoning is logical whereas informal reasoning is
illogical” is incorrect. As a result, option 1 is incorrect because informal reasoning
because informal reasoning is also logical. Option 2 is incorrect because both formal
and informal reasoning are based on the premises and the conclusions. Option 3 is
also incorrect because both formal and informal reasoning may be inductive and/or
deductive in nature. Option 4 is the correct option because premises and
conclusions are explicitly stated in formal reasoning, which is not the case with
informal reasoning.
Question 17
When John came back from a party in the middle of the night, he found that the electricity was off in
the house. Because the doorway was dark, John decided to try each key to open the door. In this
case, John used ___to open the door.
2. trial and error strategy
3. insight

Reasoning: People use a variety of methods to solve a particular problem. In this case, the trial-
and-error strategy involves trying out all the keys to open the door until the correct
one is found. This is what John did therefore, Option 2 is the correct option.
Inductive reasoning does not apply here since it deals with generating a conclusion
about the probability of something happening. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect.
Option 3 is incorrect because insight relates to the comparison of new solutions
with old ones to solve a particular problem. Option 1 refers to the heuristic
strategy; this option is incorrect because in this case the heuristic strategy would
apply if John selected only the keys that are more likely to open the door.
Question 18
Critical reasoning consists of a variety of attitudes, procedures and skills. Which of the following is
not part of critical reasoning?



Question 19
Which of the following is not one of the steps in the process of problem-solving?
1. Gaining insight
2. Identify the problem and define it clearly
3. Explore various strategies
4. Explore possible solutions

Reasoning: The current question asks you to identify an option that is not one of the steps in
solving a problem. Problem solving involves recognising that there is a problem
(option 2), finding various ways of solving a problem (option 3) and exploring
possible solutions (option 4). Based on the question options 2, 3 and 4 are correct
because they are part of the problem-solving process. The correct answer is option
1 because gaining insight is not a step in the problem-solving process but can occur
at any stage during the problem-solving process.
Question 20
A white shirt may look slightly grey when viewed in a shade, but you still perceive it as white. Which
type of perceptual constancy refers to this phenomenon?
1. Constant brightness
2. Constant shape
3. Constant size
4. None of the above


shape of the shirt, therefore options 2 and 3 are incorrect. Option 1 is the correct
answer because even though the shirt may look slightly grey when viewed in the
shade, it is still perceived as white, this is a function of constant brightness.
Question 21
We have a tendency to group elements that are close together as though they represent a
meaningful figure. Which aspect of perceptual organisation is operative here?
1. Principle of closure

something so that it has a meaning. Perceptual constancy (option 2) is incorrect
because it refers to the process of perceiving objects as unchanging despite the
different conditions in which we perceive them. The principle of symmetry (option
3) is incorrect because it refers to the tendency of grouping elements in a way that
creates a balanced figure.
Question 22
You are walking through the garden and you smell the scent of the flowers. Your friend tells you that
your olfactory nerve has been triggered. Of which sensory system does the olfactory nerve form a
part?
2. Chemical system
3. Auditory system

Question 23

The use of hierarchical concepts helps us to classify things and make sense of our world. Items such
as apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are classified at ___ level(s) of classification.
1. subordinate
2. superordinate
3. intermediate
4. 1 and 3

Reasoning: When trying to make sense of the world we often have to classify objects into
categories that have hierarchical meaning. In doing this we move from a more
general classification to a more specific classification and this leads to levels of
classification that are interrelated. The question asks you to identify where in the
hierarchical level items such as apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are
categorised. The subordinate level of classification is the lowest level and items
such as apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are classified at this level. As a
result, option 1 is the correct answer. Option 2 is incorrect because these items
would be ranked as food at a superordinate level of classification. Option 3 is also
incorrect because these items would be ranked as fruits and vegetables at an
intermediate level.
Question 24
A critical point which determines whether a stimulus is intense enough to lead to a sensory
experience is called ___.
1. a differential threshold
2. an absolute threshold
3. a receptor potential
4. a generator potential

Reasoning: A stimulus needs to have a certain level of intensity to elicit sensory experience and
this critical point is referred to as the absolute threshold. Based on this description
option 2 is the correct answer. A differential threshold (option1) occurs when the
intensity of stimuli is compared to each other in relation to the extent that they
elicit sensory experiences. For example, if a candle is already lit in a room, bringing
in a second candle will not elicit noticeable sensory experience. Therefore, option 1
is incorrect. Receptor potential refers to the resting potential in a receptor. Similar
to a neuron receptor potential is converted into a generator potential when stimuli
that is strong enough is received. Based on this description options 3 and 4 are
incorrect.
Question 25
is called ___.
1. sensation

2. adaptation
3. perception
4. transduction

another. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect. Option 3 is the correct answer because
the process of interpreting and making meaning from sensory information is called
perception.

Question 1
Rifumo says that she finds tasks to be easier with practice no matter how difficult they may be after
the first try. This is an example of ___ intelligence.
1. interpersonal
2. emotional
3. intrapersonal
4. experiential

Reasoning: In order to answer this question correctly you need to understand the different
types of intelligence. The correct answer is option 4 because experiential
intelligence involves the use of past experiences to solve problems, to acquire new
knowledge and skills. Interpersonal intelligence (option 1) involves the ability to
understand and interact with others. Emotional intelligence (option 2) involves the
capacity to be aware of one’s emotions and empathise with others. Intrapersonal
intelligence involves introspection or self-awareness. People with intrapersonal
intelligence (option 3) are aware of their emotions, motivations, beliefs and goals.
Therefore options 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Question 2
Which of the following statements is correct about emotional intelligence? People with high
emotional intelligence are able to ___.
1. they do not have self-awareness

2. ignore emotions in others
behaviour


Question 3
Your neighbour asked you to explain the probability that her twin daughters who are living apart
would get similar scores on intelligence test. Your explanation is based on the research findings that
children who are more likely to obtain similar scores on an intelligence test are the ___.
1. fraternal twins that are raised in similar environments

2. identical twins that are raised in similar environments
3. identical twins that are raised in different environments
4. fraternal twins that are raised in different environments

Question 4

2. unique specific abilities
4. componential intelligence

capacity influencing performance on cognitive ability measures. Option 2 is
incorrect because Spearman referred to other factors that played a role in specific
abilities as specific factors, also abbreviated as the “S-factor”. For example,
remembering every detail of an event demonstrates memory ability as an S-factor.
Option 3 is incorrect because the concept of multiple intelligence was introduced by

Gardner because he believed that there are eight separate kinds of intelligence.
Option 4 is also incorrect because, componential intelligence is part of the
information-processing approach which refers to people’s ways of processing
information.
Question 5
Which one of the following criteria is incorrect for identifying primary emotions?
1. Primary emotions are evident in all cultures

2. Primary emotions contribute to the survival of the species
3. Primary emotions are evident in human species only
4. Primary emotions are associated with distinct facial expression

Question 6
Which of the following provides the correct sequence in the experience of emotion according to
Schacter’s two-factor theory?
1. Stimulation → arousal → cognitive appraisal → emotion → behaviour

3. Stimulation → appraisal → differentiation of emotion → aroused behaviour
4. Stimulation → arousal → appraisal → emotion → appraisal –-> behaviour

Question 7
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct about motivation and emotions?
1. Both motivation and emotions activate behaviour

3. Emotions typically have motivational properties of their own
4. All of the above


Reasoning: Motivation and emotions are related concepts because they activate behaviour
(option 1). For example, a student will be motivated to study more because of the
joy associated with passing their first-year module. Motives are also accompanied
by emotions (option 2), for example, the motive to visit a new country may be
accompanied by anxiety and excitement. Emotions also have motivational
properties (option 3). For example, a student is motivated to focus on their studies
because they are passionate about the programme they are enrolled in. Therefore,
Question 8
1. cognitive interpretation of arousal is followed autonomic arousal

2. autonomic arousal and cognitive interpretation of arousal
3. physiological arousal and environmental cues to label emotions

Question 9
Which one of the following is not associated with the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion?
1. The experience of physiological arousal is dependent on environmental cues

2. The experience of an emotion involves interpreting physiological appraisal with reference to
cognitive content

example, a person may experience fear after seeing a snake in the bedroom
because a snake is perceived to be poisonous. However, another person may feel
relaxed when they see a bird inside their bedroom because birds are perceived to
be harmless. Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect because they are associated cognitive

Question 10
Emotions are usually expressed in body language or non-verbal behaviour. This is an example of ___
component of emotion.
2. behavioural
3. social
4. physiological

Question 11
What type of learning is traditionally considered as learning that involves thinking?
1. Social learning

Reasoning: In order to answer this question correctly you need to understand the different
forms of learning. Social learning (option 1) takes place in a social context and
involves learning through interacting with other people. For example, children may
develop love for animals when they see their parent express joy every time they
interact with animals. Therefore option 1 is incorrect. Observational learning
(option 4) involves learning by observing others and imitating their behaviour based
on its consequences. A student may avoid submitting an assignment late after
seeing students’ assignments not marked due to late submission. Option 4 is
therefore incorrect. Option 3 is also incorrect, because classical learning involves
learning by associating a stimulus and behaviour. Classical conditioning takes place
when we learn to associate stimuli that frequently happen together. The correct
answer is option 2 because cognitive learning is learning by understanding,
knowing, anticipating or applying information-rich higher mental processes.
Question 12
Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

1. Shakira does not want to put on her sunglasses but she eventually puts them on to avoid the
sun
2. Every time Sarah is cheeky, she is sent to her room
3. Themba did not do well in a test so his mother has reduced his television viewing time
4. Every time you pass your psychology assignment, your parents buy you a gift

the likelihood of that behaviour. In this case, Sarah is more likely to be respectful to
avoid being sent to her room. Option 3 is also incorrect because it relates to partial
reinforcement whereby reinforcement only occurs at certain intervals. Option 4 is
also incorrect because it is related to positive reinforcement. Positive reinforcement
occurs when we encourage a pattern of behaviour by offering reward when the
behaviour is exhibited.
Question 13
3. To get the soccer ball from the goalkeeper and pass it to the strikers

diving from a high diving board (option 2), getting a soccer ball from the goalkeeper
and passing it to strikers (option 3), and the cutting a diamond to show off its
beauty (option 4) all involve learned perceptual- motor skills that are sharpened by
Question 14
Thembi ate spoiled apples and now she feels nauseous whenever she sees a packet of apples. Which
of the following describe(s) this state of affairs?
1. The sight of a packet of apples acts as an unconditioned stimulus for becoming nauseous
2. Eating spoiled apples was an unconditioned stimulus for becoming nauseous

3. Becoming nauseous at the sight of a packet of apples is a classically conditioned response

4. 2 and 3

Reasoning: A conditioned response (option 1) takes place when someone associates a
conditioned stimulus (sight of a packet of apples) with another stimulus (becoming
nauseous); therefore, option 1 is incorrect. Option 2 is also incorrect because an
unconditioned stimulus naturally triggers a response, for example, Thembi becomes
nauseous at the sight of a packet of apples. In the above scenario, the sight of a
packet of apples is an example of a conditioned stimulus eliciting the response of
Thembi becoming nauseous. It occurs naturally and it not learned. Option 3 is
Question 15
Which of the following is not a component of observational learning?
1. Attention
2. Retention
3. Reproduction
4. Association

Reasoning: This question requires you to know the elements of observational learning.
Reproduction (option 3) involves reproducing the observed behaviour which has
been stored in the memory. Retention (option 2) involves saving a mental
representation of what you have learned so that you can apply it at a later stage.
You can save a mental representation of what you learned when watching someone
do certain activities. Attention (option 1) is another element of observational
learning that involves paying close attention to the modelled behaviour and
consequences of that behaviour. The correct answer is option 4 because association
is not a component of observation but that of associative learning.
Question 16
dog brings the ball back, you give him a biscuit as a reward. What kind of reinforcement schedule are
you using?



schedule (option 4) is a reinforcement taking place after an unpredictable number
of responses. Variable ratio schedules create a high rate of response. Option 4 is
also incorrect. A variable interval schedule (option 2) consists of reinforcement that
is given for a response after different intervals of time have passed. A fixed ratio
correct answer.
Question 17
The method of improving memory by summarising aloud while you are learning is called . . .
1. serial position
2. recitation
3. whole learning
4. space practice

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 2 because recitation is a method used
to improve memory by summarising aloud while you are learning. This method is
also important for retrieving the information you are learning. The other options
are incorrect, serial position (option 1) refers to the method used for learning bits of
information in a sequence. Whole learning (option 3) refers to the method of
learning the overall scheme of what you need to learn instead of concentrating on
separate parts. Spaced practice (option 4) refers to the method used to alternate
study sessions with brief rest periods to ensure that you are paying attention to
what you are learning.
Question 18
The tutor asked you to name the country that hosted the 2014 FIFA Soccer World Cup and you said
you cannot think of the name then but you would remember it in a minute or so. This indicates a
problem with ___.
1. recognition
4. retrieval

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 4 because retrieval failure occurs
when we cannot find cues or stimuli that helps us access our memories. You are
more likely to remember the country that hosted the FIFA world cup when you
imagine the activities you were engaged in during the world cup (recreating the
context). The other options are incorrect because recognition (option 1) refers to
identifying something from previous encounter. Decay of information (option 2)

occurs when we forget information that is too complex and not used over time.
Storage of information (option 3) involves holding or maintaining information in the
memory store.
Question 19
The term ___ refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information stored in memory.
1. forgetting
2. memory decay
3. retrieval
4. interference

because decay of information takes place when people forget things over time
when the physiological mechanisms responsible for memories fade away. Option 3
is also incorrect because retrieval is a process of getting stored information out of
memory. Option 4 is also incorrect because interference takes place when other
information interferes with the memory process. Option 1 is the correct answer
because forgetting takes place when we are unable to retrieve information from
our memory.
Question 20
The ___ memory system refers to the storing of explicit, factual information whereas ___ memory
system deals with actions, conditioned responses and implicit memories.
1. non-declarative; semantic
2. short-term; declarative
3. long-term; short-term
4. declarative; non-declarative


Question 21
The ___ monitors and regulates the information needed for reasoning and problem solving.
4. long-term memory

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 3 because the executive control
system is responsible for controlling and regulating information needed for
reasoning and problem solving. Your ability to understand concepts is an example
of the functions of the executive control system. Option 1 is incorrect because the
visuospatial sketchpad is responsible for manipulating visual images. Option 2 is
also incorrect because the phonological loop is responsible for retrieval of verbal
information. For example, when someone verbally tells you his or her phone
number, this is accessed directly by the phonological loop in the form of a speech.
Option 4 is also incorrect because long-term memory is responsible for storing
explicit and factual information and events over long periods.
Question 22
You are about to call your friend when you hear a knock on your door. After opening the door, you
don’t remember who you wanted to call and why. The reason that you forgot is due to ___.

4. interference

process. In this case, you were about to make a call to your friend and the knock on
your door interfered with your concentration. You therefore were unable to
remember who you wanted to call and why after you gave attention to the knock
on the door. The other options are incorrect. People can remember information by
selecting key words or important facts to provide cues for the information they
need to remember. They are however more likely to forget information when they
select it ineffectively (option 1). However, in this scenario you did not select the
information you wanted to remember when making a phone call. The more people
rehearse information the more likely they are to remember information. However,
people are more likely to forget information because of lack of rehearsal (option 2).

Question 23
Sam’s personality test results indicate that he is an extrovert. Extroversion describes Sam’s ___.
1. temperament
2. personality type
3. character
4. self-concept

Question 24
The term ___refers to the manner in which people express and deal with their emotions.
1. character
2. personality
3. temperament
4. trait

Reasoning: The correct answer is option 3 because temperament refers to the manner in which
people express and deal with their emotions. Option 1 is incorrect because
character refers to a person’s moral attributes and values that are largely
influenced by education and experience in the social environment. Option 2 is also
incorrect because personality is the sum of all the physical, psychological and
spiritual characteristics that influence an individual’s distinctive character. Option 4
is also incorrect because trait refers to a distinguishing quality belonging to a
person. For example, a person can be referred to as kind or rude when referring to
their traits.
Question 25
According to research, people with ___personalities are at high risk for developing coronary heart
disease.
1. Type A
2. Type B
3. hardy
4. 1 and 3


Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 1. People with type A personalities
have high risk for developing coronary heart disease. Some of the factors
contributing to people with type A personalities to develop coronary heart disease
include their chronic anger and hostility, they push themselves too hard, they also
bottle their emotions and not express them. This increases their heart rate and
blood pressure which places a heavy strain on the heart. The other options are
incorrect because people with Type B and hardy personalities are resistant to stress.
Semester 2 - 2018: Assignment 01 (Unique number:700611)

Question 1
Which of the following combination of statements about the nature of impulse conduction are
correct?
A. Impulse conduction is a basis for all human behaviour

B. Impulse conduction can contribute to individual differences in behaviour
C. Impulse conduction allows sensory energy to be conducted to the brain
D. Impulse conduction communicates information from the external and internal
environments
E. Impulse conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters
The correct answer is ___.
1. A, B, D, and E
2. B, C, D, and E
3. A, B, C, and E
4. A, C, D, and E

Reasoning: To answer this question correctly you need to understand impulse conduction in the
human nervous system. Human behaviour is based on impulse conduction
therefore, statement A is correct. Individual differences in people’s behaviour can
result from things going wrong during impulse conduction. Differences in the
efficiency of impulse conduction will also result in behavioural differences.
Therefore, statement B is correct. Sensory energy has to be converted into
electrochemical energy in order to be conducted as a nerve impulse therefore,
statement C is incorrect. Impulse conduction is the process that allows the passage
of information (or communication) from the outside and inside environments to the
brain, as a result statement D is correct. Statement E is also correct because impulse
conduction depends on the presence or absence of neurotransmitters. Given that
statements A, B, D and E are correct, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 2
The tutor explains the nature of impulse transmission and asks you to complete the following
sentence: Stimulus intensity is to impulse frequency as ___ is to the amplitude of the impulse.
1. a synapse

2. conduction speed
3. intensity of light stimulus
4. diameter of the nerve fibre

Question 3
During the group discussion, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses continuously.
You say that this statement is ___.

3. incorrect, because impulses cannot be conducted during the absolute refractory period

neuron does not respond to any stimulus.
Question 4
In the hindbrain, the part that prevents the brain from over-stimulation and maintains an optimal
arousal level for brain functioning is called ___.
1. medulla oblongata
2. cerebellum
3. pons
4. reticular formation

Reasoning: The reticular formation stimulates the brain, keeping it active and alert, but also
preventing it from overstimulation by regulating input. In this way, it maintains an
optimal arousal level so that the brain can function properly.
Question 5
Which part of the brain distributes motor fibres to the muscles and conveys somato-sensory
information to the brain?
1. Thalamus
2. Somatic nervous system
3. Spinal cord
4. Spinal afferent nerves


Reasoning: The somatic nervous system refers to the nerves that conduct information from the
sensory receptors in the body to the central nervous system (sensory or afferent
nerves) and from the central nervous system to the skeletal muscles in the body
(motor or efferent nerves.)
Question 6
The term spatial summation refers to ___.

cleft

Question 7
Low serotonin level is associated with ___ just as dopamine deficiency is associated with Parkinson’s
disease.
1. seasonal depression
2. muscle spasm
3. suppression of pain
4. mania

seasonal depression.
Question 8
While spending time with his friends John suddenly collapsed and could not move. John is suffering
from a sleep disorder called ___.
1. catalepsy
2. insomnia
3. sleep apnoea
4. narcolepsy


gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is also incorrect.
Question 9
1. Insomnia
2. Catalepsy
3. Sleep apnoea
4. Narcolepsy

night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is correct.
Question 10
imaginary visions and realities. What type of drugs induce this kind of mental state?
1. Inhalants
2. Stimulants
3. Hallucinogens
4. Depressants

Question 11

1. stimulants; decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

2. depressants; producing drowsiness and insensitivity to pain
3. stimulants; mimicking other drugs
4. hallucinogens; increasing the release of dopamine

is also incorrect.
Question 12

2. Phase 2 of sleep, whereby brain wave frequencies are mixed
3. Phase 3 of sleep, in which autonomic activity slows down
4. S-Sleep, in which delta brain waves are synchronized

Question 13
you woken up from?
1. S-sleep
2. phase 3 sleep
3. phase 4 sleep
4. D-sleep

Reasoning: S-Sleep is characterised by restful sleep occurring in four phases. Therefore, option
1 is the incorrect answer. Phase 3 sleep is a deeper form of sleep that is
characterised by delta waves and people being very relaxed. Option 2 is incorrect.
Option 3 is incorrect because Phase 4 sleep is a very deep sleep that is characterised
by people being confused, having slurred speech and poor motor co-ordination if
they are woken up. Option 4 refers to D-Sleep which is characterised by dreaming,
as result when people are woken up they can remember what they have dreamt
about. Therefore, based on the description option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 14

1. A, B, and C
2. A, B, and D
3. B, C, and D
4. A, C, and D

Question 15
Peter wants to see the movie at 20:00. He reasons that he must be in the queue around 19:30 to get
a seat. He also works out that it would take him about 15 minutes to find the parking slot and
another five minutes to walk from the parking to the movie house and 30 minutes to drive from his
home to the parking. So. he works out that he must leave home around 18:30 to get to the ticket
office on time. Which of the following methods did Peter apply to solve his problem of time
calculation?
1. Analogic analysis
2. Analysing the available means to attain the desired goal
3. Analysing the steps necessary to attain the desired goal
4. Checklist analysis

Question 16
Which of the following statements is (are) example (s) of inductive reasoning?
1. On the basis of high humidity, James states that it could rain later tonight
2. After making some observations at the crime scene, detective Sherlock Holmes formed a
theory about who might have committed the crime

3. If Emily studies very hard, she will pass her psychology exam
4. 1 and 2

Question 17
not part of critical reasoning?


Question 18
The tutor asks you to think of different possible uses for an old car tyre. You suggest that an old car
4. insight

Question 19

Zodwa has failed the psychology exam and decided to ask the lecturer to give her a pass mark
because of her difficult personal circumstances. Which fallacy in reasoning is Zodwa using here?
1. Trying to discredit an issue by discrediting a person who supports the issue

3. Relying on the characteristics of a certain group in order to gain support for a particular
conclusion
4. Using a slightly changed version of someone else’s point of view as basis for reasoning
Question 20
A process of perceptual organisation that refers to our tendency to group elements in a way that
creates a balanced figure refers to the principle of ___.
1. symmetry
2. contour
3. continuity
4. similarity

Question 21
You are watching a six-year-old child playing with Lego toy blocks. He starts arranging the blocks
according to their shapes and sizes. What principle of perceptual grouping is the child using?

Question 22
Which of the following statements about attention is correct?
1. Attention is an automatic process that takes place below the awareness level
2. There are external and internal determinants of attention
3. People cannot pay attention to more than one thing at a time
4. Parallel processing is easier when two or more tasks require an individual to pay close
attention


Question 23
is called ___.
1. sensation
2. adaptation
3. transduction
4. perception

perception.
Question 24
The brain’s ability to process incoming information rapidly and without any level of awareness to
enable a person to respond quickly to potentially important events is called ___.
1. monitoring
2. perceptual organization
4. sensation

Question 25


4. All of the above

stimulation.

Question 1
There has been a debate in psychology about the role played by the environment and heredity in
intelligence. This led to the emergence of the “nature versus nurture” controversy. Which of the
following theorists coined the term “nature versus nurture” about intelligence?
1. Galton
2. Gardner
3. Spearman
4. Sternberg

Reasoning: Galton coined the phrase ‘nature vs. nurture’, referring to the debate about the
contributions of heredity and environment to intelligence.
Question 2
Rifumo says that she is able to evaluate and understand her emotions and those of others. This is an
example of ___ intelligence.
1. interpersonal
2. emotional
3. intrapersonal
4. experiential

Reasoning: Some of the qualities of emotionally intelligent people include the ability to
recognise emotions in others, control impulses and delay gratification, and motivate
themselves and keep on trying even when they experience frustrations. Emotional
intelligent people also have self-awareness and recognise feelings as they happen.
Question 3
What are the two main characteristics of a psychological test?
1. reliability and mental age

2. intelligence and validity

3. validity and reliability

4. creativity and intelligence
Question 4
Which one of the following statements about the nature of intelligence is incorrect?
1. The concept of intelligence includes speed of task performance


Question 5
The cognitive processing approach consists of three underlying components of intelligence which are
___.
1. componential intelligence, planning processes and attentional processes

2. componential intelligence, experiential intelligence and contextual intelligence
3. componential intelligence, naturalistic intelligence and experiential intelligence
4. information processes, planning processes and attentional processes

Reasoning: The information-processing approach, also called the cognitive-processing
approach, is based on the idea that intelligence is based on three components –
attentional processes, information processes and planning processes.
Question 6
Cindy is creative, peaceful, silent and submissive.
Arny is intelligent, aggressive, hardy and an achiever.
Solomon is sensitive to the feelings of others, persistent, self-motivating and controlled.
Resh is witty, extrovert, anxious and rational.

Which one of these four friends is emotionally intelligent?
1. Arny
2. Cindy
3. Solomon
4. Resh

Question 7
Thapelo’s mother asks why her son scored low on an intelligence test while his friend who lives in
the same community, scored high. Your explanation is based on the findings that children that have
___ are less likely to obtain similar scores on an intelligence test.

2. different genetic composition and are raised in the similar environment
4. different genetic composition and are raised in different environments

Question 8
Which of the following is a possible explanation for the finding that highly creative people often do
not perform well on traditional tests of intelligence?
1. Performance on intelligence tests rely on convergent thinking

4. Creative people do not have above average intelligence


correct answers to problems. Therefore option 3 is false.
Question 9

2. unique specific abilities
4. componential intelligence

because Spearman referred to other factors that played a role in specific abilities as
specific factors, also abbreviated as the “S-factor”. For example, remembering every
detail of an event demonstrates memory ability as an S-factor. Option 3 is incorrect
believed that there are eight separate kinds of intelligence. Option 4 is also incorrect
because, componential intelligence is part of the information-processing approach
which refers to people’s ways of processing information.
Question 10
What kind of learning is traditionally classified as learning by association?
1. Social learning
2. Operant learning
4. Discovery learning

Question 11
In operant conditioning terms, reinforcement refers to ___.


2. the unpleasant consequences of a response
3. the process that occurs when a pleasant or desirable reinforcer follows a response

person makes, i.e. reward or punishment. A reinforcer is anything that follows a
response and increases the likelihood that the desired response will occur again –
i.e. a reward.
Question 12

Question 13
Michael’s parents have decided to punish him for using bad language at home and at school. They
decided to stop this behaviour by taking away 50 cents from his pocket money every time he swears.
Within a month Michael’s swearing has almost disappeared. What type of learning is illustrated in
this scenario?
2. Operant learning
4. Social learning



Question 14
Remembering how to ride a bicycle many years after you first learned to ride, is an example of ___.
1. semantic memory
2. explicit memory
3. episodic memory

Question 15
The tutor asks you the name of the country that hosted the 2014 FIFA Soccer World Cup and you
say: “I cannot think of the name now but I will remember it in a minute or so.” This indicates a
problem with ___.
1. retrieval
2. recognition

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 1 because retrieval failure occurs when
we cannot find cues or stimuli that helps us access our memories. You are more
likely to remember the country that hosted the FIFA world cup when you imagine
the activities you were engaged in during the world cup (recreating the context).
The other options are incorrect because recognition (option 2) refers to identifying
something from previous encounter. Decay of information (option 3) occurs when
we forget information that is too complex and not used over time. Storage of
information (option 4) involves holding or maintaining information in the memory
store.
Question 16
The term ___ refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information we have stored in
memory.
1. encoding
2. forgetting
3. retrieval
4. decay


Option 2 is the correct answer
Question 17
The ___memory system deals with actions, conditioned responses and implicit memories.
1. declarative
2. procedural
3. non-declarative
4. long-term

Question 18
One of the easiest ways to recall a cell-phone number is to use ___.
4. long-term memory

Reasoning: The phonological loop allows access to verbal information or sounds. I.e. if you
wanted to recall a telephone number, it would be accessed by the phonological
loop.
Question 19

A person who is able to cope with stress by means of personal commitment, taking control over the
situation, and see challenges rather than problems can be described as having ___.
1. stress response specificity

3. biological homeostasis

Question 20
4. Source traits represent underlying personality characteristics

Question 21
In terms of Psychoanalytic approach, personality is shaped by ___.

2. the desire for freedom and personal growth
3. learning in the form of operant and classical conditioning
4. hereditary factors that accounts for individual differences in personality

mental structures – the id, the ego and the superego.
Question 22
a person.
1. traits
2. character
3. temperament
4. self-esteem


• emotionality
• sociability
• impulsivity
Question 23
1. The heredity aspects of a person’s emotional nature

2. Stable qualities that a person shows in most situations
3. The individual characteristics that influence behaviour
4. A person’s values and the ability to behave according to those values

Question 24
Emotions are usually expressed in body language or non-verbal behaviour. This is an example of ___
component of emotion.
1. cognitive- perceptual
2. physiological
3. social
4. behavioural

Question 25
Which of the following statement(s) about emotions and motivation is (are) incorrect?

motivation
4. All of the above.

Exam May/June 2011

Questions 1 to 6 refer to the following scenario:
During a class for first-year psychology students, the tutor asks the students to draw up a step-by-
step representation of the sequence of events during impulse conduction. One of the students
provides the following:
A. Stimulus received by soma

B. Resting membrane potential changes into action potential
C. Refractory period during which the impulse is generated
D. Neurotransmitters allow synaptic transmission of the impulse
E. Postsynaptic potentials determine whether the next neuron will produce an action potential
Question 1
The correct order in the sequence of events is ___.
1. A, B, C, D, E
2. A, B, D, E
3. A, B, E, D, C
4. A, C, B, D

Reasoning: See the prescribed textbook.
Question 2
The process whereby impulse is conducted much faster by jumping from node to node when
travelling through the myelin sheaths is called ___.
1. myelination
2. frequency
4. strength and speed



Question 3
During the presentation, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses continuously. This
statement ___.
1. is correct, because neurons are always active

2. is not correct, because impulses cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period
3. is correct, because the refractory period prevents over-stimulation of the nervous system
4. is not correct, because the resting potential has to be restored before another impulse can
fire

Question 4
The trigger point at which a neuron will "fire" is called ___.
1. ion channel
2. threshold
3. action potential

Question 5
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with increased heart beat and the
contraction of blood vessels, skeletal muscles and heart muscle?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Serotonin
3. Adrenalin
4. Endorphin

into the blood.

