Test Bank for Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology, 9th Edition, Ronald J. Comer, Jonathan S.

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Abnormal

Psychology, 9th Edition, Ronald J. Comer, Jonathan
S. Comer

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1. Poor health is BEST described as a:
A) stress.
B) stressor.
C) stress response.
D) stress model.

2. A person who copes well with a happy event in life is showing a positive:
A) stress.
B) stressor.
C) stress response.
D) stress model.

3. Having to walk the dog several times a day when it is raining is an example of a:
A) stressor.
B) stress response.
C) stress disorder.
D) psychophysical disorder.

4. Looking for rainbows while walking the dog in the rain is an example of a:
A) stressor.
B) stress response.
C) social support system.
D) potential stressor.

5. The statement, "This is awful, but I guess I can deal with it like I do everything else,"
represents one person's:
A) stress.
B) stressor.
C) stress response.
D) somatization.

6. In the face of fear, a person is unable to concentrate and develops a distorted view of the
world. This person is showing which fear response?
A) physical
B) emotional
C) cognitive
D) psychological

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 7. A student who dreads being called on in class, and in fact panics at the thought of public
speaking, is experiencing a(n) _____ response to stress.
A) physical
B) cognitive
C) emotional
D) developmental

8. A student who turns pale and feels nauseated when called on to speak in class is
experiencing a(n) _____ response to stress.
A) emotional
B) cognitive
C) developmental
D) physical

9. What do acute and posttraumatic stress disorder have in common with dissociative
disorders?
A) They are disorders of the twentieth century; that is, they were not diagnosed before
1900.
B) They are most successfully treated with the same sort of
medication—antipsychotics.
C) They are triggered by traumatic events.
D) They are varieties of depression.

10. The part of the body that releases hormones into the bloodstream is the _____ system.
A) nervous
B) exocrine
C) endocrine
D) autonomic

11. In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goose bumps, and feel
nauseated. These responses are controlled by the ______ nervous system.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) sympathetic
D) parasympathetic

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12. If a deer jumps in front of your car while you are driving, which part of the stress
response is active?
A) parasympathetic nervous system
B) cortisol system
C) conservation system
D) sympathetic nervous system

13. The organ that produces a hormone that is involved in the reaction to fearful and
stressful situations is the:
A) ganglion.
B) adrenal gland.
C) hippocampus.
D) medulla.

14. Imagine that you just had a "close call" while driving, but now you feel your body
returning to normal. Which part of your nervous system is controlling this return to
normalcy?
A) somatic nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system

15. The group of hormones that appear to be MOST involved in arousal and the fear
reaction are the:
A) prolactins.
B) corticosteroids.
C) adrenalaltoids.
D) beta-blockers.

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16. Which statement accurately describes the sympathetic nervous system pathway of the
stress response?
A) The hypothalamus excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites
body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing even
more arousal.
B) The parasympathetic nervous system excites the sympathetic nervous system,
which then excites body organs to release hormones that serve as
neurotransmitters, producing even more arousal.
C) The hypothalamus excites the parasympathetic nervous system, which then excites
body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing even
more arousal.
D) The hypothalamus inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, which then inhibits
body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing a
reduction in arousal.

17. Which statement accurately describes the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway of the

stress response?
A) The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes
the adrenal gland to release corticosteroids.
B) The hypothalamus produces corticosteroids, which stimulate the pituitary to
produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release
adrenocorticotropic hormone.
C) The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce corticosteroids that cause the
adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone.
D) The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes
the adrenal gland to release hypothalamic hormone in a feedback loop.

18. A teammate of a basketball player says, "Congratulations on making those

game-winning free throws. Weren't you bothered by the fans waving their arms behind
the basket?" The basketball player replies, "Thanks. I felt a little nervous, but to tell the
truth, I didn't even notice the fans." MOST likely, the player who made the foul shots
has:
A) high state and trait anxiety.
B) low trait anxiety, but high state anxiety.
C) high trait anxiety, but low state anxiety.
D) low state and trait anxiety.

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19. I am generally a calm, relaxed person. If you are generally a tense, excitable person, we
differ in ______ anxiety.
A) trait
B) state
C) situation
D) content

20. Some people are stimulated by exciting, potentially dangerous activities that terrify
others. These varying reactions represent differences in ______ anxiety.
A) trait
B) state
C) neurotic
D) existential

21. A person who witnessed a horrible accident and then became unusually anxious and
depressed for three weeks is probably experiencing:
A) posttraumatic stress disorder.
B) pretraumatic stress disorder.
C) combat fatigue.
D) acute stress disorder.

22. Posttraumatic stress disorder:

A) begins immediately after the stress occurs.
B) lasts between one and three weeks.
C) doesn't begin until years after the traumatic event.
D) lasts longer than a month.

