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Test Bank for Fundamental Orthopedic Management for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Ed

Test Bank for Fundamental Orthopedic Management


for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition:
Shankman

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-for-the-physical-therapist-assistant-3rd-edition-shankman/

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Shankman & Manske: Fundamental Orthopedic Management for the
Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Edition
Chapter 06: Balance and Coordination

Test Bank

1. Select the term that is defined as the ability to maintain the center of body mass (COM)
over the base of support.

A. Coordination
B. Neuromuscular control
C. Proprioception
D. Balance

Answer: D
Rationale: Balance is often defined as the ability to maintain the center of body mass (COM)
over the base of support.

2. Select the term that is defined as the ability to produce patterns of body and limb motions
in the context of environmental objects and events.

A. Coordination
B. Neuromuscular control
C. Proprioception
D. Balance

Answer: A
Rationale: Coordination is the ability to produce patterns of body and limb motions in the
context of environmental objects and events.

3. What term is defined as the perception of knowing joint position, movement, and
movement resistance?

A. Coordination
B. Neuromuscular control
C. Proprioception
D. Balance

Answer: C
Rationale: Essential to joint positions is sufficient sensory (afferent) information regarding
joint position, movement (kinesthesia), and movement resistance, or tension. The afferent
information contributing to these three elements is called proprioception. Proprioception is
vital for neuromuscular control.

Copyright © 2011, 2004, 1997 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.


Test Bank 6-2

4. Where are mechanoreceptors located?

A. Muscle
B. Tendon
C. Ligament
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Rationale: Mechanoreceptors are the sensory receptors that are responsible for converting
mechanical events (movement or tension) into neural signals that can be conveyed to the
central nervous system.

5. Muscle spindles convey information regarding:

A. nutrients delivered to the muscle


B. muscle length and rate of length change
C. muscle tension
D. the balance of the body

Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle spindles are responsible for conveying information regarding muscle
length and rate of length changes.

6. Which of the following mechanoreceptors is responsible for conveying information


regarding muscle tension?

A. Golgi tendon organs


B. Ruffini receptors
C. Pacinian corpuscles
D. Free nerve endings

Answer: A
Rationale: Golgi tendon organs, located across a musculotendinous junction, are responsible
for conveying information regarding muscle tension.

7. Balance tests and balance treatment activities use the same movements. How does the
PTA challenge the patient and test different aspects of the postural control system?

A. By counting the number of repetitions within a given time frame


B. By counting the time the patient can maintain a certain balance activity
C. By manipulating the conditions in which the balance tasks are conducted
D. There is no way to change balance tests; they are designed to measure all aspects of the
postural control system

Copyright © 2011, 2004, 1997 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.


Test Bank 6-3

Answer: C
Rationale: Different aspects of the postural control system may be more selectively
challenged by manipulating the conditions in which balance tasks are conducted. For
example, having a patient stand with the eyes closed heightens his or her reliance on
somatosensory and vestibular information.

8. Which of the following are included in a comprehensive balance assessment and


training?

A. Progressive tasks of incremental difficulty


B. Static stance with varying bases of support
C. Progressive tasks with unexpected perturbations
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Rationale: Comprehensive balance assessment and training frequently call for a progressive
battery of specific tasks of incremental difficulty and should include not only static stances
with varying bases of support and support-surface characteristics, but also tasks that involve
voluntary movement and unexpected perturbations with task completion.

9. Which of the following descriptions of coordination tests applies to the finger-to-nose


test?

A. A static position test in which the arms are held horizontal or the knees extended
B. A reciprocal motion test in which the patient is asked to receive and deliver a ball
C. A reciprocal motion test in which the patient alternately touches the tip of each finger
with the tip of the thumb
D. A reciprocal motion test in which the patient touches the tip of the index finger to the tip
of the nose

Answer: D
Rationale: The finger-to-nose coordination test involves having the patient touch the tip of
the index finger to the tip of the nose.

10. Your patient had a postural stress test (PST) and scored a 1. What does this mean?

A. The patient was unable to correct his balance.


B. The patient had no loss of balance during the test.
C. The patient could reach an adequate distance to reach an object outside of his immediate
grasp.
D. The patient could stand on an uneven surface, hopping on one foot for a period of 1
minute without losing balance.

Copyright © 2011, 2004, 1997 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.


Test Bank 6-4

Answer: A
Rationale: The PST quantifies static balance. It is graded on a scale from 0 to 9, with 0
representing a total inability to correct balance and 9 representing no loss of balance. A score
of 1 means that the patient was unable to adequately correct his balance.

