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Ministry of Education and Training The International English Olympiad 2024

IEO
IEOMock
MockTest
Test Người soạn đề: AnTruongAhihi123
(Đây là một kỳ thi tự chế rất khắc nghiệt)

Time allowed: 300 minutes (excluding the paper distribution time).

Date: √25/√25/2024.
The test consists of 44 pages.
 You ARE NOT ALLOWED to use any kind of material.
 The invigilators MUST NOT give any further explanation.

I, LISTENING (100 points)


Part 1 : For questions 1-5, listen to a report on education in several countries
worldwide. What does the speaker say about these countries in relation to their
education? Choose five answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-J,
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
A. A decline in student performance on tests has been recorded.
B. Approximately two-thirds of students aged nine and ten fail reading tests.
C. Teachers tend to quit their jobs as their proposal to focus on standardized
testing is turned down.
D. Twenty percent of children complete school without a minimum level of
education.
E. There is an alarming trend in turnover among teachers, partly due to their
perceived lack of support.
F. Their GDP has risen nearly 40 times thanks to development goals in
education.
G. Intense competition is the main cause of a less effective education system.
H. Universal basic skill targets have not yet been met.
I. The attitudes and beliefs make an important contribution to high levels of
academic achievement.
J. A significant proportion of students in certain ages fail to meet their expected
level in literacy.
K. Sex education is going to receive greater attention in the future. Countries

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1. The U.S. and Western Countries
2. The U.S. only
3. Finland
4. East Asian countries
5. Ghana
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: For questions 6-10, listen to a report about the reaction of a country
after the announcement of the Nobel Peace Prize and do the following tasks.
(10 points)
Questions 6-7: Which TWO facts are mentioned about Ethiopia? Choose
TWO letters A-E and write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
A. The victory celebration was in full swing in the capital Addis Ababa of
Ethiopia.
B. National pride has long been known as an intrinsic part of this country.
C. Ethiopia established the long-standing democracy, which earned recognition
from Western countries.
D. A severe famine in the past was a source of Ethiopia’s prejudice towards
Westerners.
E. Ethnic tension is still a crippling burden in this country.
Questions 8-10: Which THREE facts are mentioned as achievements of
Ethiopian Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed? Choose THREE letters A-F and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A. resolved a long-running border conflict with a neighbouring country
B. welcomed home opposition groups and acknowledged past mistakes
C. granted amnesty to political leaders
D. set up a female-dominated cabinet
E. named a woman as head of the Supreme Court
F. got a firm grip on Ethiopia’s internal displacement problem
Your answers:

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6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: You will hear an interview in which two filmmakers, Tilly


Woodford and Lee Davies, are talking about a documentary they have
made about animals. For questions 11–15, select the best answer A, B, C
or D. (10 points)

11. Tilly says the initial inspiration for the documentary came from:
A experiencing an intense emotional bond with
an animal.
B wanting to encourage her own children to
appreciate animals.
C realising her understanding of animals was
quite limited.
D thinking about her childhood memories of keeping animals.

12. How did Lee originally feel about working


on the documentary?
A Curious about whether he would work well
with Tilly
B Guilty about having to abandon
his other project
C Anxious about working in a
different way
D Doubtful about the level of interest in the subject

13. What does Tilly suggest about the


man she interviewed?
A He found it hard to take care of his pets.
B He didn’t take his pets’ needs into consideration.
C He disagreed with Tilly’s suggestions
about pet nutrition.
D He only focused on the fun sides of pet
ownership.

14. What discovery surprised Lee and Tilly most


during their research?
A How far some people go to protect wild animals
B How little is known about animal
communication
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C How much society’s attitudes to
pets have changed
D How important the pet sector is to
the economy

15. When reflecting on the documentary,


they express regrets that:
A they had to cut several stories from the final
version.
B the documentary contained few of
their own insights.
C they focused on the least
controversial issues.
D their small budget limited what they could do.

Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4: For questions 16-25, listen to a report about a complaint of Asian


American Groups about alleged racially discriminatory practices in top Ivy
League Schools. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the
recording for each blank. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. (40 points)
Three Ivy League schools are alleged to have used 16)_____________ to limit
the number of Asian-American students admitted to their campuses.
This isn't the only complaint against Ivy League universities by the Asian-
American 17)_____________.
Asian-American communities are going to continue our fight until you totally
stop your 18)_____________ against our children.
The group is now asking the government to investigate 19) _____________ at
Brown, Yale and Dartmouth pointing to a study that concluded Asian-
Americans need to score higher than white, black and Hispanic students on the
SAT to get into these colleges.
The number of Asian-American students at these elite colleges still far
20)_____________ their representation in the general population.
Aaron Lewis is a 21)_____________ at Newton South High School, and he's
checking in with some of his seniors at a 22)_____________.
Lewis says while some families are looking for any edge in the college
admissions game, he never tells his Asian-American students that they might
benefit from not checking the box indicating their 23)_____________.
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Isabella is Chinese Asian-American and says she thinks some Asian-American
groups get too caught up on the idea of discrimination at 24)_____________.
I'm pretty sure it does happen, but I think they're going a little too
25)_____________ with it.

Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

Part 5: For questions 26-30, listen to part of a talk about saving the bees
and decide whether the following statements are True (T), False (F), or
Not Given (NG) according to what you hear. (10 points)

26. The woman thinks few people are concerned about the welfare of
honeybees.
27. The man believes the bees' situation is more serious than that of apes or
elephants.
28. Both the man and woman agree that there will be serious consequences
should bees disappear.
29. The man says that wild flower gardens are a good idea as they can make up
for habitat loss.
30. According to the woman, wild flower gardens can generate revenue for
gardeners.
Your answers:
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Part 6: For questions 31-35, you will listen to a lecture about the British Isles.
Answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
taken from the recording. Write your answers in the space provided. (20 pts)
31. According to the lecturer, what is the British Isles in geographical terms?
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….…….
32.What is the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland’ in
political terms?