23. A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that begins shortly after a
horrible event and persists for less than a month is called:
A) hysteria.
B) acute stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.

24. One distinction that DSM-5 makes between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic
stress disorder is based on:
A) how intense the anxiety-linked symptoms are.
B) what the cause of the anxiety-linked symptoms was.
C) how long the anxiety symptoms last.
D) what sort of treatment is contemplated for the anxiety-linked symptoms.

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25. A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that persists for years after a
horrible event is called:
A) hysteria.
B) acute stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.

26. Which of the following is typical of posttraumatic stress disorder?

A) increased arousal, negative emotions, and guilt
B) inability to remember the event that led to the stress
C) increased responsiveness and emotion right after the event
D) a tendency to want to go back to see the site of the stress

27. Which is the BEST example of "reduced responsiveness" as it relates to posttraumatic

stress disorder?
A) feeling detached or estranged from others and loss of interest in activities
B) feelings of extreme guilt for surviving the traumatic event
C) reliving the event through daydreams and night dreams
D) excessive talking about the event in inappropriate settings

28. Which does NOT characterize stress disorders?

A) recurring memories, dreams, or nightmares about the event
B) a compulsive need to engage in activities that remind one of the event
C) reduced responsiveness to the world around one
D) signs of increased arousal, such as poor sleep and exaggerated startle reactions

29. A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who is upset by what she or he had to do to
survive and perhaps even feels unworthy of surviving is:
A) reexperiencing the traumatic event.
B) experiencing avoidance.
C) experiencing reduced responsiveness.
D) experiencing increased anger, anxiety, and guilt.

30. A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who is having "flashbacks" is:
A) reexperiencing the traumatic event.
B) experiencing avoidance.
C) experiencing reduced responsiveness.
D) experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.

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31. A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who refuses to talk about the trauma they
experienced is:
A) reexperiencing the traumatic event.
B) demonstrating avoidance.
C) demonstrating reduced responsiveness.
D) demonstrating increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.

32. A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who has symptoms of derealization is:
A) reexperiencing the traumatic event.
B) experiencing avoidance.
C) experiencing reduced responsiveness.
D) experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.

33. Women are _____ as likely as men to develop stress disorders.

A) equally
B) at least twice
C) three times
D) four times

34. People with low incomes are _____ as likely as people with higher incomes to
experience one of the stress disorders.
A) just
B) twice
C) three times
D) four times

35. When was acute stress disorder as a result of combat (called "shell shock") first
recognized?
A) during World War I
B) after World War II
C) during the Vietnam War
D) during the Iraqi War

36. Those who are MOST likely to experience a psychological stress disorder are:
A) female, or low-income individuals.
B) male, or low-income individuals.
C) female, or high-income individuals.
D) male, or high-income individuals.

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37. Based on recent research, it can be concluded that the impact of repeated combat
deployments:
A) significantly increases one's risk of developing PTSD.
B) doesn't impact troops much at all.
C) actually decreases the risk of a soldier experiencing PTSD.
D) increases PTSD risk, but only by a small amount.

38. A friend says, "If we could just eliminate combat traumas, we could eliminate a great
deal of posttraumatic stress disorder." Your response would MOST likely be:
A) "Yes—in fact, combat trauma is the leading source of PTSD worldwide."
B) "Yes—combat trauma produces as many cases of PTSD worldwide as civilian
trauma does."
C) "Yes—although civilian trauma causes many more cases of PTSD than combat
trauma does."
D) "Maybe—however, many researchers think that combat trauma is significantly
overrated as a source of PTSD."

39. Which is the MOST common experience for a veteran of the wars in Iraq and
Afghanistan?
A) seeing dead or gravely wounded civilians
B) seeing friends seriously wounded or killed
C) being injured or hospitalized themselves
D) being treated for a combat-related stress disorder

40. Dorian was only 10 miles away from Mount St. Helens when it erupted with one of the
largest blasts in history. There was ash and lava everywhere, and he was terrified and
sure he was going to die. When rescue teams found him a week later, he was cold,
hungry, and scared. More than a year later, he still had nightmares and woke up in a
cold sweat. This description BEST fits a(n):
A) phobia.
B) acute stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.

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41. Salina was terrified during the San Francisco earthquake of 1989—who wouldn't be?
For a couple of weeks after, she did not sleep well or feel comfortable inside a building.
However, the fears gradually diminished, disappearing within a month. Her reaction to
the earthquake would MOST likely be diagnosed as a(n):
A) panic attack.
B) phobic reaction.
C) acute stress disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.

