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It is a state or condition of being secured; there is freedom from fear, harm,


danger, loss, destruction or damages.

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a. Security
b. Freedom
c. Life
d. liberty
2. This concern with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access
to equipment, facilities, material and document and to safeguard them against
espionage, sabotage, damage, loss and theft.

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a. Personnel Security
b. Physical Security
c. Document and Information Security
d. Personal Security
3. It starts even before the hiring of an employee and remains to be maintained for
as long as the person is employed.

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a. Personnel Security
b. Physical Security
c. Document and Information Security
d. Personal Security
4. It can be defined as those measures taken by an installation or unit to protect
itself against sabotage, espionage or subversion and at the same time provide
freedom of action in order to provide the installation of the unit with the
necessary flexibility to accomplish its mission.

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a. Protection Security
b. Protective Security
c. Security Protection
d. Security
5. A type of security which is concern with the protection of the stores,
warehouses, storage, its immediate premises and properties as well as the
supermarket personnel and customers. Security personnel are trained to detect
“shoplifter and robbery or bomb detection and customer relation.

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a. Industrial Security
b. Supermarket or Mall Security
c. Market Security
d. Bank security
6. These are being used to define, protect, and monitor property rights and assets.

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a. Security measures
b. Protective security measures
c. Physical security measures
d. Nota
7. It can be defined as any structure or physical device capable of restricting,
deterring, delaying, illegal access to an installation.

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a. Barrier
b. Physical barrier
c. Perimeter barrier
d. Concrete barrier
8. Fencing barriers and protective walls should always be regularly inspected by
security. Any sign or attempts to break in should be reported for investigation.
Destruction of fence or sections thereof should be repaired immediately and guard
vigilance should be increased.

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a. Barrier Maintenance
b. Protection in Depth
c. Signs and notices
d. Guard Control stations
9. This is otherwise known as the Private Security Agency Law.

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A. RA 5478
B. RA 8547
C. RA 5487
D. RA 7458
10. A new Private Security Agency shall be issued a temporary license to operate
that is good for:

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A. six months
B. one year and six months
C. one year
D. two years
11. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due
to unexpected opportunity and little chance of detection?

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a. systematic pilferer
b. ordinary pilferer
c. casual pilferer
d. unusual pilferer
12. A security force maintained and operated by any private company/corporation
utilizing any of its employees to watch, secure or guard its business establishment
premises, compound or properties is called:

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a. Company Guard Force
b. Government Guard Unit
c. Private Security Agency
d. All of these
13. No licensed security agency shall operate, promote and enter into an agreement
of “merger“ with any person or a group of persons for the purpose of organizing a
branch unit or subsidiary under separate control and ownership which is also known
as:

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a. Merger System
b. Branch System
C. Kabit System
D. Branch-out System
14. The maximum number of private security personnel that a PSA/CGF/PDA may employ
shall be:

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a. 500
b. 1000
C. 1500
D. 200015
15. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national
economy security

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a. relative vulnerability
b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
d. relative security
16. A type of fence that is constructed in such a away that visual access through
the fence is denied is called:

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a. Chain link fence
b. Concertina wire fence
C. Solid fence
D. Full-view fence
17. The following are the educational qualifications for Security Consultant
except:

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A. Master in Public Administration
B. Master in Criminology
C. Bachelor of Science in Criminology
D. Bachelor of Law
18. A Private Security Agency who is applying for regular license to operate must
have a minimum of:

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a. 100 Guards
b. 200 Guards
C. 500 Guards
D. 1000 Guards
19. Private security agencies has to be registered with the:

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a. Security and Exchange Commission
b. Department of Interior and Local Government
c. National Police Commission
d. National Bureau of Investigation
20. Licenses of the private security guards are processed and issued by the:

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a. Philippine National Police
b. National Police Commission
c. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Security and Exchange Commission
21. The supervision and control of trainings and operations of security agencies is
under the office of:

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a. PADPAO
b. PNP-SAGSD
C. PARSTS
D. PNP-SOSIA
22. It provides means and ways by which all personnel and employees are trained to
make them security conscious and disciplined.
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a. security check
b. security investigation
c. security education
d. security promotion
23. New employees should be briefed on security rules and regulations of the
organization and the importance of observing them. This process is called________.