Question 6
The time during which a neuron is ready to fire is called ___.
1. action potential
2. resting membrane potential
3. refractory period

not respond to any stimulus. This is called the absolute refractory period. Therefore
option 3 is incorrect. When the neuron is in a condition of readiness, the fluid inside
the neuron is negative relative to the fluid outside, therefore the resting membrane
potential means negative inside and positive outside the neuron.
The tutor realises that many students experience difficulty mastering the structure of the human
nervous system and its functions. The tutor then decides to prepare a presentation to help them
understand the topic.
Question 7
Winch of the following is the most appropriate title for the presentation?
1. The divisions of the human nervous system

2. Human nervous system: structure and function
3. The biological basis of behaviour
4. The brain and behaviour
Question 8
Which of the following is the main function of temporal lobes?
1. The perception of sound, such as spoken words and other sound patterns
2. To interpret visual input and combine it into meaningful patterns
3. To regulate complex mental activities and behaviours
4. To receive input from the senses, and information from muscles and joints

Reasoning: The temporal lobe is responsible for the perception of sound and to understand
spoken words.
option.
Question 9

The tutor asks the students to compile questions for a quiz to test each other’s understanding of the
work. One student asks: "What area of the brain controls the performance of a skilled soccer
player?" Another student answers: ''the frontal lobe". This answer is ___.
1. correct, because there is a map of the areas of the lobe that control certain parts of the body
2. incorrect, because the parietal lobe gives feedback based on somatosensory information
3. incorrect, because the function of the cerebellum is to co-ordinate motor movement
4. partially correct, because subcortical structures also play a role in skilled motor movements

Reasoning: The motor area of the frontal lobe ensures smooth performance of motor skills that
make up complex actions like talking, typing or playing tennis.
Question 10
One of the functions of the limbic system is to help an individual to adapt to situations. This is
achieved by ___.
1. regulating motivated behaviour

2. evaluating the reward value of situations and linking this to information in memory
3. comparing new information with existing information in memory
4. all of the above

Reasoning: The limbic system is made up of several structures that regulate motivated
behaviour, emotions and memory. It evaluates experiences as positive or negative,
links this with information in memory and helps the person adapt to similar
situations that arise.
Question 11
You run away from a large, snarling dog that comes towards you in the park. When you are some
distance away and realise that you are safe, you stop to catch your breath. The physical symptoms
that you now experience are controlled mainly by the ___.


Question 12
The tutor asks the students to identify the correct statement about the brain. The correct statement
is ___.

1. both hemispheres have to work together for effective language use

2. the cerebral hemispheres are connected by the cerebral cortex
3. the left hemisphere regulates the logical and holistic organisation of information
4. the blood-brain barrier protects the brain from being bumped or injured

Question 13
Which psychoactive drugs bring about distorted sensory experiences whereby people experience
imaginary visions and realities?
1. Hallucinogens
2. Inhalants
3. Stimulants
4. Depressants

Reasoning: A hallucinogen leads to distorted sensory experiences and is associated with
serotonin.
Question 14
The chief characteristic of hypnosis is ___.
2. heightened arousal

hypnosis does not enhance a person’s creative ability. Although hypnosis may
generally lead to a heightened ability to concentrate, this is not a chief
characteristic of hypnosis. As a result, option 4 is incorrect.
Question 15
1. Insomnia
2. Catalepsy

3. Sleep apnoea
4. Narcolepsy

Psychology students are required to write an essay on perception and sensation. Sarah decides to
write her essay on the topic of perceptual constancy as an error of perception. She writes the
following introduction: "Although the world is viewed as a fairly constant place, perceptual
constancy is actually a perceptual error because our perceptions are not the same as the
information we receive on the retina. However, perceptual constancy allows us to see the world as a
stable place despite changing conditions around us. This essay deals with the interplay of sensation
and perception in contributing to our understanding of the environment."
Question 16
Evaluate this introduction of the essay.
1. The introduction contextualises the topic

2. The relevant argument to be discussed is well formulated
3. The outline of how the topic will be dealt with is correctly conceptualised
4. All of the above
Question 17
You like to play music when you are studying. The fact that music does not disturb you refers to the
phenomenon of ___.
1. monitoring information rapidly and below the level of awareness

2. automatic attention, because you are not listening to the music
3. accommodation to interfering stimuli
4. habituation, which is a heightened state of responding

event that initially triggered them. Therefore, habituation is defined incorrectly in
option 4, and thus eliminated.
Monitoring is an automatic process, and it does not prevent you from attending to a
particular task at the same time as you are monitoring the environment. It happens
rapidly and below the level of awareness.

Question 18
The student asks her classmates for help in organising her information on perceptual constancy in a
logical sequence. Which of the following is correct?
1. Stimulus received on retina, nerve impulses sent to the brain, threshold crossed, perceptual
constancy
2. Sensory information sent to the brain, information organised, meaning given
3. Sensory stimulus, transduction, monitoring, perceptual organisation
4. Sensory stimulus, transduction, increase in conscious awareness, perceptual constancy.

Reasoning: See the flow in Sensation and Perception in A-Z of Psy.
Question 19
Which of the following is not one of the factors that influence perceptual organisation?
1. Individual's characteristics and past experience

2. The state of the nervous system
3. Individual's arousal level
4. The characteristics of the stimulus

Reasoning: The factors that influence perceptual organisation is:
• The characteristics of the stimulus
• The state of the nervous system
• The individual person’s characteristics and past experience
Question 20
is called ___.
1. chemical system
2. visual system


Question 21
Which principle refers to the tendency to group elements that are close together as though they
represent a figure?

colour, shape and texture as though they represent a figure.
Question 22
The categories we form as mental representations of groups of related items are called ___,
1. concepts
2. thoughts
3. images
4. prototypes

Reasoning: Images are the symbolic representations of objects and their characteristics. A basic
process in thinking is to categorise experiences. The categories we form as mental
representations of groups of related items are called concepts.
Question 23
The process that refers to the decline in the generator potential due to the persistent stimulation of
the receptors is called ___.
1. habituation
2. transduction
3. adaptation
4. conversion

Question 24


Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect because logical reasoning refers to a series of steps in the
reasoning process that leads to a conclusion. In inductive reasoning conclusions are
based on the likelihood of an event occurring, but the premises do not guarantee
the conclusions. Therefore, option 2 is incorrect. Option 3 is incorrect because
critical reasoning involves evaluating information, exploring various options,
explanations and making good judgment. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect.
Question 25
Companies that design motor cars have decided to save money by developing a basic design that
they can all use and then individualise for each different company. The basic design is an example of
___.
1. a conceptual model
2. the superordinate level of a hierarchy
3. a prototype
4. 1&3

Reasoning: A prototype is a model of a concept and forming a prototype is an example of
conceptual thinking,
Question 26
Zodwa, a first-year student, has failed an examination and decides to ask the lecturer to give her a
pass mark because of her difficult personal circumstances. Which fallacy in reasoning is Zodwa using
here?

2. Playing on someone's sympathy to get something done
conclusion
4. Using a slightly changed version of someone else's point of view as basis for reasoning
Question 27
1. Remembering somebody you once saw at the bus stop

2. Remembering a love song

3. Recognising a route to your friend's house
4. Using visual cues to make meaning

Reasoning: Options 1, 3 and 4 refers to seeing (visual)
Question 28
Which of the following is not one of the steps in the process of problem-solving?

3. Ask anyone about the problem

1.
Question 29 refers to the following scenario:
Jennifer is 10 years old and has just completed an intelligence test at school. She correctly answered
all the questions that 10 year-old children can answer and has also correctly answered 10 of the 20
questions that 11 year-old children can answer.
Question 29
On the basis of the above mentioned scenario, what is Jennifer's mental age?
1. 11 years

Reasoning: As Jennifer can perform all the tasks for a child of 10, we bank the number 10.
Therefore, Jennifer’s mental age is 10 years, 6 months.
Question 30
The theory that postulates that there are general and specific factors underlying performance on
intellectual tasks was developed by ___.

1. Spearman
2. Thurston
3. Guilford
4. Gardner

Reasoning: Spearman called the underlying factor ‘general intelligence’, abbreviated as ‘g’, and
specific abilities S-factors.
Billy is a daydreamer and does not always make up his bed. When he forgets to do so, his mother
does it for him but then makes him wash the dishes. When Billy makes up his bed, he gets an extra
piece of fruit in his lunch-box because Billy's mother knows that Billy likes fruit.
Question 31
This scenario is an example of ___.

Question 32
In this scenario, washing the dishes is ___.
2. punishment
4. variable interval reinforcement

Question 33
According to Bandura (1986), which of the following are essential components of observational
learning?
1. Attention, consistency and motivation

2. Modelling and consequences

3. Retention and reproduction

4. All of the above

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 34
Which of the following occurs when making a response removes an unpleasant event?
1. Positive reinforcement
2. Generalisation
3. Negative reinforcement
4. Extinction

Reasoning: Negative reinforcement occurs when making a response removes an unpleasant
event.
Question 35
In classical conditioning, the term extinction refers to ___.


Question 36
Yolanda has looked up a telephone number and is about to dial when her friend asks her a question.
Yolanda answers the question but when she wants to dial the number, she cannot remember it. The
reason that Yolanda forgets the number is ___.
4. interference


process. In this case, Yolanda was about to make a call and the question from her
friend interfered with her concentration. She therefore was unable to remember
the numbery after she gave attention to her friend. The other options are incorrect.
People can remember information by selecting key words or important facts to
provide cues for the information they need to remember. They are however more
likely to forget information when they select it ineffectively (option 1). However, in
this scenario she did not select the information you wanted to remember when
making a phone call. The more people rehearse information the more likely they are
to remember information. However, people are more likely to forget information
because of lack of rehearsal (option 2). However, in this scenario she did not
rehearse making a phone call. Memory skills are improved by organising information
into smaller and more manageable chunks. Poor organisation (option 3) leads to
forgetfulness. However, in this scenario yshe did not organise information poorly.
Question 37
Which of the following is not a characteristic of short-term memory?
1. Short-term memories are encoded as images or as sounds

2. Working memory is a form of short-term memory
3. The capacity of short-term memory is limited
4. We keep information in short-term memory for 2 minutes

Reasoning: We keep information in short-term memory for approximately 20 seconds.
Therefore option 4 is incorrect.
Question 38
so on?

Question 39


4. 1&3

Question 40
expressions are used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ of emotions.
1. cognitive-perceptual component
2. behavioural component
3. physiological component
4. psychological component

Questions 41 and 42 refer to the following scenario:
A friend asks you to explain the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion and you decide to do so with
the aid of a flow chart.
Question 41
Which of the following provides the correct sequence of events in the flow chart?
1. Stimulation, arousal, cognitive appraisal, emotion

2. Stimulation, appraisal, differentiation of emotion, arousal
3. Stimulation, arousal, differentiation of emotion, appraisal
4. Stimulation, arousal, appraisal, emotion, appraisal, behaviour


Question 42
In the flow chart, words such as 'arousal' and 'appraisal' in the answer to question 41 above, can be
referred to as ___.
1. elements
2. labels
3. steps
4. all the above

Reasoning: The elements of a flow chart are the symbols we use to build it.
Question 43
Which one of the following is not a component of emotion?
1. Cognitive-perceptual component
2. Behavioural component
3. Financial component
4. Physiological component

The behavioural component (option 2) arises when emotions are expressed using
bodily gestures and facial expressions.
Question 44
Which one of the following statements about stress and disease is not true?
1. Stress has been linked to cardiovascular disease and the development of cancer
2. People perform at their optimal level under stress
3. Stress can lead to the development of psychosomatic disease

4. Chronic stress can weaken the immune system's response to illness

Reasoning: Performance increases as arousal increases, but it is only true when stress increases
to moderate levels of arousal. Where arousal is increased beyond the moderate
level, performance does not increase further – it decreases.
Question 45
According to the GAS model of stress, during ___ we experience shock, and our ability to cope with
the stressor drops below our normal levels of coping.
1. the alarm and mobilisation phase

2. the secondary appraisal phase
3. the exhaustion phase
4. the resistance phase

Reasoning: During the alarm and mobilisation phase, we become aware of the presence of the
stressor. We experience shock and our ability to cope with the stressor drops to
below our normal levels of coping.
Question 46
Which theoretical approach of personality postulates that behaviour is largely determined by

wishes, desires, and feelings that people are unaware of?
1. Traits approach
2. Psychoanalytic approach
4. Behaviouristic approach

Question 47
The term "character" refers to ___.
1. people's emotions and the way in which they deal and express those emotions
2. stable qualities that mostly remain consistent in various and changing situations
3. aspects of personality involving a person's values and his/her ability to behave according to
those values
4. people who have several traits in common


Question 48
If you describe your best friend as "optimistic, reserved, and friendly," which personality approach
are you using?
2. Trait approach
3. Psychodynamic approach

Question 49
Which personality theory holds the belief that rewards and punishments shape personality
development?
1. Humanistic
2. Behaviouristic
3. Person-centred
4. Psychoanalytic

Reasoning: In the behaviouristic approach, the notion of reinforcement values means that
people attach different values to various activities or rewards. They see childhood
as a time of active drives, powerful rewards and punishments, as well as
frustrations.
Question 50
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of a "hardy personality"?
1. A sense of personal commitment

2. A sense of control
3. Perception of life as a series of challenges
4. Highly competitive and achievement-oriented


Exam October/November 2011

During a class for first-year psychology students, the tutor asks the students to draw up a step-by-
step representation of the sequence of events during impulse conduction. One of the students
provides the following.
A. Stimulus received by soma

B. Resting membrane potential changes into action potential
C. Refractory period during which the impulse is generated
D. Neurotransmitters allow synaptic transmission of the impulse
E. Postsynaptic potentials determine whether the next neuron will produce an action potential
Question 1
The correct order in the sequence of events is ___.
1. A, B, C, D, E
2. A, B, D, E
3. A, B, E, D, C
4. A, C, B, D

Reasoning: See the prescribed textbook.
Question 2
When an axon is insulated with ___ it can conduct impulses much faster than axons that are un-
myelinated.
1. dendrites
2. myelin
3. cell nucleus
4. boutons

Question 3
Sensory or afferent neurons are responsible for ___.
1. carrying messages from the environment to the spinal cord and brain
2. setting the action potential in motion
3. conducting messages from the spinal cord and brain to the muscles and glands

4. ensuring that the soma receives messages from other neurons

Reasoning: The afferent (sensory fibres) carry message to the spinal cord and brain. The
efferent (motor fibres) send messages from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of
the body to respond.
Question 4
The time during which the neuron is not ready to fire is called ___.
1. action potential
2. frequency
3. synapse

not respond to any stimulus. This is called the absolute refractory period.
Question 5
The process whereby impulse is conducted much faster by jumping from node to node when
travelling through the myelin sheath is called ___.
1. Myelination
3. frequency

Question 6
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with muscular rigidity and tremor?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Dopamine
3. Adrenalin
4. Serotonin


Reasoning: Too little dopamine can result in muscle rigidity and tremor.
The tutor realises that many students experience difficulty mastering the structure of the human
nervous system and its functions. The tutor then decides to prepare a presentation to help them
Question 7
Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the presentation?

4. Human nervous system - structure and functions
Question 8
Which part of the brain is responsible for bodily sensations such as touch, temperature and pain?
1. Occipital lobes
2. Temporal lobes
3. Parietal lobes
4. Frontal lobes

Reasoning: The parietal lobe is responsible for somatosensory perception, i.e. touch,
temperature, pressure and pain.
Question 9
Which part of the brain is responsible for combining visual stimuli into meaningful patterns?
1. Occipital lobes
2. Parietal lobes
3. Temporal lobes
4. Frontal lobes

option.

Question 10
The main function of the ___ is to co-ordinate motor movement.
1. pons
3. thalamus
4. cerebellum

Reasoning: The main function of the cerebellum is to co-ordinate motor movement.
Question 11
The left hemisphere of the brain is mainly involved with ___.
1. the logical organization and analysis of information and processing information sequentially
2. processing information holistically and simultaneously
3. creativity and creative thinking
4. spatial or non-verbal activities

Reasoning: The left hemisphere of the brain is mainly involved with the logical organization and
analysis of information (or breaking it down into parts) and processing information
sequentially (placing it in order or sequence).
Question 12
The ___ stimulates the organs and the ___ slows things down again so as to restore and sustain
normal functioning.
1. Somatic nervous system / autonomic nervous system

2. Peripheral nervous system / parasympathetic nervous system
3. Sympathetic nervous system / parasympathetic nervous system
4. Somatic nervous system / sympathetic nervous system

system activates the body for emergency action. The sympathetic nervous system
activates the body and the parasympathetic nervous system restores normal
functioning.
Question 13

1. Insomnia
2. Catalepsy
3. Sleep apnoea
4. Narcolepsy

Question 14
Which brain waves mostly characterize the wakefulness and a relaxed state of the mind?
1. Delta waves
2. Alpha waves
3. Beta waves
4. Theta waves

Reasoning: There are mostly alpha waves when people are awake and relaxed.
Question 15
2. heightened arousal

Question 16
During a class for first-year psychology students, the tutor describes a critical point in a receptor
which determines whether a stimulus is intense enough. This critical point is known as ___.

1. the base threshold

2. the generator potential
3. transduction
4. the absolute threshold

option 2 is the correct answer. A differential threshold (option1) occurs when the
intensity of stimuli is compared to each other in relation to the extent that they
elicit sensory experiences. For example, if a candle is already lit in a room, bringing
in a second candle will not elicit noticeable sensory experience. Therefore, option 1
is incorrect. Receptor potential refers to the resting potential in a receptor. Similar
to a neuron receptor potential is converted into a generator potential when stimuli
that is strong enough is received. Based on this description options 3 and 4 are
incorrect.
Question 17
The tutor asks the class to identify the principle behind the following description "A process of
perceptual organisation that refers to our tendency to complete something spontaneously so that it
has meaning" This is a description of the principle of ___.
1. contour
2. perceptual constancy
3. proximity
4. closure

Reasoning: Closure refers to our tendency to complete something spontaneously so that it has
meaning.
Question 18
Imagine that you have moved into a new house. That night the sound of the water in the pipes keeps
you awake for most of the night. After a few weeks you no longer notice the sound of the water and
sleep soundly. This can be attributed to ___.
1. sleep deprivation
2. habituation
3. dishabituation
4. sensory deprivation


Question 19
You are in a discussion class when you notice a strange smell. The lecturer informs you that your
olfactory nerve has been triggered. Which sensory system does the olfactory nerve form part of?
3. Auditory system
4. Chemical system

Question 20
Imagine that you are at home. You see a man walk into a room and exit through a door at the
opposite end. The scene you have just witnessed can be considered as an illusion because ___.
1. the man was not really in the room with us and is obviously a fantasy
2. the man is seen as a three dimensional object on a flat surface
3. the scene is really a rapid sequence of still pictures that we perceive as movement
4. the man is a constant shape that you recognise as a human being

Question 21
The tendency to group elements that are close together as though they represent a figure is called
the principle of ___.
1. similarity
2. perceptual grouping
3. proximity
4. closure


Question 22
You and your friend go on a nature hike. At the end of the hike your friend, who has an intense
interest in botany, excitedly asks whether you noticed the varieties of trees in the park. You did not
notice any trees. The fact that your friend noticed the various trees can be attributed to ___.
1. your friend 's ability to conduct parallel processing

2. your friend 's spatial organisation
3. the depth cues that your friend saw on the hike
4. your friend's perceptual set

Reasoning: A perceptual set is defined as a state of perceptual readiness that makes the
formation of certain perceptions and actions more likely than others. It provides a
kind of a framework for seeing things and therefore influences the way we perceive
situations or events.
Question 23
Tumelo, your tutor asks your class to work together on an essay explaining the common barriers to
problem-solving. Tumelo suggests that you start by giving the essay a title.
Which of the following topics would be a suitable title for the essay?
1. The structure of reasoning

2. Perception and understanding
3. Group dynamics and learning
4. Cognition heuristics, trial and error
Question 24
You and your classmates discuss the definition of problem-solving and decide to include the
following aspects

B. Each potential solution to a problem may give rise to other problems
C. Problem solving is a process with distinct steps and various strategies
D. Problems are universal and it does not matter how the problem is defined
1. A, B, C, D
2. A, D and B
3. B, C and A
4. D, C and B

definition of the problem. A clear definition is necessary, therefore statement D is

Question 25
One of the students suggests the following definition of perceptual barriers "Perceptual barriers
occur when we think that things can only be done in one way because that is the only way we have
seen others solve the problem" You are asked to evaluate this answer and you think that it is ___.
1. correct, that's the only way things are done

2. incorrect, because perceptual barriers describe a state where our culture limits our view of a
problem
3. incorrect, because perceptual barriers describe a state where we only see one aspect of a
problem and ignore others
4. incorrect, because perceptual barriers describe a state where we become so emotional
about the Issue that we cannot see a solution

Reasoning: Perceptual barrier refers to the fact that we sometimes see only one aspect of a
Question 26
After class you arrange with a classmate to meet you at the library at 3pm but you forget about the
appointment. At 3 30pm your classmate finds you in the cafeteria with your discussion group. When
asked how she found you she responds that you are usually in the library, the cafeteria or the
computer lab at 3pm every day. The approach your classmate used to find you can be considered as
___.
1. deductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that guaranteed an outcome

2. restricted thinking because she restricted her options
3. informal reasoning because there was only one possible outcome
4. inductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that did not guaranteed an outcome

logically from two or more statements or premises. This is deductive reasoning
because the premise was true (I was either in the library, the cafeteria or the
computer lab) and therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (the classmate did not
find me in the library and therefore knew that I would either be in the cafeteria or
the computer lab).
Question 27
On your way home you overhear a conversation between a lecturer and a student. The student
explains that he recently lost his job and could not concentrate in the exam. The student asks the
lecturer to give him a pass mark because these circumstances were beyond his control. This is an
example of ___.
1. formal reasoning because the premises are stated explicitly

2. a fallacy that plays on the lecturer's emotions to support a conclusion
3. a fallacy that discredits the exam as being too difficult

4. informal reasoning because there are several solutions to the problem
Question 28
When you relate the story of the student who lost his job to a classmate, your classmate remarks
that "unemployed people are lazy and always want the easy way out" You disagree with him
because this statement represents ___.
1. an image
2. a prototype
3. a stereotype
4. a concept
Mr Wessels is concerned with the progress of his son at school. His son, Bryan, is 13 years old. The
results of psychological testing indicate that Bryan can perform all the test items passed by 10 year
old children, half of the items passed by 11 year old children and half of the items passed by 12 year
old children.
Question 29
The test results indicate that ___.
1. Bryan is not very intelligent

2. Bryan's mental age is 11 years
3. Bryan's mental age 12 years
4. Bryan has an IQ of 60

Reasoning: As Bryan can perform all the tasks for a child of 10, we bank the number 10.
As he can do half the tasks of a 11-year old, we add half of the year (between 10
Therefore, David’s mental age is 11 years.
IQ = MA/CA x 100
= 11/13 x 100
= 94,6
Question 30
Mr Wessels finds it difficult to accept the test results because all the men in his family are above
average of intelligence. Mr Wessels' understanding of intelligence can be attributed to the ___.
1. general (g) theory of intelligence

2. biological theory of intelligence

3. multiple-factor theory of intelligence
4. information processing approach to intelligence

Reasoning: Galton concluded that success runs in families because intelligence is passed from
generation to generation.
Questions 31 to 35 are based on the following scenario:
piece of fruit in his lunch-box because BilIy's mother knows that Billy likes fruit.
Question 31

Question 32
In classical conditioning, the term spontaneous recovery refers to ___.
1. the situation that after conditioning, stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus may
trigger the same response
2. the reappearance of a response which seemed to have been extinguished
3. the process of discriminating or detecting differences among similar stimuli and only
responding to a specific stimulus

Reasoning: Spontaneous recovery refers to the reappearance of a response which seems to
have been extinguished.
Question 33
Observational learning means that we learn ___.
1. through understanding, knowing and making use of mental processes

2. by watching and imitating the behaviours of others and observing the consequences of
those behaviours
3. through interacting with other people in our social environments
4. by operating on the environments and observing the consequences of those behaviours

Question 34
According to Albert Bandura (1986) which of the following is not one of the essential components to
observational learning?
1. Attention
2. Motivation
3. Retention
4. Frequency

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 35
2. Generalisation
4. Extinction

event.
Question 36
John wants to study psychology next year and asks Elizabeth for the name of the prescribed book for
PYCI501. Two days later, John remembers the name of the book when he goes to the bookstore.
Remembering the name of the book illustrates ___.
1. declarative memory
2. long-term memory

4. 1&2

Since this information has stayed in John’s memory for over two days, it is not part
of his short-term memory any more
Question 37
You are studying at home when you suddenly hear a noise outside. You turn toward the sound, you
hold your breath and you become very aware of the environment. This refers to the phenomenon of
___.
1. attention
2. perceptual organisation
3. the perceptual law of contouring
4. the orienting response

stimulation.
Question 38
reason that Yolanda forgets the number is ___.
3. poor organization
4. interference

People can remember information by selecting key words or important facts to
provide cues for the information they need to remember. They are however more
likely to forget information when they select it ineffectively (option 1). However, in
this scenario she did not select the information you wanted to remember when
making a phone call. The more people rehearse information the more likely they are
to remember information. However, people are more likely to forget information
because of lack of rehearsal (option 2). However, in this scenario she did not
rehearse making a phone call. Memory skills are improved by organising information

into smaller and more manageable chunks. Poor organisation (option 3) leads to
forgetfulness. However, in this scenario she did not organise information poorly.
Question 39 and 40 refer to the following scenario:
Your lecturer asks you to explain the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion and you decide to do so
with the aid of a flow chart.
Question 39
Which of the following provides the correct sequence of events in the flow charts?


Question 40
In the flow chart, words such as 'arousal' and 'appraisal' in the answer to question to above can be
referred to as ___.
1. labels
2. elements
3. steps
4. all of the above

Reasoning: The elements of a flow chart are the symbols we use to build it.
Question 41
According to the two-factor theory of emotion, the experience of emotion depends on ___

4. 1&3


Question 42
Which of the following is an example of an emotion?
1. crying with relief

2. laughing at a joke
3. being afraid of the dark
4. yawning in the classroom
Question 43
Cindy is creative, peaceful, silent and submissive.
Amy is intelligent, aggressive, hardy and an achiever.
Solomon is sensitive to the feelings of others, persistent, self-motivating and controlled.
Resh is witty, extrovert, anxious and rational.
Which one out of these four friends is emotionally intelligent?
1. Amy
2. Cindy
3. Solomon
4. Resh

Question 44
Which of the following phases is not part of the GAS model of stress?
1. The exhaustion phase

2. The alarm and mobilization phase
3. The resistance phase
4. The psycho-social phase


Reasoning: The GAS model considers stress as a three-phased process; 1) the alarm and
mobilisation phase, 2) the resistance phase, and 3) the exhaustion phase.
Question 45
Which of the following statement(s) about stress and disease is/are true?
1. Chronic diseases are associated with prolonged stress

2. Diseases start and develop in the presence of intense stress experienced over a shorter
period of time
3. In psychosomatic diseases the emotional problems may arise in reaction to a health problem
4. 1&3

Reasoning: The culprit seems to be prolonged periods of stress, or so-called chronic stress,
rather than intense stress experienced over shorter periods of time. Thus, option 2
is incorrect.
Question 46
A personality theory is best described as ___.
1. a group of concepts and values proposed to explain personality

2. a system of concepts, assumptions, ideas and principles proposed to explain personality
3. a system limited to psychological concepts and spiritual factors proposed to explain
personality
4. all the above

Reasoning: A personality theory is ‘a system of concepts, assumptions, ideas and principles
proposed to explain personality’ (Coon, 2001:483).
Question 47
Which personality theory is based on the idea that behaviour is shaped by the wishes, desires and
feelings that people are unaware of'
1. Allport's trait theory

2. Cattell 's source trait theory
3. The five-factor theory
4. Psychoanalytic theory


Question 48
One student states that personality is shaped by many factors. The belief that rewards and
punishments shape personality development reflects which theory of personality?
1. Humanistic
2. Behaviouristic
3. Person-centred
4. Psychoanalytic

frustrations.
Question 49
Lerato is an optimistic, reserved, and a friendly person. Which personality approach best describe
this behaviour?
2. Trait approach

Question 50
those values

Exam May/June 2012

Question 1

During the class presentation on neurons, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses
continuously. This statement is ___.

2. not correct, because the resting potential has to be restored before a neuron can fire again
3. not correct, because impulses cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period

Question 2
4. ensuring that an impulse is conducted faster through the axon to the boutons

Question 3
The trigger point at which a neuron will "fire" is called ___.
1. postsynaptic gap
2. action potential
4. threshold

Question 4
The time during which a neuron is ready to fire is called ___.

2. action potential


not respond to any stimulus. This is called the absolute refractory period. Therefore
option 3 is incorrect. When the neuron is in a condition of readiness, the fluid inside
the neuron is negative relative to the fluid outside, therefore the resting membrane
potential means negative inside and positive outside the neuron.
Question 5
The discharge of a nerve impulse ___.
1. is an all-or-nothing event
2. is strongest when myelin is present
3. starts near the synapse
4. all of the above

Reasoning: See the section on the characteristics of impulse conduction.
Question 6
Which neurotransmitter is associated with seasonal depression and mood disorders?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Serotonin
3. Adrenalin
4. Endorphin

seasonal depression and mood disorders.
The tutor for PYC 1501 module realises that many students experience difficulty mastering the
structure of the human nervous system and its functions. The tutor then decides to prepare a
presentation to help them understand the topic.
Question 7
Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the presentation?

3. The human nervous system structure and function

Question 8
Which of the following is the function of occipital lobes?

4. To control voluntary motor movements

option.
Question 9
Which of the following is not part of the hindbrain?
1. Pons
2. Medulla oblongata
3. Hypothalamus
4. Cerebellum

Reasoning: The main structures of the hindbrain is the medulla oblongata, cerebellum (small
brain) and the pons.
Question 10
Which lobes are responsible for regulating complex mental activities and behaviours?
1. Occipital lobes
2. Temporal lobes
3. Parietal lobes
4. Frontal lobes

Reasoning: The frontal lobes represent the most recently evolved part of the brain. These
regulate complex mental activities and behaviours.
Question 11
Which of the following statements about the brain is correct?

1. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by the cerebral cortex

2. The left hemisphere regulates the logical and holistic organisation of information
3. Both hemispheres have to work together for effective language use
4. The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from being bumped

Question 12
You run away from a large, snarling dog that comes towards you in the park. When you are some
that you now experience are controlled mainly by the
1. Sympathetic nervous system

2. Parasympathetic nervous system
3. Somatic nervous system
4. Neurotransmitter

Question 13
2. improved memory

Question 14
Which psychoactive drugs bring about distorted sensory experiences, whereby people experience
1. Hallucinogens

2. Depressants
3. Inhalants
4. Stimulants

Question 15
John tends to experience sleeping difficulties. He sometimes wakes up in the middle of the night,
gasping for breath, and then goes back to sleep. What sleep disorder is John experiencing?
1. Sleep apnoea
2. Insomnia
3. Catalepsy
4. Narcolepsy

question.
• A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden collapse, whereby a
person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy therefore, option 3
is incorrect.
• Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep, therefore option 2 is
also incorrect.
• Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night, gasping
for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 1 is the correct option.
• Narcolepsy (option 4) is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep
that usually lasts for few minutes.
Question 16
The process whereby receptor cells in the skin transform one form of energy to another is called
___.
2. absolute threshold
3. conversion
4. adaptation
Answer: The correct answer is ‘transduction’

Reasoning: Transduction describes a process whereby the receptors transform one form of
energy to another.
Question 17
Which of the following is not an attribute of perceptual constancy?

1. Constant colour
2. Constant shape
3. Constant stability
4. Constant size

Reasoning: There are four attributes of perceptual constancy:
• Constant size
• Constant shape
• Constant brightness
• Constant colour
Question 18
The tendency to group elements that are close together as though they represent a figure is called
the principle of ___.
1. similarity
3. proximity
4. closure

Question 19
The ___ provides information about the environment immediately outside the skin, relating to
touch, pressure, heat, cold, and pain.
1. chemical system
2. visual system

Reasoning: The somaesthetic system provides information about the environment immediately
outside the skin, relating to touch, pressure, heat, cold and pain.
Question 20

2. Individual's level of blood pressure


Question 21
1. adaptation
2. habituation
3. transduction
4. conversion

Question 22
The process whereby an answer to a problem suddenly appears without a person actually thinking
about. It is called ___.
1. restricted thinking
2. insight
3. reasoning
4. problem-solving

Reasoning: Sometimes an answer to a problem appears suddenly and we wonder why we did
not see it before. This is called insight into a problem.
Question 23
The categories we form as mental representations of groups of related items are called ___.
1. thoughts
2. concepts
3. images
4. prototypes


Question 24
Peter says "Mr Smith did not keep his appointment. He is unreliable" This is an example of ___
reasoning.
1. deductive
2. critical
3. logical
4. inductive

Reasoning: In inductive reasoning conclusions are based on the likelihood of an event
occurring, but the premises do not guarantee the conclusions. Therefore, option 4 is
incorrect. Option 2 is incorrect because critical reasoning involves evaluating
information, exploring various options, explanations and making good judgment.
Question 25
Car manufacturing companies have decided to save money by developing a basic design that they
can all use and then individualise for each different company. The basic design is an example of ___.
3. a prototype
4. 1&3

conceptual thinking.
Question 26
___ refers to the process of drawing a conclusion that follows logically from two or more statements
2. Restricted thinking



Therefore, option 4 is incorrect. Deductive reasoning is informed by the formal rules
of logic. In this type of reasoning, if the premise is true then the conclusion must
also be true. Therefore, option 3 is correct.
Question 27
Alice, a first-year student has failed an examination and decided to ask the lecturer to give her a pass
mark because of her difficult personal circumstances. Which fallacy of reasoning is Alice using here?

conclusion
4. Using a slightly changed version of someone else's point of view as basis for reasoning

Question 28
Jennifer is 10 years-old and has just completed an intelligence test at school. She correctly answered
questions that 11 year-old children can answer. On the basis of the above mentioned scenario, what
is Jennifer's mental age?
4. 11 years

Therefore, David’s mental age is 10 years and 6 months.
Question 29
The theory that states that there are general and specific factors underlying performance on
1. Thurston
2. Guilford
3. Gardner
4. Spearman


piece of fruit in his lunch-box
Question 30

Question 31
In this scenario, washing the dishes serves as a ___.
1. conditioned response
2. punishment
4. variable Interval reinforcement

Question 32
In the ___ terms reward and punishment form a central part of behaviour modification
4. associative learning



Question 33


Question 34
Dogs automatically salivate when they see or smell food. This is an example of ___.
2. unconditioned stimulus
3. unconditioned response
4. a conditioned stimulus

Reasoning: A conditioned response (salivating) is the response that follows the conditioned
stimulus (food)
Question 35
2. Generalisation
4. Extinction

event.
Question 36
so on?


Question 37
Which of the following is not correct about memory encoding?
1. Encoding can be improved by using visual imagery

2. Encoding can be improved by linking one fact to other bits of information
3. Encoding can be easier when we make information personally meaningful
4. Encoding can last only for 2 minutes

Reasoning: Options 1, 2 and 3 refers to strategies to improve memory and make encoding
effective, namely elaboration, visual imagery and ascribing meaning.
Question 38
reason that Yolanda forgets the number is due to ___.
1. retrieval
2. lack of attention
3. motivated forgetting
4. interference

Questions 39 and 40 refer to the following scenario.
A friend that could not attend the class asks you to explain the cognitive appraisal theory of
emotion, and you decide to do so with the aid of a flow chart
Question 39
According to Cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, which of the following provides the correct
sequence of events on the flow chart?



Question 40
Which of the following is not one of the criteria for identifying primary emotions?
1. Primary emotions must be evident in all cultures

2. Primary emotions must be associated with a distinct facial expression
3. Primary emotions must contribute to survival
4. Primary emotions must be evident in human beings only

Question 41
According to the Two-Factor theory of emotion, the experience of emotion depends on ___.

4. 1&3


Question 42
used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ of emotions.

Question 43
You are relaxed when you walk into the exam room but then you notice that none of your friends
from your study group are in the exam room. You panic, your heart rate and blood pressure increase
and you start to think that you must have the wrong exam date or venue. This is an example of ___.
1. physical tension, resulting from increased activity of the autonomic nervous system
2. emotional tension, caused by increased autonomic activity and the interpretation of the
environment as threatening
3. emotional tension, resulting from Increased activity of the autonomic nervous system
4. physical tension, caused by increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system and
cognitive appraisal of the situation

Reasoning: The physiological component refers to physiological arousal. The sympathetic
system activates the body for emergency action, and the parasympathetic system
reverses these effects.
Question 44
According to the GAS model of stress, during the we experience shock, and our ability to cope with
the stressor drops below our normal levels of coping
1. alarm and mobilisation phase

2. secondary appraisal phase
3. exhaustion phase
4. resistance phase


Question 45
Which of the following statements about stress and health is not true?
1. Stress has been linked to cardiovascular disease and cancer

2. Many people perform at their optimal level under stress
3. Stress can lead to the development of psychosomatic disease
4. Chronic stress can weaken the immune system's response to illness

Question 46
Which approach to personality development postulates that behaviour is largely determined by

1. Traits approach

Question 47
Which approach to personality development holds the belief that rewards and punishments shape
personality development?
1. Humanistic
2. Behaviouristic
3. Biological
4. Psychoanalytic



frustrations.
Question 48

4. Unlikely to develop heart disease

Question 49
1. people's emotions and the way in which they deal with and express those emotions
2. stable qualities that mostly remain consistent m various and changing situations
3. aspects of personality involving a person's values and his /her ability to behave according to
those values

Question 50
If you describe your best friend as "optimistic, reserved, and friendly," which personality approach
are you using?
2. Traits approach



Question 1
Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for speeding up metabolism and releasing
glucose in the bloodstream?
1. Dopamine
2. Serotonin
3. Adrenalin
4. GABA

into the blood.
Question 2
During the class presentation, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses continuously.
This statement is ___.

2. not correct, because the resting potential has to be restored before another impulse can fire
3. not correct, because impulses cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period

Question 3

2. synapse
3. action potential

Question 4

The strength and speed of impulse conduction can vary. This statement is ___.
1. incorrect, because impulse conduction is an all-or-nothing event

2. correct, because strength and speed can vary with nerve fibres of different sizes
3. incorrect, because strength and speed are constant in a particular neuron
4. correct, because the intensity of the stimulus makes no difference in terms of the frequency
at which impulses are conducted

Question 5
The discharge of a nerve impulse ___.
1. is strongest when un-myelin is present

2. occurs during refractory period
4. all of the above.

Reasoning: See the section on the characteristics of impulse conduction.
Question 6
Which of the following neurotransmitters regulates the sleep - wake cycle and temperature
in the body, and is associated with seasonal depression?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Serotonin
3. Adrenalin
4. Endorphin

seasonal depression and mood disorders. Serotonin helps regulate the sleep-wake
cycle and temperature.
During the class presentation by one of the students, the tutor realised that many students
experienced difficulty mastering the structure and the functions of human nervous system. The tutor
then decides to prepare a presentation to help them understand the topic.
Question 7

The central nervous system is made up of the ___.
1. brain and spinal cord

2. neurons and organs that are found beyond the brain
3. spinal cord and glands
4. organs and glands

Reasoning: The central nervous system is made up of the brain and the spinal cord.
Question 8
Which of the following is the main function of the temporal lobes?

2. The regulation of complex mental activities and behaviours
4. To receive input about sensations and information from muscles and joints

spoken words.
The occipital lobe is responsible for the perception of vision. (option 1)
Question 9
Which of the following statements about the structure of the brain is correct?
1. The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by the corpus callosum

2. The right hemisphere regulates the logical organisation and analysis of information
3. The space between the skull and the brain is filled with neurotransmitters
4. The cerebral cortex is composed of tissue mostly made up of cell bodies called pia matter.

Reasoning: The left hemisphere regulates the logical organisation and analysis of information.
The two hemispheres are connected by a thick band of fibres called the corpus
callosum.
Question 10
One of the functions of the limbic system is to help the person to adapt to situations. This is
achieved by ___.

4. All of the above


Question 11
During the class presentation, one of the students asks you a question' "What area of the brain is
responsible for bodily sensations such as touch, temperature and pain?" Your answer is ___.
1. temporal lobes
2. occipital lobes
3. parietal lobes
4. frontal lobes

Question 12
The tutor wants the students to apply their knowledge to everyday situations by describing a person
whose behaviour is the result of sympathetic dominance. Such a person is more likely to ___.
1. experience chronic tension, poor concentration and inability to relax

2. have difficulties of respiration and digestion
3. have appropriate reactions and good concentration
4. be under-aroused and appear lethargic

Reasoning: Option 3 refers to a person who is autonomically balanced.
Options 2 and 4 refer to a person with parasympathetic dominance.
Question 13
The term "narcolepsy" is associated with ___.
1. breathing difficulties during sleep

2. inability to sleep
3. an overwhelming need to sleep
4. sleep paralysis that occurs Just before falling asleep or waking up in the morning

question. Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that
usually lasts for few minutes.

Option 1 refers to sleep apnoea.

Option 2 refers to insomnia.
Option 4 refers to catalepsy.
Question 14
The psychoactive drug called amphetamine, is a powerful ___ that increases the release of
dopamine in the human brain.
1. hallucinogen
2. inhalant
3. stimulant
4. depressant

Reasoning: Amphetamines are powerful stimulants that increase the release of dopamine in
the brain.
Question 15
1. insomnia
2. catalepsy
3. narcolepsy
4. sleep apnoea

Question 16
Which system provide information about the movement immediately outside the skin, relating to
touch, pressure and heat?
1. Chemical system
3. Auditory system


Question 17
The student asks her classmates for help in organising the information on perceptual constancy in a
logical sequence. Which of the following sequence is correct?
1. stimulus received on retina - nerve impulses sent to the brain - threshold crossed –
2. sensory information sent to the brain - information organised - meaning given
3. sensory stimulus - transduction - increase in conscious awareness - perceptual constancy
4. visual stimulus - transduction - monitoring - perceptual organisation
Question 18
1. receptor potential
2. habituation
3. transduction

Question 19
The process whereby receptor cells transform one form of energy (e.g. sound energy) to another in
order to be processed by the nervous system is called ___.
1. transduction
3. adaptation
4. generator potential.

energy to another.
Question 20
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that influence perceptual organisation?

1. The surrounding environmental cues

2. Individual 's characteristics and past experience

Question 21
The ___ refers to the boundary or other feature that separates the figure from the ground.
2. principle of proximity
3. contour
4. closure

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp 299-300
Reasoning: Contour refers to the boundary or other feature that separates the figure from the
ground.
Question 22
Which of the following refers to the process of drawing conclusion that follows logically from two or
more statements?
4. Analogical reasoning

Question 23
Which of the following is NOT an example of visual representation as a form of thinking?
1. remembering somebody you once saw at the bus stop

2. recognising a route to your friend's house

3. using visual cues to make meaning
4. remembering a love song

Reasoning: Option 4 is auditory, not visual.
Question 24
NOT part of critical reasoning?
1. Use open-ended questions

2. Develop individual thinking
3. Be empathetic
4. Avoid over-generalizations

Reasoning: Another source of critical reasoning is collective thinking that involves not making
decisions on your own.
Question 25
Which of the following sentences indicates the relationship between language and thought?
1. While talking to John over the phone, Jim thinks to himself" Why did I forget about that?"
2. Sarah comments after watching the movie "This was a nice movie" and Mary agrees
3. Peter warns David "The situation is now more dangerous than you realise "
4. James advises Willy to buy a brand-new car
Question 26
Which of the following refers to formal conceptual hierarchies that are based on exact definitions or
agreements about attributes in an objective sense?
1. Connotative meaning
2. Conceptual rule
3. Denotative meaning
4. Stereotype

Reasoning: Denotative meaning = based on exact definitions or agreements about attributes in
an objective sense.
Question 27

Which of the following IS NOT one of the steps in the process of problem-solving?
1. Evaluate and learn from the situation

4. Identify the problem without defining it

Reasoning: One of the steps are to identify the problem and clearly define it.
Question 28
Sandra is 10 years old and has just completed an intelligence test at school. She correctly answered
all the questions that 10-year-old children can answer and has also correctly answered 15 of the 30
questions that 11 year-old children can answer. On the basis of the above-mentioned scenario, what
is Sandra's mental age?
1. 11 years

Reasoning: As Sandra can perform all the tasks for a child of 10, we bank the number 10.
Therefore, Sandra’s mental age is 10 years, 6 months.
Question 29
There are two important characteristics of a psychological measure. These are ___.
1. reliability and mental age

2. validity and reliability
3. intelligence and validity
4. creativity and intelligence
Question 30
1. Thurston
2. Guilford
3. Spearman
4. Gardner


Questions 31- 33 refer to the following scenario:
Living in a rural area, James sometimes forget to fetch the wood from the forest. When he forgets to
do so, his mother does it for him but then makes him wash the dishes. When James fetches the
wood from the forest, he gets an extra piece of fruit in his lunch-box.
Question 31

Question 32
In this scenario, getting a piece of fruit serves as ___.
2. punishment
3. reinforcement

Reasoning: Positive reinforcement occurs when a pleasant or desirable reinforcer follows a
response.
Question 33
In this scenario, washing the dishes is a form of ___
1. punishment
2. spontaneous recovery
3. reinforcement


Question 34
learning?

4. all of the above

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 35
3. extinction

event.
Question 36
so on?
1. non-declarative memory
2. short-term memory


Question 37
The ___ monitors and regulates the information needed for reasoning and problem solving
3. long-term knowledge store

Reasoning: The correct answer to this question is option 3 because the executive control system
is responsible for controlling and regulating information needed for reasoning and
problem solving. Your ability to understand concepts is an example of the functions
of the executive control system. Option 1 is incorrect because the visuospatial
sketchpad is responsible for manipulating visual images. Option 2 is also incorrect
because the phonological loop is responsible for retrieval of verbal information. For
example, when someone verbally tells you his or her phone number, this is accessed
directly by the phonological loop in the form of a speech. Option 4 is also incorrect
because long-term memory is responsible for storing explicit and factual
information and events over long periods.
Question 38
What term refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information we have stored in
memory?
1. Encoding
2. Forgetting
3. Retrieval
4. Decay

Option 2 is the correct answer
Question 39

4. 1&3


Question 40
expressions are used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ of emotions.

Question 41
According to the two-factor theory of emotion, which of the following provides the correct sequence
of events in the experience of emotion?
1. stimulation - arousal - cognitive appraisal - emotion

2. stimulation - arousal - emotion - appraisal - behaviour
3. stimulation - arousal - appraisal - emotion - behaviour
4. stimulation - arousal - behaviour - emotion – appraisal


Question 42
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for identifying primary emotions?

2. Emotions must be associated with a distinct facial expression
3. Emotions must be evident in human beings only
4. Emotions must contribute to survival

Question 43
You are relaxed when you walk into the exam room but then you notice that none of your friends
from your study group are in the exam room. You start to panic and your heart rate and blood
pressure increase and you start to think that you must have the wrong exam date or venue. This
scenario is an example of ___.
3. emotional tension, resulting from increased activity of the autonomic nervous system
cognitive appraisal of the situation.

Question 44
According to GAS model of stress, during the __ we experience shock, and our ability to cope with
the stressor drops below our normal levels of coping.
1. secondary appraisal phase

2. exhaustion phase
4. resistance phase


Question 45
Which one of the following statements about stress and disease is NOT true?
1. stress has been linked to cardiovascular disease and the development of cancer
2. stress can lead to the development of psychosomatic disease
3. stress can weaken the immune system's response to illness
4. people perform at their optimal level under stress

Question 46
Which theoretical approach of personality postulates that behaviour is largely determined by

1. Traits approach

Question 47
The ___ approach to personality holds the belief that rewards and punishments shape personality
development.
1. behaviouristic
2. humanistic
3. biological
4. psychoanalytic

frustrations.
Question 48

Which personality approach views people as creative, rational beings, capable of controlling their
own innate impulses?

Reasoning: Humanists see people as creative beings, capable of free choice. They see people as
conscious and rational beings who can control their innate impulses.
Question 49
those values

Question 50
If you describe your best friend as "optimistic, reserved and friendly," which personality approach
are you using?
1. The humanistic approach

2. The biological approach
3. The trait approach
4. The Psychoanalytic approach

Exam May/June 2013

Question 1
One of the statements your classmate makes is that "axons that are insulated with myelin can
conduct impulses much slower than axons that are un-myelinated " You think this statement is ___.

1. correct
2. partially correct, because although axons can be unmyelinated, the speed of impulse
conduction is not affected at all
3. incorrect, because axons that are myelinated conduct impulses much faster than un-
myelinated axons
4. partially incorrect

Question 2
Your classmate in Psychology class mentions that when the electrical charge of an impulse is strong
enough to exceed the threshold, the resting membrane potential is changed into salutatory
conduction. You totally disagree and say that it changes into ___.
1. an absolute refractory period

2. action potential
3. a synapse

Question 3
During the class presentation on neurons, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses
continuously. This statement is

2. incorrect, because the resting potential has to be restored before a neuron can fire again
3. incorrect, because impulses cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period
4. correct, because the refractory period prevents overstimulation of the nervous system

Question 4

Student A states that before an impulse can be conducted, there must be a condition of readiness in
the neuron. This condition is called action potential. You ___.
1. agree with the student, it is action potential

2. disagree, the condition is called resting membrane potential
3. disagree, the condition of readiness is called a refractory period
4. disagree, this condition is called postsynaptic potential

Reasoning: When the neuron is in a condition of readiness, the fluid inside the neuron is
negative relative to the fluid outside, therefore the resting membrane potential
means negative inside and positive outside the neuron.
Question 5
The process whereby an impulse is conducted by jumping from node to node in the neuron is called
1. an absolute refractory period


Question 6
The sensory afferent neurons are responsible for ___.
2. ensuring that the chemical process, is conducted across the synaptic cleft from one neuron
to another neuron
4. ensuring that the soma receives messages from other neurons

Read the following scenario and answer the questions below.
Scenario

James "I read somewhere that a person whose frontal lobe is damaged will lose control of voluntary
movements, including the production of speech"
Agnes "Oh I see. That explains why Mrs Smith has blurred speech in addition, she also has a problem
with the perception of sound. She seems not to understand spoken words and other sound
patterns"
Paul "That means her occipital lobe is damaged"
Agnes "I have also noticed that her vision is not so good, she can hardly see me. For example,
yesterday when I greeted her, she thought I was someone else. I guess something must be wrong
with her brain, or probably it is just old age"
Paul "She probably has a tumour on the parietal lobe "
Question 7
During their conversation, James states that a person with the damage to the frontal lobe will lose
control of voluntary movements, including the production of speech. You think the statement is ___.
1. correct, because it is the parietal lobe that is involved in the production of speech and the
control of voluntary movements
2. correct, the frontal lobe is involved both in the control of voluntary movements and the
production of speech
3. incorrect, because it is the temporal lobe that controls voluntary movements and the
production of speech
4. incorrect, because the occipital lobe controls the production of speech and voluntary
movements

Reasoning: • The temporal lobe is responsible for the perception of sound and to
understand spoken words.
• The occipital lobe is responsible for the perception of vision.
• The parietal lobe is responsible for somatosensory perception, i.e. touch,
• The frontal lobe is responsible for motor movement, including the
production of speech.
Question 8
When Agnes mentions that Mrs Smith seems not to understand spoken words and other sound
pattern" Paul responds by saying that Mrs Smith's occipital lobe is damaged. You think that Paul is
___.
1. incorrect, because it is the temporal lobe that is involved in understanding spoken words
and other sound patterns
2. incorrect, the correct answer is the parietal lobe
3. correct, the occipital lobe is involved in understanding spoken words and other sound
patterns
4. incorrect, the correct answer is the frontal lobe


Question 9
During the conversation, Paul mentions that Mrs Smith's poor vision is a result of the damage to the
parietal lobe. You think this is ___.
1. correct, it is the parietal lobe that is involved with vision

2. incorrect, because poor vision occurs as a result or damage to the occipital lobe
3. incorrect, as you think it is the temporal lobe
4. incorrect, as you think it must be the frontal lobe

Question 10
Student A mentions that the frontal lobe is involved in bodily sensations, such as pain, touch, and
temperature. You think this statement is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it is the temporal lobe
3. incorrect, it is the parietal lobe
4. incorrect, it is the occipital lobe

Question 11
You and your friend have been chased by a large dog in your neighbourhood. When you are some
that you now experience are controlled by the ___.


3. somatic nervous system

Question 12
Student A states that a person whose behaviour is the result of dominance of sympathetic nervous
system is characterised by:
(1) a state of under-arousal,
(2) shallow breathing due to tension in the chest muscles,
(3) inability to relax and sleep, and
(4) lethargy and poor motivation.
You ___.
1. disagree with statements 2 and 4 only

2. agree with statements 2 and 3 only
3. disagree with statement 1 and 3 only
4. agree with all the of the above statements

good.
Options 2 and 3 refers to a person who has sympathetic dominance, and options 1
and 4 refers to a person with parasympathetic dominance, neither of which is
autonomically balanced (in a state of autonomic homeostasis)
Question 13
John tends to experience sleeping difficulty. He can hardly fall asleep at night. Sometimes he wakes
up in the middle of the night and then is unable to fall asleep again. What sleep disorder is John
suffering from?
1. Narcolepsy
2. Catalepsy
3. Sleep apnoea
4. Insomnia


person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy (option 2). Insomnia is
characterised by an inability to fall asleep (option 4). Sleep apnoea is marked by a
sleep (option 3) Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that
usually lasts for a few minutes.
Question 14
1. Insomnia
2. Catalepsy
3. Sleep apnoea
4. Narcolepsy

Question 15
Which psychoactive drugs bring about distorted sensory experiences, whereby people experience
1. Hallucinogens
2. Depressants
3. Inhalants
4. Stimulants

Question 16
During a class for first-year Psychology students, the tutor describes a process in sensation where
receptors transform one form of energy (such as light) into another (like an electrical impulse) This
process is known as ___.
1. base threshold

3. transduction

energy to another.
Question 17
perceptual organisation that refers to our tendency to complete something spontaneously so that it
has meaning. This is a description of the ___.
1. law of contour
2. principle of similarity
4. law of closure

Reasoning: Closure refers to our tendency to complete something spontaneously so that it has
meaning.
Question 18
While studying at home you notice that your neighbour's car alarm keeps going off. After a while you
are surprised to realise that you no longer notice it until you consciously think about the sound. This
can be attributed to ___.
1. conversion
3. habituation
4. dishabituation

Question 19
You are in a discussion class when you notice a light touch on your arm. You notice that an insect is
walking across your skin. Which sensory system does the sense of touch form part of?
3. Auditory system
4. Chemical system


Question 20
1. habituation
2. transduction
3. adaptation
4. conversion

Question 21
You are walking down the street and notice a group of people on the sidewalk. You later tell your
friends about this and they ask why you assumed the people were all part of the group. You realise
that there was no reason to assume that the people belonged to a group and could have merely
been walking close to each other. One of your friends says that this refers to the principle of closure.
You think this statement is ___.
1. correct, it is the principle of closure

2. incorrect, the statement refers to the principle of similarity
3. incorrect, it must be the principle of continuity
4. incorrect, it is the principle of proximity

principle of proximity.
Question 22
Your tutor, Tumelo, asks your class to work as groups on an essay. Anthony, one of the students,
objects to this because he believes that he is smarter than other members of his group. He says that
in groups there are always individuals who benefit from the work of others and get an undeserved
mark. Anthony's reasoning is ___.
1. irrelevant, it does not matter what his personal opinion on the matter is
2. invalid, he provided no premise for his conclusion
3. invalid, the premise is correct, but the conclusion is invalid

4. invalid, the premise is incorrect but the conclusion is valid
Question 23
You and your classmates are discussing the definition of problem-solving. Which of the following
aspects are correct about problem-solving?
A. Problem-solving requires two phases to successfully solve a problem

C. Problem-solving is a process with distinct steps and various strategies
1. A, B, C and D
2. A, D and B
3. B, C and A
4. D, C and B

Question 24
You overhear a conversation between two students where they discuss how difficult it is to admit
that they don't understand the work in class. You point out to them that if they don't let the tutor
know what they don't understand, they can never receive help on these topics. They understand this
but tell you that they are just too embarrassed to admit that they can't keep up with the rest of the
class. You explain to them that their thinking is being restricted by ___.
1. insight into their problem which only allows them to see one aspect of the problem
2. cultural barriers that lead them to believing in things that are not true
3. emotional barriers that clouds the logical analysis of the situation
4. leamed barriers that prevent them from learning new concepts

Reasoning: Sometimes we are unable to solve problems because our emotions get in the way
of thinking clearly, i.e. the fear of being embarrassed.
Question 25
After class you arrange with a classmate to meet you at the library at 15 00 but you forget about the
appointment. At 15 30 your classmate finds you in the cafeteria with your discussion group. When
asked how she found you she responds that you are usually in the library, the cafeteria or the
computer lab around 15 00 every day. The approach your classmate used to find you can be
considered as ___.

1. deductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that guaranteed an outcome

2. restricted thinking because she restricted her options
3. informal reasoning because there was only one possible outcome
4. inductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that did not guarantee an outcome

because the premise was true (I was either in the library, the cafeteria or in the
computer lab) and therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (the classmate did not
find me in the library and therefore knew that I would either be in the cafeteria or
the computer lab).
Question 26
On your way home you overhear a conversation between two students that failed the class test and
are upset. The first student explains that he does not trust the lecturer's knowledge base because he
does not use jargon when explaining concepts. He reasons that a true expert would only use the
correct names for concepts. Since the lecturer is not an expert they reason that they should have
their papers remarked by an expert who understands the work. This is an example of ___.
1. formal reasoning because the premises are stated explicitly

2. a fallacy that plays on the lecturer’s emotions to support the issue
3. a fallacy that discredits the test by discrediting the lecturer
4. informal reasoning because there are several solutions to the problem
Question 27
You are asked to assist the athletics team in preparing for the season. The coach wants you to work
closely with an exchange student from Kenya. The coach believes that the student must be an
excellent long-distance runner and that the only reason she has not performed thus far is because
she has a psychological barrier. This scenario is an example of (an) ___.
1. emotional barrier in the Kenyan athlete

2. prototype concept formation
3. stereotype
4. conceptual error

Reasoning: The inaccurate use of concepts can lead to errors in thinking. If we oversimplify a
complex category, this can result in the formation of stereotypes or rigid ways of
thinking.
Question 28

Mr Wessels is concerned with the progress of his son, Bryan (aged 13) at school. The results of the
psychological intelligence test indicate that Bryan can perform all the test items passed by 10 year-
old children, half of the items passed by 11 year old children and half of the items passed by 12 year
old children. The lest results indicate that ___.
1. Bryan is not very intelligent

2. Bryan’s mental age is 11 years
3. Bryan 's mental age IS 12 years
4. Bryan has an IQ of 60

Reasoning: As Bryan can perform all the tasks for a child of 10, we bank the number 10.
IQ = MA/CA x 100
= 11/13 x 100
= 94,6
Question 29
Mr Wessels finds it difficult to accept the test result, and asserts that his son has great musical
ability. At the age of 13, Bryan is already composing his own music and therefore cannot be
performing on the test below his age on any level. Mr Wessels' understanding of intelligence can be
attributed to the ___.
1. General (g) theory of intelligence

2. Biological theory of intelligence
3. Multiple intelligences theory of intelligence
4. Information processing approach to intelligence

Reasoning: According to the general theory of intelligence there is a strong relation between
performances on different intellectual tasks.
Question 30
Billy, a nine-year-old boy does not always make up his bed. When he forgets to do so, his mother
does it for him but then makes him wash the dishes. When he does remember to make up his bed,
he gets an extra piece of fruit in his lunch box. This scenario is an example of ___.


Question 31
In this scenario, washing the dishes serves as ___.
3. punishment
4. variable interval reinforcement

Question 32
In this scenario, getting an extra piece of fruit serves as ___.
2. an operant response
3. the result of classical conditioning

response.
Question 33
learning?