42. Almost every night, Cara wakes up terrified and screaming for the boys to get off her.
Two years later she still can't get the night she was attacked out of her mind. The fear,
anxiety, and depression are ruining her life. This is an example of a(n):
A) phobia.
B) panic reaction.
C) acute stress reaction.
D) posttraumatic stress reaction.

43. How concerned should we be about victims of sexual assault and terror? Is there a very
great risk that they will experience PTSD?
A) Yes, the risk is great; more than a third of sexual assault victims and about half of
terror victims experience PTSD.
B) Yes, the risk is great; virtually everyone who experiences sexual assault or terror
eventually experiences PTSD.
C) No, the risk isn't great; only about 10 percent of sexual assault and terror victims
experience PTSD.
D) No, the risk isn't great; the number of people in these groups who experience PTSD
is probably overestimated.

44. Which statement about rape is accurate?

A) Most rape victims do not know their attackers.
B) Most rape victims are young adults.
C) About equal numbers of men and women are raped.
D) About 1 in 10 women are raped in their lifetime.

45. Which statement about the long-term effects of rape on women is accurate?
A) Rape impacts a woman's psychological well-being but not her physical well-being.
B) Rape impacts a woman's psychological and physical health.
C) For the vast majority of women, the impact of rape does not persist beyond about
four months.
D) The greatest stress is experienced many months after the rape rather than
immediately after the rape.

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46. What proportion of women are the victims of rape at some point during their lives?
A) 1 in 2
B) 1 in 4
C) 1 in 6
D) 1 in 8

47. What percentage of rape victims qualified for the diagnosis of acute stress disorder in
Rothbaum et al.'s (1992) study?
A) 12 percent
B) 43 percent
C) 76 percent
D) 94 percent

48. Which of the following is MOST likely to experience stress related to employment?
A) Stacey, a 32-year old Caucasian single mother
B) Juan, a Hispanic American male age 40
C) Sean, an African American male age 35
D) Monique, an African American single mother age 42

49. Which of the following is NOT a top stressor in the United States?
A) job pressure
B) money
C) health
D) transportation

50. A torture victim who is subjected to threats of death, mock executions, and degradation
is experiencing what type of torture?
A) psychological
B) physical
C) deprivation
D) sexual

51. Investigators have shown that traumatic events are related to abnormal activity of the
neurotransmitter:
A) GABA.
B) serotonin.
C) epinephrine.
D) norepinephrine.

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52. A person's levels of cortisol and norepinephrine are in the normal range. MOST likely,
that person is experiencing:
A) posttraumatic stress disorder.
B) the fight-or-flight syndrome.
C) severe stress response.
D) no stress disorder.

53. About 30 percent of those receiving outpatient therapy are diagnosed with an adjustment
disorder. Some experts say adjustment disorders are:
A) overdiagnosed, because they are easy to apply to many problems and are less
stigmatizing than other diagnoses.
B) overdiagnosed, because clinicians often fail to see that what they label adjustment
disorders are in fact stress disorders.
C) underdiagnosed, because many clinicians suspect malingering is the problem, not
an adjustment disorder.
D) underdiagnosed, because many clinicians are unwilling to give a diagnosis when a
person might not really have a disorder.

54. Someone you know has just been diagnosed with an adjustment disorder. You can be
reasonably sure that this person's disorder is:
A) actually within the range of normal functioning, so it is not really a DSM-5
disorder.
B) not normal, but less severe than acute distress disorder or posttraumatic stress
disorder.
C) not normal, and more severe than acute distress disorder, but less severe than
posttraumatic stress disorder.
D) not normal, and more severe than either acute distress disorder or posttraumatic
stress disorder.

55. What do we know about the inheritance of PTSD?

A) The tendency to develop PTSD cannot be passed on from one generation to the
next.
B) The tendency to develop PTSD is a characteristics located on the Y chromosome.
C) Both men and women appear to be able to pass on their tendency to develop PTSD.
D) Women who have high cortisol levels tend to have children with high cortisol
levels.

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56. Based on current research, what is the relationship between personality and stress
disorders?
A) Certain personality characteristics are related to the development of stress
disorders, but not to recovery from these disorders.
B) Personality characteristics are related to both the development of stress disorders
and recovery from them.
C) Certain personality characteristics are related to recovery from stress disorders, but
not to their development.
D) Personality characteristics are related to neither the development of nor recovery
from stress disorders.

57. Those people MOST likely to develop stress disorders are:

A) anxious, and think they can control negative things that happen to them.
B) not anxious, and think they can control negative things that happen to them.
C) anxious, and think they cannot control negative things that happen to them.
D) not anxious, and think they cannot control negative things that happen to them.

