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Test Bank for Urinalysis and Body Fluids, 5th Edition: Strasinger

Test Bank for Urinalysis and Body Fluids, 5th


Edition: Strasinger

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

1. Proper care of reagent strips includes all of the following except:


A) checking the expiration date
B) storing in a clear container
C) preventing exposure to toxic fumes
D) storing with a desiccant

2. Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an:


A) abnormal result is obtained
B) different person performs the test
C) new bottle of strips is opened
D) student is training in the laboratory

3. The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the:


A) nitrite
B) bilirubin
C) protein
D) leukocyte esterase

4. Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused
by:
A) excess dilution
B) runover
C) reagent leaching
D) chemical concentration

5. Reagent strip chemical tests may be inaccurate if the specimen is:


A) mixed before delivery
B) tested immediately after refrigeration
C) tested immediately after it is voided
D) collected by catheter

6. When performing reagent strip quality control, the:


A) positive readings should match the reference value by plus or minus one color block
B) negative readings should match within one color block of the reference value
C) positive readings except protein and bilirubin should match the reference value
D) negative values except glucose and nitrite should be negative

7. The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is:


A) a double indicator reaction
B) the protein error of indicators
C) the diazo reaction
D) a Greiss reaction

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

8. All of the following will produce an alkaline urine except:


A) lettuce
B) cranberry juice
C) green beans
D) tomatoes

9. The normal range of urine pH is:


A) 4.5 to 6.0
B) 5.0 to 7.0
C) 4.5 to 8.0
D) 4.5 to 9.0

10. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be:
A) tested further for metabolic or respiratory alkalosis
B) changed to a high meat diet to lower the pH
C) placed on medication to lower the pH
D) asked to collect a new specimen

11. Urinary pH provides valuable information for the:


A) identification of urinary crystals
B) controlling of ADH production
C) monitoring of diabetes mellitus
D) evaluation of renal concentration

12. A urine with a high pH contains a:


A) high concentration of chloride ions
B) high concentration of hydrogen ions
C) low concentration of chloride ions
D) low concentration of hydrogen ions

13. Which of the following is not typical of a urine specimen from an uncontrolled diabetic?
A) Positive ketones
B) Positive glucose
C) Increased specific gravity
D) High pH

14. Which of the following is a cause of prerenal proteinuria?


A) Prostatitis
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Pre-eclampsia
D) Diabetes mellitus

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

15. The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to:
A) albumin
B) mucoprotein
C) Bence Jones protein
D) globulin

16. When performing an SSA test, false-positive results may be obtained in the presence of:
A) ketones
B) alkali
C) glucose
D) radiographic contrast media

17. When using the reagent strip protein method, false-positive results may occur in the presence
of:
A) large amounts of glucose
B) radiographic contrast media
C) Bence Jones protein
D) highly alkaline urine

18. To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:
A) Bence Jones protein
B) microalbuminuria
C) orthostatic protein
D) glucose and ketones

19. A possible cause of postrenal proteinuria is:


A) prostatitis
B) multiple myeloma
C) glomerulonephritis
D) posture

20. The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the:
A) acid precipitation of protein
B) salting out of proteins
C) pH affect on bromthymol blue
D) protein error of indicators

21. All of the following descriptions apply to orthostatic proteinuria except:


A) most commonly appears in young adults
B) usually occurs without apparent disease
C) urinary proteins are excreted only when the patient is lying down
D) is considered to be a functional, transitory proteinuria

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

22. All of the following can be used to detect the presence of microalbuminuria except the:
A) Multistix Pro
B) SSA test
C) Micral-Test
D) Clinitek 50

23. The SSA test should be performed on:


A) all negative reagent strip proteins
B) specimens with Bence Jones protein
C) urine that has not been refrigerated
D) urine that has been centrifuged

24. The type of proteinuria least likely to be detected by reagent strip is:
A) orthostatic
B) prerenal
C) renal
D) postrenal

