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PLACEMENT TEST
[for STUDENTS]
The test is comprised of 03 parts:

Part 1: Grammar and Vocabulary (60 questions) – 60 Minutes
Part 2: Reading (13 questions) – 15 Minutes
Part 3: Listening (20 questions) – 15 Minutes
Remember that you MUST write your answers on the Answer Sheet!
HANOI - NOV 2018

PLACEMENT TEST
Trung tâm đào tạo IELTS và Tiếng Anh trẻ em
Website: www.res.edu.vn
DANH SÁCH CÁC CHI NHÁNH CỦA RES TRÊN TOÀN QUỐC:
♦️ Hotline: 0979.043.610 ♦️ Website: res.edu.vn
Bắc Ninh
Số 686 - Quốc lộ 1A, Đình Bảng, Từ Sơn, Bắc Ninh – SĐT: 0222 390 6888
Hà Nội
1. Số 89 Yên Lãng, Đống Đa – SĐT: 0243 259 5447
2. Số 330 Bà Triệu, Hai Bà Trưng – SĐT: 0243 623 1575
3. Số 29 Nguyễn Xiển, Thanh Xuân – SĐT: 0243 554 5229
4. Số 490 Nguyễn Văn Cừ, Long Biên – SĐT: 0243 212 7277
5. Số 12 Kim Đồng, Hoàng Mai – SĐT: 0243 218 1032
6. Số 39C Phan Đình Phùng, Ba Đình – SĐT: 0974 872 226
7. Số 251 Trần Đăng Ninh, Cầu Giấy – SĐT: 0243 219 1930
8. Số 16A1 Lê Đức Thọ, Nam Từ Liêm – SĐT: 0243 226 2889
9. P02SH0107 Park Hill, Times City 458 Minh Khai – SĐT: 0243 637 4590
10. Vila2, CT 15-16 BT Hyundai, Hà Đông – SĐT: 0961 153 711
Đà Nẵng
Số 22 Lê Hồng Phong, Quận Hải Châu, TP Đà Nẵng
Hồ Chí Minh
1. Số 131 CMT8, phường 5, Quận 3 – SĐT: 0286 273 3777
2. Số 417 Lạc Long Quân, Quận 11 – SĐT: 0286 680 6999
3. Số 99 Cộng Hòa, Tân Bình – SĐT: 0286 680 5999
4. Số 236 Đinh Bộ Lĩnh, Phường 26, Quận Bình Thạnh – SĐT: 0282 239 3777
5. Số 14-16 Huỳnh Mẫn Đạt, Quận 5 – SĐT: 0286 682 2582
6. Số 366A17, Phan Văn Trị, Phường 5, Quận Gò Vấp – SĐT: 0282 228 9777
7. Số 60 Nguyễn Thị Thập, Tân Hưng, Quận 7 – SĐT: 0282 228 4282
8. Số 22 Trương Vĩnh Ký, Tân Thành, Quận Tân Phú – SĐT: 0282 228 5958
9. Số 210 Hoàng Diệu 2, Linh Chiểu, Quận Thủ Đức – SĐT: 0282 253 9585
10. Số 162 Kinh Dương Vương, Quận 6 – SĐT: 0286 680 6999
11. Số 89 Lê Thị Riêng, Phường Thới An, Quận 12 – SĐT: 0286 671 1233
12. Số 164 Tây Hòa, Quận 9 – SĐT: 0961 079 107
13. Số 2099 Huỳnh Tấn Phát, Nhà Bè – SĐT: 0282 228 4282
PLACEMENT TEST
PART 1
Grammar and Vocabulary
Questions 1-5
Where can you see these notices?
For questions 1 to 5, mark one letter A, B or C on your Answer Sheet.
1.
You can look, A. In an office
B. In a cinema
but DO NOT touch the pictures.
C. In a museum
2.
Please give the RIGHT money A. In a bank
B. On a bus
to the driver. C. In a cinema
3.
A. In a street
NO PARKING PLEASE B. On a book
C. On a table
4.
CROSS BRIDGE FOR A. In a bank
B. In a garage
TRAINS TO EDINBURGH C. In a station
5.
KEEP IN A. On clothes
B. On furniture
A COLD PLACE C. On food
1|Page
Hà Nội: 330 Bà Triệu, Hai Bà Trưng
Hồ Chí Minh: 131 Cách Mạng Tháng Tám, Quận 3
PLACEMENT TEST
Questions 6-10
In this section, you must choose the word which best fits each space in the text below.
For questions 6 to 10, mark one letter A, B or C on your Answer Sheet.
THE STARS
There are millions of stars in the sky. If you look (6) _______ the sky on a clear night, it
is possible to see about 3000 stars. They look small, but they are really (7) _______ big
hot balls of burning gas. Some of them are huge, but others are much smaller, like our
planet Earth. The biggest stars are very bright, but they only live for a short time. Every
day new stars (8) _______ born and old stars die. All the stars are very far away. The
light from the nearest star takes more (9) _______ four years to reach the Earth.
Hundreds of years ago, people (10) _______ stars, like the North Star, to know which
direction to travel to. Today you can still see that star.
6. A. at B. up C. on
7. A. very B. too C. much
8. A. is B. be C. are
9. A. that B. of C. than
10. A. use B. used C. using
Questions 11-20
In this section you must choose the word which best fits each space in the two following texts.
For the questions 11 to 20, mark one letter A, B, C or D on your Answer Sheet.
GOOD SMILES AHEAD FOR YOUNG TEETH
Older Britons are the worst in Europe when it comes to keeping their teeth. But British
youngsters (11) _______ more to smile about because (12) _______ teeth are among the
best. Almost 80% of Britons over 65 have lost all or some (13) _______ their teeth,
according to a World Health Organization survey. Eating too (14) _______ sugar is part
of the problem. Among (15) _______, 12-year-olds have on average only three missing
decayed or filled teeth.
11. A. getting B. got C. have D. having