11. When planning a progressive balance training plan for your postoperative patient, where
would you begin with activities?

A. The tasks and drills begin and progress according to the abilities of the patient.
B. The tasks and drills are established two levels above what the patient can perform to
challenge his balance and coordination.
C. The tasks and drills are initiated a level below what the patient can perform and progress
as the patient progresses.
D. The tasks and drills are established based on the diagnosis and followed on a set time
schedule.

Answer: A
Rationale: Tasks and drills are initiated and progress according to the abilities and desired
goals of the patient.

12. Which of the following exercises is NOT a closed-kinetic chain (CKC) exercise?

A. Double- and single-leg squats on stable and unstable surfaces


B. Forward and backward gait
C. Sidestepping and heel-to-toe walking
D. Reaching for an object placed outside of the patient’s reach

Answer: D
Rationale: Progressively challenging tasks and CKC exercises stimulate a patient’s ability to
safely and accurately negotiate obstacles. Such exercises include the double- and single-leg
squats, forward and backward gait, sidestepping, and heel-to-toe walking.

13. For which training tasks would a wobble board be used?

A. Balance training for the lower extremities


B. Coordination training for the upper extremities
C. Proprioceptive training for the upper extremities
D. Flexibility training for the lower extremities

Answer: A
Rationale: The wobble board, or balance board, is a portable and affordable device. It is
used in balance training for lower extremities.

Copyright © 2011, 2004, 1997 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.


Test Bank 6-5

14. Which training exercise would be most appropriate for the glenohumeral joint of a
gymnast?

A. Double- and single-leg squats on stable and unstable surfaces


B. Forward and backward gait walking
C. Medicine balls and physioballs
D. Stretching exercises that emphasize the spine and hips

Answer: C
Rationale: Global stability of the glenohumeral joint can be enhanced effectively with the use
of medicine balls and physioballs (Fig. 6-8, B1 and B2).

15. A critical safety component in all balance and proprioception activities is the patient’s
ability to demonstrate which of the following?

A. Increased range of motion


B. Improved strength
C. Steady gait
D. Protective reactions

Answer: D
Rationale: Close observation of the patient’s protective reactions during loss of balance is a
critical component of all balance tests and training activities.

16. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to balance dysfunction?

A. Range of motion
B. Coordination
C. Perception
D. CKC exercises

Answer: D
Rationale: Duncan identified several factors that may significantly contribute to balance
dysfunction: perception, behavior, range of motion, biomechanical alignment, weakness,
synergistic organization strategy, coordination, and adaptability.

17. Your patient had a postural stress test (PST) and scored a 9. What does this mean?

A. The patient was unable to correct his balance.


B. The patient had no loss of balance during test.
C. The patient could reach an adequate distance to reach an object outside of his immediate
grasp.
D. The patient could stand on an uneven surface, hopping on one foot for a period of 1
minute without losing balance.

Copyright © 2011, 2004, 1997 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.


Test Bank for Fundamental Orthopedic Management for the Physical Therapist Assistant, 3rd Ed

Test Bank 6-6

Answer: B
Rationale: The PST quantifies static balance. It is graded on a scale from 0 to 9, with 0
representing a total inability to correct balance and 9 representing no loss of balance.

18. Why is balance training and proprioceptive training needed for upper extremities?

A. Many household chores involve the repetitive use of arms and shoulders to lift, pull, and
carry.
B. Surgery, injury, and immobilization lead to significant alterations in proprioception.
C. Many workers use their arms and shoulders in their jobs with vigorous weight bearing.
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Rationale: All of the listed items are reasons why balance training and proprioceptive
training are needed for the upper extremities.

19. In progressive balancing exercises, which of the following exercises would come first?

A. Seated: eyes open, then eyes closed


B. Single-leg standing: eyes open, then eyes closed
C. Mini trampoline: double-leg standing
D. Balance board

Answer: A
Rationale: Progressive balancing exercises are in Box 6-2. Seated: eyes open, then eyes
closed comes first.

20. In progressive balancing exercises, which of the following exercises would come last?

A. Seated: eyes open, then eyes closed


B. Single-leg standing: eyes open, then eyes closed
C. Mini trampoline: double-leg standing
D. Balance board

Answer: D
Rationale: Progressive balancing exercises are in Box 6-2. The balance board activities
would come last in this list.

Copyright © 2011, 2004, 1997 by Mosby, Inc., an affiliate of Elsevier Inc.

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