25. Following a prehospital rotation physical, a medical technology student is requested to


collect a first morning urine specimen. The physician is checking for:
A) Bence Jones proteinuria
B) nocturnal proteinuria
C) orthostatic proteinuria
D) glomerulonephritis

26. The type of protein that precipitates at 60oF and dissolves at 100oF is a/an:
A) abnormal protein associated with UTI
B) abnormal protein associated with hemolysis
C) abnormal globulin associated with multiple myeloma
D) normal serum albumin–type protein

27. Which of the following best describes the chemical principle of the protein reagent strip?
A) Protein reacts with an immune complex on the pad, which results in a color change.
B) Protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad that results in a color change.
C) Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicator dye, which results in a color change.
D) Protein causes protons to be released from a polyelectrolyte, resulting in a color change.

28. The albumin:creatinine ratio may be elevated in patients whose urine contains:
A) leukocytes
B) glucose
C) blood
D) bilirubin

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

29. The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test(s) for:
A) blood
B) nitrite
C) creatinine
D) both A and C

30. The test on the Multistix Pro reagent strip that uses a dye-binding principle is:
A) protein-high
B) protein-low
C) urobilinogen
D) creatinine

31. A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm:


A) glomerulonephritis
B) a negative urine pregnancy test
C) urinary tract infection
D) Fanconi's syndrome

32. Microalbumin tests are frequently used to screen patients with:


A) Fanconi's syndrome
B) porphyrinuria
C) diabetes mellitus
D) diabetes insipidus

33. Which of the following makes a test for glucose in the urine specific?
A) Glucose oxidase
B) Iron ions
C) Copper ions
D) Buffers

34. The appearance of glucose in the urine of a patient with an elevated blood sugar indicates:
A) diabetes mellitus
B) renal tubular damage
C) diabetes insipidus
D) cylindroiduria

35. In the reagent strip reaction for glucose:


A) a double enzyme reaction occurs
B) reducing substances may inhibit the reaction
C) false-positive reactions occur in the presence of peroxide
D) all of the above

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

36. Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of:
A) glucose using Clinitest
B) galactose using Multistix
C) lactose using Multistix Pro
D) galactose using Clinitest

37. Reagent strip tests for glucose use:


A) double sequential enzyme reactions
B) copper reduction
C) peroxidase activity of glucose
D) buffered reactions of mixed enzyme indicators

38. A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose by a glucose oxidase reagent strip and a copper
reduction test. If both results are positive, which of the following interpretations is correct?
A) Galactose only is present
B) Glucose only is present
C) Lactose only is present
D) Ascorbic acid only is present

39. A laboratory error that can result in an infant developing severe mental retardation is failure
to perform a/an:
A) Acetest
B) SSA test
C) Ictotest
D) Clinitest

40. All of the following may interfere with glucose detection in a urine specimen except:
A) galactose
B) ascorbic acid
C) bleach
D) the sample remaining at room temperature for 4 hours

41. Glucosuria occurring in conjunction with cerebrovascular trauma may be caused by


epinephrine:
A) lowering the renal threshold
B) inhibiting insulin secretion
C) producing glycogenolysis
D) both B and C

42. Glucosuria not accompanied by hyperglycemia is seen in patients with:


A) renal disease
B) gestational diabetes
C) Cushing's syndrome
D) hyperthyroidism

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

43. Which of the following statements is (are) correct for glucose testing by reagent strip?
1. Glucose oxidase reacts with glucose in the urine.
2. Non-glucose–reducing substances fail to react.
3. Ascorbic acid may cause a false-negative reaction.
4. Hydrogen peroxide and peroxidase react to oxidize a chromogen.
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 2, and 4
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

44. Galactose will react with:


A) Multistix but not Clinitest
B) Multistix but not Chemstrip
C) Multistix and Chemstrip
D) Clinitest but not Chemstrip

45. While performing a Clinitest, you observe that the color changes rapidly from blue to orange
and then back to blue. You should:
A) report the test as negative because the final reaction color is blue
B) report the test as negative because the brief orange color probably was from detergent in the
tube
C) repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to check for “pass through”
D) repeat the test using more drops of urine to prevent “pass through”