58. The people MOST likely to develop stress disorders lived their childhood in:
A) well-to-do families and had parents who divorced when the people were in their
teens.
B) well-to-do families and had parents who divorced when the people were younger
than 10 years old.
C) poverty and had parents who divorced when the people were in their teens.
D) poverty and had parents who divorced when the people were younger than 10 years
old.

59. According to research, which person would probably NOT develop a stress disorder
following trauma?
A) someone who believes that events are generally under his or her control
B) someone who has a poor level of psychological adjustment before the trauma
C) someone who is unable to find anything positive about a horrible situation
D) someone who could be described as not very handy

60. After Marie's plane crashed, her mother came to stay while Marie recovered. Her friends
visited often and went to lunch and dinner with her occasionally. This situation probably
contributed to Marie's coping ability after the accident. How does this relate as a factor
in her response to stress?
A) personality
B) social support
C) severity of the trauma
D) the nature of her childhood experiences

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61. Kelly was in a passenger plane that had engine trouble. She watched as all four engines
quit, one at a time. Then the plane exploded and she was thrown 5,000 feet in the air. It
was a miracle that she survived, although she was severely injured. She landed in a thick
pine forest covered with 10 feet or more of snow. When she regained consciousness
several weeks later, she had a stress reaction that lasted for years, and she could never
fly again. The factor that probably MOST contributed to her extreme posttraumatic
stress reaction was:
A) her personality.
B) her social support.
C) the severity of the trauma.
D) the nature of her childhood experiences.

62. Several studies have demonstrated that Hispanic American combat veterans and police
officers have higher rates of PTSD than other veterans or officers. Research into the
causes of this difference have MOST often focused on possible:
A) genetic and neurotransmitter causes.
B) cultural belief system and social support factors.
C) prejudice within military and police forces.
D) early childhood differences in educational experiences.

63. A friend says to you, "I know someone who is a combat veteran who was just diagnosed
with PTSD. Do you think therapy will help this person?" Which is the BEST answer
you can give based on current research?
A) "Probably—about two-thirds of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually show
improvement."
B) "Probably—more than 90 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually
show improvement."
C) "Almost certainly—about 80 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD show
almost immediate improvement, and most of the rest show improvement within
two years of starting therapy."
D) "Yes—almost everyone receiving treatment for PTSD shows improvement within a
few months."

64. Which would a combat veteran receiving the best treatment for a stress disorder NOT be
likely to experience?
A) antipsychotic medication
B) family therapy
C) rap groups
D) exposure therapy

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65. A combat veteran undergoing "eye movement desensitization and reprocessing" is
experiencing _____ therapy.
A) exposure
B) group
C) insight
D) drug

66. "The therapist wants me to imagine scenes where I was in combat and imagine them
like I was there. I don't want to do that! How can this possibly help me?" Which is the
BEST answer you can give to a combat veteran who says this?
A) "That really can't help you. The best thing to do is suppress your fear, control it."
B) "Your therapist is suggesting something called 'virtual exposure,' but no one knows
if it helps."
C) "Your therapist is suggesting an effective form of exposure called 'flooding.'"
D) "You should try drug therapy; that usually works, even without additional therapy."

67. Combat veterans in a therapy group express a great deal of guilt and rage. MOST likely,
the veterans are in a(n):
A) desensitization and reprocessing group.
B) rap group.
C) "experience writing" group.
D) exposure group.

68. If someone asked you about the effectiveness of psychological debriefing following a
disaster, you would be correct (based on the research) in saying that:
A) there have been no controlled research studies on the topic of debriefing.
B) there is little evidence that debriefing works.
C) there is strong, convincing evidence that debriefing works well.
D) there is evidence that debriefing works only if conducted by community members
themselves.

69. Which is an accurate statement about the effectiveness of psychological debriefing in

the aftermath of a disaster (based on research studies)?
A) Debriefing helps both rescuers and victims.
B) Debriefing by victims is more effective than debriefing by professionals.
C) Debriefing doesn't work too well; it might even make victims worse.
D) Debriefing is so ineffective that it is no longer done.

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70. A person experiencing multiple personalities would MOST accurately be diagnosed
with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) dissociative disorder.
C) fugue.
D) amnesia.

71. If you had lost your sense of identity, what would MOST likely be disrupted?
A) your relationships
B) your intellectual functioning
C) your attitudes toward your body
D) your memory

72. Dissociative disorders:

A) involve major changes in memory.
B) usually have a precise physical cause.
C) are a type of anxiety disorder.
D) must involve the presence of multiple personalities

73. Which diagnosis includes a breakdown in sense of self, a significant alteration in

memory or identity, and even a separation of one part of the identity from another part?
A) mood disorder
B) personality disorder
C) dissociative disorder
D) histrionic personality disorder

74. People who are unable to recall important information about themselves, especially
information of an upsetting nature, are MOST likely experiencing:
A) depersonalization.
B) dissociative amnesia.
C) body dysmorphic disorder.
D) the placebo response.