4. all of the above

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation

Question 34
Sipho, a one-year old boy seems not able to differentiate between his mother and other women. He
tends to respond the same way to all women that hold him in their arms as he does to his mother.
According to Classical conditioning, this is an example of ___.
2. stimulus generalisation

identical stimuli.
Question 35


Scenario
Psychology students are required to write an essay on ways in which memory impacts daily life.
Sarah decides to write her essay on the topic of how aspects of memory impact studying strategies.
She writes the following "When studying it is important to keep in mind that how an individual's
memory works can determine whether the way they study is effective"
Question 36
Sarah's recommendation of students highlighting key facts in order to remember study material is
known as creating ___ for memory ___ during the examination and is known as a ___ strategy to
improve memory skills.
1. cues, retrieval, selection

2. keywords, selection, rehearsal
3. codes, storage, over-learning
4. chunks, encoding, selection

Question 37
Sarah asks her classmates for help in organising her information on the phases of memory in a
logical sequence. Which of the following is the most correct sequence?
1. sensory information sent to the brain, information organised, meaning stored

2. information encoded, encoded information stored, accessing stored information by retrieval
3. retrieval of raw information, encoding information, storage into general knowledge
4. coding information, storing of memory cues, rehearsal of coded memory

Question 38
Precious has looked up a telephone number and is about to dial when her friend asks her a question.
After answering the question, Precious realises that she cannot remember the number. The reason
that Precious forgets the number is ___.
4. interference

process. In this case, Precious was about to make a call and the question from her
Question 39
When faced with the prospect of going to social events, Susan would experience intense emotional
arousal and feels like having a heart attack. She then asks you to explain what is happening to her.
You explain that
1. Susan's sympathetic nervous system of her autonomic nervous system becomes aroused
and her heart rate increases and her pupils dilate
2. Susan's parasympathetic nervous system of her autonomic nervous system becomes
aroused
3. Susan's parasympathetic nervous system of her autonomic system purposefully conserve,
body energy and sets about dampening her bodily response,
4. Susan 's brain consciously interprets the event as threatening and her body decreases lung
action, and reduces blood pressure


Question 40

3. Primary emotions must contribute to survival
4. Primary emotions must be evident in human beings only

Question 41
A counselling service notices that their clients are predominately women and asks you as a
psychology student if there is a research on gender and emotions. The following explanation for
gender and emotions can be made that ___.
1. men and women tend to express their emotions in similar ways and therefore the reason for
more women attending counselling is not explained by gender differences
2. men tend to suppress their emotions and not to generally express their vulnerabilities to
others
3. men tend to become more emotionally aroused than women when confronted with
distressful events and are less likely to seek assistance
4. women tend to express their emotions inwardly and are less likely to seek assistance

Question 42
Cognitive appraisal theory argues with regard to individuals that ___.
1. thinking occurs before feeling

2. feeling occurs before thinking
3. feeling occurs before appraisal
4. feeling and thinking occur at the same time

Reasoning: The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion claims that we experience emotions
because of the way we think about a situation. This means that we think about

stimuli before we experience emotions. Our interpretation of a situation informs the

different emotions we experience. For example, a person may experience fear after
seeing a snake in the bedroom because a snake is perceived to be poisonous.
However, another person may feel relaxed when they see a bird inside their
bedroom because birds are perceived to be harmless.
Question 43
used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ of emotions.

Question 44
According to The General Adaptation Syndrome of stress, people experience stress in three phases
These are ___.
1. shock, exhaustion, adaptation

2. resistance, adaptation, exhaustion
3. alarm, resistance, exhaustion
4. shock, immunity, adaptation

mobilisation phase, 2) the resistance phase, and 3) the exhaustion phase. During the
resistance phase, our coping level remains higher than normal.
Question 45
Which of the following statement(s) about stress and disease is/are true
1. Chronic diseases are associated with prolonged stress

2. Diseases start and develop in the presence of intense stress experienced over a shorter
period of time

3. In psychosomatic diseases the emotional problems may arise in reaction to a health problem
4. 1&3

Reasoning: The culprit seems to be prolonged periods of stress, or so-called chronic stress,
rather than intense stress experienced over shorter periods of time. Thus, option 2
is incorrect.
Question 46
feelings that people are unaware of?

2. Cattell's source trait theory

Question 47
A hardy personality refers to ___.
1. traits of stubbornness and drive to achieve

2. levels of high conscientiousness and low agreeableness
3. an approach of commitment, control and challenge
4. a tough-minded character

Question 48
A psychologist has been asked by a school principal to come to the school to assist the school staff in
understanding the psychological aspects of why there have been instances of violence in the hostel
at the school. The psychologist discovered that Jack, a Grade 12 learner, and his gang disregarded
the hostel rules. Jack is unruly and intimidates other learners into doing his bidding. When examining
Jack' s personality the psychologist explains that according to ___, Jack's ___ impulses have
disruptively overtaken the ability of his ___ to manage and enforce the rules of his own ___ and
there-fore when angry Jack bullies and threatens younger boys in the hostel into doing his chores
and homework.
1. the African perspective, individualistic, executive functioning, conscience

2. Eyserick, ld, ego, ego ideal

3. Freud, Id, ego, superego

4. the Five-Factor Model, selfish, agreeableness, conscientiousness

mental structures – the id, the ego and the superego. The id refers to biological
impulses. The ego refers to the executive part of the self that regulates the
expression of the id’s instinctual energy. The superego is the system that acts as a
judge or censor that allows the person to feel guilt.
Question 49
Three psychologists are Interviewed on a talk-show regarding human nature. The talk-show host
asks the panel of psychologists to describe how they understand personality and the core human
nature of people in response to the talk-show host's question
Psychologist A states that "people are basically aggressive and seeking out their own gratification"
Psychologist B states that "people are basically good and strive to fulfil their potential"
Psychologist C states that "people basically become what they have learned - they are the result of
their own 'earning"
Select which option below describes the approach of each psychologist
1. Psychologist A is Person-Centred, Psychologist B is Freudian, and Psychologist C is a

Behaviourist
2. Psychologist A is Freudian, and Psychologist B is a Behaviourist and Psychologist C is a
Cognitive Behaviourist
3. Psychologist A is Person-Centred, and Psychologist is B is a Humanist and Psychologist C is a
Cognitive Behaviourist
4. Psychologist A is Freudian, Psychologist B is Person-Centred, and Psychologist C is a
Behaviourist
Question 50
Which of the following refers to the emotional aspects of an individual's biological and psychological
self and as such forms the raw material of the individual's personality?
1. traits
2. temperament
3. character
4. self-concept

Reasoning: Temperament focuses on the emotional aspects of a person’s biological and
psychological self and may be referred to as the raw material from which
personality is formed.


Question 1
Which of the following statements about neurons is not true?
1. Neurons are part of a communication network that influences the manner in which the body
functions
2. The nucleus is a control centre because it controls all metabolic activities in a cell
3. Motor or efferent neurons carry messages from the environment to the spinal cord and
brain
4. Impulse conduction in a neuron is mainly made up of electrical and chemical processes

Reasoning: Motor or efferent neurons carry messages from the central nervous system to the
skeletal muscles (outgoing), while afferent or sensory neurons carry messages from
the environment to the central nervous system (incoming). Therefore option 3 is
not true.
Question 2
The process whereby Impulse moves much faster by jumping from node to node when travelling
1. myelination
2. frequency
4. speed.

Question 3
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with muscular rigidity and tremor?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Adrenalin
3. Serotonin
4. Dopamine.

Reasoning: Too little dopamine can result in muscle rigidity and tremor.

Question 4

2. action potential
3. synapse

Question 5
When an axon is insulated with ___ it can conduct impulses much faster than axons that are not
insulated.
1. dendrites
2. cell nucleus
3. myelin
4. boutons

Question 6
Action potential is a special kind of electrical charge in that (it) ___.
1. is strongest when travelling along un-myelinated axons

2. occurs during refractory period
4. all of the above.

Reasoning: Impulse conduction is an all-or-nothing affair.
The tutor realised that many students experience difficulty in mastering the structure and the
functions of human nervous system. The tutor then decides to prepare a presentation to help them

Question 7

2. neurons and organs that lie beyond the brain
4. organs and glands.

Question 8
Which of the following is the main function of temporal lobes?

3. To act as a reflex centre for processes that ensure human survival

spoken words.
The occipital lobe is responsible for the perception of vision. (option 1)
Question 9
The tutor asks the students to compile questions for a quiz to test each others' understanding of the
work. One student asks "What area of the brain controls the performance of a skilled soccer player?"
Another student answers: "the frontal lobe". This answer is ___.
1. partially correct, because subcortical structures also plays a role in skilled motor movements
2. correct, because there is a map of the areas of the lobe that control certain parts of the body
3. incorrect, because the frontal lobe gives feedback based on somatosensory information
4. incorrect, because the function of the frontal lobe is to comb me visual stimuli into
meaningful patterns.

Reasoning: The motor area of the frontal lobe ensures smooth performance of motor skills that
make up complex actions like talking, typing or playing tennis.
Question 10
You are walking casually in your neighbourhood when suddenly a large, snarling dog runs towards
you. Your heart rate increases, the pupils dilate as you sense the danger and your body is activated
for emergency action. The physical symptoms that you now experience are mainly controlled by ___.


4. neurotransmitters.

Question 11
One of the functions of the limbic system is to help an individual to adapt to situations This is
achieved by ___.

2. evaluating the reward value of situations and linking this to information m memory
4. all of the above

Question 12
The main function of the ___ is to co-ordinate motor movement.
1. pons
3. thalamus
4. cerebellum

Reasoning: The main function of the cerebellum is to co-ordinate motor movement.
Question 13
John experienced a sudden collapse. He was awake when his friend, James called him but John could
not move. John is suffering from a sleep disorder called ___.
1. catalepsy
2. insomnia
3. sleep apnoea
4. narcolepsy.


Reasoning: • Knowing the characteristics of each type of sleep disorder will help you
answer this question. A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden
collapse, whereby a person is awake but is unable to move is called
catalepsy (option 1). Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep
(option 2). Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at
night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep (option 3) Narcolepsy
is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually lasts for a
few minutes (option 4).
Question 14
imaginary visions and realities. What drugs induce this kind of mental state?
1. Sedatives
2. Stimulants
3. Hallucinogens
4. Depressants.

Question 15
The main characteristic of hypnosis is ___.
2. low level of arousal
4. improved intelligence.

hypnosis does not enhance a person’s creative ability.
Question 16
You are in a discussion class when you notice a strange smell. The lecturer informs you that your
olfactory nerve has been triggered. Which sensory system does the olfactory nerve form part of?
3. Auditory system
4. Chemical system.


Question 17
The tutor asks the class to identify the principle behind the following description: "A process of
perceptual organisation that refers to our tendency to group elements in a way that creates a
balanced figure "
2. Principle of contour
4. 4 Principle of similarity.

Question 18
You have moved into a new house. That night the sound of a leaking tap in the kitchen keeps you
awake for most of the night. After few days you no longer notice the sound and you sleep soundly
This can be attributed to ___.
1. dishabituation
2. sensory deprivation
3. sleep deprivation
4. habituation.

Question 19


3. Individual's current experience


Question 20
Which principle refers to the tendency to group elements that are close together as though they
represent a figure?
1. principle of symmetry
3. principle of similarity
4. principle of continuity

Question 21
is called ___.
2. chemical system
3. visual system
4. somaesthetic system.

Question 22
The tutor divides the class into groups and asks them to work on an essay explaining the common
barriers to problem-solving. Anthony, one of the smart students, objects to this and states that in
groups there are always individuals who benefit from the work of others and get an undeserved
mark. Anthony's argument is ___.

1. Irrelevant, it does not matter what his personal opinion on the matter is
2. Invalid, he provided no premise for his conclusion
3. Invalid, the premise is correct, but the conclusion is invalid
4. Invalid, the premise is incorrect but the conclusion is valid
Question 23
One of the students suggests the following definition of perceptual barriers "Perceptual barriers
occur when we think that things can only be done in one way because that is the only way we have
seen others solve the problem. " You are asked to evaluate this answer and you think that it is ___.
1. correct, that's the only way things are done

2. incorrect, because perceptual barriers describe a state where our culture limits our view of a
problem
3. incorrect, because perceptual barriers describe a state where we only see one aspect of a
problem and ignore others
4. incorrect, because perceptual barriers describe a state where we become so emotional
about the issue that we cannot see a solution.

Reasoning: Perceptual barrier refers to the fact that we sometimes see only one aspect of a
Question 24
Peter says: "Mr Smith did not keep his appointment. He is unreliable " This is an example of ___
reasoning.
1. critical
2. logical
3. deductive
4. inductive

Question 25

Companies that design motor cars have decided to save money by developing a basic design that
they can all use and then individualise for each different company. The basic design is an example of
___.
3. a prototype
4. 1&3

conceptual thinking.
Question 26
1. remembering somebody you once saw at the bus stop

2. remembering the lyrics in a song
3. recognizing a route to your friend's house
4. using visual cues to make meaning.

Reasoning: Option 2 refers to an auditory representation.
Question 27
Zodwa, a first-year student has failed an exam and decides to ask the lecturer to give her a pass
mark because of her difficult personal circumstances. Which fallacy in reasoning is Zodwa using
here?
1. trying to discredit an issue by discrediting a person who supports the issue

2. playing on someone's sympathy to get something done
3. relying on the characteristics of a certain group m order to gam support for a particular
conclusion
4. using a slightly changed version of someone else's point of view as basis for reasoning.

questions that 11 year-old children can answer
Question 28
On the basis of the above mentioned scenario, what is Jennifer's mental age?
1. 11 years


Therefore, Jennifer’s mental age is 10 years and 6 months.
Question 29
1. Spearman
2. Thurston
3. Guilford
4. Gardner.

Question 30
learning?

4. all of the above

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 31


4. the strengthening of a likelihood of a response to occur

Question 32
conditioning, stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus may also trigger the same response
in classical conditioning, this process is called ___.
3. stimulus generalisation
4. a conditioned response.

identical stimuli.
Question 33
In ___ the terms reinforcement and punishment are the basic principles of learning.
4. latent learning

Question 34
Your son, James, has done something bad and you want to punish him. Your friend tells you that for
punishment to be effective, it would depend on three aspects. These are ___.
A. A consistency
B. timing
C. spontaneity
D. intensity
1. A, B, and C
2. B, C, and D
3. A, B and D

4. A, C and D.

Question 35
The term ___ refers to the re-appearance of a response that seems to have been extinguished.
1. extinction
2. conditioned response
4. unconditioned response

Psychology students are required to write an essay on ways m which memory impacts on daily life.
Sarah decides to write her essay on the topic of how aspects of memory impact on how people
perform tasks in their daily lives. She writes the following: "It is important to keep in mind that how
an individual's memory works can determine whether or not they remember important aspects in
their daily lives "
Question 36
Talia asks Sarah for help in organising her information on the phases of memory in a logical
sequence.
Which of the following is the correct sequence?
1. sensory information sent to the brain, information organised, meaning stored

2. drawing of sensory information, encoding information, holding general knowledge
3. coding information, storing of memory cues, rehearsal of coded memory
4. information encoded, encoded information stored, accessing stored information by retrieval

Question 37
Sarah is trying to remember her new friend's cell phone number. The study group recommends that
she breaks the number into smaller amount of information known as ___ which will then be stored
in ___.
1. cues, working memory

2. chunks, short-term memory

3. keywords, semantic memory

4. codes, working memory

Reasoning: The method used is organising information into smaller and more manageable
chunks.
Question 38
Which memory system would Sarah use when demonstrating to her classmate Thandi on how to
bake a chocolate cake?
2. Working memory

Question 39
While walking in the veld, Thabo encountered a snake and immediately experienced intense body
arousal.
He asks you to explain what happened in his body.
1. Thabo' s sympathetic nervous system becomes aroused and his heart rate increased and his
pupils dilated and his body is activated for emergency action.
2. Thabo's parasympathetic nervous system became aroused and his breathing rate slows
down to purposefully dampen his bodily responses to activate his appraisal abilities.
3. Thabo' s parasympathetic nervous system purposefully conserves body energy and sets
about dampening his bodily responses to calm himself down.
4. Thabo's brain consciously interprets the event as threatening and his body perceives the
danger and then the body becomes activated for emergency action

Question 40



4. 1 &3

Question 41
expressions are used to show a variety of emotions. This is a___ of emotions.
3. social component

Question 42
A friend asks you to explain the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion and you decide to do so with
the aid of a flow chart. Which of the following provides the correct sequence in the experience of
emotion?
1. stimulation, arousal, cognitive appraisal, emotion

2. stimulation, appraisal, differentiation of emotion, arousal
3. stimulation, appraisal, differentiation of emotion, aroused behaviour
4. stimulation, arousal, appraisal, emotion, appraisal, behaviour.


Question 43
Many researchers use four criteria to identify primary emotions. Which of the following is not a

2. Emotions must be associated with distinct facial expression
4. Emotions must contribute to the survival of the species.

Question 44
The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) that outlines the body's reaction to stress has three
consecutive phases namely, ___, followed by ___, and finally ___.
1. shock, exhaustion, adaptation

2. resistance, adaptation, exhaustion
3. shock, immunity, adaptation.
4. alarm, resistance, exhaustion

Question 45
According to GAS model of stress, during ___ our coping level remains higher than normal as we try
to deal with the stressor.
1. the alarm and mobilisation phase

2. the secondary appraisal phase
3. the exhaustion phase
4. the resistance phase


Question 46
A personality theory is best described as ___.
1. a group of concepts and values proposed to explain personality

2. a system of concepts, assumptions, ideas and principles proposed to explain personality
3. a system limited to psychological concepts and spiritual factors proposed to explain
personality
4. all the above.

Reasoning: A personality theory is ‘a system of concepts, assumptions, ideas and principles
proposed to explain personality’ (Coon, 2001:483).
Question 47
feelings that people are unaware of?

2. Cattell's source trait theory

Question 48
Two psychologists are interviewed on a talk-show regarding how to understand human behaviour
and society and the impact of culture on people's view on success.
Psychologist A states: "There is no society, there are only individuals. An individual succeeds in life
because of their own personal efforts."
Psychologist B states: "One has to build oneself into a good person through caring for others. A
person is a person through other people. People only succeed when working together."
Which option below describes the theoretical view of each psychologist?
1. Psychologist A offers a Behaviourist view and Psychologist B offers a Humanistic view

2. Psychologist A offers a Freudian view, and Psychologist B offers an Interpersonal view
3. Psychologist A offers an Individualistic view, Psychologist B offers a Collectivistic view
4. Psychologist A offers a Humanistic view and Psychologist B offers a Collectivistic view.

Question 49
James owns a number of businesses. He is highly competitive and success-driven. He is so

preoccupied with success that he refuses to take a holiday as he fears the possibility of losing the
next deal if he does not stay focused. He is always eager to get things done properly and effectively.
Last year, he was hospitalised for a heart attack. For him, time is very important. What type of
personality is displayed by James?
1. Type-D personality
2. Type-B personality
3. Type-A personality
4. Hardy personality

Question 50
The term character refers to ___
those values
4. aspects of personality whereby people share similar common characteristics

Exam May/June 2014

Question 1
Questions 1 to 6 are based on Human Nervous System - Impulse conduction.
Scenario
The tutor asked the students to prepare a presentation on impulse conduction. The following
morning, James presents his report to the class and this is what he reads.
"Before an impulse can fire there must be a condition of readiness in the neuron. This is called action
potential and is brought about by the differences between the positive and negative ions inside and
outside the cell. Messages arriving from other neurons alter the resting potential of a neuron. If the
resting potential changes enough, the cell reaches a threshold. When the electrical charge is strong

enough to exceed the threshold the resting membrane potential is changed into an electrochemical
energy. The movement of ions changes the electrical charge in the cell membrane so that
immediately after an impulse has been conducted, the neuron is not ready to send another impulse
until the resting potential has been restored again. The neurotransmitter prevents the nervous
system from overstimulation by regulating the relationship between stimulus intensity and the
frequency of an impulse.
The strength of an impulse can be increased by means of spatial summation and temporal
summation. Spatial summation refers to the frequent action potentials along the same axon to that
allow the discharge of more of the neurotransmitter to reinforce the postsynaptic potential
Temporal summation refers to the effect of impulses arriving from different axons fibres at the same
synapse to reinforce a postsynaptic potential.
Question 1
According to James' report, the condition of readiness for a neuron to fire is called action potential
1. correct, it is action potential

2. incorrect, it is called postsynaptic potential
3. incorrect, it is called resting membrane potential
4. incorrect, it is called all-or-nothing condition

Question 2
James reports that "when the electrical charge is strong enough to exceed the threshold the resting
membrane potential is changed into an electrochemical energy" This statement is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it changes into action potential
3. incorrect, it changes into electrical energy
4. incorrect, the resting membrane potential does not change at all

Question 3
The report also states that "The neurotransmitter prevents the nervous system from over-
stimulation by regulating the relationship between stimulus intensity and the frequency of an
impulse " This statement is ___.
1. correct, it does

2. incorrect, it is the action potential that prevents the nervous system from overstimulation
3. incorrect, it is the resting membrane potential that prevents the nervous system from
overstimulation
4. incorrect, it is the refractory period that prevents the nervous system from overstimulation

Reasoning: Fortunately, due to the refractory period, the rate at which a neuron can conduct
impulses is limited.
Question 4
In the report, the explanation of spatial summation is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the explanation refers to temporal summation
3. incorrect, the explanation refers to all-or-nothing principle
4. partially correct, but it does not include postsynaptic potential

Reasoning: Spatial summation is several axons that emit action potential while temporal
summation refers to the same axon that discharges repeatedly.
Question 5
In the report, the explanation of temporal summation is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it refers to saltatory conduction of an impulse
3. incorrect, it refers to spatial summation
4. incorrect, it refers to action potential

Reasoning: Spatial summation is several axons that emit action potential while temporal
summation refers to the same axon that discharges repeatedly.
Question 6
Spatial and temporal summation therefore, increase the chance of a neuron firing in the case of ___
and reduce the chance of firing in the case of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.
1. excitatory postsynaptic potential



Reasoning: Excitatory potentials add toward greater excitation, inhibitory potentials add toward
greater inhibition and excitatory and inhibitory potentials tend to cancel each other
out.
Questions 7 to 12 are based on Human Nervous System - Structure and functions
Scenario:
While taking a break from studying in the library, you go to the cafeteria to have some snacks. In the
cafeteria you overhear a group of friends talking.
Sarah "Since Marry was involved in an accident, her behaviour has changed dramatically. I have
noticed a number of changes."
Cindy "Me too. Marry seems not to hear and understand anything we say. The accident damaged
her parietal lobe in the brain."
Bella "I also noticed that she can't see properly. Yesterday she just bumped into me in broad
daylight. Her temporal lobe is seriously damaged"
Sarah "Her speech is also blurred and she is staggering when she moves. I think that her frontal lobe
is also damaged"
Question 7
Cindy mentions that Marry's failure to understand spoken words is caused by the damage to the
parietal lobe.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it is the frontal lobe
3. incorrect, it is the occipital lobe
4. incorrect, it is the temporal lobe

Reasoning: • The frontal lobe is responsible for motor movement, including the
• The temporal lobe is responsible for the perception of sound and to
Question 8
According to Bella, Marry's poor vision is a result of damage to temporal lobe. This statement is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, vision is a function of the frontal lobe
3. incorrect, the damage is to the occipital lobe
4. incorrect, the damage is to the parietal lobe that affects vision


Question 9
Sarah mentions that damage to frontal lobe results in blurred speech and staggering, uncoordinated
movements. This statement is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it is the result of damage to the temporal lobe
3. incorrect, it is the occipital lobe that is damaged
4. incorrect, these are behavioural symptoms of damage to parietal lobe

Question 10
Which of the following IS NOT one of the principles of brain functioning?
1. Brain functions in an organized, hierarchical manner. Complex and higher structures control
the lower structures
2. There is lateralization of brain's functions. Thus, the location of functions is more
predominant in one hemisphere than the other
3. The right hand-side of the brain predominantly controls the functions on the right-hand side
and vice versa
4. Brain functioning is both specific and plastic. Some structures are connected in specific ways
and yet the brain is capable of being changed to form new connections

Reasoning: The left side of the brain controls mainly the right side of the body and likewise the
right side of the brain controls mainly the left side of the body.
Question 11

When the doctors operated on the young girl who miraculously survived a horrible fall from a tree
and landed on her back, they were surprised to find that the girl's spinal cord was not seriously
damaged because it is protected by a very strong, thick membrane called ___.
1. dura mater
2. grey mater
3. arachnoid
4. pia mater

Reasoning: The brain and spinal cord is protected by three strong membranes. The dura mater
is the outer membrane, which is very strong and thick. The middle membrane is the
arachnoid and the inner membrane is the pia mater.
Question 12
Which of the following structures of the brain IS NOT part of the forebrain?
1. Hypothalamus
2. Corpus callosum
3. Thalamus
4. Cerebellum

Reasoning: The cerebellum is part of the hindbrain.
Questions 13 to 15 are based on the Stales of consciousness.
Scenario:
James usually goes to bed early but could not fall asleep as he normally spends sleepless nights
thinking about his financial problems. He turns and tosses around in bed every day until the early
hours of the following morning without coming up with any solution to his financial problems. The
following day he wanted something to help him forget about his financial problems so, he went to
the pub to drink. However, the drinking did not solve his financial problems. In desperation, he then
tried to get some drugs on the street to help him forget about his situation but to no avail.
Question 13
The above scenario indicates that James is suffering from sleep disorder called ___.
1. catalepsy
2. sleep apnoea
3. insomnia
4. narcolepsy

question.

• A sleep disorder that is characterised by a sudden collapse, whereby a

person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy.
• Insomnia is characterised by an inability to fall asleep.
• Sleep apnoea is marked by a condition of waking up mostly at night, gasping
for breath and then going back to sleep.
• Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that usually
lasts for few minutes.
Question 14
The drug cocaine is a ___ and works by ___.
1. stimulant, decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

2. depressant; decreasing fear and anxiety
3. stimulant, mimicking other drugs
4. depressant; increasing the release of dopamine

Reasoning: Cocaine is a stimulant because it increases heart rate, makes people excited and
interferes with their sleep. Cocaine works by decreasing the activity of neurons that
inhibit other neurons, so by slowing the neurons that are supposed to be inhibiting
others, the cocaine actually results in stimulated behaviour.
Question 15
Which of the following statements about hypnosis are NOT true?
1. hypnosis alters the emotional component but not the sensory component of pain
2. hypnosis prevents the body from experiencing pain
3. It produces relaxation, concentration and temporary behavioural change
4. It uses autosuggestion to induce altered state of consciousness

Reasoning: The claim is often made that hypnosis can improve memory, but this is not the case.
It occurs because of increased suggestibility. Because it is based on increased
suggestibility, the person has to be a willing participant. One of the established
effects of hypnosis is to decrease pain, but it does not prevent the body from
experiencing pain, it alters the emotional components so that the person does not
feel it.
Questions 16 to 21 are based on Sensation and perception
Question 16
During the tutorial class, the tutor describes a process in sensation whereby receptors transform one
form of energy (such as light) into another (like an electrical impulse) This is known as ___.
1. the transduction
2. the base threshold

3. the generator differential

4. an absolute potential

energy to another.
Question 17
perceptual organization that refers to our tendency to group elements m a way that creates a
balanced figure" This is a principle of ___.
1. similarity
2. contour
3. symmetry
4. continuity

Question 18
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the process of monitoring in the sensory
systems?
1. Monitoring is the brain's ability to process incoming information rapidly

2. Monitoring occurs primarily below the level of awareness
3. Monitoring is aimed at blocking out changes in the internal and external environment
4. Monitoring starts when the receptors receive stimulus energy

potentially important events. Therefore options 1 and 2 is correct.
Question 19
You are in a discussion class when you notice a sudden light flash to your left. You turn your head in
the direction of the light and see a camera. Which two sensory systems helped you find the direction
of the stimulus?
1. Proprioceptive system and visual system

2. Somaesthetic system and the chemical system
3. Auditory system and the visual system
4. Chemical system and the proprioceptive system


Reasoning: The proprioceptive system provides people with information about their
movements and orientation in space. Since the flash of light was visual, the
correct answer is 1.
Question 20
You are in the tutorial class when you notice a nice smell around you. The tutor then asks you what
sensory system was activated by the smell. Your answer is ___.
2. auditory system
3. chemical system

Reasoning: It is the chemical system that helps us to differentiate various smells in our
environment.
Question 21
You are walking down the street and notice a group of people on the sidewalk. Later you tell your
friends about this and they ask why you assumed these people were all part of the group. You realise
that there was no reason to assume that the people belonged to a group and could have merely
been close to each other.
This scenario refers to the phenomenon of ___.
1. attention deficit module

2. the orienting response
3. the perceptual law of proximity
4. the perceptual law of contortion

principle of proximity.
Questions 22 to 27 are based on Cognition.
Question 22
While watching his two year-old nephew play with colourful blocks, Thabiso notices that the child is
grouping the blocks by colour. When he asks the child what the colours are, the child cannot answer.
This behaviour is demonstrative of ___.
1. perceptual error that Thabiso is making when seeing non-existent patterns

2. the idea that conceptualisation and language are not the same thing

3. Thabiso's inner speech as he convinces himself that the child wants to communicate
4. the process of deductive reasoning that the child displays by using colour.
Question 23
The tutor gives your group a task to explain what problem-solving is. Which of the following should
be included in the explanation?

