QUIZ 1

In networking term, port density refers to the number of ports available on a

single switch.
True
False
In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or
height of a switch.
True
False
Access Layer is the layer of which the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model
would PoE for VoIP phones and access points be considered.
True
False
Rack Unit is the networking term used to express the thickness or height of a
switch.
True
False
Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the users.
True
False
Core Layer is a design model layer that forwards traffic from/to different local
networks.
True
False
Distribution Layer is a design model layer that provides a high-speed backbone
link between dispersed networks.
True
False

In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of

an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
 a. show ip interface brief
b. show ip route
c. show ip protocols
d. show interfaces
How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when
operating at full wire speed?
a. 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time
b. 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
c. 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
d. 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify
that automatic summarization is enabled?
a. show ip protocols
b. show ip eigrp neighbors
c. show ip interface brief
d. show ip eigrp interfaces
In managing Cisco devices, what are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-
of-band management?
a. A connection that uses the AUX and and Telnet
b. A connection that uses Telnet and SSH
c. A connection that uses HTTP and HTTPs
d. A connection that uses the console and AUX port
Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can
be combined to form a collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
a. Enterprise edge and access layer
b. Provider edge and access layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Distribution and core layer
What is the useof in-band device management and how it is done?
a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
b. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is
unavailable.
c. It uses a terminal emulation client.
d. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device
over a network connection.
In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?
 a. Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of
Layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU
b. Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as
a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
c. Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to
prevent Layer 2 loops
d. Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over
existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when
operating at full wire speed?
a. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
b. 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
c. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
d. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
What today's network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a
network should a failure occur?
a. The installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the
network
b. The configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
c. The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of
access layer switch connections between them
d. The reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the
network core
In today's current switch technology, Which statement describes a characteristic
of Cisco Meraki switches?
a. They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of
the network.
b. They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of
switches.
c. They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco
2960 switches.
d. They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and
transport flexibility.
Which network design solution below in the current technology today will extend
access layer connectivity to user devices?
a. Routing protocol implementation
b. Redundancy implementation
c. Wireless connectivity implementation
d. Implementing etherChannel implementation
Which network design solution among the choices listed below will best extend
access layer connectivity to host devices?
a. Implementing wireless connectivity
b. Implementing redundancy
 c. Etherchannel implementation
d. Dynamic routing implementation
If you are a network design engineer, which type of router would an enterprise
use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of
whether they are at home or work?
a. Network edge routers
b. Modular routers
c. Branch routers
d. Service provider routers
Which among the listed below is a characteristic of in-band device management
as discussed in this chapter?
a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
b. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device
over a network connection.
c. It uses a terminal emulation client.
d. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is
unavailable.
Why would a network administrator of RMS Defence Contractor company issue
the show cdp neigbors command on a router especially if a network problem
occurs?
a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
b. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
c. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
d. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

Which among the listed below as discussed in Cisco Enterprise Architecture

which two functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core
design?
a. Provider edge and access layer
b. Core and distribution layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Enterprise edge and access layer

A network administrator of Genesis Airlines issue a command of show cdp

neigbors on a router, what do you think is the reason?
a. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
b. To display routing table and other information about directly connected
Cisco devices
c. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
d. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
In managing Cisco devices, what is a characteristic of out-of-band device
management?
a. It requires Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device.
b. It requires a terminal emulation client.
c. Out-of-band device management requires a direct connection to a network
interface.
d. It requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected
and operational.

QUIZ 2

A protocol that allows multiple vlans to run in a single spanning-tree instance is

called Rapid PVST.
True
False
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.
True
False
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to
enable Rapid PVST+.
True
False
The legacy standard for STP that runs all VLANs in a single spanning-tree
instance is called MSTP.
True
False
A Cisco enhancement of RSTP to provide a spanning tree instance for each vlan
is called STP.
True
False