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………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….…….
33.What phrase is used to describe the political role of the four
countries within the United Kingdom?
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….…….
34. Besides geography and politics, what aspect of the British Isles is also
discussed?
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….…….
35. What does the name “the British Commonwealth” recall?
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………….…….
Your answers:
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

II, LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)


Part 1: For questions 36-65, choose the correct answer A, B, C, D or E to
each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. (30 points)
36. Today’s technology is so diverse and complex that no one person—not even
a highly trained engineer with ______ interests— can understand the inner
workings of many of the devices used in modern professional equipment.
A. ephemeral
B. latent
C. existential
D. eclectic
E. liberal
37. It would be difficult to imagine two more different personalities— Liz is shy
and taciturn, while Stan is outgoing and __________.
A. salubrious
B. laconic

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C. specious
D. loquacious
E. doctrinaire
38. In most industrial countries, government intervenes in the economy by
changing fiscal and monetary policy to __________ the negative effects of the
business cycle, despite the fact that there exists no theory supported by
conclusive evidence to explain the underlying cause of the business cycle.
A. remonstrate
B. exacerbate
C. understand
D. establish
E. mitigate
39. Some scholars deny that there is a direct correlation between the scientific
theory of relativity and intellectual fashions in the arts, pointing out that many
important modernist works, such as Igor Stravinsky’s __________ symphony
The Rites of Spring antecede the theory of relativity.
A. seminal
B. presage
C. syllogistic
D. subsume
E. ephemeral
40. The phrase “It’s a matter of semantics” is often used to indicate that the real
meaning of a statement is being lost in verbiage, often with the implication that
there is __________ or equivocation.
A. exculpation
B. peculation
C. obfuscation
D. meritriciousness
E. vacillation

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41. The belief that music is the ____________ for the other arts and best
exemplifies the power of art to express subtle feelings, was expressed by the
critic Walter Pater: “All art constantly aspires towards the condition of music.”
A. aesthetic
B. precursor
C. paradigm
D. tome
E. sensitivity
42. Some scholars believe that the impetus for the building of the Great Pyramid
of Giza was for reasons other than the purely functional one of providing
imposing and secure burial chambers for pharaohs; these experts see
___________ meaning behind its design.
A. an arcane
B. an insipid
C. a nefarious
D. a sportive
E. a desultory
43. Many statements are not true unless they are ____________ by the use of
words and phrases such as sometimes, frequently, in many cases, and most.
A. sanctioned
B. limited
C. superseded
D. embellished
E. supported
44. In the final stage in the impeachment process of an American president, the
chief justice of the Supreme Court presides over the Senate, which sits as a body
____________ to a jury to decide whether to convict the president.
A. commensurate
B. inherent
C. analogous
D. extraneous
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E. impermeable
45. ____________, law can be used either to tyrannize the populace, denying
them liberty, or to protect their rights, enabling them to live as free citizens
expressing their views and doing as they wish.
A. Enigmatically
B. Preternaturally
C. Purportedly
D. Felicitously
E. Paradoxically
46. Steeped in mysticism and allegory, alchemy has been a favorite subject of
people speculating about the existence of an occult tradition concealed behind
__________ facade.
A. a hermetic
B. a sedulous
C. an ephemeral
D. a mundane
E. an iconoclastic
47. In 1787, when the U.S. Constitution was being framed, it was proposed that
slavery be abolished, but opponents of the measure forced a compromise
whereby slavery would not be __________ until early in the next century.
A. disparaged
B. stipulated
C. proscribed
D. allowed
E. exculpated
48. The statement “India has recently made great progress in alleviating
poverty” should be seen in the context of India’s vast population of one billion,
of which 320 million remain in __________ poverty.
A. satiating
B. equivocal
C. vitiating
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D. abject
E. intransigent
49. Language purists pounce on errors as though they were ghastly offenses
against the natural order; however, it is wise to remember that language is a
wonderfully ____________ tool that is sometimes at its best when it is most
unfettered.
A. limpid
B. labile
C. compliant
D. demotic
E. malleable
50. According to the view of the nineteenth-century apologist for
capitalism,__________ was an unfortunate but unavoidable concomitant of both
capitalism and of the natural order of the world.
A. misogyny
B. abnegation
C. transgression
D. indigence
E. miscellany
51. . It is interesting to __________ the bromide* “Haste makes waste” and the
platitude “Better safe than sorry.”
A. juxtapose
B. homily
C. delineate
D. belie
E. epithet
52. Quantum theory __________that waves and particles possess a dual nature,
with one aspect predominating in some situations and the other becoming salient
in other situations.
A. pellucid
B. queries
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C. vitiating
D. postulates
E. obtuse
53. Dr. Gupta’s hundreds of hoaxes tainted the valid research of many of the
scientists with whom he had collaborated; fortunately, such an anomaly
behavior as Dr. Gupta’s is ____________ in the history of science.
A. honed
B. obsequious
C. edifying
D. substantiated
E. unconscionable
54. The sociologist Stanley Milgram theorized that the rise of mass society has
made it easy for individuals to ignore moral responsibility because the
individual is frequently “an intermediate link in a chain of evil,” making it
possible for a person to rationalize his actions by saying, “I was only carrying
out my social responsibilities as given in the orders of my superiors; it is not for
me to decide the ultimate morality of socially sanctioned actions, even if they
appear ____________ .”
A. maligned
B. execrable
C. venerated
D. sycophantic
E. Machiavellian
55. An important ______ in law is “Justice must not only be done, it must be
seen to be done,” which means that the legal system must not only reach fair
verdicts, but also must in the process give citizens confidence in the fairness and
efficiency of the system.
A. deterrent
B. propriety
C. undermine
D. axiom
E. satirize
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56. He played piano well, but his ____________ was rhythm.
A. Crux of the matter
B. Even steven
C. Jailbait
D. Achilles heel
E. Elbow grease
57. Devon’s grandmother told him to put on his ________ after he took a bath.
A. jammies
B. jitters
C. pickle
D. apple
E. angel
58. To have to call a much younger boss,”sir”, really went ________________.
A. ahead of time
B. against the grain
C. all the rage
D. all thumbs
E. artsy-fartsy
59. Mr. Judson was spared a long prison sentence because the governor called
with a pardon at the __________ hour.
A. mercy
B. pussycat
C. third
D. eleventh
E. sixty-nineth
60. I get the ________ of your argument, but give me some examples.
A. girth
B. gist

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C. gird
D. growth
E. grind
61. _________ is a small garden plant with blue or pink flowers that grows from
seed anually.
A. Hanky-panky
B. Dander-up
C. Battle-ax
D. Lily-tupie
E. Forget-me-not
62. Put your _______________ on the dotted line if you agree with all the
stipulations in the contract.
A. John Q. Public
B. job hop
C. John Hancock
D. jump ship
E. Finger
63. The car was 15 years old, and one day, it just went __________.
A. klutz
B. knock-out
C. steeped-out
D. penciled
E. kaput
64. With Frank as your mentor, you’ll really ___________ in this profession.
A. learn the ropes
B. ace the monkey
C. cut the dog
D. use the uncle
E. propose the horse
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65. Joan and Cathy decided to ___________ and resume their friendship.
A. pass the past
B. let bygones be bygones
C. let all tigers away
D. collect the sheep
E. vim and vigour
Your answers:
36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