46. A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of:
A) glucose and other reducing substances
B) glucose only
C) non-glucose–reducing substances only
D) contamination by a strong oxidizing agent

47. A negative reagent strip test for glucose with a positive Clinitest indicates the possibility of:
A) juvenile diabetes
B) glycosuria
C) galactosuria
D) peroxide contamination

48. The ketones that are produced in normal adult metabolism include all of the following
except:
A) acetone
B) phenylketones
C) acetoacetic acid
D) beta-hydroxybutyric acid

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

49. Which of the following will not cause ketonuria?


A) Inability to use carbohydrates
B) Inadequate intake of carbohydrates
C) Increased metabolism of carbohydrates
D) Excessive loss of carbohydrates

50. Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with:


A) acetone
B) acetoacetic acid
C) beta-hydroxybutyric acid
D) all of the above

51. Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by the presence in the urine of:
A) cholesterol
B) glucose
C) ketones
D) protein

52. The reagent strip test for ketones may detect the urinary presence of:
A) acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid
B) acetone and beta-hydroxybutyric acid
C) beta-hydroxybutyric acid and diacetic acid
D) acetoacetic acid and acetone

53. The primary purpose of the Acetest tablets is to:


A) detect beta-hydroxybutyric acid
B) confirm positive reagent strip ketones
C) test serum for increased ketones
D) confirm a positive Clinitest result

54. Sodium nitroprusside and an alkaline buffer are used to test for:
A) bilirubin
B) ketones
C) glucose
D) protein

55. A urine sample that tests positive for ketones and negative for glucose is most likely from a
patient suffering from:
A) diabetes insipidus
B) diabetes mellitus
C) polydipsia
D) starvation

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

56. Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on the:


A) peroxidase activity of hemoglobin
B) oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase
C) reaction of hemoglobin with bromthymol blue
D) reduction of a chromogen by hemoglobin

57. Myoglobinuria may be caused by:


A) strenuous exercise
B) incompatible blood transfusions
C) chronic renal disease
D) biliary obstruction

58. Ammonium sulfate is added to a red urine. The urine had a positive reaction for blood, but
there were no RBCs in the sediment. After centrifugation, the sedimented ammonium sulfate
is red. The abnormal color is caused by:
A) Pyridium
B) hemoglobin
C) porphyrins
D) myoglobin

59. The detection of hemosiderin in the urine is associated with:


A) myoglobinuria
B) hematuria
C) albuminuria
D) hemoglobinuria

60. A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates:
A) hematuria
B) hemoglobinuria
C) myoglobinuria
D) porphyrinuria

61. A reagent strip test for blood is reported positive. No red blood cells are seen on the
microscopic examination. The patient's condition is called:
A) hematuria
B) oliguria
C) hemoglobinuria
D) hemosiderinuria

62. The finding of a 2+ reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower
back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of:
A) pyelonephritis
B) appendicitis
C) renal calculi
D) multiple myeloma

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

63. The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin:
A) causes a color change when it binds to a buffered pH indicator
B) combines with a diazonium salt to form a colored complex
C) is oxidized to biliverdin
D) causes a pH change detected by the reagent pad indicator

64. When bilirubin is found in the urine, it can be assumed that:


A) it is attached to protein
B) it has passed through the small intestine
C) the patient is diabetic
D) it has been conjugated in the liver

65. Ascorbic acid interferes with the reactions for bilirubin and nitrite by:
A) reducing the oxidized chromogen
B) binding with the diazonium salt
C) neutralizing the buffer
D) oxidizing the aromatic amine

66. Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest?


A) Bilirubin is concentrated on the surface of an absorbent pad.
B) Interfering pigments can be washed into the pad.
C) It uses the same principle as the reagent strip.
D) It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.