C. Problem solving is a process with distinct steps and various strategies
1. A, B, C, D
2. A, B and D
3. A, B and C
4. B, C and D

Question 24
After the tutorial class, you overhear two students discussing how difficult it is for them to
understand the idea of the self as separate from individuals around it. They explain that their
experience teach them that "no man is an island" and can therefore not exist in isolation. They
complain that they are failing the subject because they cannot find examples of the self as separate
in real life. The difficulty that these students are experiencing can be explained by ___.
2. cultural barriers that prevent them from understanding a concept from a different culture
3. emotional barriers that clouds the formation of new memories
4. learned barriers that prevent them from learning new concepts

Reasoning: These students are part of the collectivist worldview.
Question 25
After tutorial class you forgot to meet your classmate at the Library at 1400 as agreed. At 1430 your
classmate finds you in the cafeteria. When you asked how she found you she explains that you are
usually in the library, or the cafeteria around 1430 every day. What approach did your classmate use
to find you?
1. Deductive reasoning because It was based on a premise that guaranteed an outcome

2. Inductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that did not guaranteed an outcome

3. Restricted thinking because she restricted her options

4. Informal reasoning because there was only one possible outcome

because the premise was true (I was either in the library or the cafeteria) and
therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (the classmate did not find me in the library
and therefore knew that I would be in the cafeteria).
Question 26
Zodwa, a first-year psychology student has failed an exam and decides to ask the lecturer to give her
a pass mark because of her difficult personal circumstances. Which fallacy of reasoning is Zodwa
using here?
1. trying to discredit an issue by discrediting a person who supports the issue

2. relying on the characteristics of a certain group in order to gain support for a particular
conclusion
3. using a slightly changed version of someone else's point of view as basis for reasoning
4. playing on someone's sympathy to get something done
Question 27
You are asked to assist the athletics team in preparing for their season. The coach wants you to work
closely with a student Jamal, from Kenya. The coach believes that Jamal is an excellent long distance
runner and that the only reason Jamal has not performed well is because Jamal has a psychological
barrier. This scenario describes an example of ___.
1. emotional barrier in the Kenyan athlete

2. prototype concept formation
3. stereotype
4. conceptual error

Reasoning: The inaccurate use of concepts can lead to errors in thinking. If we oversimplify a
complex category, this can result in the formation of stereotypes or rigid ways of
thinking.
Questions 28 and 29 are based on intelligence and creativity
Scenario:
Procon Company has various vacancies for different job levels. The management wants to find out
how the employees will perform in their respective jobs as the company believes that job
performance is related to intelligence. The company believes that individuals that are more
intelligent will perform better compared to individuals that are less intelligent. So the company asks

you to administer intelligence test to the employees. The Director of Procon states that he would
prefer to start the testing with current employees and their families. He would like to identify the
most intelligent employees and offer their children scholarships because they will be as smart as
their parents.
One of Procon employees, Mr Norgood disputes the poor intelligence test results. He claims that he
has always been able to learn aspects related to his work because he finds it simple to process the
information within his field. He also states that his experience in the field further adds to his ability.
He claims that he can easily adapt book learning in his field into real world settings within his
workplace.
Question 28
The Director of Procon's assumption that intelligent employees have intelligent children (that he
would like to offer scholarship to) is based on ___.
1. the general factor theory of intelligence

2. Gardner's multiple intelligence
3. the biological theories of intelligence
4. the naturalist theory of intelligence

Question 29
In the abovementioned scenario, Mr Norgood's argument fits within the ___.
1. General (g) theory of intelligence

2. Biological theory of intelligence
3. Multiple intelligences theory of intelligence
4. Information processing approach to intelligence

Reasoning: The cognitive perspective focuses on how people use their intelligence, rather on
how much or the amount of intellectual ability they have.
Questions 30 to 35 are based on Learning
Question 30
Scenario:
Mrs Barker likes to buy gifts for her children. Last December she bought two bicycles for Thandi and
Mpho because they passed with good marks in their examinations. She however, does not allow her
youngest son Jan, to play with his video game if he is rude towards his sisters.
In the scenario, Thandi and Mpho receive gifts because they passed their exams. This is an example
of ___.


Question 31
In the scenario, the act of withholding the video game from Jan serves as ___.
3. punishment

Question 32
In the scenario, the act of buying bicycles for Thandi and Mpho serves as ___ for them.
4. punishment

Question 33
learning?

4. all of the above



• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 34
In ___ terms such as extinction, stimulus discrimination, and spontaneous recovery are some of the
basic principles of learning
1. latent learning

Question 35
Which of the following statements IS NOT correct about learning?
1. Associative learning takes place by pairing one thing or event with another
2. Cognitive learning takes place when learning involves thinking
3. Psychosocial learning refers to the way we associate our emotions
4. Social learning refers to the manner people acquire behaviour in their social settings

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 168, 178 and 181
Reasoning: Options 1, 2 and 4 are true.
Questions 36 to 38 are based on Memory.
Question 36
You and your classmates are given the opportunity to help school learners with study skills. Your
group decides to do a presentation on how memory impacts an individual's ability to study. The first
slide explains the three phases of memory. You are in charge of checking the slides. The slide has the
following information that needs to be re-ordered.
Memory involves ___.
A. information encoded
B. storage into general knowledge
C. encoded information stored
D. accessing stored information by retrieval
Which is the correct sequence?
1. D, A, and B

2. A, C, and D
3. A, B, and D
4. B, D, and A

Question 37
Your group discovered that memory influences one's performance in terms of remembering how to
learn a list of ingredients to bake a cake in their final practical exam. Therefore, in Slide 3 of the
presentation you advise the learners to learn the shopping list of ingredients by means of ___.
3. chunking
4. long-term memory
Question 38
Which memory system would Sarah use when demonstrating to her classmate Thandi on how to
bake a chocolate cake?
2. Working memory

Questions 39 to 43 are based on Emotion.
Question 39
While walking in the field Lindiwe encountered a snake and immediately interpreted her intense
body arousal as fear. In realising her fear, Lindiwe slowly walked backwards to a hideout hut. This
description of an emotional process refers to ___.
1. Cognitive appraisal theory

2. Two-factor theory of emotion
3. Primary and secondary emotions
4. Emotional intelligence


to the context.
Question 40
When Lindiwe was walking home from the shop, a snarling, vicious-looking dog ran up to her. What
part of her brain is primarily involved in her responding to the perceived danger?
1. corpus callosum
2. cortex
3. cerebellum
4. hypothalamus.

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 78, 82 and 83
Reasoning: The corpus callosum has the function of mediating communication between the
two hemispheres. The cortex is the outer layer of the brain. The cerebellum is there
to co-ordinate motor movement and the hypothalamus regulates the internal
environment, states of sleep and wakefulness as well as emotions.
Question 41
According to the cognitive appraisal theory, which of the following statements about cognitive
appraisals of emotions is correct?
1. Emotions primarily result from conscious processing

2. Emotions result from conscious and unconscious processing
3. Emotions result from physiological arousal
4. Emotions primarily result from unconscious processing

Reasoning: According to the cognitive appraisal theory, the way we think about (or make
cognitive appraisals of) a situation results in emotions.
Question 42
Scenario:
A psychologist is consulted by a couple that has recently lost their child.
The wife complains "My husband doesn't care that we have lost our child. He never shows any
sadness or any need for comfort from anyone. He carries on as if nothing has happened "
The husband replies "Of course I care, but I need to go to work to be able to support the family"
Which of the following statements is true about men and women?
1. Men and women express their emotions in similar ways and therefore the reason for their
differences in grieving cannot be explained by gender differences

2. Men are trained from childhood to supress their emotions and not to generally express their
vulnerabilities to others
3. Men become less emotionally aroused when confronted with distressful events than women
and therefore do not seek out comfort
4. Women are less rational than men and therefore need to express their emotions outwardly
with another person

Reasoning: Men learn to supress their emotional expression from a very early age.
Question 43
According to the cognitive appraisal theory, which of the following statements about cognitive
appraisals of emotions is correct?
1. Emotions primarily result from conscious processing

2. Emotions result from conscious and unconscious processing
3. Emotions result from physiological arousal
4. Emotions primarily result from unconscious processing

Reasoning: According to the cognitive appraisal theory, the way we think about (or make
cognitive appraisals of) a situation results in emotions.
Questions 44 to 45 are based on Stress.
Question 44
Which of the following statements is true about the GAS model of stress?
1. GAS model of stress does not take into consideration the fact that events and circumstances
are not equally to all people
2. GAS model of stress explain how an event become a stressor
3. GAS does not describe the process of stress to general terms only the physiological aspect
4. GAS model consider stress as a 4 phased process

resistance phase, our coping level remains higher than normal. It does not take into
account that events and circumstances are not equally stressful to all people.
Question 45
The phases of contextual stress model consist of
1. experiencing stress and performing tertiary appraisal

2. performing a secondary appraisal and performing tertiary appraisal

3. encountering potential stressors and experiencing stress

4. All of the above

Reasoning: The phases are:
1. Encountering potential stressors
2. Performing a primary appraisal
3. Experiencing stress
4. Performing a secondary appraisal
5. Applying coping strategies.
Questions 46 to 50 are based on Personality
Question 46
Jordan is a star athlete. He is driven to succeed and always eager to win the next big race. He is
preoccupied with success that he refuses to take break from his gym as he fears losing in the try-outs
for the Olympics if he doesn't stay focused on improving his time. These aspects of Jordan's
personality are characteristic of ___.
1. type-A personality
2. type-B personality
3. non-hardy personality
4. type-D personality

Question 47
Which of the following IS NOT a characteristic of the hardy personality type?
1. Perceptions of personal influence over life events

2. Engagement with work and family
3. Positive approach to change
4. High sociability

Question 48
1. the emotional aspects of an individual's biological and psychological self and the way an
individual expresses their emotions

2. an individual's ideas, perceptions and feelings about who they are

3. aspects of personality involving an individual's values and their ability to behave according to
those values
4. stable qualities of an individual that mostly remain consistent in various and changing
situations

Question 49
Which theoretical approach focuses on the uniqueness, freedom, and the potential for growth to
explain personality?

Question 50
According to Psychoanalytic theory, which psychological structure can be regarded as the conscience
of an individual?
1. The Id
2. The preconscious
3. The superego
4. The ego


Question 1
When the neuron is in a condition of readiness, the fluid inside the neuron is ___.

1. positive relative to the negative fluid outside the neuron

2. negative relative to the positive fluid outside the neuron
3. positive relative to the positive fluid outside the neuron
4. negative relative to the negative fluid outside the neuron

Question 2
During the refractory period ___.
1. the membrane returns the sodium and potassium ions to their original states
2. a very intense stimulus can trigger a neuron to fire an impulse
3. the neuron enters a polarised resting stage with the normal resting membrane potential
being restored
4. a neuron can respond only to a specific stimulus that is beyond the threshold level

to their original states.
Question 3
Salutatory conduction of impulse occurs in ___.
1. un-myelinated axon of a neuron

2. myelinated axon of a neuron
3. both un-myelinated and myelinated axons of the neurons
4. none of the above

Reasoning: In myelinated axons, impulse conduction is known as salutatory conduction, and in
un-myelinated axons it is called action potential conduction. Therefore, options 1, 3
and 4 is incorrect.
Question 4
The process whereby impulse is travelling at much faster speed by jumping from node to node when
travelling through the myelin sheath is called ___.
1. frequency
2. salutatory conduction
3. myelination


Question 5
Which one of the following statements is true about impulse conduction?
1. Neurons are always active.

2. An impulse cannot be conducted during the relative refractory period
3. The resting membrane potential ensures that a neuron can fire indefinitely
4. The refractory period prevents overstimulation of the nervous system

Reasoning: At the beginning of the refractory period (called absolute refractory period), the
neuron does not respond to any stimulus. Therefore option 1 is incorrect.
The resting membrane potential occurs when the neuron is in an inactive (resting)
but polarised state. Therefore option 3 is incorrect.
Question 6
The trigger point at which a neuron can “fire” is called ___.
1. action potential
4. threshold

Read the following scenario and answer questions 7 to 10
Scenario: While visiting you during December holidays, your friend Pat was involved in an accident.
During your friend’s stay, you noticed some behavioural changes in Pat. Now you have to explain to
Pat’s family about the behavioural changes. This is the report you write.
“After the accident, Pat experienced some difficulties. Pat could not speak properly and experienced
emotional difficulties. In addition, Pat could not solve even some simple problems. This is cause by
damage to the ___ lobe.”
Question 7
1. occipital

2. temporal
3. frontal
4. parietal

production of speech. This option is therefore correct.
The occipital lobe is responsible for the perception of vision. This option is therefore
incorrect.
Question 8
The report continues: “Last week I accidentally stepped on Pat’s toe but there was no reaction
displayed. This is caused by damage to the ___ lobe. This clearly shows that Pat has a problem with
sensation of stimuli.”
1. parietal
2. temporal
3. occipital
4. frontal

temperature, pressure and pain. This option is therefore correct.
The occipital lobe (option 3) is responsible for the perception of vision. This option
is incorrect.
Question 9
The report continues: “Moreover, it seems that Pat has lost the memory and could not recognise the
song playing on the radio. Surely, the ___ lobe is damaged.”
1. occipital
2. temporal
3. frontal
4. parietal


The occipital lobe (option 1) is responsible for the perception of vision. This option
is incorrect.
Question 10
The report continues: “When we were walking around in the garden, we saw a snake, but Pat
walked straight to it without realising the danger ahead. Pat could not interpret the visual stimuli
and I think the ___ lobe was affected by the accident.”
1. frontal
2. parietal
3. temporal
4. occipital

option.
Question 11
Which one of the following statements about the brain is incorrect?
1. The left hemisphere is responsible for logical organisation and analysis of information
2. The right hemisphere is more creative and concerned with spatial or non-verbal abilities
3. Some parts of the body are controlled by the same side of the brain (ipsilateral control)
4. The outer layer of the brain is called the corpus callosum

Reasoning: The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain, therefore option 4 is the correct
option.
Question 12
The main structures of the hindbrain are medulla oblongata, cerebellum, and ___.
1. cerebrum
2. corpus callosum
3. pons
4. hypothalamus


Reasoning: The main structures of the hindbrain is the medulla oblongata, cerebellum (small
Question 13
Narcotics are powerful ___ that produce drowsiness, pain insensitivity and decreased
responsiveness to events.
1. hallucinogens
2. inhalants
3. depressants
4. stimulants

Reasoning: Narcotics are powerful depressants that produce drowsiness, insensitivity to pain
and decreased responsiveness to events.
Question 14
The drug cocaine is a ___ and works by ___.
1. stimulant, decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

2. depressant, decreasing fears or anxiety
3. stimulant, mimicking other drugs
4. depressant, increasing the release of dopamine

Reasoning: Cocaine is a stimulant because it increases heart rate, makes people excited and
interferes with their sleep. Cocaine works by decreasing the activity of neurons that
inhibit other neurons, so by slowing the neurons that are supposed to be inhibiting
others, the cocaine actually results in stimulated behaviour.
Question 15
Which of the following statements is not true about hypnosis?
1. Hypnosis generally produces relaxation, concentration and behavioural changes

2. Hypnosis can be used to decrease the experience of pain
3. Hypnosis can improve memory
4. Hypnosis works due to increased suggestibility and the person has to be willing for it to
work.


Question 16
Which term refers to the fact that we see things as having a particular size, shape, colour and
brightness, irrespective of the conditions in which they are encountered?
1. Spatial organisation
3. Illusion
4. Recognition

Reasoning: Perceptual constancy means that we are seeing things as having a particular size,
shape, colour and brightness, irrespective of changing conditions. Perceptual
constancy is spontaneous and we are seldom aware of it.
Question 17
While you are watching TV, you give the child some toys to play with. Then you notice that the child
groups the toys according to their shapes and texture. What principle of perceptual organisation is
the child displaying?

Question 18
Some people study better in a quiet environment, while others, like James, prefer to listen to some
music while studying. The fact that James is not disturbed by music refers to the phenomenon of
___.
1. monitoring information rapidly and below the level of awareness

2. attention, because James is not listening to music
3. accommodation to interfering stimulus
4. habituation, which is a heightened state of responding

attention is a form of conscious control over what is being perceived.
Question 19
Which of the following statement(s) about inter-subjectivity is (are) incorrect?

A. Shared or agreed meanings of the way events are interpreted

B. Language is used to describe our perceptions in order to make sense of the world and to
others
C. Inter-subjectivity is part of the process of creating meaning
D. An individual's judgment is based on personal opinions
1. A
2. A, B, and C
3. D
4. B, and C

Reasoning: We use the term inter-subjectivity to describe the shared or agreed meanings of the
way events in the world are interpreted. Therefore, this does not relate to an
individual’s personal judgement.
Question 20
The tutor asks the students to organise information on perception in a logical manner. Which of the
following sequence is correct?
1. Stimulus received on the retina, nerve impulses sent to the brain, threshold crossed,
2. Sensory information sent to the brain, information organised, meaning given
3. Sensory stimulus, transduction, monitoring, perceptual organisation
4. Sensory stimulus, transduction, increase in conscious awareness, perceptual constancy

Reasoning: See the flow in Sensation and Perception in A-Z of Psy.
Question 21
1. habituation
2. transduction
3. adaptation
4. conversion

Question 22

Maria arranged with her Psychology study group to meet at the library or in the lecture hall at
16h00. Later Maria tells Thandi that she can join the group in the library or in the lecture hall. Thandi
went to the study section in the library but did not find the group. She then found the group in the
lecture hall. What kind of reasoning did Thandi use to find the group?
4. Analogical reasoning

because the premise was true (Maria was either in the library or in the lecture hall)
and therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (Thandi did not find Maria in the library
and therefore knew that Maria would be in the lecture hall).
Question 23
During the tutorial group discussion, Peter says that he understands why some people tend to steal
in order to make a living. Upon hearing this, Susan then claims that Peter is in favour of stealing.
What kind of reasoning fallacy is displayed by Susan?

stealing.
Question 24
Mr X is experiencing problems with his children. Lately the children have become rebellious and do
not listen to him anymore. Mr X believes that the children are out of control and the only solution is
to use physical punishment to get them back on track, as his parents and grandparents did in their
times. This is an example of ___ barrier to problem-solving.
1. emotional
2. cultural
3. perceptual
4. psychological


Reasoning: Emotional barrier refers to the fact that sometimes we are unable to solve problems
because of our emotions getting in the way of thinking clearly, i.e. the fear of being
embarrassed. Therefore option 1 is incorrect.
problem and ignore others. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect.
Question 25
In order to help the students understand the process of impulse conduction, the tutor uses the
following example "Each neuron is like an electrical battery, with positive and negative poles. When
the battery is charged, there is a large potential difference between the two poles. As the battery
becomes flat there is no potential difference between the two poles' This is an example of ___
reasoning.
1. critical
2. inductive
3. analogical
4. deductive

Reasoning: When you describe differences and similarities between two things or events, you
are using analogical reasoning.
Question 26
The use of hierarchical concepts helps us classify things and make sense of our world items such as
apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are classified at ___ level(s) of classification
1. superordinate
2. subordinate
3. intermediate
4. both 1 and 3

intermediate level.
Question 27

According to Jordaan and Jordaan (1998, in Mojapelo-Balka & Van Deventer, 2013) which of the
following is not one of the steps to improve critical reasoning ability?
1. Use informal knowledge

2. Use close-ended questions
3. Avoid over-generalisations
4. Keep an open mind

Reasoning: The steps are:
• Identify the problem
• Keep an open mind
• Remember the difference between language and reality
• Use open ended questions
• Avoid over generalisations
• Be empathetic
• Obtain relevant information
• Use informal knowledge
• Develop collective thinking
Question 28
Mrs Roberts is worried about her child’s progress at school. Her son, David is 10 years old. The
results of intelligence tests indicate that David can pass all the test items passed by 7-year old
children, half of the items passed by 8-year old children and half of the items passed by 9-year old
children. The test-results indicate ___
A. David’s chronological age

B. that David’s mental age is 8-years
C. that David’s mental age is 9 years
D. an IQ of 80
E. that David is not intelligent
1. A, B, D and E
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. A, C, D and E

Reasoning: As David can perform all the tasks for a child of 7, we bank the number 7.
IQ = MA/CA x 100
= 8/10 x 100
= 80

David’s chronological age is not the result of the test, therefore option A is
eliminated, eliminating alternatives 1, 2 and 4.
Question 29
Mrs. Roberts finds it difficult to accept the intelligence test results. She thinks that David is very
intelligent because he is a very creative child. Mrs Roberts reasoning is ___.
1. correct, because most highly creative people have above average intellectual ability
2. correct, because many creative people do not do well on IQ tests
3. incorrect, because creative achievements are based on years of hard work
4. incorrect, because creative thinking is not the same as intelligence
Answer: The correct answer is 1/4

Reasoning: Most highly creative people have above average intellectual ability (Ochse, 1990) –
option 1.
Creativity and intelligence are related, but they represent different kinds of mental
ability – option 4.
Question 30
Mrs Khumalo rewards good behaviour and punishes bad behaviour. Last December she bought
presents for Pamela and Mpho because they passed with good marks in their examinations. This is
an example of ___.

Question 31
However, Mrs Khumalo does not allow her youngest son Tom, to play with his favourite toy if he is
rude towards his siblings. Withholding Tom’s favourite toy serves as ___
4. punishment


Question 32
The acct of buying bicycles for Pamela and Mpho serves as ___.
4. punishment

Reasoning: Positive reinforcement occurs when a pleasant or desirable reinforcement follows a
response.
Question 33
In Classical conditioning, the term extinction refers to the ___.
1. disappearance of a previously learned response

2. tendency to respond to similar but not identical stimuli
3. reappearance of a response which seems to have been extinguished
4. strengthening of a likelihood of a response

Question 34
learning?

4. all of the above

• attention
• retention
• reproduction
• motivation
Question 35

2. generalisation
4. extinction

event.
Question 36
Which memory system manages the “how to” knowledge that enables an individual to carry out
actions, such as playing a guitar?
1. non-declarative memory
2. short-term memory
3. procedural knowledge

Question 37
You are about to make a call when you suddenly hear the announcement of the results of political
election on TV. After the results, you realise that you are holding your cell-phone in your hand but
you do not remember who you wanted to call. The reason that you forget who you wanted to call is
due to ___.

3. poor organisation of information
4. interference

process. In this case, you were about to make a call to your friend and the
announcement of the results interfered with your concentration. You therefore
were unable to remember who you wanted to call and why after you gave attention
to the results. The other options are incorrect. People can remember information by
selecting key words or important facts to provide cues for the information they need
to remember. They are however more likely to forget information when they select
it ineffectively (option 1). However, in this scenario you did not select the
information you wanted to remember when making a phone call. The more people
rehearse information the more likely they are to remember information. However,
people are more likely to forget information because of lack of rehearsal (option 2).

Question 38
You are in a busy shopping mall when you meet a long-lost friend. You and your friend decide to
exchange numbers and you divide your friend’s cell-phone number up as follows”084 000 0000. This
memory strategy to remember information is known as ___.
1. encoding
2. rehearsal
3. organisation
4. recitation

Reasoning: Organisation refers to organising information into smaller and more manageable
chunks.
Question 39
Which of the following provides the correct sequence of events in terms of the cognitive appraisal
theory of emotion using a flowchart?
1. Stimulation → primary appraisal → differentiation of emotion → bodily arousal

3. Stimulation → arousal → differentiation of emotion → appraisal
4. Stimulation → arousal → appraisal → emotion → behaviour

Reasoning: Option 4 refers to Schachter’s two-factor theory.
Option 1 refers to the cognitive appraisal theory.
Question 40

4. 1 and 3



Question 41
After watching the horror movie, Thandi comments “That movie was so fun to watch, I was so
excited to see dinosaurs taking over the earth”. In contrast Nicole tensely replies, “I was terrified the
whole way through that we as human beings would no longer exist” Emotions are uniquely
experienced by individuals and each individual can interpret the same situation differently. This is an
example of a ___ of emotions.
1. behavioural consequent

Reasoning: Emotions are highly personal and relate to subjective experience. People’s cognitive
processes about events in their lives are therefore the key determinants of the
emotions they experience. This refers to the cognitive-perceptual component of
emotions.
Question 42
1. Emotions must be evident in human species only

2. Emotions must be associated with a distinct facial expression
3. Emotions must be evident only in all cultures
4. Emotions must contribute to survival of the species

Question 43
A clinical psychologist who sees children for psychotherapy notices that boys tend to consult more
for aggressive behaviour and girls for depression. She starts reading up on gender and emotional
difficulties and finds out that ___.
1. men are more prone to aggression, whereas both women and men are equally prone to
depression
2. men are more prone to externalisation disorders and women are more prone to
internalisation disorders

3. there is no significant evidence for differences with regard to emotional distress

4. women are more prone to depression, whereas both women and men are equally prone to
reacting aggressively

Reasoning: Men generally turn their anger outward while women turn their anger inward. This
is in line with the finding that men are four times more likely to become violent in
the face of life crises.
Question 44
Which of the following is not one of the four assumptions of the Contextual model of stress?
1. Communities share beliefs and meanings

2. Events perceived as stressor are assigned positive or negative value to them
3. Events have a universal meaning independent of the situation or the person that perceives
the event
4. Events are given meaning through perception

Reasoning: The contextual model of stress is based on four assumptions:
• An event does not have a universal meaning independent of the situation in
which it occurs. (therefore option 3 is incorrect)
• Communities share beliefs and meanings.
• When an event is perceived as a stressor, the person (or community) assigns
a positive or negative value to it
• Events gain meaning through perception.
Question 45
According to the GAS model of stress, during the (an) ___ we experience shock, and our ability to
cope with the stressor drops below our normal levels of coping.
1. resistance phase
2. exhaustion phase
3. cognitive appraisal phase

Question 46
According to ___ the process of identification contribute greatly to personality development of an

individual.

1. Psychoanalytic theory of personality

2. Social learning theory
3. Five-factor model pf personality development
4. Person-centred theory

Reasoning: According to the social learning theory, the processes of identification and imitation
contribute greatly to personality development. Identification refers to a person’s
emotional attachment to someone they admire.
Question 47
Which personality theoretical approach focuses on the unique qualities and potential for growth?
1. The behaviouristic approach

2. The psychoanalytic approach
3. The biological approach
4. The humanistic approach

Question 48
General activity level, sociability, emotionality, and impulsivity are the main characteristics of ___.
1. self-concept
2. personality
3. temperament
4. self-esteem

• emotionality
• sociability
• impulsivity
Question 49
1. a person’s emotions and the way in which they deal with and express those emotions and
react to situations
2. a person’s psychological and spiritual characteristics that influences their behaviour
3. aspects of personality that involves a person’s values and his/her ability to behave according
to those values

4. a person’s qualities that mostly remain consistent in various and changing situations

Question 50
Nelson decides to go to psychotherapy. He chooses the psychologist that helps the clients
understand their experiences from their own point of view and to live their lives from a congruent
self-concept. The psychologist is adopting the ___.
1. person-centred approach
2. trait approach
3. psychodynamic approach
4. psychoanalytic approach

Reasoning: Refer to Carl Roger’s person-centred theory in the prescribed textbook.
Exam May/June 2015

Questions 1 to 8 are based on the Human Nervous System
The Scenario: (Questions 1 to 3)
Last week the Tutor asked James to prepare a report on the central nervous system. However, James
is not sure about the information in his report therefore, he asks you for assistance. This is what
James wrote: “The central nervous system is made up of the nerves and the spinal cord. Motor
neurons gather information detected from the environment, send the information to the brain via
the spinal cord. The brain then makes sense of the message and fires off a response. Afferent
neurons deliver the instructions from the brain and the spinal cord to the rest of the body.” Looking
at the report you realise that some information is incorrect. So, you have to help James to correct it.
Question 1
In the report James states that, “The central nervous system is made up of the nerves and the spinal
cord”. This statement is ___.
1. correct
2. partially correct, he should say, “The central nervous system is made up of the brain and the
spinal cord.”
3. incorrect, he should say, “The central nervous system is made up of the brain and the spinal
column.”
4. partially incorrect, he should say, “The central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord
and the neurons.”


Question 2
In the report James also states that “Motor neurons gather information detected from the
environment, send the information to the brain via the spinal cord” This statement is ___.
1. correct
2. partially correct, it should say motor neurons gather information but, the information is not
sent to the spinal cord, but directly to the brain for information.
3. incorrect, it should say the sensory neurons gather information detected from the
environment
4. partially incorrect, it should say motor neurons gather information, but the information is
sent to the muscles and joints, not the spinal cord.

Reasoning: The information is received from the sensory receptors in the skin, the skeletal
muscles, tendons and joints, and the internal organs of the body. The information is
conducted from the sensory receptors to the brain along the sensory root of the
spinal nerve.
Question 3
James further states that “Afferent neurons deliver the instructions from the brain and spinal cord to
the rest of the body” This statement is ___.
1. correct
2. partially correct, it should say motor neurons deliver the instructions, but the spinal cord is
not involved in the process
3. incorrect, it should say motor neurons deliver the instructions from the brain and spinal cord
to the rest of the body
4. partially incorrect, it should say motor neurons deliver the instructions, but the brain is not
involved in the process.

Question 4
membrane is ___.