Part 2: For question 66-75, write the correct form of each bracketed word in
each sentence in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
66. The occasion will be a __________ (STAR) affair, a day when red joins
with blue to take on the pride of Manchester.
67. The thought of _____________ (VERSA) crossed his mind several times but
like a true soldier he continued with the War, against the enemy and against
himself.
68. Elisabeth had a splitting headache yesterday so she consulted a doctor,
overthinking that she is about to die. It turned out that she was diagnosed with
________ (TUMOUR) cerebri.
69. It may be very difficult to _________ (SAY) the claim.
70. My mother’s favourite plant is the ________ (SNEEZE).
71. Such __________ (SOLE) came to him naturally, but he had applied himself
to enhancing it as to an art of self defence.
72. The streets erupt in a ___________ (SATURN) of lawlessness, to which the
director adds an inspired touch: an escaped elephant from Barnum's circus
trumpeting down the rubble-strewn streets.
73. The hotel has an attractive bar area, an àlacarte restaurant currently holding a
Michelin Star and a __________ (BREW) with patio area.
74. Careless in some situations, in others he proved ______________ (POINT).
75. In one ____________ (SCRIPTWRITER) story that circulated on trading
floors years ago, Black once tried to execute several trades using his model.
Your answers:
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66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Part 3: For questions 76-85, there are 10 sets of 3 sentences. For each set,
think of ONE WORD ONLY which can be used appropriately in all 3
sentences and write them to the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10
points)
76.
a. The latest evidence doesn’t ____________ the initial assumptions. We need
to change the way we’ve thought about the process.
b. I’m really grateful to you for your deep affection and __________ I received
throughout the recovery.
c. Chris had to work hard as he had a demanding wife and three children to ____
77.
a. The ____________, though not especially sophisticated, smelled so great that
it made his mouth water.
b. ‘Which is Robert’s window?’ ‘Look over there. It’s the one with a satellite
_________ attached to the wall.’
c. A couple of volunteers turned up at the centre ready to _________ out food to
the needy
78.
a. Each time he grinned showing the girl his ___________ teeth, she became
more and more convinced that she didn’t want to spend her days looking after an
octogenarian.
b. She bought herself a dog which gave her a ___________ sense of security. It
was small and couldn’t bark loudly.
c. One ___________ move and you’ll be pushing up the daises. So stay where
you are.
79.
a. I didn’t know about her problems. They never came to my ___________.
b.. The ___________ on the wall of the building said ‘No entry’.
c. It is next to impossible to organize relief at such short ___________. We need
some more time to make it work.
80.

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a. I swear I’ll never let you get away with it. You can be sure one day you’ll
___________ for all your crooked ways.
b. Where are your manners? Don’t ___________ me back, you rude boy.
c. Can you ___________ the door? I’m having a shower.
81.
a. In small villages news travels fast. It is spread by word of ______________ .
b. The refugee camp was built near the __________ of the river to make relief
work more efficient.
c. The bad smell that was coming from his __________ put off all the girls in
our class.
82.
a. With the arrival of the ferocious storm, almost all the telephone lines went
___________ which caused even more problems for the rescue teams.
b. They all agreed that the action plan was a ___________ duck and chose to
abandon it.
c. The patient was pronounced ___________ on arrival. The funeral was
scheduled two days later.
83.
a. The house on the outskirts of the town was in a sorry ___________ It
desperately needed renovating.
b. For years the two neighbouring countries were in a ___________ of war.
c. Those who came to the airport were able to see a few heads of ___________
coming out of the plane to the accompaniment of the orchestra.
84.
a. When in the pub, Frank usually __________ up attractive girls sitting at the
tables which makes his wife see red.
b. I’m sorry I’m so busy at the moment. I’m up to my __________ in work.
c. You’ve got to be very careful doing business with that Russian. He’s a bit
fishy. I advise you to have __________ in the back of your head.
85.
a. ___________ results showed that Mike was the winner, but obviously, they
had to wait for official confirmation.
2. I’m sure you know this adage: ‘The ___________ bird catches the worm.’ .
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3. In the ___________ days, people used carts and horses to transport goods.
Your answers:
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

III, READING (100 points)


Part 1: From questions 86-95, read the text and fill each of the following
numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
Fifty Fifty are a South Korean girl group formed in 2022. They 86.______ on
November 18, 2022, with their extended play The Fifty. The group consists of
87._______: Sio, Saena, Aran, and Keena, the quartet were formed by Attrakt, an
independent record label. The group experienced a commercial breakthrough with
their 88.______ hit single "Cupid". The single, which was released on February
24, 2023, made Fifty Fifty the fastest K-pop group to enter the US Billboard Hot
100 and UK Singles Chart, within four months of debut. Furthermore it made
them the first K-pop girl group to enter the top ten of the UK charts. In 2023, they
signed to Warner Records.

After two years of training, on November 14, 2022, Fifty Fifty announced that
they would be debuting in November 2022 by releasing the group's official logo
image 89.______ across all the group's social media accounts. The same day, a
pre-released music video for the song "Lovin Me" was released on their official
YouTube channel. The members were revealed on November 15 through the
concept photo of their debut album, which revealed the names and the debut date,
and official photos of the members for the first time. A performance video of "Log
In" was also 90._______ the same day.

Fifty Fifty released their debut extended play (EP) The Fifty on November 18,
2022, with "Higher" serving as the lead single. The album contains the first
journey of girls who 91._____ for freedom beyond the chaos of reality and
eventually move on to a utopia. It consists of four tracks – "Higher", which has
an R&B pop feeling that sings about the world of ecstasy and dreams, "Tell Me",
a city pop song, "Lovin Me", which 92.______ a message of comfort to young
people who are going through growing pains, and "Log In", which expresses the
movements of girls who rebel to escape from the suffocating real world with
intense performances. Promotions for the extended play's release began on
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November 22 with their music broadcast debut on SBS M's The Show and
93._______ on KBS2's Music Bank on December 2. The EP did not enter the
Circle Album Chart when it was first released, but it debuted at number forty-four
on the chart issue dated December 18–24, 2022, with 2,597 album sales. Korean
critic magazine IZM rated the album 4.5 out of 5 stars, the highest rating the
magazine has ever given to a girl group. The writer, Son Seung-geun, opined that
Fifty Fifty "is a good example of what happens when great songs and good singers
meet. Thanks to them, Korea has one more good girl group."

Fifty Fifty was selected as one of The Recording Academy's "K-pop Girl
Groups To Watch in 2023", writing, "the quartet displays various colors and a
vocal maturity that is both hard to find and crucial to have." They were also named
one of the "Best K-pop Debuts of the Year" by Rolling Stone India, and "Tell Me"
and "Lovin Me" were featured on the lists of the "Best K-pop Songs of 2022"
compiled by Paper and Mashable, 94._________.

On February 24, 2023, the group released its first single album, The Beginning:
Cupid, along with the music video for title track "Cupid". The song, which was
recorded both in Korean and English, saw Keena writing part of the Korean lyrics.
Soon after, a fan-made sped-up rendition of the English version went viral on
TikTok: "Cupid" consequently entered the Billboard Hot 100 on March 27,
making them only the sixth group and the fastest K-pop group in history to do so.
On May 25, it was announced that the group will be 95._______ as part of the
Barbie movie soundtrack.
Your answers:
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

Part 2: For questions 96-108, read the following passage and do the tasks that
follow. (26 points)

Recent stock-market crashes


For as long as there have been financial markets, there have been financial crises.
Most economists agree, however, that from 1994 to 2013 crashes were deeper and
the resultant troughs longer-lasting than in the 20-year period leading up to 1994.
Two notable crashes, the Nifty Fifty in the mid-1970s and Black Monday in 1987,
had an average loss of about 40% of the value of global stocks, and recovery took
240 days each, whereas the Dot-com and credit crises, post-1994, had an average
loss of about 52%, and endured for 430 days. What economists do not agree upon
is why recent crises have been so severe or how to prevent their recurrence.