67. The Ictotest is a more sensitive test for urinary bilirubin because:
A) the tablets contain a more sensitive diazonium salt
B) sulfosalicylic acid is included in the tablets
C) bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat
D) water is used to dissolve the tablet

68. With biliary duct obstruction, it is common for reagent strip tests to show:
A) Bilirubin: 0 Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU
B) Bilirubin: ++ Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU
C) Bilirubin: 0 Urobilinogen: 4 EU
D) Bilirubin: ++ Urobilinogen: 4 EU

69. Urobilinogen is formed from the:


A) conjugation of bilirubin in the liver
B) reduction of conjugated bilirubin in the bile
C) reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria
D) oxidation of urobilin by intestinal bacteria

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

70. A pink color in the Hoesch test indicates the presence of:
A) urobilinogen
B) myoglobin
C) porphobilinogen
D) nitrite

71. Specimens for urobilinogen testing are collected between 2 and 4 p.m. because:
A) they have a higher volume
B) an alkaline tide occurs following lunch
C) protein is less likely to be present
D) the urine will be more acidic

72. Reagent strip results associated with hemolytic disease would correspond with which of the
following?
A) Bilirubin = 0 Urobilinogen = 1 EU
B) Bilirubin = ++ Urobilinogen = 1 EU
C) Bilirubin = 0 Urobilinogen = 8 EU
D) Bilirubin = ++ Urobilinogen = 8 EU

73. A specimen that produces a cherry red color with Ehrlich's reagent is extracted with
chloroform and butanol. If the positive reaction is caused by urobilinogen, you would expect
it to be:
A) extracted into chloroform and butanol
B) extracted into chloroform but not butanol
C) extracted into butanol but not chloroform
D) not extracted into chloroform or butanol

74. A specimen that produces a cherry red color with Ehrlich's reagent is extracted into
chloroform, and both the aqueous and chloroform layers are red. You should:
A) repeat the test with chloroform from a new bottle
B) extract the aqueous layer into more chloroform
C) extract the specimen into butanol
D) report the presence of both urobilinogen and porphobilinogen

75. A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of:


A) 103 organisms/mL
B) 104 organisms/mL
C) 105 organisms/mL
D) 106 organisms/mL

76. The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the:


A) use of nitrite by bacteria present in the urine
B) reaction of nitrite with the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
C) reduction of nitrate in urine to nitrite by bacteria
D) reaction of bacterial nitrite with an aromatic amine to produce a pH change

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

77. Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant
bacteriuria?
A) Production of nitrogen from the presence of many bacteria
B) Performing the test on a first morning specimen
C) Increased dietary nitrate
D) Decreased ascorbic acid

78. Which of the following will be detected by the reagent strip nitrite reaction?
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B) Candida albicans
C) Streptococcus faecalis
D) Escherichia coli

79. All of the following will produce a positive LE reaction except:


A) monocytes
B) Trichomonas
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes

80. Major advantages of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test include all of the following
except:
A) it will detect the presence of lysed leukocytes
B) it can be used to screen specimens before bacterial culturing
C) it is a more standardized method for detecting leukocytes than the microscopic method
D) it will accurately quantitate the leukocytes present

81. Reagent strip reactions for WBCs are based on the detection of:
A) bacterial peroxidase activity
B) esterase activity
C) reduction of indoxyl blue
D) binding of a diazonium salt

82. The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are:
A) monocytes
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes

83. A false-negative LE reaction may be caused by:


A) the presence of eosinophils and basophils
B) increased bacteria
C) lysed leukocytes
D) failure to wait 2 minutes to read the reaction

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

84. The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity is:
A) ionization of the indicator bromthymol blue, producing a pH change
B) ionization of a polyelectrolyte, producing a pH change detected by bromthymol blue
C) reaction of dissociated polyelectrolyte with bromthymol blue to produce a pH change
D) change in the pK of bromthymol blue to produce a pH change

85. The method of choice for performing a specific gravity following administration of
radiographic dye is:
A) reagent strip
B) refractometer
C) urinometer
D) densitometer

86. A specific gravity of greater than 1.040 by refractometer is 1.025 when checked using a
reagent strip. The technologist should:
A) report the result as 1.025
B) dilute the specimen and retest by refractometer
C) request a new specimen
D) report the result as greater than 1.040