Among the choices below, which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides
network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and
transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access
circuits?
 a. HSRP
b. ICMP
c. STP
d. IRDP
Which of the following statement is true?
a. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A
router provides a separate broadcast domain.
b. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast
domains. A router provides separate collision domains.
c. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain.
A router creates a single collision domain.
d. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast
domains. A router provides a separate broadcast domain as well.
You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would
enable this protocol?
a. Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
b. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
c. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
d. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop
redundancy protocols. Which two protocols will not be able to function with
multivendor devices?
a. HSRP & PVST
b. IRDP & HSRP
c. GLBP & HSRP
d. VRRP & GLBP
As discussed in LAN Redundancy chapter, What is the purpose of HSRP?
a. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
b. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding
state.
c. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
d. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to
ensure correct network operation?
a. static default routes & implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
b. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes & static default
routes
c. redundant links between Layer 2 switches & removing single point of
failure with multiple Layer 2 switches
 d. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts & redundant links between
Layer 2 switches
As per our discussion in this module LAN Redundancy, what is the outcome of a
Layer 2 broadcast storm?
a. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become
congested.
b. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
c. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
d. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be
processed.
Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free
network?
a. STP
b. VTP
c. PORTFAST
d. CDP
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
a. Designated ports
b. Root ports
c. Edge ports
d. Trunk ports
A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be
used to troubleshoot a broadcast storm in a switched network?
a. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.
b. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
c. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.
d. Replace the cables on failed STP links.
Among the choices listed below, which port state will switch ports immediately
transition to when configured for PortFast?
a. Blocking
b. Listening
c. Learning
d. Forwarding
What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed in
this chapter?
a. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths
b. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths
c. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches
 d. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root

bridge. What command can be used to do this?
a. show running-config
b. show cdp neigh
c. show spanning-tree
d. show startup-config
In this chapter, which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause sub-
optimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for
the entire bridged network?
a. STP & MSTP
b. Rapid PVST+ & RSTP
c. STP & RSTP
d. PVST+ & VRRP
As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?
a. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of
the root bridge.
b. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional
implementations of STP that use CST.
c. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
d. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

As per our current module discussion, which non-proprietary protocol provides

router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
a. VRRPv2
b. HSRP
c. GLBP
d. SLB
In this chapter, which is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
a. A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
b. Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
c. The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
d. Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
In reference to our current topic which is LAN Redundancy, which 3 components
are combined to form a bridge ID?
a. IP address, extended system ID, cost
b. MAC address, port ID, ip address
c. extended system ID, MAC address, bridge priority
d. port ID, ip address, MAC address
A network engineer connected 2 switches together with two crossover cables for
redundancy, and STP is disabled. Which of the following will happen between the
switches?
a. Broadcast storms will occur on the switched network.
b. The switches will automatically load-balance between the two links.
c. The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch.
d. The routing tables on the switches will not update.
If you want to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command
would you use?
a. spanning-tree portfast
b. spanning-tree security
c. spanning-tree off
d. disable spanning-tree

PRELIM EXAM

If the network administrator of Genesis Mobile Telecommunications wanted to

disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?
a. spanning-tree portfast
b. spanning-tree security
c. spanning-tree off
d. disable spanning-tree
The number of interfaces supported on a switch.
a. Bandwidth Capacity
b. Port Density
c. Etherchannel ports
d. Rack Unit (RU)
In reference to module 2 of this course, which is true of the difference between
STP and RSTP?
a. STP uses a proposal and agreement process to allow switches to negotiate
on port roles, but RSTP assigns the roles centrally.
b. RSTP is the default version on all Cisco switches now, but STP was the
default until IOS version 11.4
c. RSTP is able to support VLANs by using Cisco proprietary enhancements
but STP is not.
d. STP stops sending user data while the whole network converges, but RSTP
closes down and converges each link separately.
As discussed which is true of the PVST+ protocol?
 a. It supports the use of VLANs and requires that ISL frame tagging should
be used on VLAN trunk links.
b. It was the first version of STP to include the PortFast feature that allows
access ports to transition directly to the forwarding state.
c. It is Cisco's implementation of Rapid STP.
d. It allows different VLANs to have different root bridges and allows ports to
be blocked for some VLANs but not others.
In which situation would a network expert install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco
Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
a. on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
b. to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
c. on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
d. on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and
simplified management
As discussed in chapter 2, what states does a port go through from the time
when a switch first start up to the time when the port is fully operational?
a. Listening, learning, blocking, forwarding
b. Blocking, learning, listening, forwarding