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John Coates, from the University of Cambridge in the UK and a former trader for
Goldman Sachs and Deutsche Bank, believes three separate but related
phenomena explain the severity. The first is dangerous but predictable risk-taking
on the part of traders. The second is a lack of any risk-taking when markets
become too volatile. (Coates does not advocate risk-aversion since risk-taking
may jumpstart a depressed market.) The last is a new policy of transparency by
the US Federal Reserve – known as the Fed – that may have encouraged stock-
exchange complacency, compounding the dangerous risk-taking.

Many people imagine a trader to have a great head for maths and a stomach for
the rollercoaster ride of the market, but Coates downplays arithmetic skills, and
doubts traders are made of such stern stuff. Instead, he draws attention to the
physiological nature of their decisions. Admittedly, there are women in the
industry, but traders are overwhelmingly male, and testosterone appears to affect
their choices.

Another common view is that traders are greedy as well as thrill-seeking. Coates
has not researched financial incentive, but blood samples taken from London
traders who engaged in simulated risk-taking exercises for him in 2013 confirmed
the prevalence of testosterone, cortisol, and dopamine – a neurotransmitter
precursor to adrenalin associated with raised blood pressure and sudden pleasure.

Certainly anyone faced with danger has a stress response involving the body’s
preparation for impending movement – for what is sometimes called ‘Fight or
flight’, but, as Coates notes, any physical act at all produces a stress response:
even a reader’s eye movement along words in this line requires cortisol and
adrenalin. Neuroscientists now see the brain not as a computer that acts neutrally,
involved in a process of pure thought, but as a mechanism to plan and carry out a
movement, since every single piece of information humans absorb has an
attendant pattern of physical arousal.

For muscles to work, fuel is needed, so cortisol and adrenalin employ glucose
from other muscles and the liver. To burn the fuel, oxygen is required, so slightly
deeper or faster breathing occurs. To deliver fuel and oxygen to the body, the heart
pumps a little harder and blood pressure rises. Thus, the stress response is a normal
part of life, as well as a resource in fighting or fleeing. Indeed, it is a highly
pleasurable experience in watching an action movie, making love or pulling off a
multi-million-dollar stock-market deal.

Cortisol production also increases during exposure to uncertainty. For example,


people who live next to a train line adjust to the noise of passing trains, but visitors
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to their home are disturbed. The phenomenon is equally well-known of
anticipation being worse than an event itself: sitting in the waiting room thinking
about a procedure may be more distressing than occupying the dentist’s chair and
having one. Interestingly, if a patient does not know approximately when he or
she will be called for that procedure, cortisol levels are the most elevated of all.
This appeared to happen with the London traders participating in some of Coates’
gambling scenarios.

When there is too much volatility in the stock market, Coates suspects adrenaline
levels decrease while cortisol levels increase, explaining why traders take fewer
risks at that time. In fact, typically traders freeze, becoming almost incapable of
buying or selling anything but the safest bonds. In Coates’ opinion, the market
needs investment as it falls and at rock bottom – at such times, greed is good.

The third matter – the behaviour of the Fed – Coates thinks could be controlled,
albeit counterintuitively. Since 1994, the US Federal Reserve has adopted a policy
called Forward Guidance. Under this, the public is informed at regular intervals
of the Fed’s plans for short-term interest rates. Recently, rates have been raised
by small but predictable increments. By contrast, in the past, the machinations of
the Fed were largely secret, and its interest rates fluctuated apparently randomly.
Coates hypothesises these meant traders were on guard and less likely to indulge
in wild speculation. In introducing Forward Guidance, the Fed hoped to lower
stock and housing prices; instead, before the crash of 2008, the market surged
from further risk-taking, like an unleashed pit bull terrier.

There are many economists who disagree with Coates, but he has provided some
physiological evidence for both traders’ recklessness and immobilisation and
made the radical proposal of greater opacity at the Fed. Although, as others have
noted, we could just let more women onto the floor.
Questions 96-102 in boxes 1-7, write:
True if the statement agrees with the information
False if the statement contradicts the information
Not Given if there is no information on this
96. Economic experts generally agree that financial crashes around the 2000s
were less severe than those between 1974 and 1993.
97. According to John Coates, risk-taking can sometimes assist a weak market.
98. Contrary to popular belief, traders tend to show strong determination to deal
with market volatility.
99. The analysis of blood samples collected from London traders in 2013 revealed
that many of them suffered from high blood pressure and instant gratification.
100. Neuroscientists now view the brain as an organ to control movement.
20
101. A person waiting to see a dentist may have extremely high cortisol levels if
he or she does not have a specific appointment.
102. An increase in female traders may be a potential solution to current market
problems.
For questions 103-108, complete the following paragraph with words taken
from the passage (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank).
The global financial status has hit a dead-cat bounce. Such severity of recent
crashes can be unraveled and analyzed through some following explanations by
John Coates, an experienced trader for Goldman Sachs and Deutsche Bank.
Firstly, traders are now more willing to take risks, especially when the market is
rising. With a proven increase in their 103) ________________, they tend to
challenge themselves with the market. Secondly, traders may become more averse
to risks. This occurs when the stock market witnesses a plethora of 104)
________________, which may result in a rise in traders’ 105)
________________. Consequently, we can see their immobilization. The third
reason may derive from US Federal Reserve policy, also known as 106)
________________, which was supposed to calm the market. In the past, the
uncertainty of interest rates might discourage traders from making 107)
_______________. With Fed’s plans for short-term interest rates being informed
more regularly, traders became less cautious and 108) ________________ was
encouraged.
Your answers:
96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102.
103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108.
Part 3: For questions 109-118, read an extract from an article and choose the
answer A, B, C or D that fits best according to the text. Write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20 points)

The machine that is celebrity culture has given us the meteoric rise and fall of the
child actor, with plenty of cautionary tales to point to and ask if something should
have been done to prevent them. Recently, the Chinese government took the
extreme and unprecedented measure of banning the children of celebrities from
appearing in any type of reality TV programming, in an effort to prevent the
manufacturing of child stars. It would appear that perhaps limiting the exposure a
child has to fame serves to protect and ensure a solid, stable upbringing.

The pressure of fame is undoubtedly onerous, even for adults, who, despite
growing up out of the spotlight, sometimes buckle under the stress of stardom
they achieved later in life and exhibit all manner of behavioral disorders after their
stardom has waned. The same can be said of child actors, but the effect is
seemingly multiplied by the fact that, if achieving stardom as children, their view
21
of reality is possibly warped and they may never even have the chance to acquire
the necessary coping skills. But given that some child actors – in fact, most – can
make a go of their careers into adulthood, are children really so incapable of
handling such pressure or is there actually no problem at all?