12. A. their B. his C. them D. theirs
13. A. from B. of C. among D. between
14. A. much B. lot C. many D. deal
15. A. person B. people C. children D. family
2|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
CHRISTOPHER COLUMBUS AND THE NEW WORLD
On August 3, 1942, Christopher Columbus set sail from Spain to find a new route to
India, China, and Japan. At this time most people thought you would fall off the edge of
the world if you sailed too far. Yet, sailors such as Columbus had seen how a ship
appeared to get lower and lower on the horizon as it sailed away. For Columbus this
(16) _______ that the world was round. He (17) _______ to his men about the distance
travelled each day. He did not want them to think that he did not (18) _______ exactly
where they were going. (19) _______, on October 12, 1942, Columbus and his men landed
on a small island he named San Salvador. Columbus believed he was in Asia, (20) _______
he was actually in the Caribbean.
16. A. made B. pointed C. was D. proved

17. A. lied B. told C. cheated D. asked
18. A. find B. know C. think D. expect
19. A. next B. secondly C. finally D. once
20. A. as B. but C. because D. if
Questions 21-40
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
For the questions 21 to 40, mark one letter A, B, C or D on your Answer Sheet.
21. The children won’t go to sleep _______ we leave a light on outside their bedroom.
A. except B. otherwise C. unless D. but
22. I’ll give you my spare keys in case you _______ home before me.
A. would get B. got C. will get D. get
23. My holiday in Paris gave me a great _______ to improve my French accent.
A. occasion B. chance C. hope D. possibility
24. The singer ended the concert _______ her most popular song.
A. by B. with C. in D. as
25. Because it had not rained for several months, there was a _______ of water.
A. shortage B. drop C. scarce D. waste
26. I’ve always _______ you as my best friend.
A. regarded B. thought C. meant D. supposed
27. She came to live here _______ a month ago.
A. quite B. beyond C. already D. almost
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PLACEMENT TEST
28. Don’t make such a _______! The dentist is only going to look at your teeth.
A. fuss B. trouble C. worry D. reaction
29. He spent a long time looking for a tie which _______ with his new shirt.
A. fixed B. made C. went D. wore
30. Fortunately, _______ from a bump on the head, she suffered no serious injuries from her fall.
A. other B. except C. besides D. apart
31. She had changed so much that _______ anyone recognized her.
A. almost B. hardly C. not D. nearly
32. _______ teaching English, she also writes children’s books.
A. Moreover B. as well as C. in addition D. apart
33. It was clear that the young couple were _______ of taking charge of the restaurant.
A. responsible B. reliable C. capable D. able
34. The book _______ of ten chapters, each one conversing a different topic.
A. comprises B. includes C. consists D. contains
35. Mary was disappointed with her new shirt as the color _______ very quickly.
A. bleached B. died C. vanished D. faded
36. National leaders from all over the world are expected to attend the _______ meeting.
A. peak B. summit C. top D. apex
37. Jane remained calm when she won the lottery and _______ about business as if nothing
had happened.
A. came B. brought C. went D. moved
38. I suggest we _______ outside the stadium tomorrow at 8.30.
A. meeting B. meet C. met D. will meet
39. My remarks were _______ as a joke, but she was offended by them.
A. pretended B. thought C. meant D. supposed