75. In the MOST common type of dissociative amnesia, a person loses memory for:
A) some but not all the events surrounding the trauma.
B) all events beginning with the trauma but within a limited period of time.
C) all events from the trauma onward.
D) all events before and after the trauma.

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76. After a major earthquake, television coverage showed survivors shuffling confusedly
through the ruined buildings. If such victims later could not remember the days
immediately after the earthquake, the victims would be suffering from what type of
amnesia?
A) continuous
B) selective
C) posttraumatic
D) localized

77. Shawn experiences a mugging and robbery in which his dog is kidnapped. Eventually
the dog is found and returned. However, he is unable to recall events immediately
following the attack, up until the safe return of the dog. This is a classic example of
______amnesia.
A) selective
B) localized
C) continuous
D) generalized

78. Gwendolyn is held up at knifepoint and her young son is kidnapped. Eventually, her son
is found and returned. However, she is unable to recall events that occurred since the
attack, although she remembers some new experiences; worse still, she finds that she is
forgetting events that occurred even before the attack. This is a classic example of
______ amnesia.
A) selective
B) localized
C) continuous
D) generalized

79. Carlotta is attacked in the street and her young daughter is kidnapped. Eventually, the
police find her daughter and she is returned to her mother. However, Carlotta is unable
to recall events that have occurred since the attack. She is even unable to retain new
information; she remembers what happened before the attack but cannot remember new
and ongoing experiences. This is a classic example of ______ amnesia.
A) localized
B) selective
C) continuous
D) generalized

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80. Ever since the auto accident, during which he was miraculously unhurt, Paul has not
been the same. He forgets appointments, friends' names, and even things done in the last
few days. His amnesia is termed:
A) continuous.
B) organic.
C) circumscribed.
D) selective.

81. Which is NOT an example of memory recovery techniques used by therapists?

A) hypnosis
B) journal writing
C) imagining the event
D) dream interpretation

82. A personality change that often accompanies dissociative fugues is that people become:
A) more withdrawn.
B) more outgoing.
C) more inhibited.
D) more histrionic in their emotional reactions.

83. Dissociative fugues usually:

A) follow a stressful event.
B) end very gradually.
C) have numerous recurrences.
D) involve irrecoverable memory loss.

84. Which statement BEST describes the difference between dissociative amnesia and
dissociative fugue?
A) Those with dissociative fugue change where they live.
B) Those with dissociative amnesia often develop amnesia without experiencing an
upsetting event.
C) Those with dissociative fugue experience a loss of semantic, rather than episodic
knowledge.
D) Those with dissociative amnesia experience a loss of semantic, rather than
episodic, knowledge.

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85. An individual who had suffered from dissociative fugue likely would have experienced
all of the following EXCEPT:
A) relatively few aftereffects.
B) a recurrence of the problem months or years later.
C) a fairly sudden ending to the dissociative fugue state.
D) a traumatic event.

86. One who suffers from dissociative identity disorder is MOST likely to be a:
A) man who was physically abused as a child.
B) woman who was physically abused as a child.
C) man who was not physically abused as a child.
D) woman who was not physically abused as a child.

87. A client who is talking calmly and rationally all of a sudden begins whining and
complaining like a spoiled child. If that client suffers from true dissociative identity
disorder, the client just experienced:
A) host transfer.
B) mutual cognizance.
C) lability.
D) switching.

88. A person with dissociative identity disorder has just experienced "switching." What
MOST likely has happened?
A) The host personality has put in a relatively rare appearance.
B) The person has faked a change in personality.
C) Two subpersonalities rapidly changed back and forth several times.
D) The person has changed from one personality to another.

89. Alexis has dissociative identity disorder. When one of her personalities, Jodi, is asked
about another one, Tom, she claims ignorance. Tom has never heard of Jodi either. This
would be called a:
A) coconscious relationship.
B) mutually cognizant pattern.
C) one-way amnesic relationship.
D) mutually amnesic relationship.

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90. When all of the subpersonalities in a person with dissociative identity disorder are aware
of one another, it is termed a:
A) coconscious relationship.
B) mutually cognizant pattern.
C) one-way amnesic relationship.
D) mutually amnesic relationship.

91. Raymond has dissociative identity disorder. All of his subpersonalities talk about and
tattle on each other. This is called a:
A) coconscious relationship.
B) mutually cognizant pattern.
C) one-way amnesic relationship.
D) mutually amnesic relationship.

