You are on page 1of 20

Test Bank for Seeleys Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 2nd Edition: Tate

Test Bank for Seeleys Principles of Anatomy and


Physiology, 2nd Edition: Tate

To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:


https://testbankbell.com/download/test-bank-for-seeleys-principles-of-anatomy-and-p
hysiology-2nd-edition-tate/

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters


ch07
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. The branch off a bone is called a


A. meatus.
B. fossa.
C. tuberosity.
D. ramus.
E. fissure.
2. A constriction between the head and the body of a bone is called the
A. angle.
B. notch.
C. facet.
D. neck.
E. tubercle.
3. A smooth, rounded articular surface is a/an
A. angle.
B. condyle.
C. spine.
D. tuberosity.
E. trochanter.
4. Which of the following bone markings is NOT correctly matched?
A. Facet - small, flattened articular surface.
B. Spine - very high ridge.
C. Foramen - a tunnel.
D. Trochanter - a knob on the proximal femur.
E. Fossa - depression.
5. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
A. scapula.
B. maxilla.
C. lumbar vertebrae.
D. sacrum.
6. Which of the following bones is NOT a bone of the braincase?
A. frontal.
B. parietal.
C. maxilla.
D. sphenoid.
E. ethmoid.
7. Which skull bones are connected by the sagittal suture?
A. Frontal and parietal.
B. The two parietal bones.
C. Frontal and temporal.
D. Occipital and parietal.
8. Which skull bones are connected by the coronal suture?
A. Frontal and parietal.
B. The two parietal bones.
C. Frontal and temporal.
D. Occipital and parietal.
9. Which skull bones are connected by the lamboid suture?
A. Frontal and parietal.
B. The two parietal bones.
C. Parietal and temporal.
D. Occipital and parietal.
10. Which skull bones are connected by the squamous suture?
A. Frontal and parietal.
B. The two parietal bones.
C. Parietal and temporal.
D. Occipital and parietal.
11. Nuchal lines are found on the ______ bone.
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. temporal
D. parietal
12. The atlas does not have a
A. vertebral foramen.
B. body.
C. transverse foramen.
D. anterior arch.
13. The part of a vertebra that connects with another vertebra is a/an
A. spinous process.
B. articular process.
C. transverse process.
D. vertebral process.
14. What structural feature is found only in cervical vertebrae?
A. Accessory process.
B. Lamina.
C. Transverse foramen.
D. Body.
15. The first cervical vertebra is called the
A. axis.
B. sacrum.
C. atlas.
D. hyoid.
16. The atlas articulates with the _______ that allows joint movement to shake the head indicating "yes."
A. inferior articular process
B. mastoid process
C. occipital condyles
D. odontoid process
17. The second cervical vertebra is called the
A. axis.
B. sacrum.
C. atlas.
D. hyoid.
18. The opening in the vertebra that contains the spinal cord and cauda equina is the
A. vertebral meatus.
B. vertebral canal.
C. vertebral foramen.
D. spinal canal.
19. The posterior process of a vertebra is the
A. spinous process.
B. dorsal process.
C. transverse process.
D. vertebral process.
20. The part of a vertebra that connects with another vertebra is a/an
A. spinous process.
B. articular process.
C. transverse process.
D. vertebral process.
21. The external acoustic meatus is found in the _______ bone.
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. temporal
D. parietal
22. Which bone forms the posterior part of the skull?
A. Frontal
B. Occipital
C. Temporal
D. Parietal
23. Which bones contain the alveolar processes?
A. Mandible and maxilla
B. Maxilla and zygomatic
C. Palatine and maxilla
D. Ethmoid and sphenoid
24. Which bone is NOT a part of the orbital of the eye?
A. Frontal
B. Maxilla
C. Ethmoid
D. Temporal
25. Which two bones are part of the nasal septum?
A. Vomer and ethmoid
B. Ethmoid and nasal
C. Vomer and maxilla
D. Nasal and vomer
26. Which of the following bones does NOT contain a paranasal sinus?
A. Ethmoid
B. Frontal
C. Sphenoid
D. Temporal
E. Maxilla
27. The large opening at the base of the skull for the passage of the spinal cord is the
A. spinal foramen.
B. orbital foramen.
C. occipital foramen.
D. mental foramen.
28. The TMJ consists of the
A. crista galli and coronoid process of mandible.
B. mandibular fossa and mandibular condyle.
C. mastoid process and mandibular fossa.
D. none of the choices are correct.
29. The hard palate is formed by the
A. maxillary bone and vomer.
B. palatine bone.
C. maxillary bone and palatine bone.
D. sphenoid bone and palatine bone.
30. The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
A. forms part of the hard palate.
B. holds the pituitary gland.
C. has openings to allow the olfactory nerve into the nasal cavity.
D. contains the middle and inner ear structures.
31. Which bone has no articulations with any other bone?
A. Mandible
B. Hyoid bone
C. Vomer
D. Atlas
32. Which skull structures articulate with the first cervical vertebra?
A. Occipital protuberance
B. Nuchal lines
C. Occipital condyles
D. Pterygoid hamulus
33. Which of the following sections of the vertebral column is correctly matched with the correct number?