c. Disabled, listening, learning, forwarding

d. Blocking, listening, learning, forwarding

In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ______ router.
a. Perimeter
b. Switch
c. Virtual
d. Core
An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root
bridge. What command can be used to do this?
a. show cdp neigh
b. show startup-config
c. show running-config
d. show spanning-tree
Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?
a. MST
b. RSTP
c. MSTP
d. PVST+
As discussed in Chapter 2, what do you called a design methodology for building
networks in three layers including access, distribution, and core.
 a. STP
b. hierarchical network
c. Etherchannel technology
d. Collapsed Core
In terms of network reliability, the ability of a network to be up most of the time.
Sometimes referred to as 99.999, or "five nines".
a. Flexibility
b. Reliability
c. Scalability
d. Integrity
A network link connected to a switch went down. How long can it take for a
network using spanning tree topology to converge again after a topology
change?
a. up to 15 seconds
b. up to 20 seconds
c. up to 10 seconds
d. up to 50 seconds
Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include
redundant links?
a. link aggregation
b. virtual LANs
c. Spanning Tree Protocol
d. virtual private networks
A connection to a switch went down suddenly, how long can it take for a network
using RSTP to converge again after a topology change?
a. 6sec
b. 15sec
c. 50sec
d. 10sec
Among the listed below, what are the distinct functions of layer 2 switching that
increase available bandwidth on the network?
1. Address learning
2. Routing
3. Forwarding and filtering
4. Creating network loops
5. Loop avoidance
6. IP addressing
a. 2 and 6
b. 3 and 5
 c. 1, 3 and 5
d. 2, 4 and 6
As discussed in chapter 1, the duplication of devices, services, or connections so
that, in the event of a failure, the redundant devices, services , or connections
can perform the work of those that failed.
a. Bundle
b. Backup
c. Duplication
d. Redundancy
Why do a network administrator change a switch priority to a higher value than
that of other switches in the network?
a. To make sure that the switch is not chosen as the root bridge.
b. To make sure that no ports on the switch are blocked.
c. To make sure that no ports on the switch are blocked.
d. To make sure that the switch is chosen as the root bridge.
What protocol defined by IEEE standard 802.1D. Allows switches and bridges to
create a redundant LAN, with the protocol dynamically causing some ports to
block traffic so that the bridge/ switch forwarding logic will not cause frames to
loop indefinitely around the LAN. SSID See service set identifier?
a. Etherchannel
b. PAgP
c. STP
d. LACP
Divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core,
distribution, and access layers of the three-layer model as discussed in chapter
2 LAN Redundancy?
a. Enterprise edge
b. Cisco Enterprise Architecture
c. Collapsed Core
d. Hierarchical network