Question 5
In the myelinated neuron, the myelin sheaths are separated by a small gap called synaptic gap that
facilitates the neural impulse to jump from one point to another. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct term is bouton terminal
3. incorrect, the correct term is telondendron
4. incorrect, the correct term is nodes of Ranvier

Reasoning: The myelin sheets insulate the neuron except at small gaps, called the nodes of
Ranvier.
Question 6
transmission?
1. Nerve impulse stimulates the terminal bouton - Neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic
cleft - Vesicles attach to presynaptic membrane
2. Nerve impulse stimulates terminal bouton - Vesicles attach to the membrane -
Neurotransmitters are released - Neurotransmitters attach to receptors on postsynaptic
membrane
3. Nerve impulse stimulates the terminal bouton - Transmitter deactivated by bouton -
Electrical changes in receiving cell
4. Nerve impulse stimulates terminal bouton - Neurotransmitters attach to receptors -
Neurotransmitters cross synaptic cleft



Question 7
Johan had an accident that left him with serious head injuries. Since the accident John could hardly
remember his own cell number. He does not recognise his favourite song when playing and his
speech is slurred. This is caused by damage to the parietal lobe of the brain. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct term is occipital lobe
3. incorrect, the correct term is frontal lobe
4. incorrect, the correct term is temporal lobe

The occipital lobe (option 2) is responsible for the perception of vision. This is an
incorrect option.
Question 8
On close examination after the accident, the doctors found that the left and right hemispheres in
John’s brain do not communicate properly with each other. This is caused by damage to the corpus
callosum of the brain. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct term is cerebral cortex
3. incorrect, the correct term is hypothalamus
4. incorrect, the correct term is grey matter

Reasoning: The two hemispheres are connected by a thick band of fibres called the corpus
callosum, which allows the right and left cerebral hemispheres to communicate
with each other.
Questions 9 to 13 is based on Memory
Question 9

Carien just met a long-lost friend at the mall today. Since Carien did not have her cell-phone with
her, she decided to mentally organise her friend’s cell number as 01 24 29 29 55 for easy
remembering. Carien used the memory strategy called recitation. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is chunking
3. incorrect, the correct answer is selection
4. incorrect, the correct answer is rehearsal

chunks.
Question 10
Which of the following combination of statements is an example of procedural memory?
A. As a passenger on the South African Airways (SAA) flight, John was thrilled when the
flight took off. It has been a long time since John has been on a flight.
B. During the Nelson Mandela Soccer Challenge, the legendary “Ace” thrilled the crowd
with his soccer antics and skills.
C. The new-born baby was crying hysterically during birth.
D. When Sandy’s car got stuck on a rainy night on the farm, the nearby retired mechanic
was able to fix the car.
1. A and D
2. A and C
3. B and C
4. B and D

Question 11
The term memory decay refers to the process of being unable to retrieve information we have
stored in the long-term memory. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is forgetting
3. incorrect, the correct answer is retrieval
4. incorrect, the correct answer is interference



interferes with the memory process.
Question 12
The tutor asks the group members to relate the recent important events in their lives. David starts
telling the group what he was doing during the 2014 Brazil FIFA SOCCER WORLD CUP. This
information is stored in David’s procedural memory. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is working memory
3. incorrect, the correct answer is sensory memory
4. incorrect, the correct answer is explicit memory

Question 13
Mary had a bad experience with a vicious dog that chased her on the street. She really felt
embarrassed by the incidence and she would like to put it behind her and never talk to anyone
about it. This is an example of retrieval failure. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is motivated forgetting
3. incorrect, the correct answer is memory decay

Reasoning: Sometimes we want or need to forget something, in other words, we have internal
motivation to forget something.
Question 14
Learning can be defined as ___.
1. any change in behaviour as a result of reinforcement

2. any change in behaviour caused by punishment
3. a permanent change in behaviour due to the physical development
4. a relatively permanent change in behaviour due to past experience

Reasoning: Learning is formally defined as a ‘relatively permanent change in behaviour due to
experience.’

Question 15
In Classical conditioning learning, what term refers to the re-appearance of a response that seems to
have been extinguished?
1. Higher-order conditioning
2. Spontaneous recovery
3. Extinction
4. Discrimination

Question 16
Which of the following statements is correct about operant and classical conditioning?
1. In operant conditioning, the likelihood of a response is influenced by the consequences that

follow, whereas in classical conditioning the response is influenced by spontaneous recovery
2. In operant conditioning, behaviour operates on the environment and is maintained by its
consequences, while in classical conditioning behaviour is maintained by the conditioning of
reflexive behaviours that are elicited by the current conditions
3. In both conditioning, the responses of the learner are automatic, reflexive and voluntary
4. In both conditioning, the learner is active

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 172, Table 1
Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning, the response is influenced by
reinforcement and not by spontaneous recovery.
Option 3 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning, the responses of the learner is not
voluntary.
Option 4 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning the learner is not active.
Question 17
Sipho works for the company that transports goods around the country. Although Sipho works
overtime on various occasions due to the high workload, he only gets paid at the end of the month.
This is an example of ___ schedule of reinforcement.
1. variable-ratio
2. fixed-ratio
3. variable-interval
4. fixed-interval

Reasoning: Sipho gets paid every month, therefore the timeline is fixed and not variable.
Sipho gets paid at intervals (monthly) and not after a certain amount of work (ratio)
has been done.

Question 18
A. consistency
B. spontaneity
C. timing
D. intensity
1. A, C and D
2. B, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C

Question 19
With regard to personality, the term "character" refers to ___.
1. the emotional aspects of an individual's biological and psychological self and the way an
individual expresses the emotions
2. an individual's ideas, perceptions and feelings about who they are
3. the aspects of personality involving an individual's values and their ability to behave
according to those values
4. stable qualities of an individual that mostly remain consistent in various and changing
situations

Question 20
It is generally recognised that people with Type A personality tend to have more illnesses than
others. Which of the following is incorrect about Type A personalities?
1. Type A personalities have a sense of time urgency

2. Type A personalities do not believe in their own abilities
3. Type A personalities tend to suffer from chronic anger
4. Type A personalities set high goals for themselves and are achievement-oriented


Question 21
According to the African perspective on personality, which of the following is a characteristic of a

collectivist viewpoint about personality?
1. Formality
2. Independence
3. Competition
4. Strong group pressure

Question 22
When filling in the application form, Susan describes herself as sociable, easy-going, caring, and
hard-working. What personality approach is Susan using in this regard?
4. Trait approach

Question 23
Maggie, your group member is discussing the psychoanalytic approach to personality and she
matches the structures of personality and their descriptions as follows:
1. Id A. Innate biological impulses and urges

2. Superego B. The executive part of the self
3. Ego C. The conscience
Your response is ___.
1. This is correct
2. This is incorrect, the correct match is 1 and B, 2 and A, 3 and C
3. This is incorrect, the correct match is 1 and A, 2 and C, 3 and B
4. This is incorrect, the correct match is 1 and C, 2 and A, 3 and B


Questions 24 to 28 are based on States of consciousness
Question 24
A few minutes before writing the Psychology examinations today, Susan experienced an
overwhelming need to sleep. Her friend explained to the invigilator that Susan suffers from the sleep
disorder called catalepsy. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is sleep apnoea
3. incorrect, the correct answer is narcolepsy
4. incorrect, the correct answer is insomnia

night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 2 is incorrect.
Question 25
Which of the following combination of statements about hypnosis is incorrect?
A. Hypnosis can be used to improve memory

B. Hypnosis is characterised by increased suggestibility
C. Hypnosis works if a person participates voluntarily and is willing to be hypnotised
D. Hypnosis can prevent the body from feeling pain
E. Posthypnotic suggestions can help people to stop undesirable behaviours
1. A and C
2. B and E
3. A and D
4. B and D

Therefore, option A is incorrect. It occurs because of increased suggestibility.
Therefore, option B is correct. Because it is based on increased suggestibility, the
person has to be a willing participant, therefore option C is correct. One of the
established effects of hypnosis is to decrease pain, but it does not prevent the body

from experiencing pain, it alters the emotional components so that the person does
not feel it. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
Question 26
Narcotics are stimulant drugs that produce drowsiness and increase insensitivity to pain This answer
is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is hallucinogenic
3. incorrect, the correct answer is inhalant
4. incorrect, the correct answer is depressant

Question 27
According to electroencephalogram (EEG) measurement, the brain waves called Alpha waves
characterize the state of being awake and relaxed. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is Beta waves
3. incorrect, the correct answer is Delta waves
4. incorrect, the correct answer is Theta waves

Question 28
The phenomenon of Rapid Eye Movement (REM) occurs during
1. phase 2 of sleep, whereby brain wave frequencies are mixed

2. phase 3 of sleep, In which autonomic activity slows down
4. Phase 4 of sleep, in which delta brain waves are high

Questions 29 to 33 are based on Cognition
Question 29
Which of the following statements is incorrect about formal reasoning? In the formal reasoning ___.

1. premises are stated explicitly

2. structures and rules of reasoning are more obvious
3. the issue that is being reasoned has personal consequences
4. there is usually one correct solution to a problem

Refer: A-Z 0f Psy, pp. 7-8
Reasoning: In formal reasoning the problem that is being reasoned about is generally not
personally relevant.
Question 30
Thembi's mother used to punish Thembi physically whenever Thembi did something wrong. Now
Thembi is a mother and despite the alternatives available for discipline, Thembi also uses physical
punishment to discipline her daughter. This is an example of a cultural barrier to problem-solving.
This answer is __.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is a learned barrier
3. incorrect, the correct answer is an emotional barrier
4. incorrect, the correct answer is a perceptual barrier

Question 31
After the tutorials you forgot to meet your groupmate Lindy, at the Library at 12 00 as agreed. At 13
00 Lindy finds you in the cafeteria. You asked how she found you and she explains that you are
usually in the library, or the cafeteria around 13 00. What approach did Lindy use to find you?
1. Deductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that guaranteed an outcome

2. Inductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that did not guarantee an outcome
3. Restricted thinking because she restricted her options

because the premise was true (You are usually in the library or the cafeteria around
13h00) and therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (Lindy did not find you in the
library and therefore knew that you would be in the cafeteria).
Question 32


1. A, B, and D
2. A, B, and C
3. B, C, and D
4. A, B, C, and D

Question 33
1. Trying to discredit the Issue by discrediting the person who support the issue
3. Using a slightly changed version of someone else's point of view as a basis for reasoning

stealing.
Questions 34 to 39 are based on Emotion
Question 34
Primary emotions are shared by many people throughout the world. Which of the following
statements are correct about primary emotions?
A. They are evident in all cultures

B. They contribute to the survival of the species
C. There is universal agreement on the specific emotions that qualify as primary emotions
D. They are evident in non-human species
1. A, B and D
2. A and C
3. C and B
4. A, C and D


distinct facial expression. Primary emotions should also be evident in non-human
species.
Question 35
The relationship between emotion and autonomic physiological arousal forms the basis for the use
of a polygraph (lie detector) test. Which of the following statements is correct about a polygraph? A
polygraph
1. measures the lies told by the person being tested

2. records psychological changes in relation to the lies being told
3. monitors the physiological changes when a person lies
4. makes people to respond differently during questioning

Reasoning: A polygraph, popularly referred to as a lie detector, measures and records several
physiological indices such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin
conductivity while a person is asked and answers a series of questions.
Question 36
Which of the following is incorrect about emotional intelligence?
1. Emotional intelligence is synonymous to intellectual ability

2. Being emotionally intelligent means using and expressing our emotions wisely and
appropriately
3. People with high emotional intelligence know themselves well and have greater self-control
and compassion as compared to people with low emotional intelligence
4. Emotional intelligence allows people to control their impulses

Question 37
There are cultural differences in the manner in which people express their emotions. Such
expressions are however, governed by display rules. Which of the following is incorrect about display
rules? Display rules ___.
1. are culture-specific rules that govern how, when and why emotional expressions are
appropriate

2. suggest that learning does not play an important role in the expression of emotions
3. influence the way people learn to control and modify the expression of emotions
4. in traditional African cultures allow the outward expression of emotions during difficult
times

Reasoning: Display rules refers to culture-specific rules that govern how, when and why
expressions of emotions are appropriate.
Question 38
Emotions are usually expressed in various ways. When an emotion is experienced, arousal increases
and the sympathetic system activates the body for emergency action. This is the behavioural
component of emotion. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is cognitive-perceptual component
3. incorrect, the correct answer is physiological component
4. incorrect, the correct answer is social component

Reasoning: Refer to the physiological component of emotion in A-Z of Psy.
Question 39
According to the Cognitive theory of emotion, which of the following provides the correct sequence
in the experience of an emotion?

2. Stimulation → arousal → appraisal → emotion → appraisal → behaviour
3. Stimulation → appraisal → differentiation of emotion → coping

Reasoning: Option 4 is the correct answer
Questions 40 to 44 are based on Intelligence
Question 40
Thabiso is a 10 year-old boy. The results of an intelligence test indicate that Thabiso can perform all
the tasks designed for children aged 11 years. He can also perform half of the tasks designed for 12
year-old children, and a quarter of the tasks designed for 13 year-old children. Therefore, Thabiso's
mental age is 10 years and 11 months. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is 11 years and 9 months


Reasoning: As Thabiso can perform all the tasks for a child of 11, we bank the number 11.
As he can do a quarter the tasks of a 13-year old, we add a quarter of the year
Therefore, Thabiso’s mental age is 11 years and 9 months.
Question 41
Mr Norwood's neighbours describe him as an easy-going person, someone who communicates well
and gets along with other people in his natural environment. According to Gardner’s theory of
intelligence, Mr Norwood can be described as having naturalistic intelligence. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is interpersonal intelligence
3. incorrect, the correct answer is spatial intelligence
4. incorrect, the correct answer is intra personal intelligence

Question 42
Mrs Jones asks you why her son is having learning difficulties at school while his friend - who lives in
the same community does not. Your explanation is based on the findings that children who are less
likely to obtain similar scores on intelligence test are children who have ___.

2. different genetic compositions and are raised in the same environment
4. different genetic compositions and are raised in different environments

Reasoning: This question relates to the nature vs. nurture debate.
Question 43
According to information-processing approach to intelligence, componential intelligence refers to

the ability to understand concepts in verbal form. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it refers to the ability to use and obtain new information for planning and
problem-solving
3. incorrect, it refers to the ability to adapt to real-world situations in various contexts

4. incorrect, it refers to the manner in which past experience contributes to knowledge and
skills applied in life situations or tasks

Reasoning: Componential intelligence refers to the ways in which people process information.
Examples are processes used for planning and problem solving, or obtaining new
information.
Option 3 refers to contextual intelligence.
Option 4 refers to experiential intelligence.
Question 44
To test your creativity, the tutor asks you to think of a different possible use of a car tyre. You
suggest that an old car tyre could be used as a flower pot in the garden. This is an example of
convergent thinking. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is divergent thinking
3. incorrect, the correct answer is cognitive complexity
4. incorrect, the correct answer is insight

Question 45
is called sensation. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is adaptation
3. incorrect, the correct answer is perception
4. incorrect, the correct answer is transduction

perception.

Question 46
firing in response to continuous presentation of a stimulus. This process is called sensory adaptation.
This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is habituation
4. incorrect, the correct answer is sensation

Question 47
All of us become accustomed to the continuous humming sound of the refrigerator that in time we
no longer hear it. However, when the refrigerator stops humming we suddenly become aware that it
has stopped. This increased awareness can be explained in terms of stimulus change following
habituation. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is dishabituation followed by habituation
3. incorrect, the correct answer is habituation followed by dishabituation
4. incorrect, the correct answer is orienting reaction following dishabituation

Question 48
The type of perceptual constancy that explains the fact that a piece of charcoal is always black,
whether you look at it in bright light or in the shadow is called constant colour. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is constant brightness
3. incorrect, the correct answer is constant form
4. incorrect, the correct answer is constant size


shape of the charcoal, therefore options 3 and 4 are incorrect. Option 1 is the
correct answer because even though the charcoal may look slightly different when
viewed in the shade, it is still perceived as black, this is a function of constant colour.
Question 49
Two bright lights are presented to a participant one after the other. The participant is asked to state
whether the brightness of the two lights is the same or not by comparing their intensity. What is the
researcher trying to establish with this experiment?
1. Transduction
2. Absolute threshold
3. Conversion
4. Differential threshold

Reasoning: Transduction (also called conversion) is a process whereby the receptors transform
one form of energy to another.
The size of the increase in intensity that results in a noticeable difference is called
the differential threshold.
Question 50
The principle of perceptual organization that refers to the tendency to group elements in a manner
that creates a balanced figure is called closure. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is similarity
3. incorrect, the correct answer is symmetry
4. incorrect, the correct answer is continuity


Questions 1 to 7 is based on Cognition
Question 1
becomes flat there is no potential difference between the two poles' This is an example of critical
reasoning, because it critically analyses the different states of a neuron. This answer is ___.
1. correct

2. incorrect, it is analogical reasoning because it demonstrates the similarities between two

concepts
3. incorrect, it is inductive reasoning because it is based on the likelihood that there are
differences
4. incorrect, it is deductive reasoning because it is based on logical reasoning that if the
premise is true, then the conclusion must also be true

Question 2
The use of hierarchical concepts helps us to classify things and make sense of our world. Items such
as apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are classified at ___ level(s) of classification.
1. subordinate
2. superordinate
3. intermediate
4. 1 and 3

categorised. The subordinate level of classification is the lowest level and items such
as apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are classified at this level. As a result,
option 1 is the correct answer. Option 2 is incorrect because these items would be
ranked as food at a superordinate level of classification. Option 3 is also incorrect
because these items would be ranked as fruits and vegetables at an intermediate
level.
Question 3
After the exams you overheard your groupmate asking the lecturer to give her a pass mark because
your groupmate could not study for the exam due to electricity load shedding in her neighbourhood.
This is an example of formal reasoning because the premises are stated explicitly. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it is informal reasoning because there are several solutions to the problem
3. incorrect, it is a fallacy that discredits the exam as being too difficult
4. incorrect, it is a fallacy that plays on someone's emotions to support a conclusion
Question 4

Which of the following statements are part of defining problem-solving?

1. A, B and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C, and D

incorrect, thus eliminating options 1, 3 and 4.
Question 5
You have arranged with your group mate to meet at the library at 15 00 but then you forgot about
the appointment. At 15 30 your group mate found you at the cafeteria. When you asked how she
found you, she said that you are usually in the library, or at the cafeteria around 15 30 every day.
The approach your group mate used to find you is called informal reasoning because there was only
one possible outcome. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, it is inductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that did not guarantee
an outcome
3. incorrect, it is deductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that guaranteed an
outcome
4. incorrect, it is restricted thinking because she restricted her options to find you

because the premise was true (you are usually in the library or the cafeteria around
15h30) and therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (your group mate did not find
you in the library and therefore knew that you would be in the cafeteria).
Question 6
During the tutorial group discussion, Peter says that he understands why some people resort to
stealing in order to make a living. Upon hearing this, Susan then claims that Peter is in favour of


stealing.
Question 7
When John came back from the party late at night, he found that the electricity was off in the house
due to load shedding. So, he struggled to open the door with the key since it was dark in the
doorway. Frustrated, John decided to try one by one, only the keys that could possibly open the
door and eventually managed to open it. In this case, John used trial-and-error strategy to open the
door. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. He used heuristic strategy to open the door
3. incorrect. John used insight to open to door
4. incorrect. He used inductive reasoning to open the door

Questions 8 to 15 are based on Human Nervous System
Question 8
Action potential is triggered when the neuron is in an inactive but polarised state. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It is triggered when the membrane of a neuron becomes permeable to sodium
ions, moving from high sodium concentration on the outside of the neuron to the low
sodium concentration on the inside
3. incorrect. It is triggered when the same axon discharges repeatedly, causing the
accumulation of more neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft
4. incorrect. It is triggered when the nerve impulse begins in the first segment of the axon and
travels down the axon to the terminals because of electrical events at the cell membrane

Reasoning: Action potential is what is triggered when resting membrane potential is achieved
(when the neuron is in an inactive but polarised state), plus threshold potential has
been reached.

Question 9
The gaps that separate the myelin sheaths and contain the sodium and potassium ion channels
required for impulse conduction are known as axon hillocks. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. The correct answer is nodes of Ranvier
3. incorrect. The correct answer is a channel
4. incorrect. The correct answer is the synaptic cleft

Reasoning: The myelin sheets insulate the neuron except at small gaps, called the nodes of
Ranvier.
Question 10
You run away from a large, vicious dog. When you are some distance away and safe, you stop to
catch your breath. The physiological symptoms that you now experience are controlled mainly by
somatic nervous system. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It is the sympathetic nervous system
3. incorrect. It is the peripheral nervous system
4. incorrect. It is the parasympathetic nervous system

Question 11
Which of the following statements about the characteristics of neurotransmitters is incorrect?
1. The main function of a neurotransmitter is to inhibit the activities of the cell

2. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that are present in or manufactured by neurons
3. When the neuron is active, a chemical is released and produces a response in a target cell
4. There is a mechanism for removing the neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft once its
work is done

Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect, because a neurotransmitter can have excitatory or inhibitory
effects. Whether a neurotransmitter has an excitatory or inhibitory effect depends
on:
it


Question 12
Your groupmate states that a person whose behaviour is dominated by the sympathetic nervous
system is characterised by:
i. a state of under-arousal,
ii. shallow breathing due to tension in the chest muscles,
iii. inability to relax and sleep, and
iv. lethargy and poor motivation. You ___.
1. disagree with statements (i) and (iii) only
2. agree with statements (ii) and (iii) only
3. disagree with statements (ii) and (iv) only
4. agree with all of the above statements

good.
Statements ii. and iii. refers to a person who has sympathetic dominance, and
statements i. and iv. refers to a person with parasympathetic dominance, neither of
which is autonomically balanced (in a state of autonomic homeostasis)
Question 13
The main function of the frontal lobes is to interpret visual stimuli. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. The main function is to control voluntary motor movement, and the production of
speech
3. incorrect. The main function is to provide information on bodily sensations
4. incorrect. The main function relates to the perception of sound

Question 14

The main function of the ___ is to distribute motor fibres to the muscles and to convey
somatosensory information to the brain. It can work independently of the brain as a result of
reflexive control circuits
1. cerebellum
2. hypothalamus
3. pons
4. spinal cord

Reasoning: The spinal cord has motor and sensory roots. It carries information to and from the
body and it produces reflexes.
Question 15
In the myelinated axons, impulse conduction is known as ___ conduction, whereas in the un-
myelinated axons it is known as ___ conduction.
1. resting membrane potential - generator potential

2. postsynaptic potential - salutatory
3. axon hillock - refractory period
4. salutatory - action potential

Questions 16 to 19 are based on States of consciousness
Question 16
When you wake up and clearly remember the dream, what stage of sleep have you woken up from?
1. D-sleep
2. phase 2 sleep
3. phase 3 sleep
4. phase 4 sleep

Reasoning: Phase 3 sleep is a deeper form of sleep that is characterised by delta waves and
people being very relaxed. Option 3 is incorrect. Option 4 is incorrect because Phase
4 sleep is a very deep sleep that is characterised by people being confused, having
slurred speech and poor motor co-ordination if they are woken up. Option 1 refers
to D-Sleep which is characterised by dreaming, as result when people are woken up
they can remember what they have dreamt about. Therefore, based on the
description option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 17
A sleep disorder called narcolepsy is characterised by inability to move, which occurs just before one
falls asleep or when waking up in the morning. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep
3. incorrect. The statement refers to sleep apnoea
4. incorrect. Narcolepsy is characterised by breathing difficulties during sleep

gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 3 is incorrect. Narcolepsy is
Question 18
After watching the movie called " Insomnia~, Sarah has been experiencing breathing difficulties
during her sleep. She wakes up at night gasping for breath, and then goes back to sleep. Sarah is
suffering from sleep disorder called catalepsy. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. She is suffering from sleep apnoea
3. incorrect. She is suffering from insomnia
4. incorrect. She is suffering from narcolepsy

Question 19
Stimulants act by Increasing alertness, boosting energy and activity, and producing a pleasant feeling
Which of the following is an example of a stimulant?
1. Caffeine
2. Marijuana
3. Alcohol
4. Ecstasy


Reasoning: Option 2 is incorrect because Marijuana is a hallucinogen that distorts sensory
experiences. Alcohol depresses the nervous system resulting in decreased arousal
levels. Therefore, option 3 is incorrect. Option 4 refers to ecstasy which destroys
axons, resulting in brain damage. Option 4 is the incorrect answer. Option 1 is the
correct answer because caffeine increases alertness, boost energy and activity and
produce a pleasant feeling.
Question 20
The theory that explains colour vision on the basis of red, green and blue retinal systems is called the
Retinex theory. This answer is
1. correct
2. incorrect. It is the Trichromatic theory
3. incorrect. It is the opponent-process theory
4. incorrect. It is the Hering theory

Question 21
The brain's ability to process Incoming Information rapidly and without any level of awareness to
enable a person to respond quickly to potentially important events is called sensation. This answer is
___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. The statement refers to monitoring
3. incorrect. The statement refers to perceptual organisation
4. incorrect. The statement refers to generator potential

Question 22
The process whereby the receptor cells transform one form of energy to another is called receptor
potential. This answer is ___.
1. correct

2. incorrect. It is called transduction

3. incorrect. It is called generator potential
4. incorrect. It is called adaptation

energy to another.
Question 23
Your little brother overheard the school teacher talking about adaptation today. When he arrives
home he asks you what adaptation is. You simply explain that adaptation occurs when ___.
1. the generator potential in a cell decreases to prevent overstimulation

2. there is a decrease in the frequency of a firing neuron
3. we become aware of potentially important changes in the environment that we have
become used to
4. the receptor cells convert receptor potential into generator potential

decrease in the frequency of firing in neurons (option 2).
Question 24
The principle of perceptual organisation called ___ refers to our tendency to group elements in a
way that creates a balanced figure
1. continuity
2. closure
4. symmetry

Question 25
Sipho's father, Mr Peterson is worried about Sipho's progress at school. Sipho is 10 years old and he
wrote an intelligence test at school. The results of the test indicate that Sipho can pass all the test
items passed by seven year-old children, half of the items passed by eight year-old children, and half
of the items passed by nine year-old children. Therefore, the test results indicate
A. Sipho's chronological age

B. that Sipho's mental age is eight years

C. that Sipho's mental age is nine years
D. an IQ of 80
E. hat Sipho is not intelligent
Which of the following provides the correct answer?
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. A and D
4. C and E

Reasoning: As Sipho can perform all the tasks for a child of 7, we bank the number 7.
Therefore, Sipho’s mental age is 8 years.
IQ = MA/CA x 100
= 8/10 x 100
= 80
Sipho’s chronological age is not the result of the test, therefore option A is
eliminated, eliminating alternatives 1 and 3.
Question 26
Mr Peterson finds it difficult to accept the intelligence test results. She thinks that David is very
intelligent because he is a very creative child. Mr Peterson’s reasoning is ___.
1. correct, because most highly creative people have above average intellectual ability
2. correct, because many creative people perform poorly on IQ tests
3. incorrect, because creative achievements are based on years of hard work
4. incorrect, because creative thinking is not the same as intelligence
Answer: The correct answer is 1/4

Reasoning: Most highly creative people have above average intellectual ability (Ochse, 1990) –
option 1.
Creativity and intelligence are related, but they represent different kinds of mental
ability – option 4.
Question 27
Mr Peterson finds it difficult to accept the test results because all men on his family have above-
average intelligence. Mr Peterson's understanding of intelligence can be attributed to the ___.
1. biological theory of Intelligence

2. general theory of intelligence



Question 28
Cindy is described as creative, peaceful, silent and submissive.
Amy is intelligent, aggressive, and an achiever.
Samson is sensitive to the feelings of others, persistent, self-motivated and self- controlled.
David is witty, extrovert, anxious and rational.
Which of these four friends can be described as being emotionally intelligent?
1. David
2. Samson
3. Cindy
4. Amy

Question 29
The theory of intelligence that postulates that there are general and specific factors underlying
performance on intellectual tasks was developed by Spearman. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It was developed by Guilford
3. incorrect. It was developed by Gardner
4. incorrect. It was developed by Galton

Questions 30 to 37 are based on Emotion
Question 30

Thandi is deep in thought and has a frown on her forehead. Seeing this expression on Thandi's face,
her mother becomes curious and comes closer and realise that Thandi is busy with her Psycho logy
assignment. This example indicates that ___.
1. the external expression of emotion provides enough information to interpret someone's

emotional expression
2. emotions vary in intensity
3. it is important to know the context when trying to interpret external expressions of
emotions
4. all of the above

Reasoning: See “Classification of Emotion” in the prescribed textbook
Question 31
Which of the following statements about emotions are correct?
A. Men and women are more likely to react with different emotions to the same situation
B. Men and women equally seek help when dealing with emotional issues
C. Women are better than men at interpreting non-verbal cues of emotions
D. Women are more prone to develop depression than men due to anger directed inward
1. B, C, and D
2. A, B, and C
3. A, C, and D
4. A, B, and D

Reasoning: Men are less likely to seek help when dealing with emotional issues. Therefore,
statement B is incorrect, eliminating options 1, 2 and 4
Question 32
According to the Two-Factor theory of emotion, which of the following provides the correct
sequence in the experience of emotion?
1. Stimulation → Arousal → Appraisal →Emotion → Behaviour

2. Stimulation → Arousal → Appraisal →Emotion
3. Stimulation → Appraisal → Differentiation of emotion → Coping
4. Stimulation → Appraisal → Differentiation of emotion → Physiological arousal


Question 33

4. 1 and 3

Question 34
Which of the following abilities of emotionally intelligent people is incorrect?
1. They control impulses and delay gratification

2. They are self-motivated and keep trying even under difficult circumstances
3. They recognize emotions in others and have hope for the future
4. They regulate and use their emotions to make decisions

recognise emotions in others (option 3), control impulses and delay gratification
(option 1), and motivate themselves and keep on trying even when they experience
frustrations (option 2). Emotional intelligent people also have self-awareness and
recognise feelings as they happen.
Question 35
Which of the following statements about emotion is incorrect?
1. The intensity of emotion interacts with the level of physiological arousal and the quality of
emotion experienced
2. When an emotion is experienced, arousal increases and the parasympathetic system
activates the body for emergency action
3. There are cultural differences in the ways that people view and categorize emotions

4. To understand emotions, we usually rely on individual or subjective verbal reports of what

people are experiencing

Refer: A-Zof Psy, pg. 36
Reasoning: When an emotion is experienced, arousal increases and the sympathetic (and not
parasympathetic) system activates the body for emergency action, therefore option
2 is incorrect.
Question 36
Emotions are usually expressed non-verbally whereby bodily gestures and facial expressions are
used to show a variety of emotions. This is a cognitive-perceptual component of emotions. This
answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It is the physiological component
3. incorrect. It is the behavioural component
4. incorrect. It is the social component

Question 37
Primary emotions are shared by the majority of people throughout the world. Which of the following
A. They are evident in all cultures

B. They contribute to the survival of the species
C. There is a universal agreement on the specific emotions that qualify as primary emotions
D. They are evident in non-human species
1. A, B and D
2. A and C
3. C and B
4. A, C and D

emotions also contribute to the survival of human species (statement B) and are

associated with distinct facial expression. Primary emotions should also be evident
in non-human species (statement A).
Statement C is incorrect, thereby eliminating options 2, 3 and 4.
Questions 38 to 42 are based on Personality
Question 38
In contrast to the Western perspective, the African perspective on personality is concerned with
1. attribution of behaviour to internal forces

2. the importance of the community
3. the importance of the self
4. all of the above

Question 39
Pamela completed a personality test and the results indicate that she is an extrovert. Extroversion
describes her ___.
1. temperament
2. trait
3. character
4. self-concept

Reasoning: The correct answer is option 2 because a extroversion as a personality type refers to
a collection of personality traits thought to occur together consistently on a
personality test. Carl Jung proposed that a person is either an introvert or extrovert.
The other options are incorrect because temperament (option 1) refers to people’s
emotions and the ways in which they express and deal with these emotions.
Character (option 3) refers to the personality aspects involving a person’s values and
their ability to behave according to those values. Self-concept (option 4) involves
people’s ideas, perceptions and feelings about who they are.
Question 40
According to John, the personality theory of Cattell comprises surface and source traits. This answer
is ___.
1. correct, but he should add that these traits often appear in groups and seem to present a
basic personality characteristic
2. incorrect, Cattell's theory comprises of five-factor model of personality
3. partially correct, but he should add that these traits are regulated by the principles of
pleasure and reality
4. partially incorrect, he should add that the theory also consists of central, cardinal and
secondary traits


Question 41
1. Congruence
3. Unconscious processes
4. Self-actualisation

Question 42
You are required to write a short essay on Maslow's theory of personality. Which of the following
should be the main point in your essay?
1. Congruence
3. Unconscious processes
4. Self-actualisation
Questions 43 to 50 are based on Learning and memory
Question 43
Learning is defined as a relatively permanent change in behaviour due to experience. Which of the
following statements indicate that learning has occurred?
A. After choking on a sweet, Sarah decided to take longer chewing the sweet before swallowing
it
B. Due to working under stressful situation, John has changed from being fun and playful to
being impatient and short-tempered
C. An old woman fell on the slippery steps at the shopping centre and decided to avoid the
steps and use a lift
D. Sarah submitted her assignment late and it was returned unmarked. Thereafter she made
sure that all her assignments are submitted on time

1. A, C, and D
2. A, B, and C
3. A, B, and D
4. B, C and D
Question 44
Every time that Michael has passed the Psychology assignment his parents take him out to Spur
restaurant for a feast. Now Michael ensures that he passes all of his Psychology assignments in order
to have a feast at Spur. This is an example of observational learning. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It is cognitive learning
3. incorrect. It is operant learning
4. incorrect. It is classical learning

Question 45
A. spontaneity
B. timing
C. consistency
D. intensity
1. A, B, and C
2. A, C, and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, C and D
Answer: The correct answer is B, C and D

Question 46
conditioning, stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus may also trigger the same response.
In classical conditioning, this process is called stimulus generalization. This answer is ___.

