Reviewer 4 - 667 Questions

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?

 Concrete Cylinder Sample
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?
 Slump Test
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
 1.0m / 10,000 kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets
 3pcs – 60mm in 1 sht/100 sheets
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?
 Reflectorized Paint
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black
cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
 Asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
 24 hours
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?
 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?
 0 to 30 penetration grade
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test
 Concrete beam sample
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
 CBR, Abrasion , GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required fopr a 3, 200 cu.m selected borrow topping (item 104)?
 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used
as item 200 is finer than the required materials?
 Blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification of LL and PI of item 201?
 Maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
16. What is the CBR requirement for item 201?
 80% maximum
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
 Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
 Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
 Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200 & 201?
 Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
 Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit, (PI = LL-PL)
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
 Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Machine Analysis
3
23. What is the degree of compactions of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m with an actual
3
moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum a dry density of 1,960 kg/m ?
 101.85% (pls provide computation)
Wet Density 2,200
Dry Weight Density= ------------------------ = ----------------= 1,996.37
1 + MC/100 1+ 10.2/100
Dry Unit Wt 1,996.37
Degree of Compaction = ---------------------= --------------------- x 100 = 101.85 %
MDD 1,960
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometre concrete pavement?
 5 holes/km/lane
MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 1/29

25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven –
dried weight of 138.2 grams? Orig Wt of soil – Oven Dry Wt of soil (162.5 – 138.2)
 17.58% (computation) MC = ----------------------------------------------- = ---------------------- x 100 =17.58%
Oven Dry Wt of Soil 138.2
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
 the soil is clayey
27. As a material Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already
oven – dried?
 if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
 110 ± 5˚C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
 because it can affect its weight
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
 hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air-dried sample
 natural moisture content is the moisture content of the original sample from the
field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?
 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
 2 pcs – 1m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete for heavily reinforced concrete structure
using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixtures should it be?
 Super-plasticizer / Fluidizers
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
 as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
 Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?
 4 days @ 50˚C
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, __________ is for cement? Consistency.
 Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
38. Reflectorized paint is composed of ______.
 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tampering concrete sample?
 16mm Ø x 610mm long with hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?
 23˚C ± 1.7˚C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63˚F to 85˚F (17.2 –
29.4˚C) are permitted for a period not to exceed ______ hours immediately prior to test if free
moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times
 3 hours
42. The molds of specimen not be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours
and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4˚F ± 3˚F.(23⁰C±16⁰C)
 24 hours
43. High plasticity index means______ of a solid.
 high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
 No. 40 (0.425mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall be used if the spec given for Moisture – Density Relation Test
(MDR) is T – 1802.
 4.54 kg with 457mm drop (10 lbs – 18” drop)
46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many
blows/tamps per layer shall be applied? ((1 blows per 2in2)
 60 blows /layers
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the %
asphalt by weight of mix? Wt of Asphalt Mix – Wt of Aggregates 3,020 – 2,865.98
 5.10% (computation Asphalt % = --------------------------------------------------- =-------------------- x 100 = 5.1%
Wt of Asphalt Mix 3,020

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

 Cut-back asphalt or LA = AC + Solvent
49. In item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate
of approximately ______?
 0.004 to 0.007 m /m
3 2-
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in Prob. 47, what is the
acceptable range of asphalt content?
 4.7% to 5.5% 5.1 - .4 = 4.7%
5.1 + .4= 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction
for this kind of soil?
 95% degree of compaction (provide computation)
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete
Class “B”?
 8 bags/cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the______?
 Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
 Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum
compressive strength for concrete Class “C”
 3000 psi (A-3000psi, B-2,400psi, C-3000psi, P-5000psi, S-3000psi)
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m
as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to
____ per cent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data
for strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no
spillage of concrete takes place.
 10%
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is
deficient in thickness by more than 25mm?
 at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centreline in each direction from
the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
 Hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
 Materials test result/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to______?
 Consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _________?
 consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?
 at least one (1) but not to exceed three (3) samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a calliper is based on how many measurements?
 four(4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using calliper is based on how many measurements?
 nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
 may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1:2:4 concrete mix. In a one bigger mixer, which of the following
amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine______.
 overheating during the process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be
used in the project?
 four (4) pails (1pail /100pails)