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a. Security promotion
b. Security reminders
c. Security orientation
d. Security investigation
24. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a
comprehensive security program for his industrial plan?

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a. security conference
b. security survey
c. security check
d. security education
25. What is the system of natural and man-made barriers placed between the
potential intruder and the object/person/matter being protected?

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a. Communication security
b. Document security
c. Physical security
d. Personnel security
26. Protection of classified documents/matters concerning their preparation,
classification, reproduction, handling, transmission, disposal and destruction.

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a. document security
b. physical security
c. operational security
d. organizational security
27. It is the protection of high ranking officials from harm, kidnapping and
similar acts.

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a. asset protection
b. physical security
c. document security
d. VIP security
28. Protective lighting, perimeter barriers and ________ system are known in
industrial security as physical security.

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a. relieving
b. Accounting
C. reporting
D. guarding
29. Interim clearance shall expire after _____

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a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
30. Final clearance shall expire after _____

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a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
31. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.

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a. Risk
b. Criticality
c. Probability
d. Hazard
32. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms. How important it is
in terms of the survival or existence of the organization.

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a. Risk
b. Criticality
c. Probability
d. Hazard
33. It is the chance or likelihood that a loss will take place. Indicated by a
mathematical statement concerning the possibility of an event occurring

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a. Risk
b. Criticality
c. Probability
d. Hazard
34. It is a process of selecting and implementing security countermeasures to
achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.

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a. Risk analysis
b. Risk management
c. Risk evaluation
d. Risk interpretation
35. Any information, facility, material, information, or activity which has a
positive value to its owner whether it is an individual, private or government
entity.

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a. Document
b. Asset
c. Money
d. Treasure
36. planned assumption and acceptance of the potential risk by making a deliberate
managerial decision of doing nothing about the threat, or setting aside resources
for use in case of a specific loss incident.

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a. Risk Avoidance
b. Risk Reduction
c. Risk Spreading
d. Risk Self-assumption
37. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government, or
industrial environment for which the risk manager has responsibility
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a. Risk Avoidance
b. Risk Reduction
c. Risk Spreading
d. Risk Self-assumption
38. It is an estimate of the security standards of a unit, and is conducted to
enable the responsible officer to recognize and evaluate security hazards and
determine protective measures

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a. Security Survey
b. Security Inspection
c. Security Risk
d. Nota
39. It is a check of how well existing security measures and regulations are being
carried out within a command.

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a. Security Survey
b. Security Inspection
c. Security Risk
d. Nota
40. This includes immediately outside executive/VIP’S door, or close to
Executive/VIP if outside in VIP security.

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a. Defense-in-Depths” Barriers
b. Outer ring
c. Middle ring
d. Inner ring
41. This is a grant made by the government to an inventor, conveying or securing to
him the exclusive right to make, use, or sell his invention for term of years.

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a. Trade Secrets
b. Patents
c. Trademark
d. Logo
42. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined through a
process called __________.

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a. Security training
b. Security education
c. Security promotion
d. Security investigation
43. These are information and material (matter) the unauthorized disclosure of
which, while not endangering the national security, would be prejudicial to the
interest or prestige of the nation or any governmental activity, or would cause
administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or would be of
advantage to a foreign nation.

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a. Confidential
b. Restricted
c. Top secret
d. secret
44. These are information and material (matter), the unauthorized disclosure of
which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically,
economically or from a security aspect. This category is reserve for the nation’s
closest secrets and is to be used with great reserve.

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a. Confidential
b. Restricted
c. Top secret
d. secret
45. Is the certification by a responsible authority that the person described is
cleared for access to classified matter the appropriate level

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a. Security clearance
b. Security access
c. Compartmentation
d. Compartmentalization
46. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for
access to classified matter

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a. Security clearance
b. Security access
c. Compartmentation
d. Compartmentalization
47. Is the principle whereby access to classified matter may only be only given to
those persons to whom it is necessary for the fulfillment of their duties.