87. All of the following reagent strip tests utilize a diazonium salt except:
A) bilirubin
B) nitrite
C) specific gravity
D) leukocyte esterase

88. A specific gravity reading of 1.040 by refractometer and 1.015 by reagent strip is indicative
of:
A) reagent strip deterioration
B) radiographic dye
C) low urine pH
D) refrigerated urine

89. A dark blue color in the reagent strip pad for specific gravity indicates:
A) a low specific gravity
B) a contaminated specimen
C) increased protein is interfering
D) a high specific gravity

90. The reagent strip reaction most critically affected by failure to blot the strip is the:
A) pH
B) protein
C) blood
D) bilirubin

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

91. Which of the following is not affected by increased intake of ascorbic acid?
A) Blood
B) Bilirubin
C) Nitrite
D) Ketones

92. An injury may occur if incorrect technique is used when performing the:
A) SSA test
B) Clinitest
C) Acetest
D) Ictotest

93. The urinalysis result most closely associated with renal disease is a positive:
A) bilirubin
B) glucose
C) nitrite
D) protein

94. What action would you take with the following results:
Color: Yellow Protein: Trace Blood: Moderate
Clarity: Hazy Glucose: Negative Urobilinogen: 1.0 EU
Specific Gravity: 1.013 Ketones: Negative Nitrite: Negative
pH: 8.0 Bilirubin: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative
Microscopic
4-8 WBC/hpf
20-25 RBC/hpf

A) Call the floor because the urobilinogen is over the panic value
B) Notify the floor that the specimen is too old
C) Recheck the sediment
D) Report the result

95. What do the following results suggest?


Color: Yellow Protein: Trace Blood: Negative
Clarity: Hazy Glucose: Negative Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU
Specific Gravity: 1.019 Ketones: Negative Nitrite: Positive
pH: 8.0 Bilirubin: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Positive

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Unsatisfactory specimen
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Normal female specimen

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

96. Reagent strips provide quantitative urine chemistry results.


A) True
B) False

97. The Multistix and Chemstrip color charts are interchangeable.


A) True
B) False

98. A person with respiratory acidosis is expected to have a low urine pH.
A) True
B) False

99. Orthostatic proteinuria is a form of renal proteinuria.


A) True
B) False

100. Myoglobin is removed from the blood more rapidly than hemoglobin.
A) True
B) False

101. The nitrite test is not reliable unless specimens are collected using the midstream clean-
catch technique.
A) True
B) False

102. When performing a reagent strip specific gravity on an alkaline urine, 0.005 should be
subtracted from the reading.
A) True
B) False

103. Ascorbic acid will bind with diazonium salts.


A) True
B) False

Use the following to answer questions 104-107:

Determine whether each of the following patients is expected to produce this urine.
Urinalysis produces the following results:
Color: Dark yellow Protein: Negative Blood: Negative
Clarity: Clear Glucose: Negative Urobilinogen: Negative
Specific gravity: 1.028 Ketones: Large Nitrite: Negative
pH: 5.0 Bilirubin: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Negative

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

104. A 7-year-old girl with uncontrolled diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days.
A) Yes
B) No

105. An uncontrolled diabetic patient who is 2 hours postprandial.


A) Yes
B) No

106. A 42-year-old man taking diuretics and maintaining adequate fluid intake.
A) Yes
B) No

107. A 25-year-old woman on a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.


A) Yes
B) No

Use the following to answer questions 108-112:

The following urinalysis results are obtained from a female vegetarian who supplements her diet
with megavitamins:
Color: Dark yellow Protein: 1+ Blood: Trace
Clarity: Cloudy Glucose: Negative Urobilinogen: 4 EU
Specific gravity: 1.009 Ketones: Negative Nitrite: Negative
pH: 8.0 Bilirubin: Negative Leukocyte esterase: Trace
Microscopic
40–50 WBCs/hpf Many bacteria
10–12 RBCs/hpf