A. Lumbar - 5
B. Thoracic - 12
C. Cervical - 5
D. Sacral - 1
E. Coccygeal - 1
34. Quasimoto (The Hunchback of Notre-Dame) had the primary problem of
A. scoliosis.
B. lordosis.
C. kyphosis.
35. Which of the following makes up the vertebral arch?
A. Vertebra body and spinous process
B. Two transverse processes and spinous process
C. Two laminae and two pedicles
D. Vertebral body and two laminae
36. The opening in the vertebra that contains the spinal cord and cauda equina is the
A. vertebral meatus.
B. vertebral canal.
C. vertebral foramen.
D. spinal canal.
37. The part of a vertebra that connects with another vertebra is a/an
A. spinous process.
B. articular process.
C. transverse process.
D. vertebral process.
38. What structural feature is found only in cervical vertebrae?
A. Accessory process
B. Lamina
C. Transverse foramen
D. Body
39. The first cervical vertebra is called the
A. Axis
B. Sacrum
C. Atlas
D. Hyoid
40. The atlas articulates with the _______ that allows joint movement to shake the head "yes".
A. Inferior articular process
B. Mastoid process
C. Occipital condyles
D. Odontoid process
41. The atlas does not have a
A. Vertebral foramen
B. Body
C. Transverse foramen
D. Anterior arch
42. The second cervical vertebra is called the
A. Axis
B. Sacrum
C. Atlas
D. Hyoid
43. Which structure of the axis allows the motion of shaking the head to indicate "no"?
A. Spinous process
B. Transverse process
C. Pedicle
D. Odontoid process
44. What structures are characteristic of thoracic vertebrae?
A. Articulations for ribs
B. Long, thin spinous process
C. Thick, heavy body
D. Articulation for ribs and a long, thin spinous process
45. What structures are characteristic of lumbar vertebrae?
A. Thick, heavy body
B. Rectangular spinous process
C. Rectangular transverse processes
D. All of the choices are correct
46. Which of the following is NOT a part of the thoracic cage?
A. Clavicle
B. Ribs
C. Costal cartilages
D. Sternum
E. Thoracic vertebrae
47. The first seven ribs are called true ribs because
A. they are real ribs.
B. they attach directly to the sternum through costal cartilage.
C. they are not attached to the sternum.
D. they have no costal cartilage.
48. The superior part of the sternum is the
A. xiphoid process.
B. manubrium.
C. body.
D. clavicle.
49. The area where the two clavicles articulate with the manubrium is called the
A. sternal angle.
B. xiphoid process.
C. jugular notch.
D. carotid notch.
50. The pectoral girdle consists of a
A. humerus and clavicle.
B. humerus and scapula.
C. scapula and clavicle.
D. humerus, scapula, and clavicle.
51. Which part of the scapula articulates with the clavicle?
A. Acromion
B. Coracoid process
C. Scapular spine
D. Glenoid cavity
52. Which part of the scapula articulates with the humerus?
A. Acromion
B. Coracoid process
C. Scapular spine
D. Glenoid cavity
53. The clavicle is also known as the
A. shoulder blade.
B. breastbone.
C. collar bone.
D. acromion.
54. The pectoral girdle's only attachment to the axial skeleton is the
A. acromial end of clavicle with the acromion of the scapula.
B. sternal end of clavicle with the coracoid process of the scapula.
C. slenoid cavity of the scapula with the head of the humerus.
D. sternal end of the clavicle with the sternum.
55. The bone of the upper arm is the
A. ulna.
B. radius.
C. humerus.
D. femur.
56. The _____ of the humerus articulates with the ulna at the elbow.
A. capitulum
B. trochlea
C. greater tubercle
D. medial epicondyle
57. The medial forearm bone is the
A. ulna.
B. radius.
C. humerus.
D. hamate.
58. The tip of the elbow is formed from the ____.
A. head of the radius
B. coronoid process of the ulna
C. olecranon process of the ulna
D. head of the ulna
59. The coronoid process is found in the
A. humerus.
B. radius.
C. ulna.
D. scapula.
60. Another name for the wrist bones are the
A. tarsals.
B. carpals.
C. metacarpals.
D. metatarsals.
61. Which of the following is NOT a carpal?
A. Capitate
B. Scaphoid
C. Pisiform
D. Cuboid
62. The bones of the hand are the
A. tarsals.
B. carpals.
C. metacarpals.
D. metatarsals.
63. Which of the following is NOT a part of a coxal bone?
A. Ischium
B. Pubis
C. Ilium
D. Coccyx
64. The joint with the head of the femur and os coxae is the
A. acetabulum.
B. obturator foramen.
C. sacroiliac joint.
D. glenoid cavity.