3
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5,000 m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted
depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
3 3
(1 Sieve test /300m 1 CBR / 2500 m )
 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons if Bituminous Prime Coat is to
be used in the project?
 Two (2) samples (1 sample /40tons)
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
 Six (6) compaction tests (1test /1,500m3)
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
 Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
 1:2 (1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water)
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
 1:2 (1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water)
75. Before the project starts, the Materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how
many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing
requirements. What program or report is this?
 Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way
of reducing sample for testing size?
 apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the
minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the
pavement shall not be operated to traffic until ______days after the concrete was placed.
 Fourteen (14)
78. As work progresses, the Material Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted
and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to
what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the
construction materials being used in the project.
 Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or
crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2mm).
 Plastic Limit
80. The ___________ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.
 Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and
tamping rod. After the test, the highest concrete measured is 178 mm. What is the slump of the
concrete?
 127mm (height of slump cone = 305mm)-(height of fresh conc after subsidence = 178)
82. What is the rate of revolution per time of an abrasion machine used for testing the mass percent
of water?
 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: current = 40 kgs, fine
aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual
batch weight for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of the aggregations; 1035 kgs of coarse
aggregates; 130 liters of water (provide computation)
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of water computed is equal
to 21%. If this material is for item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
 yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every_______?
 week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be
tested:
 before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose
measurement?
 200mm loose measurement

88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity
represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date
sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of the tag for you as Materials
Engineer?
 Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40cm
thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
 Three (3) (150mm/layer)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality
test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a
week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
 One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many ______days
before testing?
 Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be
used in field density test?
 Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your schedule field density test, are you going to
pursue your schedule? Why?
 No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be
done by what test?
 Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
 Liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
 Glass Plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
 not exceed to 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment ________ is provided as an erosion control measures and
also to improve the stability of the slope.
 Berm
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil
sample was taken for taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken,
except
 Specific gravity, abrasion, water content, atterberg limits, gradation, compaction,
relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least
_____ above the top of the conduit.
 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5m, 2.0m
102. Class for stones for riprap ringing from 30kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
 Class B 30-70(50% ˃ 50kgs)
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15kgs to a maximum of 25kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 20kgs.
 Class A 15-25(50% ˃ 20kgs)
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 80kgs.
 Class C 60-100(50% ˃ 80kgs)
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of
the stones weighing more than 150kgs.
 Class D 100-200(50% ˃150kgs)
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
 150 mm

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.

 I inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for item 300.
 35%
109. Required plasticity index range in item 300.
 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size.
 2.0mm to 0.075 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
 Void ratio = Vv/Vs
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids
 Moisture Content =Ww/Ws
113. Significance of grading test are, except
 gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the
potential cohesion of soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
 indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
 workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub-grade, the following will determine the economical thickness,
except
 embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
 Liquidity Index L.I.=W-PL/LL-PL
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
 shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centring under girders, beams, frames,
and arches
 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical
surfaces.
 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. A mass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as
a unit to support the imposed load.
 Pile Cap
125. An Embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
 150mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
 Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important
parts of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts,
reinforced abutments, retaining walls and reinforced footings.
 Class A 20.7MPa(3,000psi)37.5mm(1½” Aggregates)
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls,
unreinforced or with only a small amount of reinforcement.
 Class B 16.5 MPa(2,400psi)50 mm(2” Aggregates)
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in
steel grid floors.
 Class C 20.7MPa(3,000psi)12.5mm(½” Aggregates)
130. Class of concrete used in pre-stressed concrete structural members
 Class P 37.7 MPa(5,000psi)19 mm(¾” Aggregates)

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit

 1.50m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings
 item 612
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for item 300
 + 15mm and – 5mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of_______
 3% to 5%
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be __________
 plain bars
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of
______ when tested in 14 days.
 3.80 MPa (550 psi)
137. When the required thickness of item 200 is more than 150mm, the aggregate sub-base shall and
compacted in ______
 two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _______
 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for item 201.
 ± 10mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard.
 No. 40
141. If slag is used as coarse aggregate for item 311, the minimum density is _______
 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP
which 10% to less than 15%.
 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30
minutes in the concreting operation.
 Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with
the surface item 310.
 6 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the
surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?

0.5 L/m2 to 1.01 L/m2
146. In item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test.
 four (4) (1CBR/2,500 cu.m.)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following except
 workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff, except
 Measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil,
fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg Limit.
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing the No. 200 sieve are the ff. except
 A-1,A-2,A-3,A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
 Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate of 200 l.m, half width per paving day,
how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required.
Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50m, thickness = 230mm
 353 sets = (115,000 x .23)/75=352.67 say 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
 800 kg/cu.m or lower

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with

 AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
 AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
 95% of MDD
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
 10m wide by 50m long (500 sq.m)
2
160. At least how many in-situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m of each layer of
compacted fill?
 three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for item 200
 12%
162. Maximum liquid limit for item 200
 35%
163. Maximum size of grading requirement for item 200 and 201
 2”or 50 mm
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with
 AASHTO T 96
165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
 50%
166. The minimum CBR required for item 200
 25%
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by:
 AASHTO T 193
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
 100%
169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in
accordance with
 AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non-available, the use
______allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B.
 1½ inch
172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for item 202.
 45%
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of item 202
 50%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for item 202.
 80%
175. Maximum size of aggregate for item 202 under grading A
 ½ inch
176. Maximum size of aggregate for item 201 under grading A.
 2”
177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B.
 1 inch
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate lime, water in
proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
 Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (item 203)
179. The required plasticity index for item 203
 4% to 10%
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on item 203.
 50%
181. Maximum size of aggregate for item 203 under grading A and B
 2”
182. Item number for water?
 Item 714