1. correct
2. incorrect. It is called a conditioned response
3. incorrect. It is called stimulus discrimination
4. incorrect. It is called higher-order conditioning

identical stimuli.
Question 47
In Classical conditioning, the term extinction refers to the process of strengthening the likelihood of
a response to occur. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. It refers to the tendency to respond the same way to similar but not identical
stimuli
3. incorrect. It refers to the reappearance of a response which seems to have been
extinguished
4. incorrect. It refers to the disappearance of a previously learned response

Question 48
Which of the following combination of statements is an example of procedural memory?
A. As a passenger on the South African Airways (SAA) flight, John was thrilled when the flight took
off. It has been a long time since John has been on a flight.
B. During the Nelson Mandela Soccer Challenge, the legendary “Ace” thrilled the crowd with his
soccer antics and skills.
C. The new-born baby was crying hysterically during birth.
D. When Sandy’s car got stuck on a rainy night on the farm. The nearby retired mechanic was able to
fix the car.
1. A and D
2. B and D
3. A and C
4. B and C


Question 49
The term memory decay refers to the process of being unable to retrieve the information we have
stored in the long-term memory. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect. The correct answer is retrieval
3. incorrect. The correct answer is interference
4. incorrect. The correct answer is forgetting

Question 50
Mary had a bad experience with a vicious dog that chased her on the street. She really felt
1. correct

Exam May/June 2016

Questions 1 to 8 are based on human nervous system.
Question 1
The process whereby an impulse moves much faster by jumping from node to node when travelling
1. myelination
2. salutatory conduction
3. frequency


Question 2
With regard to impulse conduction, the resting membrane potential occurs when the sodium ions
are ___ charged and the potassium ions ___ are charged. The total electrical charge on the inside of
the membrane is ___.


membrane contains proteins and nucleic acid molecules that are negatively charged.
Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.
Question 3
potential is changed into
2. synapse
4. action potential

Question 4

You managed to run away from a large, vicious dog. When you are some distance away and realise
that you are safe, you stop to catch your breath. The physical symptoms that you now experience
are controlled mainly by the ___.


Question 5
During the group tutorials on myUnisa, the tutor describes a critical point in a receptor which
determines whether a stimulus is intense enough to elicit a response in a neuron. This critical point
is known as ___.
1. action potential
3. transduction
4. the absolute threshold

option 4 is the correct answer. Similar to a neuron receptor potential is converted
into a generator potential when stimuli that is strong enough is received. Based on
this description option 2 is incorrect.
Question 6
One of the functions of the ___ lobe is to enable people to recognise elements of an object in the
visual field and integrate them into a meaningful whole.
1. occipital
2. parietal
3. temporal
4. frontal


The occipital lobe (option 1) is responsible for the perception of vision. This is the
correct option.
Question 7
1. neurons and organs that he beyond the brain

4. organs and glands

Question 8
The somatic nervous system comprises of ___.
1. sensory nerves such as the optic nerve

2. the motor nerves, such as the oculomotor nerve for movements of the eyeball
3. the sensory and motor components of the mixed spinal nerves
4. all of the above

Reasoning: The somatic nervous system has two components, one is sensory and the other
motor. It refers to the nerves that conduct information from the sensory receptors
in the body to the central nervous system, and from the central nervous system to
the skeletal muscles in the body.
Questions 9 to 13 are based on the states of consciousness.
Question 9
The ___ brain waves mostly characterise the wakefulness and a relaxed state of mind.
1. delta
2. alpha
3. beta
4. theta

Question 10

1. phase 2 of sleep whereby brain wave frequencies are mixed

2. phase 3 of sleep in which autonomic activity slows down
3. Phase 4 of sleep in which delta brain waves are high
4. D-sleep in which dreams usually occur

Question 11
Alcohol is a ___ and works by ___.
1. depressant - increasing the release of dopamine

2. stimulant - mimicking other drugs
3. depressant - facilitating the effects of GABA
4. stimulant - decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

Reasoning: The two most common types of depressants are alcohol and tranquilisers. Alcohol
works by depressing the activity of the nervous system. It facilitates the effects of
GABA, which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.
Question 12
Which one of the following refers to the condition of breathing difficulties during sleep, whereby an
individual wakes up gasping for breath, then goes back to sleep?
1. Narcolepsy
2. Insomnia
3. Catalepsy
4. Sleep apnoea

Question 13
Which one of the following statements about hypnosis is not true?
1. Hypnosis can be used to improve memory

2. Hypnosis produces relaxation, concentration and temporary behavioural change

3. Hypnosis alters the emotional component but not the sensory component of pain
4. Hypnosis relies on autosuggestion to induce altered state of consciousness

Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.
Questions 14 to 20 are based on sensation and perception
Question 14
The term ___ refers to the fact that people see things as having a particular size, shape, colour and
brightness, irrespective of the conditions in which these things are encountered
1. recognition
2. spatial organisation
3. perceptual constancy
4. illusion

Question 15
All of us become accustomed to the continuous humming sound of the refrigerator that in tune, we
no longer hear it. However, when the refrigerator stops humming we suddenly become aware that it
has stopped. This increased awareness can be explained in terms of stimulus change following
habituation. This answer is ___.
1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is dishabituation followed by habituation
3. incorrect, the correct answer is orienting reaction following dishabituation
4. incorrect, the correct answer is habituation followed by dishabituation

Question 16
from the sensory information is called sensation. This answer is ___.

1. correct
2. incorrect, the correct answer is adaptation
3. incorrect, the correct answer is perception

perception.
Question 17
The principle of perceptual organisation that refers to the tendency to group elements in a manner
that creates a balanced figure is called ___.
1. symmetry
2. closure
3. similarity
4. continuity

Question 18
1. The orienting reaction occurs when a stimulus is recognised and given meaning
2. The orienting reaction follows a change in environmental stimulation
4. All of the above

stimulation.
Question 19
screen out the surrounding noise. This is an example of which law of perceptual organisation?
1. Closure

2. Figure and ground

3. Proximity
4. Grouping

Question 20
The theory that explains colour vision on the basis of red, green and blue retinal systems is called the
___.
1. Hering theory
2. Retinex theory
3. Opponent-process theory
4. Trichromatic theory

Questions 21 to 25 are based on cognition.
Question 21
During the group discussion on myUnisa, Peter says that he understands why some people tend to
steal in order to make a living. Upon hearing this, Susan then claims that Peter is in favour of
1. Susan is playing on Peter's sympathy to get something done

2. Susan is trying to discredit the issue of stealing by discrediting Peter
3. Susan is using a slightly changed version of Peter's point of view as a basis for reasoning
4. Susan is relying on the characteristics of the group to gain support for her conclusion

stealing.
Question 22
You forgot to meet your groupmate in the library at 12h00, as agreed. Thirty minutes later, your
groupmate finds you at the coffee shop. When you asked how he found you, he explains that you

are usually either in the library, or the coffee shop around 12h30 every day. What approach did your
groupmate use to find you?

2. Restricted thinking because he restricted his options
3. Deductive reasoning because it was based on logical reasoning that if the premise is true,
then the conclusion must also be true
4. Inductive reasoning because it was based on a premise that did not guarantee an outcome

because the premise was true (you are usually in the library or the coffee shop
around 12h30) and therefore the conclusion is guaranteed (Your groupmate did not
find you in the library and therefore knew that you would be in the coffee shop).
Question 23
When John came back from the party late at night, he found that the electricity was off in the house.
Frustrated, John decided to try one by one, only the keys that could possibly open the door and
eventually managed to open it. In this case, John used ___ to open the door.
2. trial-and-error strategy
3. insight

Question 24
Your group on myUnisa discusses the definition of problem-solving. Which of the following aspects
are correct about problem-solving?

1. A, B, and D
2. B, C, and D
3. A, B, and C

4. A, B, C, and D

Question 25
According to Jordaan and Jordaan (1998, in Mojapelo-Balka & Van Deventer, 2013) which of the
following is not one of the steps to improve critical reasoning ability?
1. Keep an open mind

2. Avoid over-generalisations
3. Use Informal knowledge
4. Use close-ended questions

Reasoning: The steps are:
• Identify the problem
• Keep an open mind
• Remember the difference between language and reality
• Use open ended questions
• Avoid over generalisations
• Be empathetic
• Obtain relevant information
• Use informal knowledge
• Develop collective thinking
Questions 26 to 34 are based on learning and memory
Question 26
The ___ memory system refers to the store of explicit, factual information such as names, places,
and so on.
1. declarative
2. sensory
3. short-term
4. procedural

Question 27

long-term memory
1. memory decay
2. forgetting
3. retrieval
4. interference

Question 28
Juliet had a bad experience with a vicious dog that chased her on the street. She really felt
1. correct

Question 29
In Classical conditioning learning, what term refers to the re-appearance of a response that seems to
have been extinguished?
1. Discrimination
2. Extinction

Question 30

Your child has done something wrong and you want to punish him or her. Your friend tells you that
for punishment to be effective, it depends on three aspects. These are ___.
A. consistency
B. spontaneity
C. timing
D. intensity
1. A, C, and D
2. B, C, and D
3. A, Band D
4. A, Band C

Question 31
Lerato does not allow her daughter Hilda, to watch her favourite cartoon television programme if
Hilda is rude to her younger brother. Not allowing Hilda to watch her favourite cartoons serves as
___.
3. punishment

Question 32
According to Bandura (1986), attention, retention, reproduction, and ___ are the essential
components of observational learning.
1. motivation
2. conditioning
3. reinforcement
4. generalisation

• attention
• retention
• reproduction

• motivation
Question 33
Jill is a ten year-old girl who does not always make up her bed. When she forgets to do so, her
mother does it for her but makes Jill wash the dishes. When Jill remembers to make up her bed, she
gets an extra piece of her favourite fruit in her lunch box. This scenario is an example of ___.

Question 34
On the basis of the above scenario, getting an extra piece of fruit serves as ___ for Jill.
1. an unconditioned stimulus
4. the result of classical conditioning

Reasoning: Positive reinforcement occurs when a pleasant or desirable reinforcement follows a
response.
Questions 35 to 39 are based on Personality.
Question 35
In contrast to the Western perspective, the African perspective on personality is concerned with ___.
1. attribution of behaviour to internal forces

2. the importance of the self
3. the importance of the community
4. all of the above

Question 36
According to the African perspective on personality, which of the following is a characteristic of a

collectivist viewpoint about personality?

1. Competition
2. Self-sufficiency
3. Independence
4. Strong group pressure

Question 37
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of a hardy personality?
4. Highly competitive and achievement-orientated

Question 38
The theoretical approach to personality development focuses on the unique qualities of people,
their freedom and potential for growth
1. trait
2. humanist
3. behaviourist
4. psychoanalytic

Question 39
Which of the following describe(s) Cattell's theory of personality?

2. Personality has five innate, universal dimensions that are stable over time
3. People have cardinal, central and secondary traits
4. 1 and 2


Mrs Smith is concerned about the progress of her 13 years-old son Drake, at school. The results of
the psychological test indicate that Drake can pass all the test items passed by 10 year-old children.
Drake can also pass half of the test items passed by 11-year-old children and a quarter of the test
items passed by 12 year-old children.
Question 40
The test results indicate
A. Drake's chronological age

B. that Drake's mental age is 11 years
C. that Drake's mental age is 10 years and 9 months
D. that Drake has an IQ of 82.7
1. A and B
2. C and D
3. B and D
4. A and C

Reasoning: As Drake can perform all the tasks for a child of 10, we bank the number 10.
As he can do half the tasks of an 11-year old, we add half of the year (between 10
As he can do a quarter of the tasks of a 12-year old, we add a quarter of the year
Therefore, Drake’s mental age is 8 years.
IQ = MA/CA x 100
= 10,75/13 x 100
= 82.7
Drake’s chronological age is not the result of the test, therefore option A is
eliminated, eliminating alternatives 1 and 4.
Question 41
Mrs Smith finds it difficult to accept the test results because all men in her family have above-
average intelligence. Mrs Smiths' understanding of intelligence can be attributed to the ___.
1. general (g) theory of intelligence

3. biological theory of intelligence


Question 42
To test your creativity, your tutor asks you to think of a different possible use of a car tyre. You
suggest that an old, painted car lyre could be used as a flower pot in the garden. This is an example
of ___.
3. insight

Question 43
Mr Norwood's neighbours describe him as an easy-going person, someone who communicates and
gets along well with other people in his environment. According to Gardner's theory of intelligence,
Mr Norwood can be described as having ___ intelligence.
1. interpersonal
2. naturalistic
3. spatial
4. intra personal

Questions 44 to 50 are based on emotions.
Question 44
There are cultural differences in the manner in which people express their emotions. Such
expressions are however, governed by display rules. Which of the following is incorrect about display
rules? Display rules ___.
1. are culture-specific rules that govern how, when and why emotional expressions are
appropriate
2. influence the way people learn to control and modify the expression of emotions
3. suggest that learning does not play an important role in the expression of emotions
4. in traditional African cultures allow the outward expression of emotions during difficult
times

Reasoning: Display rules refers to culture-specific rules that govern how, when and why
expressions of emotions are appropriate.

Question 45
According to the Two-factor theory of emotions. which of the following provides the correct
sequence of events in the experience of emotions?


Question 46
According to the Two-factor theory of emotion, the experience of emotion depends on ___.

4. 1 and 3

Question 47
When an intense negative emotion is experienced, an arousal occurs and the sympathetic system
activates the body for emergency action. This is the ___ component of emotion.
1. behavioural
3. physiological
4. social


Reasoning: Refer to the physiological component of emotion in A-Z of Psy.
Question 48
Which one of the following criteria for identifying primary emotions is incorrect?
1. Primary emotions are only evident in human beings

2. Primary emotions are associated with a distinct facial expression
3. Primary emotions contribute to the survival of the species
4. Primary emotions are evident in all cultures

Question 49
Research on gender and emotions suggests that ___.
1. women tend to express their emotions inwardly and are less likely to seek assistance
2. men tend to suppress their emotions and not to generally express their vulnerabilities to
others
3. men and women tend to express their emotions in similar ways
4. men tend to become more emotionally aroused than women when confronted with
distressful events and are less likely to seek assistance

Reasoning: Men generally turn their anger outward while women turn their anger inward. This
is in line with the finding that men are four times more likely to become violent in
the face of life crises.
Question 50
Thandi is deep in thought and has a frown on her forehead. Seeing this expression on Thandi's face,
her mother becomes curious and comes closer and realise that Thandi is busy with her Psychology
assignment. This example indicates that ___.
1. the external expression of emotion provides enough information to interpret someone's

emotional expression
2. emotions vary in intensity
3. it is important to know the context when trying to interpret external expressions of
emotions
4. all of the above


Refer: A-Z of Psy, pf. 34

Questions 1 to 10 are based on human nervous system
Read the following scenario and answer the questions below Questions 1 to 3 are based on the
scenario
Scenario
You read in the newspaper about an accident in which Mrs Smith sustained head injuries. The report
states that prior to the accident, Mrs Smith was a very good swimmer but now she is unable to
execute basic swimming movements. Moreover, she could not feel the temperature of water when
she tried to swim. The report also states that since the accident, Mrs Smith struggles to understand
what is being said to her and she is unable to use language effectively.
Question 1
The report states that Mrs Smith could not execute basic swimming movements after the accident.
Which part of the brain could be damaged?
1. Frontal lobe
2. Occipital lobe
3. Temporal lobe
4. Parietal lobe

production of speech. This option is therefore correct.
incorrect option.
Question 2
The report states that Mrs Smith could not feel the temperature of water when she tried to swim.
Which part of the brain could be damaged?
1. Occipital lobe
2. Frontal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Temporal lobe


temperature, pressure and pain. This option is therefore correct.
incorrect option.
Question 3
The report also states that Mrs Smith struggles to understand spoken words. Which part of the brain
could be damaged?
1. Occipital lobe
2. Frontal lobe
3. Temporal lobe
4. Parietal lobe

incorrect option.
Question 4
Which of the following statements about neurons is not true?
functions
2. The nucleus is a control centre because it controls all metabolic activities in a cell
3. Motor or efferent neurons carry messages from the environment to the spinal cord and the
brain
4. Impulse conduction in a neuron is mainly made up of electrical and chemical processes

not true.
Question 5


2. action potential
3. synapse

Question 6
When the neuron is in a condition of readiness, the fluid inside the neuron is ___.
1. positive relative to the negative fluid outside the neuron

2. negative relative to the positive fluid outside the neuron
3. positive relative to the positive fluid outside the neuron
4. negative relative to the negative fluid outside the neuron

Question 7
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with seasonal depression?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Adrenalin
3. Serotonin
4. Dopamine

seasonal depression and mood disorders. Serotonin helps regulate the sleep-wake
cycle and temperature.
Question 8
During a group discussion on MyUnisa, Sipho states that "The central nervous system is made up of
the nerves and spinal cord". This statement is ___.
1. correct

2. partially correct, he should say "The central nervous system is made up of the brain and
spinal cord"
3. incorrect, he should say "The central nervous system is made up of the brain and neurons"
4. partially, incorrect, he should say, "the central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord
and the neurons"

Question 9
Depressants such as alcohol increases the release of ___ which is the neurotransmitters designed to
inhibit brain activity.
1. dopamine
2. serotonin
3. norepinephrine
4. GABA

Reasoning: The two most common types of depressants are alcohol and tranquilisers. Alcohol
works by depressing the activity of the nervous system. It facilitates the effects of
GABA, which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.
Question 10
You run away from a vicious dog that comes towards you in the park. When you are some distance
away and realise that you are safe, you stop to catch your breath. The physical symptoms that you
now experience are controlled mainly by ___.


Questions 11 to 16 are based on emotion.
Question 11
Emotions can be expressed non-verbally, whereby body gestures and facial expressions are used to
show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ component of emotions.
2. behavioural

3. physiological
4. psychological

Question 12

3. autonomic arousal followed by cognitive Interpretation of the arousal
4. 1 and 3

Question 13
While walking down the road, John encounters a vicious dog. Suddenly his blood pressure increases,
his pupils enlarge, and his knees tremble with fear when he realizes the danger he is facing. Which
component of emotion is activated in this case?



The behavioural component (option 2) of emotions refers to emotions that are
expressed using bodily gestures and facial expressions.
Question 14

3. Primary emotions must contribute to survival of the species
4. Primary emotions must be evident only in human beings

Question 15
According to the cognitive appraisal theory, which of the following provides the correct sequence in
the experience of an emotion?

2. Stimulation → primary appraisal → differentiation of emotion → physiological arousal
3. Stimulation → arousal → differentiation of emotion → appraisal → physiological arousal

Question 16
You walk into the exam room and you notice that none of your friends from your study group are in
the exam room. You start to panic, your heart rate and blood pressure increase and you think that
you must have the wrong exam date or venue. This is due to ___.
3. emotional tension, resulting from increased activity of the autonomic nervous system
cognitive appraisal of the situation


Questions 17 to 21 are based on personality.
Question 17
The ___ approach to personality development postulates that behaviour is largely determined by
wishes, desires, and feelings that people are unaware of.
1. traits
2. humanistic
3. psychoanalytic
4. behaviouristic

Question 18
According to ___ approach to personality development, rewards and punishments shape the
personality of an individual.
1. humanistic
2. behaviouristic
3. biological
4. psychoanalytic

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 170/212
person makes, i.e. reward or punishment. The behaviourist approach emphasises
that personality is no more or less than a collection of learned behaviours (Weiten,
2001)
Question 19

2. A sense of control in various situations
4. Highly competitive and achievement-oriented


Question 20
1. people's emotions and the way they deal with and express those emotions
3. aspects of personality involving a person's values and his or her ability to behave according
to those values
4. people's sense of self and how they evaluate themselves

Question 21
If you describe your best friend as "optimistic, reserved, and friendly", which personality theoretical
2. Traits approach

Questions 22 to 26 are based on intelligence.
Question 22
The theorist developed a theory that suggests that there are general and specific factors underlying
performance on intellectual tasks
1. Gardner
2. Guilford
3. Spearman
4. Thurston


Question 23
A mother brings her daughter, Mary (aged 12) to the psychologist because she is failing at school.
Upon taking a psychological intelligence test, the results indicate that Mary can perform all the test
items passed by 11-year-old children, and half of the items passed by 12-year-old children. The test
results indicate that ___.
1. Mary's mental age is 11 years 6 months

2. Mary's mental age is 12 years
3. Mary has an IQ of 90
4. Mary is not intelligent

Reasoning: As Mary can perform all the tasks for a child of 11, we bank the number 11.
Therefore, Mary’s mental age is 11 years and 6 months.
Question 24
According to Guilford's theory of intelligence, which one of the following is a component of

intellectual activity?
1. Products
2. Verbal comprehension
3. Naturalist intelligence
4. Spatial ability

Reasoning: According to Guilford’s theory, intellectual activity has three components, namely
operations, content and products.
Question 25
To test your creativity, the tutor asks you to think of a different possible use of an old car tyre. You
suggest that an old car tyre could be redesigned and used as a coffee table. This is an example of
2. insight


Question 26
Which one of the following statements about intelligence is not correct?

3. What is regarded as intelligent behaviour vanes from one context to another
4. The concept of intelligence Includes speed on task performance

Therefore, intelligence cannot be measured objectively, and option 2 is the correct
answer.
Questions 27 to 33 are based on learning
Question 27
Which one of the following statements is an example of negative reinforcement?
1. Mpho did not do well in the psychology assignment so his mother has taken away his cell-
phone
2. A mother who is irritated by the child's nagging behaviour at the store, eventually buys the
toy for the child
3. Peter has heard about a good restaurant but when he goes there, he finds that the food is
not good
4. Every time Leon is cheeky, he is sent to his room

removal of an unpleasant stimulus. In this scenario, the nagging is an unpleasant
event which is removed by buying the toy. Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.
Option 4 is incorrect because it is related to punishment. Punishment is a process by
which a consequence immediately follows a behaviour which decreases the
likelihood of that behaviour. In this case, Leon is more likely to be respectful to
avoid being sent to her room.
Question 28
Which of the following statements is incorrect about learning?
1. Social learning refers to the manner people acquire behaviour in their social settings
2. Associative learning takes place by pairing one thing or event with another

3. Cognitive learning takes place when learning involves thinking

4. Psychosocial learning refers to the way we communicate our emotions

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 168, 176, 180
Reasoning: Options 1, 2 and 3 are true.
Question 29
Observational learning means that we learn ___.
1. through interacting with other people in our social environments

2. through understanding, knowing and making use of mental process
3. by operating on the environments and observing the consequences of those behaviours
4. by watching and imitating the behaviours of others and observing the consequences of
those behaviours

Question 30
In classical conditioning, the term stimulus discrimination refers to ___.
1. The reappearance of a response which seemed to have extinguished

2. The disappearance of a previously learned response
3. The process of detecting differences among similar stimuli and only responding to a specific
stimulus
4. The process whereby other stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus, elicit a
similar response as the conditioned stimulus

identical stimuli.
Question 31
1. In both conditioning, the learner is active

2. In both conditioning, the responses of the learner are automatic, reflexive and voluntary
3. In operant conditioning, an organism operates on the environment and behaviour is
maintained by its consequences, while in classical conditioning the behaviour is maintained
by the conditioning of reflexive behaviours that are elicited by the current conditions
follow, whereas in classical conditioning the response is influenced by extinction


Reasoning: Option 1 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning the learner is not active.
voluntary.
Option 4 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning, the response is influenced by
reinforcement and not by extinction.
Question 32
Which of the following statements are the examples of operant conditioning?
A. Jane does not eat curry because she gets stomach ache when she eats spicy food
B. Michael would not get on the boat because he gets sea sick
C. The teacher forces Lindi, who is left-handed, to write with her right hand
D. The dog is praised for sitting when his owner commands it to 'Sit'
E. Donald did not pass the exam because he only started studying the day before the exam
1. A, B and E
2. A, B and D
3. C and E
4. all of the above

Question 33
An employee receives a reward for his work, but the reward is only given for the first response after
a specified period of time. This schedule produces a high rate of response near the end of the
specified time period, with a drop in response rate after the reward has been given. This is an
example of ___.
1. variable ratio schedule

2. fixed ratio schedule
3. variable interval schedule
4. fixed interval schedule

Reasoning: The word interval refers to the passage of time, so reinforcement according to a
fixed interval schedule is reinforcement that is produced for the first correct
response after a certain amount of time has passed.
Questions 34 to 36 are based on memory.
Question 34

The term ___ means being unable to retrieve the information stored in memory.
1. forgetting
2. retrieval
3. memory decay
4. interference

Question 35
Remembering how to drive a manual car after driving an automatic car many years is an example of
1. encoding
2. episodic memory
3. explicit memory

Reasoning: I.e. you may remember the rules of the road – these are stored in explicit
(declarative) memory, but your memory of “how to” drive a car is stored in non-
declarative (procedural) memory.
Question 36
You are about to make a phone call and a baby starts screaming. After you have calmed her down,
you do not remember who you wanted to call and why. The reason that you forgot is due to
1. Interference

process. In this case, you were about to make a call to your friend and the screaming
baby interfered with your concentration. You therefore were unable to remember
who you wanted to call and why after you gave attention to the baby screaming.
The other options are incorrect. People can remember information by selecting key

Question 37
The tutor gives your group a task to explain what problem solving is. Which of the following

C. Problems are universal and It does not matter how the problem is defined
1. A. B. and C
2. A. B, and C
3. B, C, and D
4. A, B, C, and D

Question 38
Mr Cheng is experiencing problems with his children. Lately the children have become rebellious and
do not listen to him anymore. Mr Cheng believes that the children are out of control and the only
solution is to use physical punishment to get them back on track, as his parents and grandparents
did in their times. This is an example of ___ barrier to problem-solving.
1. emotional
2. cultural
3. perceptual
4. psychological


Question 39
During the tutorial group discussion on MyUnisa, Peter says that he understands why some people
tend to steal in order to make a living. After hearing this, Susan then claims that Peter is in favour of
1. Trying to discredit the Issue by discrediting the person who support the issue

stealing.
Question 40
Thandeka's baby cries too much at night as a result Thandeka does not sleep well and cannot cope
with her daily work. What is the first thing Thandeka should do to solve the problem?
1. Adopt a trial-and-error strategy until she finds a solution

2. Try the most likely solution first
3. Recognise and define the problem
4. Decide on the advantages of different solutions

problem.
Question 41
When John came back from a party at night, he struggled to open the door with the key since it was
dark in the doorway. Frustrated, John decided to try only the keys that could possibly open the door
and eventually managed to open it. In this case, John used ___ to open the door.
2. trial-and-error strategy
3. insight


Questions 42 to 45 are based on sensation and perception.
Question 42
The main aim of an advertisement is to attract people's attention and motivate them to buy the
advertised product. The best results are obtained by advertisements that ___.
1. contain small and familiar elements

2. appeal to subjective needs and wishes of the consumer
3. rely on external more than internal determinants of attention
4. appear on big billboards on the roads
Question 43
The process of receiving sensory information from the environment is called ___.
1. adaptation
2. reception
3. sensation
4. perception

environment.
Question 44
You give your child some toys to play with and you realise that your child groups the toys close
together. Which principle of perceptual organization is the child displaying?

principle of proximity. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.
The principle of symmetry (option 3) is incorrect because it refers to the tendency
of grouping elements in a way that creates a balanced figure.
Question 45

Which of the following statements about monitoring (orienting reaction) is incorrect?
1. Monitoring happens below the level of awareness

2. Monitoring enables people to block physical pain voluntarily during surgery
4. Monitoring enables us to respond quickly to possible important events

Reasoning: Monitoring happens below the level of awareness. Therefore option 1 is correct.
Monitoring starts when the receptors receive stimulus energy. Therefore option 3 is
correct.
Monitoring is a rapid process that allows the person to react quickly to potentially
important events. Therefore option 4 is correct.
The OR is a state of arousal that follows any sudden change in environmental
stimulation.
Questions 46 to 50 are based on the states of consciousness
Question 46
A person that is very drowsy and ready to fall asleep would show ___ waves on an
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
1. beta
2. theta
3. alpha
4. delta

Reasoning: As people become drowsy and fall asleep, there are more delta waves.
Question 47
During a relaxed physical state, a number of changes take place in the body. Which of the following
is most likely to occur?
1. Decrease in alpha waves in the brain

2. Increase in parasympathetic nervous system activity
3. Increase in the secretion of endorphin in the body
4. There is a distinct facial expression of relaxation

Refer: A-Z of Psy, pp. 85/323
Reasoning: There are mostly alpha waves when people are awake and relaxed. Therefore
The parasympathetic nervous system slows things down again so as to restore and
sustain normal functioning.
Question 48

Which of the following about hypnosis is incorrect?