■A) Banning children from acting has an element of common sense to it, but
imagine, if you will, television programmes, films and so forth absent of children.
■ B) While the Chinese government’s move to limit the exposure of children may
seem well intentioned, at least on the surface, it is not entirely realistic to say that
children are not allowed to appear on the small or big screen. ■ C) Of course, they
are applying it to one particular media – that of reality TV; nonetheless, is such a
ban sensible for any type of media? ■ D)

Upon closer examination of the phenomenon of the child star, we see examples
both of success and failure. How many of each do we have? Is there a
disproportionately high amount of failure in the lives of child actors if we look at
the statistics and compare their problems with those of ordinary people? We see
a child star fail and we immediately blame fame, but what about the success
stories of other child actors such as Jodie Foster, Daniel Radcliffe and Leonardo
Dicaprio, all of whom got their start as very young children? Are we to credit
fame for their success in the same way we blame it for others’ failures?

In the case of the latter, there are the stars we know about, as they went on to
achieve long-lasting fame, even top acting awards. Child stars are not always
destined to eternally seek the limelight, however, so there are many cases of
success stories that people often don’t know about. Peter Ostum, who played
Charlie Bucket in Willy Wonka & the Chocolate Factory, went on to pursue a
doctorate in veterinary medicine. Shirley Temple, leading box-office star in the
1930s from the age of seven, became a politician and the first female US
ambassador. Polish child stars and identical twin brothers Lech and Jaroslaw
Kaczynski gave up acting and were respectively elected as president and prime
minister of Poland, positions they held at the same time.

Invariably, though, it’s the catastrophic demise that we hear about, not just of
child actors, of course, but when it does happen to them, we feel a mixture of
sorrow and disbelief. To data, there is little statistical evidence to support the
claim that fame and celebrity culture ruin the lives of child actors; the only proof
we have is what we perceive to be true. Protections are in place, to an extent, to
help ensure that children have as normal an upbringing as possible. California, for
example, has enacted laws which mandate that children must continue with their
educational studies exactly as they would if they weren’t in films, even going so
22
far as to require teachers on set if need be. In this vein, ensuring support for child
actors may need to go further than the broad restrictions exercised by China.

109. Which best serves as the title for the passage?


A. Too young to be famous
B. The lucrative career for children
C. How to become successful from an early age
D. Laws and regulations restricting child participation in the showbiz

110. The word " cautionary tales” in paragraph 1 mostly means


A. stories that are memorable
B. jokes and tricks to warn children
C. stories that give warning to people
D. hilarious conversations

111. What can be inferred about the solution taken by Chinese government
regarding child stars?
A. The author wholeheartedly subscribes to it.
B. It will hamper the boom of child stars.
C. It will impose a ban on children participation in films.
D. It is unprecedented in history.

112. In the second paragraph, the author implies that children


A. are better prepared to deal with fame than adults.
B. never learn coping skills when they are famous young.
C. may or may not be perniciously influenced by fame.
D. are destined to become abnormal adults if they are in the limelight from an
early age.

113. What is the author’s opinion of the government ban in the third paragraph?
A. He is not sure whether or not it originates from good will.
B. He is in support of it being put into practice.
C. He supposes it is futile in the context of reality TV.
D. He believes the drive behind is to manipulate the media.

114. In the fourth paragraph, the author suggests that


A. fame is the culprit behind the phenomenon of child stars.
B. early fame may not contribute to the flop of a star.
C. the fame of some stars shows it has no detrimental impact.
D. the failure of some stars means that fame is debilitating.

23
115. The author uses the instances in the fifth paragraph to convey the idea that
A. child actors can attain whatever they desire.
B. fame can repel some from a sustainable acting career.
C. a more thorough study is needed to give out evaluation.
D. success can be a springboard to other positions in life.

116. The author concludes by saying that


A. it is futile to protect children from the perils of fame
B. it is worth taking into account the steps to help children handle fame
C. our conception of fame is greater than the reality
D. children should receive insightful education about how to deal with fame

117. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could
be added to the passage.
As this sort of media is supposed to reflect real life, it would seem surreal if
there were no children in these stories, as if children had ceased to exist
altogether
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. First square B. Second square C. Third square D. Fourth square

118. The word "mandate” in the final paragraph mostly means


A. giving official permission for something to happen
B. ordering something to happen
C. putting something into action
D. allowing for the existence of something
Your answers:
109. 110. 111. 112. 113.
114. 115. 116. 117. 118.

Part 4: In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. For
questions 119-125, read the passage and choose from the paragraphs A-H the
one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra paragraph which you do not need
to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered box provided. (14
points)
Non-Verbal communication

Sociological research points to the theory that certain ways of positioning or


moving the body have a direct correlation with how one is perceived. People emit
an aura of strength or power dependent on posture, gestures and eye movement.
Quick, enthusiastic, meaningful movements and gestures suggest a dynamic, alert
24
person. People who look at, and maintain eye contact with their audience while
conversing with them exude confidence and fearlessness.

119
9
Being conscious of one's posture and gestures when sitting is also conducive to
creating the right impression on the beholder. When one wishes to appear self-
assured and knowledgeable in an important interpersonal situation where sitting
is required, a high, straight-backed chair should be chosen when possible. Placing
and clasping the hands behind the head, with elbows stretched to the sides, adds
to the impression of comfortable assertiveness. It also keeps the hands under
control and out of danger of unwanted fidgeting.
120
9
The appropriate placing of the hands depends on the situation. When one is in an
upright position, standing face to face with another person, the palms of the hands
should not be evident. Hands open in a palm-revealing gesture can connote a
begging or submissive attitude,

121
9
Research shows that people in business have adopted a standard routine. Many
professionals assume a hand-to-chin position when seated and when engaged in
discussion, they will sit erectly in their chair with one leg crossed casually over
the other, seemingly calm and cool. The moment the discussion begins to take on
a more serious note, the professional will uncross the legs, place both feet squarely
on the floor and lean forward to indicate assertiveness and strength. It does not
do, though, to be too defensive.

122
9
Staring or glaring eyes flash "threat or warning" to both humans and animals, How
often have we observed a dog with hackles raised, staring down an opponent? Just
as beasts send signals of dominance in this fashion, so do humans. The eyes can
communicate other emotions as well. Eyes that blink rapidly and shift from side
to side give the illusion of nervousness or untrustworthiness.

123
9

25
In some situations, staring, as opposed to maintaining eye contact, can have a
negative effect. In addition to being regarded as rude, staring et someone can
indeed make them back down or surrender. Adversely, it could antagonise them
into accepting the suggested challenge.

124
9
This phenomenon proves to be even more evident when a person takes on the role
of listener. In almost all social scenarios, people demonstrate a heightened sense
of attentiveness when a perceived person of power speaks. Whether one is
discussing a teacher in a classroom or a company president in the boardroom, all
eyes seem to be riveted on the sage, advice-giving, more dominant speaker.