40. You ought to take up swimming for the _______ of your health.
A. concern B. relief C. sake D. cause
4|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
Questions 41-50
In this section you must choose the world or phase which best fits each space in the texts.
For questions 41 to 50, mark one letter A, B, C or D on you Answer Sheet.
CLOCKS
The clock was the first complex mechanical machinery to enter the home,
(41) _______ it was too expensive for the (42) _______ person until the 19th
century, when (43) _______ production techniques lowered the price. Watches
were also developed but they (44) _______ luxury items until 1868, when the
first cheap pocket watch was designed in Switzerland. Watches later became
(45) _______ available, and Switzerland became the world’s leading watch
manufacturing center for the next 100 years.
41. A. despite B. although C. otherwise D. average

42. A. average B. medium C. general D. common
43. A. vast B. large C. wide D. mass
44. A. lasted B. endured C. kept D. remained
45. A. mostly B. chiefly C. greatly D. widely
DUBLIN CITY WALKS
What the better way of getting to know a new city than by walking around it? Whether
you choose the Medieval Walk, which will (46) _______ you to the Dublin of 1000 years
ago, find out about the more (47) _______ history of the city on the Eighteenth Century
Walk, or meet the ghosts of Dublin’s many writers on the Literary Walk, we know you
will enjoy the experience. Dublin City Walks (48) _______ twice daily. Meet your guide
at 10.30 am or 2.30 pm at the Tourist Information Office. No advance (49) _______ is
necessary. Special (50) _______ are available for families and children and parties of
more than ten people.
46. A. introduce B. present C. move D. show

47. A. near B. late C. recent D. close
48. A. take place B. occur C. work D. function
49. A. paying B. reserving C. warning D. booking
50. A. funds B. costs C. fees D. rates
5|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
Questions 51-60
In this section you must choose the world or phase which best completes each sentence.
For questions 51 to 60, mark one letter A, B, C or D on you Answer Sheet.
51. If you are not too tired, we could have a _______ of tennis after lunch.
A. match B. play C. game D. party
52. Don’t you get tired _______ watching TV every night?
A. with B. by C. of D. at
53. Go on, finish the dessert. It needs _______ up because it won’t stay fresh until tomorrow.
A. eat B. eating C. to eat D. eaten
54. We’re not used to _______ invited to very formal occasions.
A. be B. have C. being D. having
55. I’d rather we _______ meet this evening, because I’m very tired.
A. wouldn’t B. shouldn’t C. hadn’t D. didn’t
56. She obviously didn’t want to discuss the matter so I didn’t _______ the point.
A. maintain B. chase C. follow D. pursue
57. Anyone _______ after the start of the play is not allowed in until the interval.
A. arrives B. has arrived C. arriving D. arrived
58. This new magazine is _______ with interesting stories and useful information.
A. full B. packed C. thick D. compiled
59. The restaurant was far too noisy to be _______ to relaxed conversation.
A. conductive B. suitable C. practical D. fruitful
60. In this branch of medicine, it is vital to _______ open to new ideas.
A. stand B. continue C. hold D. remain
6|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
PART 2
Reading Comprehension
You should spend about 20 minutes on questions 1-13, which are based on the
Reading Passage 1 below.
How Mobile Telephony Turned into a Health Scare