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a. Defense in depth barrier
b. There is no impenetrable barrier
c. Need to know
d. nota
48. It means lose of security, which results from an authorized persons obtaining
knowledge of classified matter

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a. Risk
b. Compromise
c. Threat
d. Hazard
49. Is the grant of access to classified matter only to properly cleaved persons in
the performance of their official duties.

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a. Security clearance
b. Security access
c. Compartmentation
d. Compartmentalization
50. One of the factors to consider in the background investigation of security
personnel is the opinion or estimation in which one is generally held. It is what
one reported to be, whereas character is what a person is.

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a. Moral
b. Character
c. Reputation
d. None
51. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security
guards.

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A. C/PNP
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
D. Any of these
52. As a general, high powered firearms are not allowed to possess except when
there is an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
authority, but shall not exceed ___________ of the total number of security guards

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A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 50%
53. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are
for_______________.

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A. Permanent Structure
B. Least Permanent Structure
C. Solid structure
D. Semi-permanent structure
54. What is an act governing the organization and management of private security
agency, company guard force and government security forces?

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A. RA 5478
B. RA 8574
C. RA 4587
D. RA 5487
55. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm is needed
after operating for six months.

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A. 1:7
B. 1:2
C. 1:1+1
D. 1:500
56. How many pieces of licensed firearms a private security agency (PSA) with 100
guards must initially procure?

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A. 25
B. 70
C. 30
D. 50
57. These provide access to areas within the perimeter barrier and should be locked
or guarded.

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A. Clear zone
B. Gates and Doors
C. Sidewalk elevator
58. A regular license to operate (LTO) is issued to any private security agency
having:

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A. 100 guards or more but not exceeding 1, 000
B. 200 guards or more but not not exceeding 500
C. 150 guards or more but not exceeding 1,000
D. 200 guards but not exceeding 1,000
59. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick
proof since it is operated by utilizing combinations by means of a dial.

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A. Lever locks
B. Combination Lock
C. Padlock
D. Code Operated locks
60. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises
where personnel, processes, properties, and operations are safeguarded?

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A. Personnel security
B. Industrial security
C. Physical security
D. Bank security
61. A Private Security Agency who is applying for regular license to operate must
have a minimum of:

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A. 100 Guards
B. 200 Guards
C. 500 Guards
D. 1,000 Guards
62. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a
staple ring or the like and is then made fast or secured.

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A. Lock
B. Padlock
C. Warded Lock
D. lever Lock
63. Protection of classified documents/matters concerning their preparation,
classification, reproduction, handling, transmission, disposal and destruction.

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A. Lock
B. Padlock
C. Warded Lock
D. lever Lock
64. It is the protection of high ranking officials from harm, kidnapping and
similar acts.

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A. asset protection
B. physical security
C. document security
D. VIP security
65. It is a natural, man-made or physical device which is capable of restricting,
deterring or delaying illegal access to an installation.

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A. fence
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
66. Doors, floors, windows, walls, roofs, grills and other entries to a building
are considered as:

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A. 1st line of defense
B. 2nd line of defense
C. 3rd line of defense
D. 4th line of defense
67. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical fence in order to increase
physical protection of establishments or installations.

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A. Top tower
B. Top guard
C. Cellar guard
D. Tower guard house
68. Company-owned alarm systems with a unit in the nearest police station so that
in case of need, direct call is possible.

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A. Central station system
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm system
D. Auxiliary alarm system
69. The issued key to open main entrance gate and office is called _____.

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A. Master key
B. Maison Key System
C. Master keying System
D. Key Control
70. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an
office or installation:

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A. File room
B. File cabinet
C. Vault
D. Safe
71. Is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and
loyalty of an individual in order to determine a person’s suitability for
appointment access to classified matter.