125
9
It is said that we form impressions of people within the first thirty seconds of
meeting them. Within this time period, the beholder is strongly influenced by a
person's stance, gestures and physical actions. When someone is aware of this,
they are far more prepared to consciously use the tools of impression management
to control the overall impression they make on those around them.

The missing paragraphs


A. In the instances where a speaker wishes to present and reinforce an impression
of honesty and powerfulness on his audience, body language may speak more
loudly and more effectively than the actual spoken words.

B. Just as staring can be offensive at times, looking at someone too frequently or


for too long a duration can also suggest something negative; namely
submissiveness. With regard to the higher primates and humans, both occupy
themselves for longer periods of time observing their superiors as opposed to their
inferiors.

C. Just as posture plays a role in impression management, so too do the eyes. The
eyes can communicate a million words without the owner consciously knowing
they are doing so. The eyes are the 'mirror of the soul" and by moving them, or
using them in certain ways, diverse messages can be relayed to an observer.

D. There are times when one's hands seem to have a 'mind of their own'.
Unconsciously, one might tap their fingers on the arms of a chair, fidget with

26
jewellery, or even crack one's knuckles. All of these actions are very clear signs
of boredom, nervousness or inattentiveness.

E. A flatterer is a person who controls his impression management in such a way


that the message being sent is one of a likeable, friendly person. The flatterer's
aim is to be seen only in a positive light and will tell an audience exactly what
they want to hear to create this aura.

F. Somebody who is relaxed enough to stand before his audience without any
visual signs of stress exudes self-assuredness and honesty. Even though these
people are comfortable in their stance, they hold themselves erect and avoid
looking round-shouldered or hunched over. Being lazy with one's posture could
be indicative of defeat, while standing tall and proud paints a picture of one who
is in charge.

G. It is said that many politicians are very aware of this impression that the eyes
can make on an audience. Many insist that there be no movement in a television
studio where they are being taped, for fear that their eyes may automatically flit
to the sudden movement. Obviously, no politician wants to appear to be lying or
feeling uncomfortable about what he is saying during a live taping of a political
debate or speech.

H. When sitting, many people make the mistake of folding their arms across their
chests. This gives the impression of being closed off or inaccessible to the
audience. By rights, the hands should be clasped loosely, with fingers interlaced,
and placed in the lap. This gesture indicates an open, friendly attitude to the
audience.
Your answers:
119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125.

Part 5: The passage below consists of four sections marked A, B, C and D. For
questions 126-135, read the passage and do the task that follows. Write your
answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20
points)
A. Oak
Oak wood has a density of about 0.75 g/cm3, great strength and hardness, and is
very resistant to insect and fungal attack because of its high tannin content. It also
has very appealing grain markings, particularly when quartersawn. Oak planking
was common on high status Viking longships in the 9th and 10th centuries. The
wood was hewn from green logs, by axe and wedge, to produce radial planks,
similar to quarter-sawn timber. Wide, quarter-sawn boards of oak have been
27
prized since the Middle Ages for use in interior paneling of prestigious buildings
such as the debating chamber of the House of Commons in London, and in the
construction of fine furniture. Oak wood, from Quercus robur and Quercus
petraea, was used in Europe for the construction of ships, especially naval men of
war, until the 19th century, and was the principal timber used in the construction
of European timber-framed buildings.
Today oak wood is still commonly used for furniture making and flooring, timber
frame buildings, and for veneer production. Barrels in which wines, sherry, and
spirits such as brandy, Scotch whisky and Bourbon whiskey are aged are made
from European and American oak. The use of oak in wine can add many different
dimensions to wine based on the type and style of the oak. Oak barrels, which
may be charred before use, contribute to the colour, taste, and aroma of the
contents, imparting a desirable oaky vanillin flavour to these drinks. The great
dilemma for wine producers is to choose between French and American
oakwoods. French oaks give the wine greater refinement and are chosen for the
best wines since they increase the price compared to those aged in American oak
wood. American oak contributes greater texture and resistance to ageing, but
produces more violent wine bouquets. Oak wood chips are used for smoking fish,
meat, cheeses and other foods.
B. Elm
Elm wood was valued for its interlocking grain, and consequent resistance to
splitting, with significant uses in wagon wheel hubs, chair seats and coffins. The
elm's wood bends well and distorts easily making it quite pliant. The often long,
straight, trunks were favoured as a source of timber for keels in ship construction.
Elm is also prized by bowyers; of the ancient bows found in Europe, a large
portion of them are elm. During the Middle Ages elm was also used to make
longbows if yew was unavailable.
The first written references to elm occur in the Linear B lists of military equipment
at Knossos in the Mycenaean Period. Several of the chariots are of elm, and the
lists twice mention wheels of elmwood. Hesiod says that ploughs in Ancient
Greece were also made partly of elm.
The density of elm wood varies between species, but averages around 560 kg per
cubic metre.
Elm wood is also resistant to decay when permanently wet, and hollowed trunks
were widely used as water pipes during the medieval period in Europe. Elm was
also used as piers in the construction of the original London Bridge. However this
resistance to decay in water does not extend to ground contact.
The Romans, and more recently the Italians, used to plant elms in vineyards as
supports for vines. Lopped at three metres, the elms' quick growth, twiggy lateral
branches, light shade and root-suckering made them ideal trees for this purpose.
The lopped branches were used for fodder and firewood. Ovid in his Amores
28
characterizes the elm as "loving the vine", and the ancients spoke of the
"marriage" between elm and vine.
C. Mahogany
Mahogany has a straight, fine and even grain, and is relatively free of voids and
pockets. Its reddish-brown color darkens over time, and displays a reddish sheen
when polished. It has excellent workability, and is very durable. Historically, the
tree's girth allowed for wide boards from traditional mahogany species. These
properties make it a favorable wood for crafting cabinets and furniture.
Much of the first-quality furniture made in the American colonies from the mid-
18th century was made of mahogany, when the wood first became available to
American craftsmen. Mahogany is still widely used for fine furniture; however,
the rarity of Cuban mahogany and over harvesting of Honduras and Brazilian
mahogany has diminished their use. Mahogany also resists wood rot, making it
attractive in boat construction. It is also often used for musical instruments,
particularly the backs, sides and necks of acoustic guitars and drum shells because
of its ability to produce a very deep, warm tone compared to other commonly used
woods such as maple or birch. Guitars often feature mahogany in their
construction. Mahogany is now being used for the bodies of high-end stereo
phonographic record cartridges and for stereo headphones, where it is noted for
“warm” or “musical” sound.
D. Beech
Beech wood is an excellent firewood, easily split and burning for many hours with
bright but calm flames. Chips of beech wood are used in the brewing of Budweiser
beer as a fining agent. Beech logs are burned to dry the malts used in some
German smoked beers, giving the beers their typical flavour. Beech is also used
to smoke Westphalian ham, various sausages, and some cheeses.
The European species Fagus sylvatica yields a utility timber that is tough but
dimensionally unstable. It weighs about 720 kg per cubic metre and is widely used
for furniture framing and carcass construction, flooring and engineering purposes,
in plywood and in household items like plates, but rarely as a decorative wood.
The timber can be used to build chalets, houses and log cabins.
Beech wood is used for the stocks of military rifles when traditionally preferred
woods such as walnut are scarce or unavailable or as a lower-cost alternative.
The fruit of the beech tree is known as beechnuts or mast and is found in small
burrs that drop from the tree in autumn. It is small, roughly triangular and edible,
with a bitter, astringent taste. They have a high enough fat content that they can
be pressed for edible oil. Fresh from the tree, beech leaves are a fine salad
vegetable, as sweet as a mild cabbage though much softer in texture. The young
leaves can be steeped in gin for several weeks, the liquor strained off and
sweetened to give a light green/yellow liqueur called beech leaf noyau.

