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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) For which of the following reasons might a government intervene in the market system? 1)
A) To ensure that its citizens never come under the influence of the market
B) To ensure that that firms always earn a large profit
C) To ensure that tax rates are so high that consumer surplus is zero
D) None of the above
5) Assume that the price of an item is $5.00. If May Soo would be willing to pay $7.50 for the item, 5)
then her consumer surplus is:
A) $12.50 B) $2.50 C) $1.50 D) $12.50
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8) Consumer surplus refers to: 8)
A) the extra money that consumers are asked to pay because of taxes
B) extra income earned by consumers
C) benefits derived by consumers over and above the price that they pay for an item
D) none of the above
9) The maximum price a consumer is willing to pay for each successive unit of any good or service 9)
indicates:
A) the market equilibrium price
B) the perceived value of that unit to the consumer
C) the price trend set by other consumers
D) all of the above
10) Refer to Figure 6.1. In which diagram is the area of consumer surplus correctly shaded? 10)
A) Diagram A B) Diagram B C) Diagram C D) Diagram D
11) Refer to Figure 6.1. In which diagram is the area of producer surplus correctly shaded? 11)
A) Diagram A B) Diagram B C) Diagram C D) Diagram D
12) Consumer surplus is the same for each consumer because: 12)
A) competition among consumers will result in equal consumer surplus
B) each consumer faces the same set of prices
C) the market distributes consumer surplus equally
D) none of the above
13) The economic significance of the concept of consumer surplus is that: 13)
A) consumers often derive greater benefits from a good or service than is suggested by the price
of the good or service
B) firms can charge whatever price they choose and consumer just have to pay
C) consumers always have the final say in any pricing decisions
D) none of the above
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14) Producer surplus is: 14)
A) the amount of a product that sellers will be able and willing to sell at prices above the
equilibrium level
B) also referred to as fair market price
C) the difference between the amount that producers receive from selling an item and the
amount they would have accepted for the item
D) the same as the equilibrium price since buyers and sellers agree on that price
15) Producer surplus is the same for each producer because: 15)
A) consumer surplus and producer surplus must be equal
B) the government enforces consumer surplus laws
C) each has identical cost
D) none of the above
16) Assume that the price of an item is $5.00. If Ken Pryce would be willing to pay $3.50 for the item, 16)
then his producer surplus is:
A) $1.43 B) $1.50 C) $17.50 D) $8.50
19) A price ceiling, if it is set below the equilibrium price, will result in 19)
A) a shortage
B) a surplus
C) the equilibrium price because of the interaction of demand and supply
D) none of the above
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FIG. 6.2 PRICE CEILING AND PRICE FLOOR
21) Refer to Figure 6.2. To be effective, a price ceiling must lie: 21)
A) anywhere below P 0 B) below P0 but above P3
C) anywhere above P 0 D) above P 0 but below P2
22) Refer to Figure 6.2. With a price floor of P2 a surplus equalling the following will arise 22)
A) BF B) AC C) FD D) BD
23) Refer to Figure 6.2. With a price ceiling of P3 , a shortage equalling the following will arise: 23)
A) FD B) BC C) AF D) AC
24) Which of the following statements best differentiates price ceilings and price floors? 24)
A) Price ceilings are maximum prices above which one cannot legally sell, whereas price floors
are minimum prices below which one cannot legally sell
B) Price floors cause shortages to appear, whereas price ceilings cause surpluses to appear
C) Price ceilings represent minimum prices while price floors represent maximum prices
D) Price ceilings are always set below the equilibrium price, and price floors are always set
above the equilibrium price
25) Which of the following is false with regard to price ceilings? 25)
A) If the ceiling price is set above the equilibrium price, the intervention will have no effect
B) The producer must charge the price established as the price ceiling
C) If the ceiling price is set below the equilibrium price, then a shortage will develop
D) If the ceiling price is set below the equilibrium price, then the price must be reduced
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27) Rent control can result in: 27)
A) significant increases in tax revenues
B) substantial increases in profits for landlords
C) poorly maintained housing units
D) substantial increases in consumer benefits
29) Which of the following statements is true of the effects of rent control? 29)
A) Part of the deadweight loss from rent control is borne by landlords
B) Some tenants may benefit
C) Some landlords may benefit
D) All of the above
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FIG 6.3. MINIMUM WAGE LEGISLATION
33) Refer to Figure 6.3. If the minimum wage is established at $2 per hour, the level of unemployment 33)
is:
A) 40 000 B) 20 000 C) 0 D) 10 000
34) Refer to Figure 6.3. If the minimum wage is set at $6 per hour, the level of unemployment is: 34)
A) 40 000 B) 50 000 C) 10 000 D) 20 000