108. Why is there a discrepancy between the urine color and specific gravity?
A) An old specimen
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Increased beta carotene
D) Increased bacteria

109. What is the most probable cause of the discrepancies in the chemical and microscopic
results?
A) Dilute specimen
B) Increased ascorbic acid
C) Specimen color
D) Specimen clarity

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

110. What is the probable nonpathological cause of the elevated urobilinogen?


A) Constipation
B) Increased ascorbic acid
C) Leafy green vegetables
D) Strenuous exercise

111. The elevated pH may be caused by:


A) Bacterial metabolism
B) Vitamins
C) Vegetarian diet
D) Both A and C

112. What is the patient's probable diagnosis?


A) Renal calculi
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Allergic reaction
D) Urinary tract infection

Use the following to answer questions 113-118:

State the most probable cause for each of the following scenarios:

113. A student is having difficulty interpreting the reagent strip color reactions on a thick
orange specimen.
A) Vegetarian diet
B) Elevated urobilinogen
C) Phenazopyridium
D) Cloudy specimen

114. A laboratory that routinely screens all infants with the Clinitest is accused of missing a
case of galactosuria.
A) “Pass through” was not observed
B) Specimen was too old
C) High level of ketones
D) High level of glucose

115. Excessive fizzing is observed when using Clinitest tablets.


A) Decreased reducing substances
B) Contaminated water
C) Tablets deteriorated
D) A plastic tube being used

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

116. A vegetarian consistently has false-positive readings for blood on routine specimens.
A) Ketone interference
B) Dilute specimen
C) Increased leukocytes
D) Vegetable peroxidase

117. A test on a yellow-green specimen from a jaundiced patient is negative for bilirubin.
A) Bilirubin oxided to biliverdin
B) Glucose interference
C) Bilirubin reduced to urobilinogen
D) Presence of Lodine

118. A student reports a positive urobilinogen using Multistix and a negative urobilinogen
using Chemstrip on the same specimen.
A) Outdated reagent strips
B) Porphobilinogen present
C) Failure to mix specimen
D) Refrigerated specimen

Use the following to answer question 119:

The following questions relate to the substances formed in the degradation of heme:

119. Which of the following substances recirculates to the liver?


A) Urobilinogen
B) Unconjugated bilirubin
C) Urobilin
D) Stercobilinogen
E) Conjugated bilirubin

120. The substance converted to urobilin is:


A) urobilinogen
B) unconjugated bilirubin
C) urobilin
D) stercobilinogen
E) conjugated bilirubin

121. The substance bound to albumin is:


A) urobilinogen
B) unconjugated bilirubin
C) urobilin
D) stercobilinogen
E) conjugated bilirubin

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

122. The substance produced in the liver is:


A) urobilinogen
B) unconjugated bilirubin
C) urobilin
D) stercobilinogen
E) conjugated bilirubin

123. The substance producing the brown color ino feces is:
A) urobilinogen
B) unconjugated bilirubin
C) urobilin
D) stercobilinogen
E) conjugated bilirubin

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. A
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. D
30. D
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. D
36. D
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. D
42. A
43. D
44. D

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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

45. C
46. A
47. C
48. B
49. C
50. B
51. C
52. D
53. C
54. B
55. D
56. A
57. A
58. B
59. D
60. A
61. C
62. C
63. B
64. D
65. B
66. D
67. C
68. B
69. C
70. C
71. B
72. C
73. A
74. B
75. C
76. C
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. D
81. B
82. C
83. D
84. B
85. A
86. A
87. C
88. B
89. A
90. A

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Test Bank for Urinalysis and Body Fluids, 5th Edition: Strasinger

Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine

91. D
92. B
93. D
94. D
95. C
96. B
97. B
98. A
99. A
100. A
101. B
102. B
103. A
104. A
105. B
106. B
107. A
108. C
109. B
110. A
111. D
112. D
113. A
114. A
115. C
116. D
117. A
118. A
119. A
120. D
121. B
122. E
123. C

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