As shown in the exhibit below, which protocol information is being displayed in

the output?
a. GLBP
b. VRRP
c. HSRP
d. FHRP
Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a
lower cost to the root bridge?
a. designated port
b. root port
c. alternate
d. disabled port
In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network
are combined to form a collapsed core design. This is usually implemented in a
small to medium network setup?
a. provider edge & access layer
b. distribution layer & enterprise edge
c. access layer & enterprise edge
d. core layer and distribution layer
As discussed in chapter 2 , what will exist when the spanning tree protocol has
worked and the network has converged?
a. One root bridge per segment, one root port per non root bridge, one
designated port per segment, non-designated ports.
b. One root bridge per network, one root port on each bridge, one
designated port on each bridge, all non-designated ports are blocked.
c. One root bridge per network, one root port per non root bridge, one
designated port per segment, non-designated ports.
d. One root bridge per network, one root port on each switch, one non-
designated port on each segment, other ports are blocked.
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when
electing the root bridge?
a. lowest IP address
b. lowest MAC address
c. highest MAC address
d. highest IP address
In MRT Construction head office, a network administrator is preparing the
implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid
PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?
a. Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
b. Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
c. Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single
VLAN
d. Link types are determined automatically.
Which statement below describes HSRP?
 a. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
b. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
c. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding
state.
d. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
As discussed in this chapter, which of the following listed below is a layer 2
protocol used to maintain a loop-free network and this refers to the IEEE 802.1D
standard?
a. STP
b. VTP
c. CDP
d. RIP
A certified network expert is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to
make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the
engineer implement?
a. GLBP
b. HSRP
c. VRRP
d. FHRP
Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+?
a. Discarding, learning & forwarding
b. trunking , blocking & forwarding
c. Blocking, learning & forwarding
d. listening , blocking & trunking
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the
root switch?
a. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
b. spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
c. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
d. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
Which switch among the listed below would STP choose to become the root
bridge in the selection process?
a. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
b. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
c. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-65
d. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following
command syntax would enable this protocol?
 a. Switch(config)Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
b. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
c. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
d. Switch(config)# mode span rapid-pvst
During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted
by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election
process?
a. Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.
b. Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.
c. All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root
bridge.
d. Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from
occurring.
As discussed in initial stages of Scaling Networks, which two features of
enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999
percent up-time?
a. redundant power supplies & failover capabilities
b. failure domains & failover capabilities
c. redundant power supplies & collapsed core
d. services module & failover capabilities
Observe the given output below. A certified network engineer is troubleshooting
host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4
gateway address should be configured on the host?
a. 192.168.2.2
b. 192.168.2.0
c. 192.168.2.100
d. 192.168.2.1
In the above network diagram of DFA Headquarters core switches , which switch
will be chosen as root bridge and why?
a. Sw-C, because it has the lowest priority
b. Sw-B, because it has the highest MAC address
c. Sw-A, because it has the lowest MAC address
d. Sw-D, because it has the highest priority
During connectivity issues, why would a network admin issue the show cdp
neigbors command on a router?
a. to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
b. to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
 c. to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
d. to display routing table and other information about directly connected
Cisco devices
When first hop redundancy protocols are used, which two items will be shared
by a set of routers that are presenting the illusion of being a single router?
a. IP address & BID
b. MAC address & IP address
c. BID & static route
d. hostname & MAC address
In managing cisco devices, which two requirements must always be met to use
in-band management to configure a network device?
a. a direct connection to the auxiliary port & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to
the device
b. at least one network interface that is connected and operational & Telnet,
SSH, or HTTP access to the device
c. a terminal emulation client & a direct connection to the console port
d. a direct connection to the console port & at least one network interface
that is connected and operational
What is the most likely effect on the topology if Spanning Tree Protocol has been
disabled?
a. All hosts will reply to the ARP request
b. The router will reply to the ARP request
c. Excessive collisions
d. Broadcast storm
Among the listed below, how can an enterprise network be designed to optimize
bandwidth?
a. by deploying a collapsed core model
b. by installing devices with failover capabilities
c. by organizing the network to control traffic patterns
d. by limiting the size of failure domains
A switch port was configured to Portfast, What will be the port state after this
configuration?
a. learning
b. blocking
c. forwarding
d. listening
During the discussion in this chapter, what is a characteristic of in-band device
management?
 a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
b. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is
unavailable.
c. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device
over a network connection.
d. It uses a terminal emulation client.
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a
wireless medium?
a. increased network management options & reduced costs
b. reduced costs & increased flexibility
c. increased bandwidth availability & increased flexibility
d. reduced costs & decreased number of critical points of failure
In ABC Construction Co., a network administrator is planning redundant devices
and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will
implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?
a. Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
b. Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel
interface.
c. Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless
devices.
d. Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
A newly hired certified network engineer of RMS Industries is troubleshooting a
switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. Which of the following listed
below is the right command to display the correct information?
a. show spanning-tree
b. show startup-config
c. show running-config
d. show vlan
In Genesis Research Lab, a network administrator is reviewing a network design
that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and
WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have
enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of
device should be used as a replacement?
a. a PoE device
b. another fixed configuration router
c. a Layer 3 switch
d. a modular router
How many switches in a network must be running STP or RSTP in order to avoid
broadcast storms?
 a. At least the switch that is chosen as the root bridge.
b. At least one in each loop.
c. All of them.
d. At least one.
Which feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2
loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch?
a. extended system ID
b. PortFast
c. PVST+
d. BPDU guard
Which non-proprietary protocol among the listed below provides router
redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
a. HSRP
b. VRRPv2
c. SLB
d. GLBP
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network
administrator of Gilas Telecoms wants to check the routers configuration. From
privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator
use for this purpose?
a. show startup-config & show running-config
b. show NVRAM &show running-config
c. show flash &show startup-config
d. show version &show running-config