35) Refer to Figure 6.3. At a wage rate of $6, how many workers will be hired? 35)
A) 10 000 B) 20 000 C) 50 000 D) 30 000
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40) A production quota: 40)
A) has no effect on either consumer or producer surplus
B) increases both consumer surplus and producer surplus
C) reduces consumer surplus and producer surplus
D) reduces consumer surplus and increases producer surplus
41) A quantity restriction that is below the free market equilibrium quantity will result in: 41)
A) a shortage and a rise in price B) a surplus and a fall in price
C) an increase in consumer surplus D) the equilibrium price and quantity
49) If the demand for an item is perfectly inelastic, the incidence of an excise tax will be borne by: 49)
A) producers entirely B) consumers entirely
C) consumers mostly and producers partly D) producers mostly and consumers partly
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50) If an excise tax is imposed on an item whose demand is perfectly inelastic: 50)
A) the government’s revenue from the tax will be zero
B) consumers will purchase the same quantity of the item and bear the full burden of the tax
C) producers will cease to produce the item and avoid the tax completely
D) consumers will cease to purchase the item and avoid the tax completely
51) If the demand for an item is perfectly elastic, the incidence of an excise tax will be borne by: 51)
A) producers entirely B) consumers mostly and producers partly
C) producers mostly and consumers partly D) consumers entirely
52) If an excise tax is imposed on an item whose demand is perfectly elastic: 52)
A) consumers will cease to purchase the item and avoid the tax completely
B) consumers will purchase the same quantity of the item and bear the full burden of the tax
C) the government’s revenue from the tax will be zero
D) producers will cease to produce the item and avoid the tax completely
53) If the supply of an item is perfectly inelastic, the incidence of an excise tax will be borne by: 53)
A) producers mostly and consumers partly B) consumers entirely
C) consumers and producers equally D) producers entirely
TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹTʹ if the statement is true and ʹFʹ if the statement is false.
54) The market system always gives socially desirable results. 54)
55) The market mechanism encourages people to economize on the economy’s scarce resources. 55)
56) The government often intervenes in the market system to alter the market -determined results and 56)
to produce effects that may be more politically and socially acceptable.
57) Consumer surplus is the extra satisfaction consumers get from consuming an additional unit of an 57)
item.
58) Consumer surplus is the difference between the amount that consumers would have paid for a 58)
commodity and the amount that they actually pay.
60) The amount that a consumer pays for a unit of an item is generally less than the amount that he or 60)
she is willing to pay. Thus a consumer can generally not derive any consumer surplus.
61) Total consumer surplus for an item is the sum of all the consumer surpluses of the individual 61)
consumers who have purchased the item.
63) While lower price tend to increase consumer surplus, technological advances that increase supply 63)
tend to have the opposite effect.
64) Each consumer’s surplus is independent of the price that he or she is willing to pay. 64)
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65) There is no equivalent concept to consumer surplus on the producer’s side. 65)
66) Producer surplus is the difference between the amount that producers receive from selling an item 66)
and the amount they would have accepted for the item.
67) Refer to Figure 6.4. Consumer surplus is the same as producer surplus because there is a common 67)
equilibrium price.
70) A price ceiling occurs when the price is so high that only a few consumers can afford to buy the 70)
item.
71) A price ceiling cannot be put into effect unless the market cannot determine an equilibrium price. 71)
72) A price ceiling is the upper limit at which a seller can legally sell a commodity. 72)
74) The government has attempted to assist consumers and producers by establishing price ceilings 74)
and price floors.
75) If the price ceiling is set above the market equilibrium price, it will have no effect. 75)
76) For rent control to be effective, it must be set below the equilibrium price. 76)
77) Price ceilings and price floors are most effective when set at the market equilibrium price. 77)
78) Rent control tends to increase the quantity of housing demanded and reduces the quantity 78)
supplied.
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79) Rent control will shift the demand curve for housing to the right and shift the supply of housing to 79)
the left.
80) Rent control causes a problem in the market system because price is not allowed to rise in response 80)
to the shortage created by the rent control.
81) A black market is a market in which most buyers and sellers are black. 81)
82) A black market is a market in which an item is sold above the price prescribed by law. 82)
83) Rent control tends to reduce consumer and producer surplus and to cause a loss of resources. 83)
84) In the case of rent control, all of the deadweight loss is borne by the tenants. 84)
85) Because of the loss of both consumer surplus and producer surplus resulting from rent control, no 85)
one benefits from rent control.