29
Choose from the list of woods (A-D) for each question. Some of the choices
may be required more than once.
126. Which wood contains something that prevents it being attacked?
127 Which wood doesn't have the reputation of being aesthetically pleasing?
128. Which wood can be buried in water indefinitely with little ill effect?
129. Which wood can enhance the value a food or drink?
130. Which wood is most likely to be found on stage at a rock concert?
131. Which wood became associated with luxurious buildings?
132. Which wood is the most flexible and is therefore used where this is required?
133. Which wood is most inflammable?
134. Which wood was used as an agricultural aid?
135. Which wood can alter its colour?
Your answers:
126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
131. 132. 133. 134. 135.

Part 6: Read the passages below, and then answer the questions that follow
them based on the information in the passages themselves and in any
introductory material or notes. The correct answer may be either stated or
merely suggested in the passages. (2 points)

The term “the arts,” when used to classify a group of academic disciplines at
schools and universities, subsumes the study of languages, history, and literature,
while universities use the term “fine arts” to refer to painting and sculpture as an
object of study. Elsewhere the term “the arts” includes painting and sculpture
(usually grouped together as “the plastic arts”), music, and literature, and is often
extended to embrace dance, mime, and cinema (the word “artist” is used to refer
to a practitioner of any of these). Art is commonly opposed to science (as
“subjective,” whereas science is “objective”) and its sense is distinguished from
etymologically related words such as “artifact,” “artificial,” and “artisan.”
Select one answer choice for each of the following questions.
136. The word “subsumes” as it is used in line 2 most nearly means
A. assumes to be true
B. makes inferior to
C. undermines
D. includes in a less comprehensive category
E. incorporates in a more comprehensive category

137. Based on the information in lines 8–11 (“Art . . . artisan”), which statement
would the author be most likely to agree with?
30
A. Two words can be related etymologically but have different meanings.
B. The word “art” has only an accidental and tangential similarity to the words
“artifact,” “artificial,” and “artisan,” because it originated from a different word.
C. Artifacts can only be studied subjectively.
D. “Artisan” is an older word than the modern word “artist” is.
E. The words “artifact,” “artificial,” and “artisan” are not cognate.
136. 137.

Part 7: Read the passage and do the following tasks (8 points)

You may have heard the cynic’s version of the golden rule, namely, he who
has the gold makes the rules. That is the thrust of this treatise on power by 75-
year-old Noam Chomsky, a professor of linguistics at the Massachusetts Institute
of Technology (MIT). He has written more than 30 books on linguistics and
current affairs, including the best-selling Language and Politics (1990),
Manufacturing Consent (1994) and 911 (2001). Once called “arguably the most
important intellectual alive” by The New York Times, this very politically
incorrect academic has taught at MIT since 1955, immediately after graduating
with a PhD in linguistics from the University of Pennsylvania. He is currently one
of MIT’s institute professors, which means he can teach in any department of the
university. But, as he notes wryly in this book: “If I even get near Political
Science, you can feel the bad vibes starting.”
The book is an edited collection of his lectures and tutorials from 1989 to
1999. Published as a book for the first time, his talks offer high-definition
snapshots of the ills of the twentieth century, even as he slices through history to
serve up unpalatable truths—like how America’s founding fathers actually
loathed the idea of democracy, why the United States hires rogue states to fight
its wars and why nation-states are the wrong political model for a post-modern
world.
He reserves one of his biggest knives for the media, which he takes
methodical stabs at for being dictated by the desires of the elite. With the same
vigor, the gleeful iconoclast tells his students why there is not only no such thing
as a free lunch, but also no such thing as a free market. As he puts it: “Of course,
the ‘free market’ ideology is very useful—it’s a weapon against the general
population (in the U.S.), because it’s an argument against social spending, and it’s
a weapon against poor people abroad, because we can hold it up to them and say,
‘You guys have to follow these rules,’ then just go ahead and rob them.”
He also sees the world’s current economic star, China, and its people as
“brutal,” and so finds no profit in cozying up to either. Still, conceding that its
ascendance to power is unstoppable, he says: “I don’t think we should be asking

31
the question, ‘How do we improve relations with China?’ We should be asking
other questions like, What kind of relations do we want to have with China?’”
The saddest cautionary tale in this book is that of Princeton University
graduate Norman Finkelstein, a bright young man who committed career suicide
by exposing best-selling historian Joan Peters—whose book From Time
Immemorial said Palestinians never existed—as a charlatan. The problem was that
her work had been embraced by most of America’s finest intellectuals—including
writer Saul Bellow and historian Barbara Tuchman—so Mr. Finkelstein’s expose
was akin to calling them frauds.
Eyebrow-raisers aside, the question-and-answer format of this book captures
the rhythm of intellectual repartee between Chomsky and his audience but, more
importantly, breaks the monotony of what would otherwise be his marathon
soliloquy on the world’s ills. Indeed, his mind is such a ragbag of ideas that it is
not above pondering such things as the validation of vegetarianism. Yet, in the
end, his brilliance falls prey to a certain kind of intellectual snobbery, the sort
which asserts that heroes are not to be found “mentioned in the newspapers.” As
he puts it: “If they’re there, you know probably they’re not heroes, they’re anti-
heroes.”
Still, love him or hate him, there are not many thinkers around who can
proffer credible alternative perspectives on how power corrupts today. This book
is as much an antidote to apathy as it is a counterweight to elitist thought. As in
this paradox he surfaces: “You’ll see that so long as power remains privately
concentrated, everybody, everybody, has to be committed to one overriding goal:
To make sure that the rich folk are happy—because unless they are, nobody else
is going to get anything.
“So, if you’re a homeless person sleeping in the streets of Manhattan, let’s
say, your first concern must be that the guys in the mansions are happy—because
if they’re happy, then they’ll invest, and the economy will work, and things will
function, and then maybe something will trickle down to you somewhere along
the line. But if they’re not happy, everything’s going to grind to a halt . . .
basically, that’s a metaphor for the whole society.”
Select one answer choice for each of the following questions.
138. The phrase unpalatable truths as it is used in line 18 most nearly means
A. theories that have not been conclusively proven
B. facts that many people don’t like to accept as true
C. facts that are not accepted as true by experts
D. facts about a wide range of topics
E. information that is not widely disseminated