183. In item 203, how much is he required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
 3% to 12%
184. Minimum soaked CBR for item 203
 100%
185. Required percent compaction for item 203
 100%
186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
 Pneumatic tire rolling
187. Equipment to be used for final rolling

 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small
test flame
 flash point
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface
profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index
 Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with
unbound and granular properties.
 Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
 MC – 3000
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of
the regular piles?
 Test pitting / Test Pile
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete
pavement to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and
to determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
 Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebar’s, conduits, pipes, nails, and other metals
embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling
 Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt
pavements as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix had
been initially compacted?
 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly
used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of
moisture content?
 Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflection resulting from vehicle wheel loadings.
The results of the elastic deformation test are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads,
and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement
 Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and
concrete? This instrument is a non-destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110mm x
180mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in –
situ or pre - cast), also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
 Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
199. Soil stabilizing agent
 Lime – for silty and clayey soil
 Cement – for sandy soil
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
 Liquid Limit
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi-solid to plastic state
 Plastic Limit
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid
 Shrinkage Limit

203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together.
 tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete
in the area represented by these high spots______
 shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but
exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only)
205. The calibration of the Universal Testing Machine is conducted______
 once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?
 1 sample per 130 tonnes
207. What is the depth of the armored thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
 6”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability for
heavy traffic is______.
 1800lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a
specimen will develop at ______
 60˚
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each and for a heavy traffic
design under the Marshall Stability Method? Light Medium Heavy
 75 blows 35 blows 50 blows 75 blows
750 blows 1200 blows 1800 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
 85 -100
212. In case of scarcity or non-availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be
used?
 Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of item 311 when tested by the midpoint
method.
 4.50 MPa (650 psi)
214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are______
 Steel forms of an approved section
215. Sawing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _______
 within 24 hours
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement
 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is ___________
 1½ inches (40mm)
218. Deficiency is strength of concrete specimen wherein to payment of contract price allowed is
 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot pavement when two single traffic lanes is poured?
 500 ln.m
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
 150mm x 150mm x 525mm
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq.m
of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day? ( 330m x 0.23m = 75 m3)
 1 set
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
 80% of designed 28-day compressive strength
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
 6d (20mm – 25mm Ø =8d), (28mm Ø and above = 10d)
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.
 4 to 6 rpm
226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?
 10 to 20cm
227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the
construction of a bituminous surface course.

 Prime Coat
228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?
 Item 304
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for item 310?
 ± 0.4 %
230. This term consists of an application for bituminous material with or without the application of
aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
 Seal Coat
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for item 310.
 ± 10˚C
232. What is the size of the sample in item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
 150mm x 150mm or 100mm Ø full depth
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
 107˚C
234. The required speed in rolling in item 310.
 5kph
235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.
 Faulting
236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a character of at least_____
 100mm
237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _______
 ± 1.0 mass %
238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
 800mm (Class A – 300mm; Class B – 500mm; Class C – 600mm)
239. This Item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete
surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
 Tack Coat
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?

0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut- back asphalt?

1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge
between any two contacts with the surface?
 6mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?
 1.40 MPa (200 psi)
244. What is required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
 70% minimum
245. Job- mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
 ± 7%
246. Job-mix tolerance in 310 for grading, passing No. 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
 ± 4%
247. Job- mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
 ± 2%
248. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
 92 – 95 %
249. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
 Immersion – Compression Test
250. In temperature countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt
cement?
 60 – 70 and 85 – 100(ideal penetration grade)
251. To determine the thickness, _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed.
 Stability
252. Percent air voids will ____ as per cent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
 decrease
253. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
 armored thermometer
254. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
 highly organic soils

255. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in subbase or base course construction?
 to check the stability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the
construction method
256. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
 excessive asphalt content
257. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
 low liquid limit and low plastic limit
258. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to ___.
 determine the trend of its strength development
259. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three-edge bearing test machine?
 0.3 mm crack
260. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a
constant rate within the range of _____.
 20 – 50 psi/sec. (compression); 125 – 175 psi/sec. (flexural)
261. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to
its quality should:
 be rested prior to use
262. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
 Stabilization
263. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What
will be this test?
 Referee test
264. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH
specs to use-core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength?
 Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
265. Tack coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
 Tacky
266. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _______.
 induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel
267. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less its considered________.
 weak subgrade
268. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered __________.
 very stable
269. Subgrade other than those defined in two above categories is considered _________
 normal
270. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
 granular soil,
 fine grained soil,
 organic soil
271. What is the significance of field density test?
 to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in
embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction
272. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result, true or false?
 true
273. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?
 air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
274. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be
used?
 oven – dry the sample @ 60˚C
275. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
 Method A & B – use sample passing No.4
 Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
276. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
 T – 99 uses 2.5 kg (5.5 lbs) rammer with 12” drop
 T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10 lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.
277. What is the particle size analysis?
 It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer
or a combination analysis

278. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
 distilled water
279. Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a
height of __________?
 10 mm
280. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit are rotated?
 2 rps
281. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
 3.2 mm (1/8”)
282. What is specific gravity?
 It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the
ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)
283. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
 335 sq.m
284. What item of work is embankment?
 item 104
285. What kind of material for item 200?
 Aggregate sub – base course
286. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under item 104?
 all particle size will pass 75mm or 3” openings and not more than 15% will pass
0.075mm (AASHTO T 11)
287. What is the minimum degree of compaction for item 200 and 201?
 100%
288. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or
compaction test?
 Maximum Dry Density (MDD) and Optimum Moisture Content (OMC)
289. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
 Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No.
200 sieve
290. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
 ½ inch (12.7mm)
291. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
 sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand,
weighing scale, oven with temperature control chisel or digging tool, plastic
bags and labelling materials (tag name)
292. How many hours do a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in
water?
 15 – 19 hours
293. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
 It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape
of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry
condition
294. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?
 Fine aggregates = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight
 coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption dry unit weight and
abrasion
Note: soundness test is also performed as per request
295. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
 Approximately 46.8mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams
296. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate grading A with
12 as number of spheres?
 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
297. What is the significance of abrasion test?
 It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of
quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines
whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling.
298. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
 No. 12 (1,70 mm)

299. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tasted for flexural test?
 14 days
300. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
 R=PL/bd
2
301. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
3 PL
 R = ----------
2bd2
302. What is the size of tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
 16 mm Ø x 610 mm long with tamping end rounded hemispherical tip of th same
Ø of the rod.
303. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
 6 pcs / 10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)
304. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
 Individual = 5.5 MPa (800psi) min
 Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000psi) min
305. What is the strength requirement for non-load bearing concrete masonry units?
 Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) min
 Average (for 2 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600psi) min
306. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
 To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation
and is used to classify the bars into grades
307. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
 To evaluate the ductile properties of reinforcing steel bars
308. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
 1 can (gal or pail) / 100cans (gals or pail)
309. SS-1 or SS-1h is what kind of asphalt?
 Slow setting emulsified asphalt
310. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undistributed?
 24 hours
311. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
 Cut-back asphalt
312. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many piece of RCCP?
 25 pcs or 1pc of RCCP/50 pcs RCCP
313. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement?
 Thickness and density of pavement
314. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are
recorded in a _______.
 Materials Log Book
315. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an – situ test that measures what?
 Depth of soil layer
316. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called_______.
 Segregation
317. A one-lane road with a pavement width of 3.5m and shoulder width of 0.5m on each side of the
pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of
300mm. If the thickness of subbase is 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and
subbase courses shall be carried out in ________?
 Three (3) layer over the full width of 4.5m
318. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a ______ rate of loading shall be
permitted?
 Higher
319. Quality of factory- produced of RCCP may be best established through what?
 Test of concrete pipe samples
320. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were
the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would
recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of subbase course?
 Geotextiles

321. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in 6”x6”x21” beam molded be
rodded?
 63 blows/layer (1 blow/2 in2)
322. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive
________ or_________.
 Pulverizing of the aggregates or displacement of the mixtures
323. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than _________.
 29⁰C
324. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300pcs RCCP?
 12 sets (1 set/25 pcs of RCCP)
325. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to
test?
 6 pcs RCCP (1pc RCCP/50 pcs RCCP)
326. If there is necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided
concrete does not exceed specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does
adding water permitted?
 Not exceeding 45 minutes and that water-cement ration is not exceeded
327. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
 Tar – is a viscous liquid obtained from distillation of coal or wood.
 Petroleum Asphalt – are the products of distillation of crude oil.
328. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
 Asphalt Cement
 Cut-back Asphalt
 Emulsified Asphalt
329. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
 Gasoline – for rapid –curing type
 Kerosene - for medium curing type
 Diesel – for slow curing type
330. Emulsified asphalts are either ______ or______.
 Cationic Emulsion – works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather, It is
positively charge electron
 Anionic Emulsion – adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge, It is a
negatively charge electon
331. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
 Asphalt Cement
332. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
 Grade and Quantity of asphalt
333. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
 Climatic condition
334. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job- mix
formula?
 Three (3) weeks
335. Who will approve the job-mix formula?
 DPWH PE or ME
336. The job-mix formula contains provisions of the following:
 Grading of aggregates
 Percentage and type of asphalt
 Temperature of aggregates and asphalt
 Temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction
337. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
 66⁰C to 107⁰C ---------(emulsified asphalt –10 to 71⁰C)
338. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
 When the mixtures is still hot and workable
339. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required
density?
 Trial section

340. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the
strength of the resulting pavement?
 Temperature
341. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
 It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the
centreline, each trip overlapping one half roller’s width
342. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
 Degree of compaction
343. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____.
 95% of the laboratory compacted density.
344. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?
 When the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
345. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
 By the use of core drill or saw
346. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?
 40 mm – 75 mm
347. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?
 10 mm – 40 mm
348. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
 50 seconds – 90 seconds
349. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the
concrete is deposited in- place at the site?
 It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non-agitating trucks and 90 minutes if
hauled in truck mixers or agitators
350. How is concrete consolidated?
 By the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically
351. If the lames are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
 Longitudinal construction joint
352. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
 Deformed steel tie bars
353. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
 Not less than 50 mm
354. The width of the weaken plane joint is_____.
 Not less than 6 mm
355. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
 Sawing shall be omitted
356. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with ______.
 Asphalt or other materials
357. What is the material that is used as load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface
and center line of the slab of pavement?
 Dowel
358. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with___.
 Thin film of bitumen
359. The surface of pavement shall be roughened by means of_______.
 Brooming
360. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
 1.5 mm
361. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of_____.
 72 hours
362. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:
 By covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
 By thoroughly wetting the pavement
 By ponding
 By applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface
363. When is the right time to seal the joints?
 After the curing period or before it is opened to traffic
364. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
 The placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand

365. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the______ ?

 Materials Engineer of the DPWH
366. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory are ______.
 Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by
a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME
367. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in
the project based on the test results?
 Materials Engineer of the DPWH
368. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.
 Asphaltene
369. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
 Sieve # 200
370. Cold mix asphalt is used in _______.
 Pothole patching
371. VMA means
 Voids in Mineral Aggregates
372. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen
 124⁰C = (134±10⁰C)
373. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
 163⁰C
374. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
 121⁰C - 138⁰C
375. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from …?
 177⁰C - 191⁰C
376. The maximum absorption content of CHB
 240 kg/m
2
377. The maximum moisture content of CHB

 45%
378. SPT means
 Standard Penetration Test
379. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample
 Shelby tube (18” long)
380. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
 Wax
381. A tube sampler is used in sampling disturbed sample
 Split spoon sampler
382. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to
estimate shear strength and bearing capacity.
 Standard Penetration Test
383. A type of coring bit used in rock coring.
 Diamond bit
384. CQCA means
 Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)
385. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
 1.01 – 1.04
386. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?
 Cationic
387. How many groups of there in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of
embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
 Fifteen (15)
388. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is
 6% maximum under nominal stress
389. The maximum allowable % phosphorus content of a deformed and plain ballet steel bar is
 0.06%

390. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?

Tensile Strength Yield Point
 Grade 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
 Grade 60 621 MPa 414 MPa
 Grade 75 6689 MPa 517MPa
391. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
 Clay content
392. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
 Air-dried condition
393. The method in the determination of density of soil in-place
 Sand cone method
394. Air-dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
 Sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
395. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
 Subbase materials
 Surfacing materials
 Base course materials
396. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast- iron spheres or steel spheres.
 Grading A – 12 spheres - 500±25 gms
 Grading B – 11 spheres - 4584±25 gms
 Grading C – 8 spheres - 5330±20 gms
 Grading D – 6 spheres - 2500±15 gms
397. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolution after all ingredients including water is in the
drum is
 100 rpm
398. A maximum time of _______ shall be permitted for wet mixing lay down and finishing when this
method is used (Item 206.)
 2 hours
399. The traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of ______ until the asphaltic
material has set.
 40 kph
400. Mortar shall be used within in ___ after its preparation.
 90 minutes
401. In placing concrete for slabs, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
 Concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete
402. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you
recommend?
 Conduct recoring
403. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load
suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
 excessive asphalt
404. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
 Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
th
405. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25 blow is projected in order to determine the liquid
limit of the soil.
 Flow curve
406. Percentage of wear represents the value of ____.
 Abrasion loss
407. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a
slump of 76.2 mm?
 24.7 liters
408. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about_____.
 2.75
409. The standard packaging weight of cement
 40 kg/bag
410. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents
rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
 Curing compound

411. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid
drying, resistant to abrasion and weather and conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
 Reflectorized paint
412. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
 Glass beads
413. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.
 Latex
414. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
 Triple spot test
415. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
 Single spot test
416. The type of paint used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the
vehicle.
 Enamel
417. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good
drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be
assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
 Good subgrade materials
418. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course
of material to be compacted.
 Control strip
419. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its final position.
 Tremie with 250 mm Ø
420. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.
 2.15
421. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.
 102.5⁰C
422. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.
 10 minutes
423. The rate of application of traffic paint.
 0.33 lit/m2
424. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.
 15 – 30 minutes
425. The minimum weight of sample of reflectorized paint.
 10 kgs
426. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
 Vernier caliper
427. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt
pavement.
 Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface
dry specimen
428. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
 Gasoline
429. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
 Mass of dry aggregates
430. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
 Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
431. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
 Penetrometer
432. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
 Distillation
433. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
 Softening point
434. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula.
Wet Stability
 IRS = ------------------- x 100%
Dry Stability
435. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
 200⁰F to 225⁰F (93⁰C to 107⁰C)

436. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?