65. Which of the following is NOT a difference between the male and female pelvis?
A. Male - heavier; Female - lighter
B. Male - more narrow
C. Female - ischial tuberosities turned medially
D. Female - ilium flared laterally
66. The thigh bone is the
A. tibia.
B. humerus.
C. ilium.
D. femur.
67. Another name for the kneecap is the
A. patella.
B. sesamoid bone.
C. malleolus.
D. navicular.
68. The attachment for the quadriceps femoris muscles is the
A. lateral condyle.
B. medial malleolus.
C. tibial tuberosity.
D. anterior crest.
69. The lateral wall of the ankle joint is formed by the
A. lateral condyle.
B. lateral epicondyle.
C. tibial tuberosity.
D. lateral malleolus.
70. The bones of the ankle are called the
A. tarsals.
B. carpals.
C. metatarsal.
D. metacarpal.
71. Which of the following is NOT a tarsal bone?
A. Cuneiform
B. Navicular
C. Talus
D. Lunate
72. Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint?
A. Calcaneus
B. Talus
C. Cuboid
D. Navicular
73. The ankle bone that forms the heel is the
A. calcaneus.
B. talus.
C. cuboid.
D. navicular.
74. How many phalanges are in the great toe?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
75. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a fibrous joint?
A. Bones joined by fibrous connective tissue
B. No joint cavity
C. Articular surface covered with hyaline cartilage
D. Exhibit little or no movement
76. Which of the following is NOT a type of fibrous joint?
A. Synchondrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Suture
D. Syndesmosis
77. Which type of joint is found between flat bones of the skull?
A. Synchondrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Suture
D. Syndesmosis
78. Which type of joint is found between the ulna and radius?
A. Synchondrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Suture
D. Syndesmosis
79. Which type of joint is found between the root of a tooth and the alveolar process?
A. Synchondrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Suture
D. Syndesmosis
80. A synchondrosis connects bones with
A. fibrous connective tissue.
B. hyaline cartilage.
C. fibrocartilage.
D. a fluid-filled cavity.
81. Which of the following is an example of a synchondrosis?
A. All of the costal cartilages
B. Epiphyseal plate
C. Between the two pubis bones
D. Between the bodies of the vertebrae
82. The intervertebral disks are an example of a _____ joint.
A. symphysis
B. synchondrosis
C. synovial
D. syndesmosis
83. Which of the following is a characteristic of a synovial joint?
A. Allows free movement
B. Has a fluid-filled joint cavity
C. Articular surfaces covered with hyaline cartilage
D. All of the choices are correct
84. The joint capsule of a synovial joint is formed by the
A. articular disk and fibrous capsule.
B. synovial membrane and articular cartilage.
C. synovial membrane and fibrous capsule.
D. none of the choices are correct.
85. What is the main component of synovial fluid?
A. Mucus
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Fat
D. Glucosamine
86. Tendon sheaths are a type of
A. meniscis.
B. tubercle.
C. bursa.
D. articular cartilage.
87. A sac of synovial membrane that provides a lubricating cushion around a joint is a/an
A. interosseous membrane.
B. bursa.
C. meniscus.
D. articular disk.
88. Plane (gliding), hinge, and pivot joints are considered
A. uniaxial.
B. biaxial.
C. multiaxial.
D. nonaxial.
89. Ellipsoid and saddle joints are considered
A. uniaxial.
B. biaxial.
C. multiaxial.
D. nonaxial.
90. Ball-and-socket joints are considered
A. uniaxial.
B. biaxial.
C. multiaxial.
D. nonaxial.
91. The temporomandibular joint is a
A. saddle joint.
B. ellipsoid joint.
C. plane joint.
D. hinge joint.
92. The joint between the carpal and the 1st metacarpal of the thumb is a/an
A. saddle joint.
B. ellipsoid joint.
C. plane joint.
D. hinge joint.
93. The knee joint and between the phalanges of the fingers are
A. saddle joints.
B. ellipsoid joints.
C. plane joints.
D. hinge joints.
94. The intercarpal joints are
A. saddle joints.
B. ellipsoid joints.
C. plane joints.
D. hinge joints.
95. The joint between the axis and atlas is a/an
A. pivot joint.
B. ellipsoid joint.
C. ball-and-socket joint.
D. plane joint.
96. The humeral and coxal joints are
A. pivot joints.
B. ellipsoid joints.
C. ball-and-socket joints.
D. plane joints.
97. Bending forward at the waist is
A. extension.
B. flexion.
C. abduction.