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A. BI
B. CBI
C. PBI
D. PSI
72. It is the weakest link in security chain.

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A. managers
B. Barriers
C. Personnel
D. inspections
73. The tenure of a security guard is:

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A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
74. It refers to a records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does
not have the same value as the original.

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A. Useful Documents
B. Important Documents
C. Vital Documents
D. Non-Essential Documents
75. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.

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A. Exclusion
B. Reclassify
C. Declassify
D. Segregation
76. The normal weight of a safe is at least:

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A. 500 lbs.
B. 750 lbs.
C. 1,000 lbs.
D. 600 lbs.
77. Which of the following is not a false key?

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A. A duplicate key of the owner
B. A picklock or similar tool
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner
78. PADPAO stands for:

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A. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
79. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?

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A. Lever lock
B. Combination lock
C. Warded lock
D. Disc tumbler lock
80. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?

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A. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 300 hours
D. 150 hours
81. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a private security agency
under normal condition:

I. Cal .45;
II. Cal .50;

III. Cal .38;

IV. Magnum .22;

V. 12 Gauge Shotgun

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A. III, IV , V
B. II, III , IV
C. II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, V
82. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items
or supplies for economic gain.

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A. Casual Pilferer
B. Systematic Pilferer
C. Regular Pilferer
D. Normal Pilferer
83. A type of protective alarm system where the central station located outside the
installation. When the alarm is sounded it will notifies the police and other
agency.

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A. Local alarm system -neighbor, patrol car
B. Central station system
C. Auxiliary system
D. Proprietary system
84. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and penetrators of
restricted area or room.

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A. Peterman
B. Peterpan
C. Pick Lockers
D. Thug
85. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least ________
fire resistant.

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A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 24 hours
86. Is a critical, on-site examination and analysis of an industrial plant,
business, and name of public or private institution to ascertain current security
status deficiencies or excesses.

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A. Security Hazards
B. Security Inspection
C. Security Survey
D. Security Planning
87. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and procedures.

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A. Security Hazards
B. Security Inspection
C. Security Survey
D. Security Planning
88. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent
entry into a building, room container or hiding place, and to prevent the removal
of items without the consent of the owner.

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A. Lever Locks
B. Code Operated
C. Padlocks
D. Locks
89. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the
alarm by placing the front of their foot to engage the activation bar.

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A. Bill traps
B. Knee or Thigh Buttons
C. Foot Buttons
D. Foot Rail Activator
90. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office
or installation refers to:

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A. Vault
B. Safe
C. File Room
D. None of these
91. Chain link fences must be constructed in ___________ material excluding the top
guard?

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A. Six feet
B. Five feet
C. Seven feet
D. Eight feet -including
92. These are features constructed by man regardless of their original intent that
tends to delay the intruder

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A. Animal Barrier
B. Human Barrier
C. Natural Barrier
D. Structural Barrier
93. It is constructed in such a way that visual access is permitted through the
fence.

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A. Solid fence
B. Full-View fence
C. Liquid fence
D. All of the above
94. A type of lock that can be opened by pressing a series of numbered button in
the proper sequence.

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A. Card Operated Lock
B. Electrical Lock
C. Combination Lock
D. Code-operated lock
95. A specific key, which operates the lock and has a particular combination of
cuts which match the arrangement of the tumblers in the lock.

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A. Grand Master Key
B. Change Key
C. Master Key
D. Sub-master key
96. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to
an employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization is terminates.

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A. Multiple pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Visitors Logbook
97. The vault door should be made of steel at least ______ in thickness?

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A. 7 inches
B. 6 inches
C. 9 inches
D. 20 feet or more
98. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:

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A. SEC
B. DTI
C. PNP, SAGSD
D. PADPAO
99. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside
his area of jurisdiction shall be issued with a-

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A. Mission Order
B. Duty Detail Order
C. Firearms
D. None of These
100. What is the required capital investment for organization of private security
agency?

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A. P 100, 000
B. P 50, 000
C. P 500,000
D. P 1,000,000

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