 Yellowish brown
437. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the bluebook?
 Seven (7)
438. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the bluebook?
 Two (2)
439. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
 Approximately quarter points (4)
440. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
 Bleeding
441. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
 Not greater than 4
442. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.
 Raveling
443. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or
chicken wire.
 Alligator cracking
444. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number
of test of each item of work.
 Minimum Test Requirements
445. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the
weighed loss shall not exceed.
 12%
446. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighed
loss shall not exceed.
 10%
447. Additives used in concrete mixing.
 Admixtures
448. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solution
sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
 Soundness test
449. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on
 Absolute Design Method
450. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
 45 minutes
451. The final setting time of Portland cement
 10 hours
452. The standard san used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
 Ottawa sand
453. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability.
 Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
454. A mixture of cement and water is
 Cement paste
455. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory
 Gillmore Needle
456. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
 19.3 MPa (2800psi)
457. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
 crumbled
458. The critical number of days or curing of concrete
 First seven (7) days
459. It is the equally as important as testing and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain
samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
 Sampling
460. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles
into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
 Disturbed samples

461. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural
properties.
 Thin-walled tube sampling
462. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
 Government
463. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that
provides clean hole before insertion of thin- walled tubes that is both the natural density and
moisture content are preserved as much as practicable.
 Undisturbed samples
464. The type additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
 Retarder
465. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.
 Accelerator
466. The best enemy of construction.
 Water
467. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
 Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass,
roots and sewage
 Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
 Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/ or PL exceeding 55%
 Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
 Soils with very low natural density, 800 kg/m2
 soils that can not br properly compacted as determined by the engineer
468. What is the spec’s of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?
 0-12% , (2-14% for Grading B)
469. The rate application of special curing agent
 4 liters per 14 m2, (if curing seal- = .5L-1L/m2)
470. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
 Sounding
471. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?
 Liquid Limit Test
472. The minimum penetration of preservatives into the surface of timber is
 20 mm
473. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber.
 10 days
474. All grout shall pass through a screen with a __ maximum clear opening.
 2 mm
475. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid using gravity hammer.
 2.5m-3.5m (Concrete piles)
 4.5 m ( Timber Piles)
476. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape, and graduation.
 Compaction
477. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials.
 Liquid Limit of fines
478. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the
modulus of the cracked and selected pavement section.
 3” to 5”
479. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ___ or different
deflection is ______.
 greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
480. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by ____ and increase the 24- hour strength by __
 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
481. Loose materials is removed from all joints , cracks and areas that have previously patched by
asphalt by ___ with nominal ___ air pressure.
 Power sweeping, and air blowing, 100psi
482. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete
during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.
 Air entertaining admixtures

483. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task make- up for
the past or future loss of time.
 Delivery control
484. Bowl- shaped holes various sizes in the pavement surface.
 Potholes
485. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.
 Corrugation
486. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.
 Shoving
487. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
 Rutting
488. It is the chief load- bearing gravel road?
 Base or subbase course
489. The maximum distance of the discharged point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means.
 3 meters
490. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.
 Base course
491. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.
 40 times bar Ø
492. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements
conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.
 Structural concrete
493. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.
 0.6984 MPa (100psi)
494. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the structure
 Transom
495. Coring sampling shall be done at ________ interval by busing split spoon sampler and the depth
needed is ______.
 0ne (1) meter, 30 meter
496. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?(1kg)
 50 mm Ø
497. The uniform sampling run in core drilling
 1.5 m length
498. The initial diameter of bore hole.
 76 mm
499. What is the core bit diameter?
 67 mm
500. The required spacing of bore holes along center line of roads for 300VPD traffic.
 250 meters (1.5 m below subgrade)
501. The required spacing of bore holes along center line of roads for less than VPD traffic.
 500 m(along center line)
502. The required spacing of bore holes along center line for new road on swampy or marshy ground.
 100m (2m along center line of new road)
503. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge projects.
 1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
 1 boring for each pier for multi-span (3m into the bed rocks)
504. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along center line
 Depth = ½ times base width
505. For ports and harbors projects.
 30m to 150m; 1m below dredge bottom(12m min for pier & wharves)
506. For buildings ( large area- greater than 930 m2)
 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m below
lowest foundation)
507. For building less than 930 m 2
 Two (2) boring at opposite corners
508. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm.
 Flush Surface Reflector

509. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.

 Shrinkage cracking
510. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?
 Consistency
511. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.
 ±4mm
512. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation.
 Cordoning
513. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.
 Drenching
514. Moisture content of roughed lumber should not exceed ________.
 22%
515. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed ________.
 14%
516. Design pressure of glass on glazed position.
 244 kg/m
2
517. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.