D. adduction.
98. Swinging the arm backward at the shoulder is
A. extension.
B. flexion.
C. abduction.
D. adduction.
99. Moving the legs together to stand at attention is accomplished by
A. extension.
B. flexion.
C. abduction.
D. adduction.
100.Shaking the head "no" is
A. rotation.
B. supination.
C. pronation.
D. circumduction.
101.Making arm circles from the shoulder is
A. rotation.
B. supination.
C. pronation.
D. circumduction.
102.To raise the shoulders or close the mouth is
A. retraction.
B. elevation.
C. depression.
D. protraction.
103.To lower the jaw to take a bite of an apple is
A. retraction.
B. elevation.
C. depression.
D. protraction.
104.To jut the jaw forward is
A. retraction.
B. elevation.
C. depression.
D. protraction.
105.To pull the scapulae back toward the vertebral column is
A. retraction.
B. elevation.
C. depression.
D. protraction.
106.Lateral movement of the mandible for chewing or grinding the teeth is
A. protraction.
B. excursion.
C. inversion.
D. opposition.
107.Touching the thumb to the little finger is
A. protraction.
B. excursion.
C. inversion.
D. opposition.
108.Turning the foot so that the plantar surface faces medially is
A. eversion.
B. excursion.
C. inversion.
D. opposition.
109.Turning the foot so that the plantar surface faces laterally is
A. eversion.
B. excursion.
C. inversion.
D. opposition.
110.The stability of the shoulder joint is increased by ligaments and four muscles, collectively called the
A. glenoid labrum.
B. subacromial bursa.
C. rotator cuff.
D. biceps brachii tendon.
111.What builds up the rim of the glenoid cavity?
A. Glenoid labrum
B. Subacromial bursa
C. Rotator cuff
D. Biceps brachii tendon
112.Which of the following movements is NOT seen at the elbow joint?
A. Flexion and extension
B. Pronation and supination
C. Abduction and adduction
D. All of the movements are seen at the elbow
113.What structures are found in the knee joint that help absorb shock in the joint?
A. Cruciate ligaments
B. Menisci
C. Bursa
D. Tendons
114.The most common joint disorder is inflammation of the joints or
A. tendinitis.
B. bursitis.
C. arthritis.
D. osteitis.
115.Which of the following is NOT true of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. May be an autoimmune disorder
B. The synovial membrane forms pannus
C. Tends to occur in weight-bearing joints
D. Joint surfaces can fuse
116.Which of the following is NOT true of osteoarthritis?
A. 85% of persons over 70 years of age have OA
B. May be caused by normal wear and tear
C. The knee is a common joint for OA
D. Affects the skin, blood vessels, and other organs
117.With age,
A. the articular cartilage wears down.
B. the articular cartilage matrix becomes more rigid.
C. the rate of production of synovial fluid decreases.
D. the inflammatory degeneration of joints can increase.
E. all of the above.
118.Different people may have different numbers of bones.
True False
119.The auditory ossicles are part of the appendicular skeleton.
True False
120.The hip bones are part of the axial skeleton.
True False
121.The floor of the skull has many openings for blood vessels and nerves to pass to and from the brain.
True False
122.A lateral curvature of the spine is called lordosis.
True False
123.Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord through the intervertebral foramina.
True False
124.The intervertebral disks have a gel-like center called the annulus fibrosis.
True False
125.The vertebral canal runs through the sacrum.
True False
126.There are two floating ribs on the right and one floating rib on the left.
True False
127.There are 15 phalanges on one hand.
True False
128.The sacrum is part of the pelvic girdle.
True False
129.The pelvic inlet is oval in males and heart-shaped in females.
True False
130.The fibula does not articulate with the femur at the knee.
True False
131.There are three arches in the foot to distribute the weight of the body.
True False
132.The fibrous capsule of a synovial joint is continuous with the periosteum of the bones forming the
joint.
True False
133.Pointing the toes is called dorsiflexion.
True False
134.A very movable joint is generally less stable.
True False
135.Only synovial joints are considered to be articulations.
True False
136.Which skull bone has a ramus?
A. Sphenoid
B. Mandible
C. Nasal
D. Vomer
E. Lacrimal
ch07 Key
1. D