The technology which enabled mobile phones was previously used in the kind of two-way
radio which could be found in taxis and emergency vehicles. Although this was a great
development, it was not really considered mobile telephony because it could not be used
to dial into existing phone networks. It was known as simplex technology, operating on
the same principles as a walkie-talkie, which required that a user press a button, meaning
that only one person at a time could talk. Simplex meant that there was only one
communication frequency in use at any one time.
The first mobile phones to connect to telephone networks were often installed in cars
before the hand-held version came on the market and the revolution in mobile technology
began. The first generation of mobile phones (called 1G) were large, heavy and analogue
and it was not until the invention of the second generation (2G) in the 1990s that digital
networks could be used. The digital element enabled faster signaling. At the same time,
developments in battery design and energy-saving electronics allowed the phones
themselves to become smaller and therefore more truly mobile. The second generation
allowed for text messaging too, and this began with the first person-to-person text
message in Finland in1993, although a machine-generated text message had been
successfully sent two years earlier.
None of this would have been possible without the development of duplex technology to
replace the relatively primitive simplex technology of the first phase of mobile
communication. In duplex technology, there are two frequencies available
simultaneously. These two frequencies can be obtained by the principle of Frequency
Division Duplex (FDD). To send two signals wirelessly, it is necessary to create a paired
spectrum, where one band carries the uplink (from phone to antenna) and the other
carries the downlink (from antenna to phone). Time Division Duplex (TDD) can achieve
the same thing, but instead of splitting the frequency, the uplink and downlink are
switched very rapidly, giving the impression that one frequency is used.
For mobile telephony to work to its fullest potential, it needs to have a network through
which it can relay signals. This network depends on base stations which send and receive
the signals. The base stations tend to be simple constructions, or masts, on top of which
are mounted the antennas. With the rapid increase in demand for mobile services, the
infrastructure of antennas in the United Kingdom in now huge.
7|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
Many thousands of reports have appeared claiming that the signals relayed by these
antennas are harmful to human and animal health. The claims focus on the fact that the
antennas are transmitting radio waves in microwave form. In some ways, public demand
is responsible for the increase in the alleged threat to health. Until quite recently, voice
and text messages were transmitted using 2G technology. A 2G mast can send a low-
frequency microwave signal approximately 35 kilometres. Third generation (3G)
technology allow users to wirelessly download information from the internet and is
extremely popular. The difference is that 3G technology uses a higher frequency to carry
signals, allowing mass to emit more radiation. This problem is intensified by the need to
have masts in closer proximity to each other and to the handsets themselves. Whatever
danger there was in 2G signals is greatly multiplied by the fact that the 3G masts are
physically much closer to people.
Government authorities have so far refused to accept that there is a danger to public
health, and test carried out by governments and telecommunications companies have
been restricted to testing too see if heat is being produced from these microwaves.
According to many, however, the problem is not heat, but electromagnetic waves which
are found near the masts.
It is believed that some people, though not all, have a condition known as electro-
sensitivity or electro-hypersensitivity (EHS), meaning that the electromagnetism makes
them ill in some way. That actual health threat from these pulsed microwave signals affect
all living organisms, including plants, at a cellular level and cause symptoms in people
ranging from tiredness and headaches to cancer. Of particular concern is the effect that
increased electromagnetic fields may have on children and the fear is that the negative
effects on their health may not manifest themselves until they have had many years of
continued exposure to high levels. Tests carried out on animals living close to this form of
radiation are particularly useful because scientists can rule out the psychological effect
that humans might be exhibiting due to their fear of possible contamination.
Of course, the danger of exposure exists when using a mobile phone but since we do this
for limited periods, between which it is believed our bodies can recover, it is not
considered as serious as the effect of living or working near a mast (sometimes mounted
on the very building we occupy) which is transmitting electromagnetic waves 24 hours a
day.
8|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
Questions 1-6
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
1. What were early two-way radios unable to use?