4. Hypnosis works due to increased suggestibility and the person has to be willing to be
hypnotised for it to work

Question 49
In which of the following phases does a person become confused, experiences slurred speech and
poor motor co-ordination when woken up?
1. Phase one sleep

2. Phase two sleep
3. Phase three sleep
4. Phase four sleep

Reasoning: Phase four sleep is very deep sleep. If people are woken up during this stage, they
are confused, their speech is slurred and their motor co-ordination is poor.
Question 50
Caffeine is a ___ and works by ___.
1. Stimulant, decreasing the action of inhibitory neurons

2. depressant, decreasing fears and anxiety
3. stimulant, increasing the activity of glutamate
4. depressant, increasing the release of dopamine

Reasoning: Caffeine is a stimulant that blocks a chemical that inhibits glutamine synapses. In
other words, it increases the activity of glutamate, which is an excitatory
transmitter.
Exam May/June 2017

Questions 1 to 10 are based on human nervous system.
Question 1
During the class presentation, one student mentions that neurons can send impulses continuously.


3. incorrect, because impulses cannot be conducted during the absolute refractory period

neuron does not respond to any stimulus.
Question 2
The strength and speed of impulse conduction can vary. This statement is ___.
1. incorrect, because impulse conduction is an all-or-nothing event

2. correct, because strength and speed can vary with nerve fibres of different sizes
3. incorrect, because strength and speed are constant in a particular neuron
4. correct, because the intensity of the stimulus makes no difference in terms of the frequency
at which impulses are conducted

Reasoning: Although the strength and speed of an impulse is constant in a particular neuron
(option 3), it can vary with nerve fibres of different thickness. Option 2 is therefore
correct.
Question 3
While walking to school Khensani was startled by a very loud explosion from a local factory.
Referring to the characteristics of impulse conduction, please indicate which one of the following
statements is correct when considering the scenario above
1. The frequency of impulse conduction increased because of the loud explosion

2. The magnitude of impulse conduction increased because of the loud explosion
3. In comparison to softer sounds, a loud explosion leads to impulse conduction becoming
faster
4. The loud explosion is a more intense stimulus and it causes larger changes in membrane
potential

Reasoning: A more intense stimulus causes more potential differences across the membrane
and the threshold at the axon hillock is reached more quickly. Due to the refractory
period, the rate at which a neuron can conduct impulses is limited, therefore option
1, 2 and 3 is incorrect.
Question 4
Which one of the following statements about neurons is not true?

functions
2. The process by which messages are relayed in neurons and between neurons is called
impulse conduction
3. Motor or efferent neurons carry messages from the environment to the spinal cord and
brain
4. Impulse conduction in a neuron is made up of electrical and chemical processes

not true.
Question 5
Salutatory conduction of impulse occurs in ___.
1. an un-myelinated axon of a neuron

2. a myelinated axon of a neuron
3. both un-myelinated and myelinated axons of the neurons
4. the dendrites of a neuron

Reasoning: In myelinated axons, impulse conduction is known as salutatory conduction, and in
un-myelinated axons it is called action potential conduction. Therefore, options 1, 3
and 4 is incorrect.
Question 6
Which one of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for speeding up metabolism and the
release of glucose into the blood system?
1. Dopamine
2. Serotonin
3. Adrenalin
4. Gamma-aminobutyric acid

into the blood.
Question 7
Which of the following statements explains the main function of the temporal lobes?


3. To act as a reflex centre for processes that ensure human survival
4. To perceive sound, such as spoken words and other sound patterns

Reasoning: The temporal lobes main function is the perception of sound – to understand
spoken words.
Question 8
The hindbrain consists of three main structures. Which one of the following options is not part of its
structure?
1. Pons
2. Cerebellum
3. Basal ganglia
4. Medulla oblongata

Reasoning: The main structures of the hindbrain are the medulla oblongata, cerebellum (small
Question 9
One of the functions of the limbic system is to help the person to adapt to situations. This is
achieved by

4. all of the above

Question 10
Which of the following options is not a function of the hypothalamus?
1. The regulation of motor activity

2. The regulation of emotions
3. The regulation of sleep and wakefulness
4. The regulation of water intake


Reasoning: The hypothalamus lies below the thalamus and has many nerve nuclei that are
involved in functions such as regulating:
• The internal environment of the body such as temperature, water intake,
sexual activity, heartbeat, blood pressure and digestion
• States of sleep and wakefulness
• Emotions
Question 11
Which of the following statements is not true about hypnosis?

4. Hypnosis works due to increased suggestibility

Question 12
The term ‘narcolepsy’ is associated with ___.

4. sleep paralysis that occurs just before falling asleep or waking up in the morning

night, gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 1 is incorrect.
Question 13
Narcotics are powerful ___ that produce drowsiness, pain insensitivity and decreased
responsiveness to events.
1. hallucinogens
2. inhalants

3. depressants
4. stimulants

Question 14
The psychoactive drug called amphetamine is a powerful brain ___.
1. stimulant
2. hallucinogen
3. inhalant
4. depressant

the brain.
Question 15
Sedatives and tranquilizers are not used to ___.
1. help people fall asleep

2. decrease responsiveness to events
3. decrease sensitivity to pain
4. improve people's memory

Reasoning: Sedatives and tranquilisers are used to help people relax. They are prescribed to aid
sleep and sometimes to overcome anxiety. Narcotics are powerful depressants that
produce drowsiness, insensitivity to pain and decreased responsiveness to events.
Questions 16 to 20 are based on sensation and perception.
Question 16
is called the ___ system
1. chemical
2. visual
3. proprioceptive
4. somasthetic


Reasoning: The proprioceptive systems provide people with information about their
movements and orientation in space.
Question 17
A first-year Psychology student describes the process whereby receptors transform one form of
energy into another. This process is known as ___.
1. base threshold
3. transduction

energy to another.
Question 16
The perceptual principle of ___ refers to the tendency to group elements that are close together as
though they represent a figure
1. symmetry
2. proximity
3. similarity
4. continuity

Question 19
Perceptual constancy means (that) ___.
1. we see things as having a particular size, shape, colour, and brightness, irrespective of the
changing conditions
2. making mistakes in perception
3. making sense of what we see relative to backgrounding and proximity
4. we organise information on a low level of awareness

Question 20

Which of the following statement(s) about inter-subjectivity is (are) incorrect?
A. Shared or agreed meanings of the way events are interpreted

B. Language is used to describe our perceptions in order to make sense of the world and to
others
C. Inter-subjectivity is part of the process of creating meaning
D. An individual's judgment is based on personal opinions
1. A
2. A, B, and C
3. D
4. B, and C

Reasoning: We use the term inter-subjectivity to describe the shared or agreed meanings of the
way events in the world are interpreted. Therefore, this does not relate to an
individual’s personal judgement.
Question 21
Which of the following statements is not one of the steps in the process of problem-solving?

3. Ask anyone about the problem

3.
Question 22
Two students are discussing how difficult it is to admit that they do not understand the coursework
during tutorial sessions on myUnisa. They mention that they are embarrassed to ask. You explain to
them that their thinking is restricted by ___.
2. cultural barriers that lead them to believing things that are not true
3. leamed barriers that prevent them from learning new concepts
4. emotional barriers that cloud the logical analysis of the situation


embarrassed.
Question 23
becomes flat there is no potential difference between the two poles' This is an example of ___
reasoning.
1. critical
2. inductive
3. analogical
4. deductive

Question 24
Peter says "Mr Smith did not keep his appointment. He is unreliable" This is an example of ___
reasoning
1. inductive
2. critical
3. logical
4. deductive

Question 25
The use of hierarchical concepts helps us classify things and make sense of our world items such as
apples, bananas, tomatoes, and onions are classified at ___ level(s) of classification
1. superordinate
2. subordinate
3. intermediate

4. both 1 and 3

intermediate level.
Questions 26 to 30 are based on intelligence and creativity,
Question 26
Which of the following statements about the nature of intelligence is incorrect?
1. The concept of intelligence includes speed of task performance


Question 27
Munzhedzi is 10 years old and her mental age is 11 years, 6 months. Her mother asks the
psychologist to find out Munzhedzi's Intelligence Quotient (IQ) Munzhedzi's IQ is ___.
1. 50
2. 100
3. 110
4. 115


Reasoning: Intelligence quotient = (MA/CA) x 100, where MA = Mental Age and CA =

Chronological age.
Therefore:
(11.5/10) x 100
= 115
Question 28
Mulalo is 12 years old. She can perform all the tasks designed for children 13 years and younger, she
can also perform half of the tasks designed for 14 year-old children. Therefore, Mulalo's mental age
is ___.
1. 12 years
2. 12 years 6 months
3. 13 years
4. 13 years 6 months

Reasoning: As Mulalo can perform all the tasks for a child of 13, we bank the number 13.
Therefore, Mulalo’s mental age is 13 years and 6 months.
Question 29
Which of the following statements is true regarding creativity?
1. Creative people are divergent thinkers

4. Most highly creative people do not have above average intellectual ability

correct answers to problems. Therefore option 3 is false.
Question 30
According to Spearman's theory, performance in intellectual tasks is determined by ___.
1. heredity traits

4. experiential intelligence

believed that there are eight separate kinds of intelligence.
Questions 31 to 39 are based on learning and memory
Question 31
According to Van Deventer and Mojapelo-Batka (2013), for punishment to be effective, it depends
on three aspects. These are ___.
A. consistency
B. spontaneity
C. timing
D. intensity
1. A, B, and C
2. A, B, and D
3. A, C, and D
4. B, C, and D

Question 32
In classical conditioning, what term refers to the re-appearance of a response that seems to have
been extinguished?
1. Extinction
2. Discrimination

Question 33
Which of the following statements is an example of negative reinforcement?

1. Every time Neo is cheeky, she is sent to her room

2. Mpho did not do well in a test so his mother has reduced his television time
3. Rotondwa puts on his sunglasses to avoid the bright sunlight
4. Robert passed his exams so his mother bought him a present

the likelihood of that behaviour. In this case, Neo is more likely to be respectful to
avoid being sent to her room. Option 2 is also incorrect because it relates to partial
reinforcement whereby reinforcement only occurs at certain intervals. Option 4 is
also incorrect because it is related to positive reinforcement. Positive reinforcement
occurs when we encourage a pattern of behaviour by offering reward when the
behaviour is exhibited.
Question 34
1. In operant and classical conditioning, the learner is active

2. In operant and classical conditioning, the responses of the learner are automatic, reflexive
and voluntary
follow, whereas in classical conditioning the response is influenced by spontaneous recovery
4. In operant conditioning, behaviour is maintained by punishment, whereas in classical
conditioning behaviour is maintained by the conditioning of reflexive responses

Reasoning: Option 3 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning, the response is influenced by
reinforcement and not by spontaneous recovery.
voluntary.
Option 1 is incorrect, as in classical conditioning the learner is not active.
Question 35
Which of the following statements is not by definition a learned perceptual-motor skill?



Question 36
Which memory system refers to the storage of explicit, factual information such as names, and
places?

Question 37
You just met an old friend at your high school reunion, you did not have a cell-phone on you and you
decided to mentally organise her cell number as 1 31 33 92 39 68 for easy remembering. Which one
of the following memory strategies did you use?
1. Recitation
2. Selection
3. Rehearsal
4. Chunking

chunks.
Question 38
long-term memory
1. forgetting
2. retrieval
3. interference

4. memory decay

Question 39
You are about to make a call when the weather report comes up on television. After the weather
report, you realise that you are holding your cell-phone in your hand but you do not remember who
you wanted to call. The reason that you forget who you wanted to call is due to ___.
1. interference
4. poor organisation of information

process. In this case, you were about to make a call to your friend and the weather
report interfered with your concentration. You therefore were unable to remember
who you wanted to call and why after you gave attention to the weather report. The
Questions 40 to 45 are based on emotion
Question 40
According to Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion, which of the following statements are
correct about emotions?
A. The differentiation of an emotion involves the interpretation of physiological arousal

B. Emotions may occur without first experiencing physiological arousal
C. The experience of emotion depends on cognitive interpretation of arousal

D. People apply labels to physical arousal and this informs our behaviour
1. A, B, and C
2. A, B, and D
3. A, C, and D
4. B, C, and D

to the context. Statement A is correct, eliminating option 4.
This theory has been criticised by people who say that emotions may occur without
first experiencing physiological arousal. Therefore, statement B is incorrect.
Question 41
Which of the following statements is not associated with the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion?

experienced
2. The thinking process takes place before emotions are experienced
3. The experience of an emotion involves interpreting physiological arousal with reference to
cognitive content
4. Primary and secondary appraisal are integral components of the experience of an emotion

Reasoning: The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion claims that we experience emotions
because of the way we think about a situation. This means that we think about
stimuli before we experience emotions. Our interpretation of a situation informs
the different emotions we experience. For example, a person may experience fear
after seeing a snake in the bedroom because a snake is perceived to be poisonous.
However, another person may feel relaxed when they see a bird inside their
bedroom because birds are perceived to be harmless.
Question 42
Emotions are usually expressed through body language, whereby bodily gestures and facial
expressions are used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ component of emotions
1. behavioural
3. psychological
4. physiological



Question 41
Primary emotions are shared by the majority of people throughout the world. Which of the following
A. They are evident in non-human species

B. They are evident in all cultures
C. They contribute to the survival of the species
D. There is a universal agreement on the specific emotions that qualify as primary emotions
1. A, B, and D
2. B, C, and D
3. A, B, and C
4. A, C, and D

cultures, age and religion throughout the world. (Statement B is correct)
For example, anger. Primary emotions also contribute to the survival of human
species (statement C is correct) and are associated with distinct facial expression
(statement D is incorrect).
Primary emotions should also be evident in non-human species. (Statement A is
correct)
Question 44
Which of the following statements about the abilities of emotionally intelligent people is incorrect?
1. They regulate and use their emotions to make decisions

2. They control impulses and delay gratification
3. They recognise emotions in others and have hope for the future
4. They are self-motivated and keep trying even under difficult circumstances

recognise emotions in others (option 3), control impulses and delay gratification
(option 2), and motivate themselves and keep on trying even when they experience
frustrations (option 4). Emotional intelligent people also have self-awareness and
recognise feelings as they happen.
Question 45

Which of the following provides the correct sequence of events in terms of the cognitive appraisal
theory of emotion using a flowchart?

4. Stimulation → primary appraisal → differentiation of emotion → bodily arousal

Questions 46 to 50 are based on personality.
Question 46
1. The individual characteristics that influence behaviour

2. The hereditary aspects of a person's biological nature
3. Stable qualities that a person shows in most situations
4. An individual's values and beliefs and their ability to behave according to those values

Question 47
In terms of the psychoanalytic approach, personality is shaped by ___.
1. the power struggle between the Id, ego and superego

3. unconscious processes built on cardinal traits
4. the phases of development in early childhood

Question 48
Which one of the following statements describes Cattell's trait theory of personality?
1. An important aspect is the way traits are derived from secondary traits

2. People have cardinal, central and secondary trails

3. Source traits represent an underlying personality characteristic
4. The theory is built on five personality traits

Question 49
Lutendo completed a psychological test and the results indicated that she is an introvert.
Introversion describes her ___.
1. temperament
2. personality type
3. character
4. self-concept

Question 50
A person with the hardy personality type demonstrates ___.
1. chronic anger and hostility

2. commitment, control and viewing life as a challenge
3. traits of stubbornness and a drive to achieve
4. a high level of conscientiousness and low level of agreeableness


Questions 1 to 10 are based on human nervous system
Question 1

During the tutorial class presentation on impulse conduction, the student states that "only a
chemical process is required to conduct an impulse in the nervous system"
1. correct
2. incorrect, because impulse conduction requires only an electrical process
3. incorrect, because two processes are required in impulse conduction, namely an electrical
and a chemical process
4. incorrect, because neither electrical nor chemical processes are involved in impulse
conduction

Reasoning: Impulse conduction in the neuron is an electrical process and impulse conduction in
the synapse is a chemical process.
Question 2
Before an impulse can fire, the neuron must be in a state of readiness. This state of readiness is
referred to as ___.
1. the synapse

Question 3
Impulse conduction has a number of characteristics. Which of the following is incorrect about
impulse conduction?
1. An impulse is conducted in one direction only

2. The impulse conduction process happens simultaneously everywhere along the axon
3. When a neuron finishes conducting an impulse, it enters a refractory period
4. In myelinated sheet, an impulse moves rapidly along the axon
Question 4
Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible for speeding up metabolism and releasing
glucose in the bloodstream?
1. Adrenalin

2. Dopamine
3. Serotonin
4. Gamma-amminobutyric acid

into the blood.
Question 5
Which of the following is the main function of the temporal lobes?

3. To act as a reflex centre for processes that ensures human survival
4. To perceive sound, such as spoken words and other sound patterns

Reasoning: The temporal lobes main function is the perception of sound – to understand
spoken words.
Question 6
Which of the following options is not a function of the hypothalamus?
1. The regulation of motor activity

2. The regulation of emotions
3. The regulation of sleep and wakefulness
4. The regulation of water intake

Reasoning: The hypothalamus lies below the thalamus and has many nerve nuclei that are
involved in functions such as regulating:
• The internal environment of the body such as temperature, water intake,
sexual activity, heartbeat, blood pressure and digestion
• States of sleep and wakefulness
• Emotions
Question 7
The main structures of the hindbrain are medulla oblongata, cerebellum, and ___.
1. cerebrum
2. corpus callosum
3. pons
4. hypothalamus


Reasoning: The main structures of the hindbrain are the medulla oblongata, cerebellum (small
Question 8
You run away from a large, vicious dog that comes towards you in the park. When you are some
distance away you realise that you are safe, you stop to catch your breath and calm down. The
physical symptoms that you now experience are controlled by the ___.


Question 9
A ___ is a small gap between the bouton terminals of the neuron that release an impulse, and the
dendrites of the receiving neuron.
1. node of Ranvier
2. synaptic cleft
3. telondendria
4. synapse

Reasoning: The correct term for the small gap between a bouton terminal and a dendrite is the
synaptic cleft.
Question 10
4. ensuring that an impulse is conducted faster through the axon to the boutons

correct.

Question 11
Which of the following sleep disorders refers to the condition of a person being awake but unable to
move?
1. Insomnia
2. Catalepsy
3. Narcolepsy
4. Sleep apnoea

gasping for breath and then going back to sleep. Option 4 is incorrect. Narcolepsy is
Question 12
The term "narcolepsy" is associated with ___.

4. sleep paralysis that usually occurs just before falling asleep or waking up in the morning

person is awake but is unable to move is called catalepsy (Option 4). Insomnia is
characterised by an inability to fall asleep, (option 2) Sleep apnoea is marked by a
sleep (Option 1). Narcolepsy is characterised by an overwhelming need to sleep that
usually lasts for few minutes, therefore option 3 is correct.
Question 13
Which of the following statements is incorrect about hypnosis?

2. Hypnosis can produce relaxation, concentration, and behavioural changes
4. Hypnosis works due to increased suggestibility


Question 14
Sedatives and tranquilisers are not used to ___.
1. help people fall asleep

2. decrease responsiveness to external events
3. make people insensitive to pain
4. alter people's perceptual experiences

Reasoning: Sedatives and tranquilisers are used to help people relax. They are prescribed to aid
sleep and sometimes to overcome anxiety. Narcotics are powerful depressants that
produce drowsiness, insensitivity to pain and decreased responsiveness to events.
Question 15
The psychoactive drug called amphetamine is a powerful ___ that increases the release of dopamine
in the brain.
1. stimulant
2. hallucinogen
3. inhalant
4. depressant

the brain.
Questions 16 to 20 are based on sensation and perception
Question 16
Which system provides information about the movement immediately outside the skin, relating to
touch, pressure and heat?
2. Chemical system
3. Auditory system


Question 17
1. dishabituation
2. transduction
3. adaptation
4. differential threshold

Question 18
Which of the following statements is incorrect about monitoring?
1. Monitoring allows the brain to process information rapidly and below the level of awareness
3. Monitoring enables us to respond quickly to possible important events
4. Monitoring enables people to block physical pain voluntarily during surgery

Reasoning: See the section on monitoring in A-Z of Psy.
Question 19
Which term refers to the fact that we see things as having a particular size, shape, colour and
brightness, irrespective of the conditions in which they are encountered?
1. Spatial organisation
3. Illusion
4. Recognition

Question 20
Which one of the following statements about attention is correct?
1. Attention is an automatic process that takes place below the level of awareness

2. People cannot attend to more than one thing at a time

3. There are internal and external determinants of attention
4. Parallel processing is easier when both tasks require an individual to pay close attention

Questions 21 to 25 are based on Cognition
Question 21
The term perceptual barrier refers to the process whereby ___.
1. our culture limits our view of doing and perceiving things

2. people only perceive one aspect of a situation and ignore others that are equally important
3. people become intensely emotional about the issues or situation and make decisions based
on their feelings about the situation
4. people have learned to think that a problem can only be solved in a particular manner

Reasoning: Sometimes we tend to see only one aspect of a problem and ignore others. This can
get into the way of solving problems. Option 1 refers to cultural barriers. Option 3
refers to emotional barriers. Option 4 refers to learned barriers.
Question 22
Which of the following refers to the statement that infers a conclusion?
1. An argument
2. A supporting point
3. A premise
4. A fact

Reasoning: In inductive reasoning, conclusions are based on premises, but premises do not
guarantee conclusions.
Question 23

2. Trying to discredit the issue by discrediting the person who support the issue

stealing.
Question 24
Which of the following is not an example of conceptual thinking?
1. Forming mental representations of groups or related items

2. Forming relationships between objects when comparing them
3. Forming an idea of something based on how it relates to a physical object
4. Forming an image of a destination based on the sounds you associate with it

Reasoning: We rely on conceptual rules to decide whether or not something belongs to a
certain concept.
Question 25
The categories we form as symbolic representations of objects and their characteristics are called
1. concepts
2. thoughts
3. images
4. prototypes

Questions 26 to 30 are based on intelligence and creativity.
Question 26
all the questions that 10 year-old children can answer and has also correctly answered half of the
questions that 11 year-old children can answer. On the basis of the above mentioned scenario, what
is Jennifer's mental age?

3. 11 years

Therefore, Jennifer’s mental age is 10 years and 6 months.
Question 27
The tutor asks you to think of different possible use for an old car tyre. You suggest that an old car
1. general reasoning
4. insight

Question 28
The theory that postulates that there are multiple intelligences that define intelligence in terms of
mental skills or abilities was developed by ___.
1. Spearman
2. Thurston
3. Guilford
4. Gardner

Reasoning: Gardner’s (1999) opinion is that IQ tests generally focus on verbal and
mathematical skills and overlook other important skills. He therefore developed a
theory of multiple intelligences. This is an example of an approach that defines
intelligence in terms of mental skills or abilities.
Question 29
Mr Norwood's neighbours describe him as an easy-going person, someone who communicates well
and gets along with other people. According to Gardner's theory of intelligence, Mr Norwood can be
described as having ___ intelligence
1. naturalistic

2. interpersonal
3. spatial
4. intrapersonal

Question 30
In your psychology module you learned that intelligence is measured by means of psychological
tests. Which of the following statements is correct about psychological tests of intelligence?
1. Intelligence tests provide standardised measures of a person's behaviour

2. Psychological tests are individualised and not based on norms
3. Intelligence tests take time because they are based on tasks that measure all human
behaviour
4. Intelligence tests are standard and not contextualised

Reasoning: One way to understand the concept of intelligence is to look at how it is measured.
Intelligence is measured using psychological tests, which provide standardised
measures of a person’s behaviour. (therefore option 1 is correct)
This means that the person’s behaviour is compared to predetermined norms.
(therefore option 2 is incorrect)
An intelligence test is made up of only a sample of all the possible tasks that
measure intelligent behaviour. (therefore option 3 is incorrect)
In the case of children, tests of intelligence is based on the tasks children are able to
perform at certain ages (therefore contextualised, making option 4 incorrect)
Questions 31 – 39 is based on learning and memory
Questions 31 to 33 are based on the scenario below
Living in a rural area, Jabu sometimes forgets to fetch the wood from the forest. When he forgets to
do so, his mother does it for him but then makes him wash the dishes. When Jabu fetches the wood
from the forest, he gets an extra piece of fruit in his lunch-box.
Question 31



Question 32
In this scenario, getting a piece of fruit serves as ___.
2. punishment
3. reinforcement

response.
Question 33
In this scenario, washing the dishes is a form of ___.
1. punishment
3. reinforcement

Question 34
In classical conditioning, what term refers to the re-appearance of a response that seems to have
been extinguished?
1. Extinction
2. Discrimination

Question 35
In ___ learning terms such as extinction, stimulus discrimination, and spontaneous recovery are
some of the basic principles of learning

1. latent
2. social
3. cognitive
4. classical

Question 36
After watching the movie called "Orange is the new Black" that depicts the reality of hard life in
prison, James learned that committing a crime is a serious offense and that he must avoid going to
jail. This is an example of ___ learning
1. social
2. observational
3. cognitive
4. operant

Question 37
Which component of the working memory allows access to verbal information and sounds?
1. Visuospatial sketchpad
3. Long-term knowledge store
4. Phonological loop

Reasoning: The phonological loop allows access to verbal information or sounds.
Question 38
Sarah is trying to remember her new friend's cell phone number. The study group recommends that
she breaks the number into smaller amount of information known as ___ which will then be stored
in ___.
1. cues, working memory

2. chunks, short-term memory
3. keywords, semantic memory
4. codes, working memory


Reasoning: Organisation refers to organising information into smaller and more manageable
chunks.
Question 39
long-term memory
1. forgetting
2. memory decay
3. retrieval
4. interference

Questions 40 to 45 are based on emotion.
Question 40
While walking down the road, John came face-to-face with a large, vicious dog. Suddenly his blood
pressure increased, his pupils enlarged, and his knees trembled. With fear when he realised the
danger he was facing. Which component of emotion is activated in this case?

Reasoning: The physiological component refers to physiological arousal. The sympathetic
system activates the body for emergency action, and the parasympathetic system
reverses these effects.
Question 41
expressions are used to show a variety of emotions. This is a ___ component of emotions
2. behavioural
3. physiological
4. psychological


Question 42

4. 1 and 3

Question 43
Which of the following statements about emotionally intelligent people is incorrect? People with
high emotional intelligence are able to ___.
1. manage their emotions well

2. recognise emotions in others
behaviours

Question 44

Many researchers use four criteria to identify primary emotions. Which of the following is not a

3. Emotions must be associated with distinct facial expressions
4. Emotions must contribute to the survival of the species

Question 45
According to the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, which of the following provides the correct
sequence of events in the experience of emotion?
1. Primary appraisal → stimulation → differentiation of emotion → physiological arousal

2. Stimulation → primary appraisal → differentiation of emotion → physiological arousal
3. Physiological arousal → primary appraisal → stimulation → differentiation of emotion
4. Primary appraisal → physiological arousal → differentiation of emotion → stimulation

Reasoning: Option 2 is the correct answer
Questions 46 to 50 are based on personality
Question 46
Which of the following describes Cattell's trait theory of personality?


Question 47
a person.

1. traits
2. character
3. temperament
4. self-esteem

• emotionality
• sociability
• impulsivity
Question 48
Two psychologists are interviewed on a talk show regarding how to understand human behaviour
and society and the impact of culture on people's view on success.
Psychologist A states "There is no society, there are only individuals. An individual succeeds in life
because of their own personal efforts "
Psychologist B states 'A person is a person through other people. People succeed much easier when
working with others"
Which option below describes the theoretical view of each psychologist?
1. Psychologist A offers a behaviourist view and psychologist B offers a humanistic view

2. Psychologist A offers a Freudian view, and psychologist B offers an interpersonal view
3. Psychologist A offers a humanistic view and psychologist B offers a collectivistic view
4. Psychologist A offers an individualistic view, psychologist B offers a collectivistic view

Reasoning: See Table 1 in A-Z of Psy.
Question 49
Which personality approach views people as creative, rational beings, capable of free choice and
able to control their innate impulses?
1. Person-centred approach

Reasoning: Humanists see people as creative beings, capable of free choice. They see people as
conscious and rational beings who can control their innate impulses.
Question 50

If you describe your friend as sociable, friendly, and easy to get along with, what personality
2. Trait approach


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1 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

PYC1501 (RPY1501) EXAM PREPARATION – Assignments and Exams

Answers are motivated by a combination of:

• Page references to the prescribed textbook

Assignments covered are:

• Assignment 01 for Semester 1 2015

Exams covered are:

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2 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

Semester 1 - 2015: Assignment 01 (Unique number 595183)

Answer: The correct answer is 3

Answer: The correct answer is 2

1. the action potential

Answer: The correct answer is 3

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3 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

1. In accordance with all-or-nothing-law, neurons A, B, C and D will conduct an impulse at

Answer: The correct answer is 2

Answer: The correct answer is 4

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4 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

Answer: The correct answer is 1

A. a flow chart, showing how the different structures are related

Answer: The correct answer is 4

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5 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

Answer: The correct answer is 3

Answer: The correct answer is 4

1. does not provide the correct answer because it is too vague

Answer: The correct answer is 3

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6 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

• the quantity of the neurotransmitter in relation to the enzyme that destroys

Answer: The correct answer is 1

Answer: The correct answer is 3

Answer: The correct answer is 1

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7 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

collapse, whereby a person is awake but is unable to move is called

1. The area of interest is the effect of drugs on behaviour

Answer: The correct answer is 4

Answer: The correct answer is 2

Answer: The correct answer is 1

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8 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

Answer: The correct answer is 3

Answer: The correct answer is 2

Which one of the following statements refers to the orienting reaction?

1. The orienting reaction follows a sudden change in environmental stimulation

Answer: The correct answer is 1

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9 PYC1501 – Basic Psychology

Which of the following statements about attention is true?

Answer: The correct answer is 3

Which of the following statements is (are) example(s) of inductive reasoning?

Answer: The correct answer is 1

“All angels are immortal.

Therefore, Gabriel is immortal.”

The above statement is an example of ___ reasoning.

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