92. In a case of dissociative identity disorder, Pat is aware of the existence of Jerry and
Chris, but Jerry and Chris are not aware of the existence of the other personalities. This
form of subpersonality relationship is called:
A) one-way amnesic.
B) mutually cognizant.
C) mutually amnesic.
D) coconscious.

93. Juanita has dissociative identity disorder. Big Tony and Smart Alice are two
personalities who are aware of all of the others. None of her other personalities are
aware of each other. This would be called a:
A) coconscious relationship.
B) mutually cognizant pattern.
C) one-way amnesic relationship.
D) mutually amnesic relationship.

94. Jason has dissociative identity disorder. Fat Freddy and Carmen are two personalities
who are aware of all of the others but do not interact with them. Fat Freddy and Carmen
would be described as:
A) self-reliant.
B) co-occurring.
C) coconscious.
D) mutually cognizant.

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95. Modern studies suggest that the average number of subpersonalities in cases of
dissociative identity disorder in women is about:
A) 8, and is lower for men.
B) 8, and is higher for men.
C) 15, and is lower for men.
D) 15, and is higher for men.

96. An individual who formerly knew how to speak a foreign language and play a musical
instrument can no longer remember how to as a result of a dissociative disorder. The
dissociative disorder MOST likely is:
A) dissociative fugue.
B) dissociative amnesia.
C) dissociative identity.
D) Such memories are affected about equally by the dissociative disorders.

97. Research on evoked potential with people with dissociative identity disorder has
revealed that:
A) different subpersonalities have shown different brain response patterns.
B) people with dissociative identity disorder did not show different brain response
patterns for subpersonalities.
C) no differences were found in brain activity between controls and individuals with
dissociative identity disorder.
D) control subjects who were asked to pretend they had different personalities were
able to create different brain response patterns for each subpersonality.

98. _____ people feel they are living with extreme stress.
A) 33%
B) 48%
C) 52%
D) 54%

99. How do results from evoked potential studies support the idea of the existence of
multiple personalities?
A) Evoked potentials can be elicited iatrogenically by therapists.
B) Different subpersonalities have been found to show different brain wave patterns.
C) Nonpatients are able to fake results just like those diagnosed with multiple
personalities.
D) Only those with traumatic backgrounds produce evoked potentials.

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100. In the United States, the number of diagnosed cases per year of dissociative identity
disorder:
A) has increased.
B) has decreased.
C) first increased, then decreased.
D) first decreased, then increased.

101. How many people lie awake at night due to stress?

A) 33%
B) 48%
C) 52%
D) 54%

102. Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative amnesias and fugues result from:
A) projection.
B) regression.
C) repression.
D) sublimation.

103. Which statement provides the most persuasive argument against a psychodynamic
explanation for dissociative identity disorder?
A) Hardly any case studies support a psychodynamic explanation.
B) Repression cannot be used to explain the disorder.
C) Some abused children don't develop the disorder.
D) Psychodynamic therapists do not even attempt to treat the disorder.

104. "An abused child's thoughts occasionally drift to other, less anxiety-arousing, topics;
this anxiety reduction thus serves to strengthen 'other' thoughts, while weakening the
thoughts about abuse." A psychologist with which theoretical background would be
most likely to offer this quotation as an explanation for the development of dissociative
disorders?
A) psychodynamic
B) biological
C) behavioral
D) sociocultural

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105. In addition to failing to explain why some people who experience severe trauma do not
develop dissociative disorders, behavioral theorists also have the MOST difficulty
explaining how:
A) reinforcement is related to the onset of the disorder.
B) temporary escape from painful memories grows into a complex disorder.
C) therapists could iatrogenically cause the disorder.
D) operant conditioning is related to the disorder.

106. Which hypothesis used to explain dissociative disorders is shared by psychodynamic

and behavioral theorists?
A) They serve to help someone escape something unpleasant.
B) The attempts at forgetting are purposeful from the beginning.
C) The process involved in forgetting is supported by subtle reinforcement.
D) The individuals themselves are aware that their disorder is protecting them from
facing a painful reality.

107. The chief sources of data used to support the theories of psychodynamic and behavioral
clinicians are:
A) large-scale experimental studies.
B) biologically based.
C) case histories.
D) epidemiological.

108. Kevin studies his history notes and textbook while he is drinking beer. According to
some theorists, Kevin would later do better on his history exam if he also had alcohol in
his system while taking the exam. These theorists would be basing their claim on:
A) social learning theory.
B) state-dependent learning.
C) active-avoidance learning.
D) associative memory learning.

109. If you studied for this exam while you were unusually happy, you will probably do best
taking it while you are:
A) unusually sad.
B) unusually happy.
C) moderately happy.
D) happy when you know the answers and sad when you don't.