 1,033.50 KPa
518. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
 831.48 kg/m
519. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of splice below ground line of seabed.
 2.5 meters
520. Consist of excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.
 Dredging
521. The slope of batter piles.
 1:6
522. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ______.
 0.12%
523. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design.
 20%
524. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on the
ground.
 Minor excavation
525. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.
 Footing
526. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
 Boring Test
527. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground.
 700mm
528. The minimum depth footing on a well compacted fill.
 1000mm
529. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column.
 Spread Footing
530. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of ______ of the manufactured state.
 ± 3%
531. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
 Compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction spec’s and needs additional
compaction
532. Liquid limit is usually
 Greater than Plastic Limit
533. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
 100% modified proctor
534. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the
one tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do?
 Conduct immediate re-testing for verification

535. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
 Sampling of materials
 Analysis of test results of materials
 Scheduling of delivery of materials
 Design of concrete mix
536. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be
 Volume
537. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the following statement is true?
 Granular, well graded soils generally have fairly high maximum density at low
optimum moisture content.
 Clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
 Granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
538. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than
the optimum moisture content?
 Dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
539. The DPWH specs provide ___ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness.
 ±5mm
540. Geosynthetics may be used for
 Filtration or drainage reinforcement, erosion control
541. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?
 Beam balance
 Oven
 Moisture can
 extruder
542. Steel bars are considered undersize if
 Its nominal diameter as determined by calliper doesn’t meet the manufactured
size.
543. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements fails except
grading. What will you recommend?
 Reprocess the materials by blending
544. Concrete curing refers to
 Procedure done to maximize concrete strength
545. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
 Organic
546. What is the testing soil that involves as the application of energy and addition of water as
lubricant?
 Moisture-Density relation test
547. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
 No. 10
548. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
 0.002124 m2
549. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass
2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve.
 Sand
550. What is ASTM?
 American Society for Testing & Materials
551. What is AASHTO?
 American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials
552. DPWH thru Bureau of Research &Standards has prepared a revised laboratory testing procedure
manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed under___.
 ASTM & AASHTO
553. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipment’s or
apparatus in pre- bidding qualifications?
 Large
554. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
 ½ of the thickness
555. What kind of material that passes 0.001mm sieve?
 Colloids

556. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should be at least _____ above the specimen.
 25mm
557. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel, or sand and containing
silt- clay materials.
 Soil Aggregates
558. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi- rounded with an average dimension between 75mm-
305mm.
 Boulders
559. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and
grow straight.
 Pruning
560. The road near or abutting a bridge.
 Approach
561. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
 Before the construction work
562. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
 Sand and Gravel
563. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of
 20 meters
564. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade material for road
construction is classified as
 Soil Reinforcement Method
565. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump
 Remove and replace the pavement area with irregurality
566. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
 Depositing and spreading materials in layer of not more than 225mm depth,
loose materials and extending to the full width of the empbankment
567. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement
especially during the first seven days?
 Plastic Shrinkage Cracks
568. What is commonly used as curing media or fresh concrete?
 Liquid membrane forming
569. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
 Cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date
570. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
 When the 1st & 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the specified
strength
571. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having
void rather and usually not high water content.
 Weak Subgrade
572. What is Twelve-Inch Layer Method Embankment?
 The materials shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300mm in
depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending to the full
width of the embankment
573. What is Rock Embankment Method?
 The material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by
means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2m in depth. It shall
not be place within 600mm of the other grade
574. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
 The material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as
to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly compacted.
575. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
 Strength of Subgrade (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered)
576. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
 Were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work
consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed. The
surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment has reached stability or
the required settlement.

577. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?

 This involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate
consolidation.
578. Mixture of fine- grained aggregates bituminous binder and water for surface sealing.
 Slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
579. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
(orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12)
 Percentage of wear, % = --------------------------------------------------- x 100
Original wt.
580. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass- like reflecting surface
that usually becomes quite sticky.
 Bleeding
581. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs
during hot weather.
 Buckling
582. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement.
 Crushing
583. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the free haul distance.
 Overhaul
584. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
 1 tonne lime : 2 cu. m. of water
585. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil
586. Who is the father of soil Mechanics?
 Dr. Karl Terzhagi
587. What is quality?
 It’s the degree of excellence
588. What is control?
 Is to regulate
589. What is quality control?
 It is conformance to requirements
590. What is assurance?
 It’s the degree of certainty
591. What are the two kinds of control activities?
 Inspection and Testing
592. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
 4 – 5 feet
593. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading
on gravel, sand, silt, and clay?
 Mechanic Stabilization
594. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and
hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of
moisture from the soil.
 Calcium Chloride or Rock Salt
595. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
 Clay soil becomes unstable if the moisture content increases, granular material
becomes unstable if it has dried
596. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction inside from asphalt cement?
 It was introduced in order to save heating cost and for convenience in road-
mixing or priming.
597. The theory of concrete design mix is to
 Optimize aggregates packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar.
598. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
 Cement type, cement content and water content
599. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement? (OPC)
 Type I
600. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
 Type II