................................................................................................................................................
2. What did you have to do in order to talk on a radio using simplex technology?
................................................................................................................................................
3. Where were early mobile phones generally used?
................................................................................................................................................
4. What development introduced digital technology into mobile telephony?
................................................................................................................................................
5. Apart from the area of electronics, in which area did developments help make phones
more mobile?
................................................................................................................................................
6. What type of text message was the first one ever sent?
................................................................................................................................................
Questions 7-10
Complete the diagram.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Frequency Division Duplex (FDD): two signals sent 7__________________
Two bands together, known as a 8 ____________________

9 __________________
10 __________________
10
9|Page
PLACEMENT TEST
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D
11. 3G technology is believed to more of a threat to health because

A. the signals are transmitted over much greater distances than before.
B. the masts are closer together and emit higher frequencies
C. the signals are carrying both voice and text messages.
D. the modern handsets needed emit more radiation.
12. Why might the testing of animals give us more reliable results?
A. because most of them live closer to the masts
B. because they are continually exposed to higher levels of radiation
C. because they are not affected at a cellular level
D. because they are not afraid of the effects of radiation
13. What is believed to limit the danger from mobile phones?

A. not using them continuously
B. turning them off when not in use
C. mounting a mast on the building where you live or work
D. keeping healthy and getting enough sleep
10 | P a g e
PLACEMENT TEST
PART 3
Listening Comprehension
Questions 1-10
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Example:
The caller works as a -----teacher----.
1. There will be passengers on the coach.

2. The students leave the school .
Questions 3-8
Complete the notes below.
Example:
Company name: Burnham Coaches____
Name of Client: 3
Address: Down Language School
Down House
4
Brighton
Contact number: 5 to be contacted on 01273512634

Pick-up time: 6
Return time: 7
Purpose of Hire: Visit to Stonehenge and 8
Questions 9 and 10
Answer the questions below.
9. What does the cost of hiring the coach include?
..........................................................................................................................................................
10. Who does the customer have to speak to before confirming the booking?
..........................................................................................................................................................
11 | P a g e
PLACEMENT TEST
Questions 11 and 12
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11. Sally Jackson is

A. a university lecturer.
B. a university student.
C. a secretary at the university.
12. What does Sally say about bank accounts?
A. You are obliged to open a new one at the university.
B. The matter should be discussed with the Director of Studies.
C. Some students may not have to worry about opening one.
Questions 13-17
Complete the table below.
Day Event Time Notes

Tour of campus
Monday – Friday Orientation & Welfare 10 am Sessions to develop
13 ____________.
Monday – Friday Tour of Upton 5 pm Visit to 14 ____________ and

Ghost walk.
Talk to students
Monday Academic Fair 1 pm
and 15 ____________.
Tuesday Societies Fair 1 pm More than 16 ____________

societies and sports clubs.
Lots of bargains and free
Wednesday 17 _____________ 2-5 pm
gifts.
Questions 18-20
Which THREE statements are true about the entertainment programme?
Choose THREE letters A-F.
A Sally cannot reveal the name of the band for the first party.
B Students can bring a guest to the opening party.
C There will be a concert in the Cotswold Theatre on Monday.
D There is an important event on Thursday.
E There is no formal dress code for the Freshers’ Ball.
F Students should check the notice board for changes to the announced programme.
-----***This is the end of the Placement Test***-----
12 | P a g e

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RES - where Teachers who love teaching, teach Students to love learning

The test is comprised of 03 parts:

HANOI - NOV 2018

GOOD SMILES AHEAD FOR YOUNG TEETH

11. A. getting B. got C. have D. having

CHRISTOPHER COLUMBUS AND THE NEW WORLD

16. A. made B. pointed C. was D. proved

41. A. despite B. although C. otherwise D. average

DUBLIN CITY WALKS

46. A. introduce B. present C. move D. show

How Mobile Telephony Turned into a Health Scare

1. What were early two-way radios unable to use?

Frequency Division Duplex (FDD): two signals sent 7__________________

Two bands together, known as a 8 ____________________

11. 3G technology is believed to more of a threat to health because

13. What is believed to limit the danger from mobile phones?

1. There will be passengers on the coach.

Contact number: 5 to be contacted on 01273512634

9. What does the cost of hiring the coach include?

11. Sally Jackson is

Day Event Time Notes

Monday – Friday Tour of Upton 5 pm Visit to 14 ____________ and

Tuesday Societies Fair 1 pm More than 16 ____________

-----***This is the end of the Placement Test***-----

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-----This is the end of the Placement Test-----