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110. Just after doing well in an intramural basketball game—something which left me very
happy, and in a high state of excitement—I sat down and studied for my abnormal
psychology test. Research shows I would perform best on that test if, at the time of the
test, I was:
A) happy and excited.
B) happy but calm.
C) neither happy nor sad, and excited.
D) neither happy nor sad, and calm.

111. Laurent has three subpersonalities. Jackie emerges when Laurent is in an awkward
social situation, Grace surfaces during sporting events, and Carlos appears when
Laurent is angry. The therapist believes that the mood and conditions under which each
subpersonality appears are critical to understanding this disorder, demonstrating a belief
in:
A) avoidant dysmorphia.
B) state-dependent learning.
C) convergent variable learning.
D) neurobiological concordance.

112. If the state-dependent learning explanation of dissociative disorders is correct, a person

may not remember stressful events because he or she is:
A) simply too stressed at the time for memories to be laid down.
B) at a different arousal level after the stress is over.
C) a smoker.
D) one who habitually drinks too much.

113. Which has been proposed as a possible cause of dissociative disorders?

A) regression
B) self-hypnosis
C) lack of repression
D) classical conditioning

114. What characteristic is MOST common to both self-hypnosis and dissociative identity
disorder?
A) the inability to forget
B) the awareness that something has been forgotten
C) the ability to escape threatening events
D) the awareness to know why you forget

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115. What conclusion does research on hypnosis and hypnotic amnesia support?
A) People with multiple personalities may be faking their condition.
B) Dissociative disorders are extremely odd and inexplicable events.
C) Dissociative disorders are similar to behaviors seen in hypnotic amnesia.
D) Self-hypnosis relies on different processes and produces different behavioral
outcomes.

116. A child in an extremely abusive family situation often seems to become deaf to the
verbal abuse, and insensitive to the physical abuse, as if the child simply wasn't there
experiencing the abuse. One explanation of this behavior is:
A) self-hypnosis.
B) state-dependent memory.
C) eidetic imagery.
D) memory while under simulated anesthesia.

117. I was running down a familiar country lane when all of a sudden nothing looked
familiar. It took me several seconds to realize where I was, and I continued my run
without incident. What I experienced was:
A) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
B) jamais vu.
C) déjà vu.
D) absentmindedness.

118. A strong "feeling of knowing" is associated with:

A) déjà vu.
B) jamais vu.
C) pseudopresentiment.
D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

119. A visual image that is retained so vividly that one can continue to scan it for more
information is called:
A) déjà vu.
B) jamais vu.
C) an eidetic image.
D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

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120. Individuals experiencing dissociative amnesia sometimes are given sodium amobarbital
or sodium pentobarbital because those drugs:
A) calm people and reduce their inhibitions.
B) act as truth serum, so people can't fake their illness.
C) help reduce associated symptoms of depression.
D) make people forget extremely upsetting events in their lives.

121. A person diagnosed with a dissociative disorder has recovered almost completely, even
though the person had not received any therapy. That person was LEAST likely to have
been diagnosed with:
A) dissociative identity disorder.
B) malingering.
C) dissociative amnesia.
D) dissociative fugue.

122. People with which dissociative disorder typically do not tend to eventually recover
without receiving treatment?
A) dissociative identity disorder
B) dissociative fugue
C) dissociative amnesia
D) depersonalization-derealization disorder

123. What effect has the use of sodium amobarbital had in treating dissociative amnesia and
fugue?
A) Most clients recall past events easily with drugs.
B) Recall is often limited to the session itself.
C) The patient's recollection doesn't begin until long after the session.
D) Results are mixed, successful with some patients and not with others.

124. In the treatment of dissociative amnesia, sodium amobarbital and sodium pentobarbital
work by:
A) freeing people from their inhibitions, thus allowing them to recall unpleasant
events.
B) "forcing" people to tell the truth.
C) inducing a hypnotic state.
D) alleviating depression.

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125. The first step in treating people with dissociative identity disorder is to:
A) bond with the primary personality.
B) integrate the subpersonalities into a unity.
C) establish a contract with the subpersonalities to prevent self-harm.
D) provide a forum for the subpersonalities to communicate with one another.

126. The usual goal of therapy for dissociative identity disorders is to:
A) have the subpersonalities develop equal "shares" of the person's functioning.
B) have the "other" subpersonalities become subject to the subpersonality that has the
"protector" role.
C) gradually phase out all but one of the subpersonalities.
D) merge the subpersonalities into a single identity.