86) A price floor is the lowest price at which a seller is legally allowed to sell an item. 86)
88) If a minimum wage is set below the market equilibrium, it will have no effect. 88)
89) It is illegal for provinces to set minimum wage. Only the federal government can do that. 89)
90) The effectiveness of a minimum wage legislation can be maximized by setting the wage equal to 90)
the market equilibrium wage.
91) The only economic effect of minimum wage legislation is that it result in a surplus of workers on 91)
the labour market.
92) Minimum wage legislation is likely to result in a loss of employee surplus, a loss of employer 92)
surplus, a deadweight loss, and a loss of resources.
93) Black market transactions occur when a price ceiling is implemented, but not when a price floor is 93)
established.
94) A price floor is so destructive that no one can derive any consumer surplus from its establishment. 94)
95) A production quota, if set below the equilibrium quantity, raises the price above the free market 95)
equilibrium price.
96) A production quota reduces producer surplus and increases consumer surplus. 96)
97) The incidence of an excise tax is independent of the elasticity of demand or the elasticity of supply 97)
of the item on which the tax is levied.
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98) If the demand for an item is perfectly inelastic, the incidence of an excise tax will be borne entirely 98)
by producers.
99) If the supply of an item is perfectly elastic, the incidence of a tax falls entirely on the consumers. 99)
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Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED6
1) D
Skill: Applied
2) D
Skill: Applied
3) D
Skill: Applied
4) B
Skill: Recall
5) B
Skill: Recall
6) D
Skill: Applied
7) D
Skill: Applied
8) C
Skill: Applied
9) B
Skill: Applied
10) B
Skill: Applied
11) D
Skill: Applied
12) D
Skill: Applied
13) A
Skill: Applied
14) C
Skill: Recall
15) D
Skill: Applied
16) B
Skill: Applied
17) C
Skill: Recall
18) A
Skill: Applied
19) A
Skill: Applied
20) C
Skill: Applied
21) A
Skill: Applied
22) D
Skill: Applied
23) D
Skill: Applied
12
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED6
24) A
Skill: Applied
25) B
Skill: Applied
26) D
Skill: Applied
27) C
Skill: Applied
28) C
Skill: Applied
29) D
Skill: Applied
30) C
Skill: Recall
31) A
Skill: Applied
32) D
Skill: Applied
33) C
Skill: Applied
34) A
Skill: Applied
35) A
Skill: Applied
36) A
Skill: Recall
37) D
Skill: Recall
38) D
Skill: Applied
39) A
Skill: Applied
40) A
Skill: Applied
41) A
Skill: Applied
42) B
Skill: Recall
43) D
Skill: Applied
44) B
Skill: Applied
45) B
Skill: Applied
46) D
Skill: Applied
13
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED6
47) C
Skill: Applied
48) D
Skill: Applied
49) B
Skill: Applied
50) B
Skill: Applied
51) A
Skill: Applied
52) A
Skill: Applied
53) D
Skill: Applied
54) FALSE
Skill: Applied
55) TRUE
Skill: Applied
56) TRUE
Skill: Applied
57) FALSE
Skill: Recall
58) TRUE
Skill: Recall
59) FALSE
Skill: Recall
60) FALSE
Skill: Applied
61) TRUE
Skill: Applied
62) TRUE
Skill: Applied
63) FALSE
Skill: Applied
64) FALSE
Skill: Applied
65) FALSE
Skill: Recall
66) TRUE
Skill: Recall
67) FALSE
Skill: Applied
68) TRUE
Skill: Applied
69) FALSE
Skill: Applied
14
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED6
70) FALSE
Skill: Recall
71) FALSE
Skill: Applied
72) TRUE
Skill: Recall
73) TRUE
Skill: Applied
74) TRUE
Skill: Recall
75) TRUE
Skill: Applied
76) TRUE
Skill: Applied
77) FALSE
Skill: Applied
78) TRUE
Skill: Applied
79) FALSE
Skill: Applied
80) TRUE
Skill: Applied
81) FALSE
Skill: Recall
82) TRUE
Skill: Recall
83) TRUE
Skill: Applied
84) FALSE
Skill: Applied
85) FALSE
Skill: Applied
86) TRUE
Skill: Recall
87) TRUE
Skill: Applied
88) TRUE
Skill: Applied
89) FALSE
Skill: Recall
90) FALSE
Skill: Applied
91) FALSE
Skill: Applied
92) TRUE
Skill: Applied
15
Test Bank for Microeconomics, 1st Canadian Edition: James
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED6
93) FALSE
Skill: Applied
94) FALSE
Skill: Applied
95) TRUE
Skill: Applied
96) FALSE
Skill: Applied
97) FALSE
Skill: Applied
98) FALSE
Skill: Applied
99) TRUE
Skill: Applied
16