601. What type of cement is Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?

 Type III
602. What type of cement is Low Heat Portland Cement?
 Type IV
603. What type of cement is High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
 Type V
604. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
 Type 1S
605. What type of cement id the Portland Pozzolan Cement?
 Type 1P
606. Type I is for general use such as
 Concrete pavements & sidewalks, building & bridges and tanks & water pipes
607. Type III cement is used for
 Early stripping of forms & high early strength
608. Type IV is used for
 Massive structures such as dams
609. Type V cement is used for
 When sulphate content of ground water is very high
610. The inventor of Portland cement was
 Joseph Aspdin
611. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing
 Calcium, alumina, iron and silica
612. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
 2 parts of crushed limestone,
 1 part clay/pulverized shale,
 1 pinch of iron ore, added to clinker
 1 pinch of gypsum
613. Pozzolan cement is composed of raw material called
 Volcanic earth
614. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of
 C3S and C2S
615. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by
 C3A and C4AF
616. When water is added to Portland cement, process is developed
 Hydration
617. Calcium Silicate Gel (C-S-H) and lime [Ca (OH) 2] are developed when____ is added to Portland
cement.
 Water
618. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
 The setting time is larger
619. Surplus lime [Ca (OH) 2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes cares of the concrete’s
 alkalinity
620. Coarse aggregates can be taken from
 Crushed rock, slags and river gravel
621. The water required for concrete mix should be
 Fresh water
622. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless an admixture is added because it contains
 Chloride
623. The entrapped air in concrete is;
 Accidental and unwanted
624. The entrained air in the concrete is
 Deliberate and desirable
625. We use aggregate in concrete as
 Filler materials in concrete
626. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence
 The properties of concrete,
 its mix proportion and
 its economy

627. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?

 Calcium
 Chloride
 Coal
 Sulphate
628. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making it so will
only result to sacrifice in
 Strength
629. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength
of the core is equal to or at least ________ of the specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less
than ______.
 85% of fc’, 75% of fc’
630. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities.
 Colormatic test
631. Portland cement may be / shall be rejected if:
 It has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a
discarded or used bag
632. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness or aggregates.
 Fineness Modulus
633. Excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates.
 Free water
634. What do you mean by SSD?
 Saturated Surface Dry
635. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity.
 Consistency
636. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is
 Objectionable
637. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as
 Water – reducing admixture
638. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
 Five (5)
639. The unit pressure greater that which progressive settlement occur leading to failure
 Bearing capacity
640. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay.
 2” [ 3”-5”]
641. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive
up to
 0.1g
642. If a sample cannot be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it
will be placed inside a
 Dessicator
643. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry at constant weight/mass.
 4 hours
644. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from
the oven within
 1 hour
645. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature, the drying
time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be
dried in about
 2 hours
646. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
 Boring Test
647. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
 Calcium tri-chloride /calcium carbide gas pressure
648. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is
 Low
649. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying scated pavement is
 Hot-mix asphalt

650. The minimum width of paved sidewalk

 1.5 m
651. The limit of water- cement ratio of concrete
 0.50 – 0.60
652. A cement which has a cementitious effect
 Portland Cement
653. A concrete where compression is included before the application of working load so that the
tension under these loads is reduced.
 Pre-stressing
654. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials?
 Phospho-molydate
655. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold
shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%.
 Phosphorous
656. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
 0.60 m
657. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how will you do it?
 ± 10mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
 ± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/m of average (water)
3
658. In non-entrained concrete, what is the range of% air entrained?

 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)
659. In the air-entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?
 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)
660. For constant water-cement ratio, what will happen of air content is involved?
 The strength of concrete is reduced
661. What will happen if you lower the water-cement ratio and maintaining other values of its
ingredients?
 It will acquire strength
662. What is the mixing time of concrete?
 1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
 Above 1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds
663. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond .
 1½ hours or 90 minutes
664. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled or binned before batching
starts?
 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining
665. When will truck mixing start?
 Mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added, 15 minutes
when wet aggregates is used, as 32⁰C temperature is present
666. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions
of the drum or loader. Why?
 To avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete
667. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is
negligible in the volume computation?
 Pipes with 4” Ø or less

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MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B

1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 1/29

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 2/29

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 3/29

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 4/29

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 5/29

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 6/29

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER IV-B 7/29

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with

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187. Equipment to be used for final rolling

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365. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the______ ?

377. The maximum moisture content of CHB

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390. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?

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436. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?

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509. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.

517. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.

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577. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?

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601. What type of cement is Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?

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627. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?

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650. The minimum width of paved sidewalk

658. In non-entrained concrete, what is the range of% air entrained?

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