32
139. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following terms would
Noam Chomsky be most likely to apply to the present American economic-
political system?
A. socialistic
B. anarchic
C. bureaucratic
D. plutocratic
E. theocratic
Consider each of the three choices separately and select all that apply.
140. Which of the following are reasons that the author describes Noam Chomsky
as an “iconoclast” (line 25)?
A. Noam Chomsky does not accept the presupposition of most historians and
political scientists that social phenomena are subject to objective scientific
analysis.
B. Noam Chomsky is a maverick among intellectuals because of his view that the
media does not play a major role in American society.
C. Noam Chomsky frequently attacks widely held cherished beliefs.
Identify the sentence by writing its first three words and last three words on
the box numbered 141 (5 points)
141. Select the sentence that gives the author’s opinion of the validity of Noam
Chomsky’s political views.
138. 139. 140 141.

IV, WRITING (110 points)


 This section consists of FOUR parts.

Part 1: Read the following passage and summarise it. Your summary should be
100 and 120 words. (20 points)
Australia and the Great War, 1914 – 1918
Australia’s role in the First World War, or the Great War as it was known until
1939, is central to the development of modern Australia’s vision of itself in the
world. In many ways it has served to create what is in some ways a second
founding of the nation in the Gallipoli campaign and on the battlefields of France
and Belgium. The influence of the war experience in the First, and Second, World
War is evident in the way in which ANZAC day is, perhaps even more than
Australia day, the country’s national day.
When the war broke out in 1914, it was a certainty that, because of longstanding
economic, family and defense ties, Australia, along with New Zealand, would stand
alongside Britain. The then Prime Minister Andrew Fisher was quick to pledge the
country’s support to “the last man, the last shilling”. This was no idle promise and
Australia paid a high price for their loyalty to their colonizers. From a pre-war
33
population of 5m, 417,000 enlisted in the armed forces, of which 324,000 served
abroad. By the end of the war, Australia had lost 60,000 dead and 155,000 men had
been wounded. The economic price was also high. The national debt, which had
stood at ₤6m in 1914, was £325m by the end of the war.
It is possible that the first shot of the war was fired in Australia, when a shot was
fired across the bow of the German merchant ship Pfalz as it tried to escape from
Port Arthur only a few hour after the declaration of war. In late 1914 the light
cruiser HMAS Sydney sank the German warship Emden off the west coast of the
country. Also early in the war, Australian troops captured the German radio
transmitters in Rabaul and Nauru and conquered all of German New Guinea.
At first the Australian forces were intended only to defend Australia, but in 1915
the Australia New Zealand Army Corps (ANZAC) departed for Europe. Their first
stop was Egypt and it was because they were so close that they were chosen to take
part in the campaign to capture the Gallipoli peninsula, the key to shipping into the
Black Sea, from the Turks. The plan was for British, French and Anzac forces to
land on the peninsular at night at weak points in the Turkish defense. However,
strong winds blew the troops off course to better defended spots and in the
advantage was lost. What followed was months of bitter fighting in which 20,000
British and 7,000 ANZAC soldiers were killed and which ended in a successful
withdrawal, but no gain for the Allies. It was at this moment of history that
Australia was propelled on to the world stage. From this moment onward Australia
began to think of itself as a country in its own right; as being separate to Britain and
no longer a colony.
Most of the ANZAC force was sent to Europe, but the Australian Light Horse
remained to fight Turkish forces in Palestine and Syria. They defended the Suez
Canal and advanced through Palestine and Syria. They also took part in what was
one of the world’s last great cavalry charges at Beersheba.
The main ANZAC force arrived in Europe in 1916. The ANZAC experience was
similar to that of the other participants in the war; a high death toll and little gain to
be shown for it. Australian forces were present at all the major battles of the war
and sustained some terrible casualties. For example, in 24 hours near Pozieres the
5th Division suffered 5,000 casualties. At the battle of Bullecort, of the 3,000 men
who advanced, 2339 were killed, wounded or captured.
By 1917 most of the officers were not professional soldiers. The most prominent
example was General Sir John Monash, who was an engineer by training. He
commanded the allied forces at the battle of Hamel so well that the general staff
published the battle reports as a model. In August 1918, he commanded 200,000
troops on what way called “Ludendorff’s black day”, a turning point in the war.
Monash was probably Australia’s greatest military figure.
Unlike in other armies in the war, the Australian soldiers were all volunteers. They
were also more individualistic and showed less respect for the rulebook than other

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soldiers. The relationship between ranks was more democratic and officer had to
win the respect of their troops. All in all, they paid a high price for fighting in the
war. Of the 324,000 soldiers who served overseas in the war 215,000 were killed or
wounded. This was the highest proportion of any of the countries in the war and
was probably due to the Australians fighting qualities, which meant that they were
often used on the frontline of the fighting.
At home, the war had a significant effect on the economy. Negative effects
included the end of British investment, the closure of many shipping lanes and the
stockpiling of Australia’s main export, wool. However, the isolation that resulted
from the war meant that Australia had to make some things that had previously
been imported. This led to the development of new industries. In addition, the BHP
smelting company, which is now a major Australian company, saw a great increase
in demand for iron and steel. The needs of the war were stimulus for the beginning
of full industrialization in Australia.
At the signing of the treaty of Versailles, which marked the end of the war,
Australia signed as a separate country. This reflected the fact that, at the cost of
60,000 dead, Australia had finally emerged from the shadow of Britain. The Great
War was, perhaps, the beginning of modern Australian history.
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Part 2: The table below gives information about consumer spending on different
items in five different countries in 2002. (20 points)
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisions where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

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Part 3: Rising university fees and scarce employment prospects for graduates
have led some people to say that universities should not teach arts subjects,
like philosophy and history, and only offer practical degree courses that
maximise chances of employment.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? Give a reason for your answer and
include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You
should write about 350 words. (30 points)
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Part 4: Sonnet 18 is one of the most famous poems in the English language.
Why do you think this is the case? How does the speaker use natural imagery
to create a picture of the young man’s beauty? Write an essay of around 600-
1000 words to clarify your ideas. (40 points)
Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day?
Thou art more lovely and more temperate:
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May,
And summer’s lease hath all too short a date;
Sometime too hot the eye of heaven shines,
And often is his gold complexion dimm'd;
And every fair from fair sometime declines,
By chance or nature’s changing course untrimm'd;
But thy eternal summer shall not fade,
Nor lose possession of that fair thou ow’st;
Nor shall death brag thou wander’st in his shade,
When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st:
So long as men can breathe or eyes can see,
So long lives this, and this gives life to thee.
-William Shakespeare-
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Part V: SPEAKING (40 points)


Ngồi tự kỷ sẽ dược điểm.

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