127. One of the subpersonalities of a person receiving treatment for dissociative identity
disorder has just become a "protector." How far along in therapy has the person
probably progressed?
A) not far at all because protectors usually emerge even before the disorder is
diagnosed
B) moderately far because a protector usually emerges before subpersonality
integration
C) very far because a protector usually emerges after subpersonality integration, and
before fusion
D) all the way because a protector usually emerges only after successful therapy is
over

128. A client receiving treatment for identity disorder is progressing well through therapy;
then, fusion occurs. MOST likely, the client has:
A) experienced a significant, but short-term, setback.
B) experienced a significant, and long-term, setback.
C) merged the first two or more subpersonalities.
D) merged the final two or more subpersonalities.

129. At a workshop about dissociative identity disorder, a therapist says, "In my experience,
once integration begins, the need for therapy is practically over, and later dissociations
just don't happen." This therapist's experience is:
A) typical.
B) a bit unusual; most successful therapies cease before integration.
C) a bit unusual; most successful therapies cease after integration.
D) very unusual; most successful therapies last well beyond the beginning of
integration.

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130. The effects of taking hallucinogens accompanied by feelings that objects are changing
size, that other people are distorted, and that one might be mechanical is MOST similar
to:
A) depersonalization.
B) multiple personalities.
C) amnestic fugue.
D) body dysmorphic disorder.

131. An individual has been diagnosed with a dissociative disorder. However, the individual
has very good recall of previous life events and has a strong sense of self. The MOST
likely diagnosis for this individual is:
A) dissociative amnesia.
B) multiple identity disorder.
C) dissociative fugue.
D) depersonalization disorder.

132. A feeling of detachment from oneself could be diagnosed as PTSD or depersonalization

disorder. How would one decide which diagnosis is BEST?
A) by considering how long it had been going on
B) by considering which symptoms predominated
C) by considering the type of stress the person had endured
D) by considering which form of treatment worked best

133. Depersonalization _____, while derealization _____.

A) is an anxiety disorder; is a thought disorder
B) is induced by street drugs; is naturally occurring
C) refers to oneself; refers to the external world
D) involves multiple personalities; involves only one personality

134. Which statement is MOST accurate about depersonalization disorder?

A) Depersonalization disorder usually comes on suddenly and may be triggered by
extreme fatigue, intense stress, or pain.
B) Most cases of depersonalization disorder are associated with changes in brain
activity.
C) The presence of severe stressors in one's life is not a predictor of depersonalization
disorder.
D) Depersonalization disorder rarely occurs transiently.

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135. Someone who is experiencing "doubling" is:
A) showing two out of several multiple personalities at the same time.
B) transitioning from one subpersonality to another.
C) feeling like his or her mind is floating above him or her.
D) malingering.

136. If a person's mental functioning or body feels unreal or foreign, the person is MOST
likely suffering from:
A) body dysmorphic disorder.
B) depersonalization.
C) dissociative identity disorder.
D) dissociative amnesia.

137. Feeling that your hands and feet are smaller or bigger than usual or that you are in a
dreamlike state is called:
A) doubting.
B) dumbing down.
C) doubling.
D) distrusting.

138. When a person feels that the external world is removed, mechanical, distorted, or even
dead, he or she is experiencing:
A) doubling.
B) depersonalization.
C) dissociative amnesia.
D) derealization.

139. Transient depersonalization and derealization:

A) are experienced by virtually all college students.
B) are produced naturally and cannot be induced by drugs or meditation.
C) can be induced by a life-threatening experience.
D) are common in adults but not yet diagnosed in children or adolescents.

140. Depersonalization disorder is most common among:

A) preadolescents.
B) adolescents and young adults.
C) adults between the ages of 40 and 60.
D) adults over 60.

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141. If I suffer from depersonalization disorder, but the symptoms disappear after a while,
they most likely will reappear if I:
A) get married to someone I really love.
B) survive a bad car accident.
C) travel on vacation near where I live.
D) experience a sudden bout of mania.

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Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. B
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. B

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45. B
46. C
47. D
48. B
49. D
50. A
51. D
52. D
53. A
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. C
58. D
59. A
60. B
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. A
65. A
66. C
67. B
68. B
69. C
70. B
71. D
72. A
73. C
74. B
75. B
76. D
77. B
78. D
79. C
80. A
81. C
82. B
83. A
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. D
88. D
89. D
90. B

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 91. B
92. A
93. C
94. C
95. C
96. C
97. A
98. A
99. B
100. A
101. B
102. C
103. C
104. C
105. B
106. A
107. C
108. B
109. B
110. A
111. B
112. B
113. B
114. C
115. C
116. A
117. B
118. D
119. C
120. A
121. C
122. A
123. D
124. A
125. A
126. D
127. B
128. D
129. D
130. A
131. D
132. B
133. C
134. A
135. C
136. B

Page 32
Test Bank for Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology, 9th Edition, Ronald J. Comer, Jonathan S.

137. C
138. D
139. C
140. B
141. B

Page 33

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