2. D

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. C

7. B

8. A

9. D

10. C

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. C

15. C

16. C

17. A

18. C

19. A

20. B

21. C

22. B

23. A

24. D

25. A

26. D

27. C

28. B

29. C

30. C

31. B

32. C

33. C

34. C

35. C

36. C
37. B

38. C

39. C

40. C

41. B

42. A

43. D

44. D

45. D

46. A

47. B

48. B

49. C

50. C

51. A

52. D

53. C

54. D

55. C

56. B

57. A

58. C

59. C

60. B

61. D

62. C

63. D

64. A

65. C

66. D

67. A

68. C

69. D

70. A

71. D

72. B

73. A

74. B
75. C

76. A

77. C

78. D

79. B

80. B

81. B

82. A

83. D

84. C

85. B

86. C

87. B

88. A

89. B

90. C

91. B

92. A

93. D

94. C

95. A

96. C

97. B

98. A

99. D

100. A

101. D

102. B

103. C

104. D

105. A

106. B

107. D

108. C

109. A

110. C

111. A

112. C
113. B

114. C

115. C

116. D

117. E

118. TRUE

119. FALSE

120. FALSE

121. TRUE

122. FALSE

123. TRUE

124. FALSE

125. TRUE

126. FALSE

127. FALSE

128. TRUE

129. FALSE

130. TRUE

131. TRUE

132. TRUE

133. FALSE

134. TRUE

135. FALSE

136. B
Test Bank for Seeleys Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 2nd Edition: Tate

ch07 Summary
Category # of Questions
Blooms Level: 1. Remember 97
Blooms Level: 2. Understand 10
Blooms Level: 3. Apply 26
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze 3
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate 6
Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Define the general anatomical terms for various bone features and explain the functional significance 11
of each.
Learning Outcome: 07.02.04 Describe the major features of the skull as seen from all angles 14
Learning Outcome: 07.02.05 Describe the structures and functions of the vertebral column and individual vertebrae 21
Learning Outcome: 07.02.06 List the features that characterize different types of vertebrae 7
Learning Outcome: 07.02.07 Describe the thoracic cage and give the number of true, false and floating ribs 5
Learning Outcome: 07.03.08 Describe the bones of the pectoral girdle and the upper limb 14
Learning Outcome: 07.03.09 Describe the bones of the pelvic girdle and lower limb 18
Learning Outcome: 07.04.10 Define the term articulation and explain how joints are named and classified 1
Learning Outcome: 07.04.11 List the general features of a fibrous joint, describe the three classes of fibrous joints, and give examp 5
les of each class
Learning Outcome: 07.04.12 List the general features of a cartilaginous joint, describe the two types of cartilaginous joints, and giv 3
e examples of each class
Learning Outcome: 07.04.13 Describe the general features of a synovial joint 5
Learning Outcome: 07.04.14 Define a bursa and a tendon sheath 2
Learning Outcome: 07.04.15 Describe and give examples of the types of synovial joints 9
Learning Outcome: 07.05.16 Define and be able to demonstrate the movements occurring at the joints of the body 15
Learning Outcome: 07.06.17 Describe the temporomandibular, shoulder, elbow, hip, knee, and ankle joints and the foot arches 5
Learning Outcome: 07.07.18 Discuss the age-related changes that occur in joints 4
Section: 07.01 5
Section: 07.02 51
Section: 07.03 32
Section: 07.04 25
Section: 07.05 15
Section: 07.06 4
Section: 07.07 4
Tate - Chapter 07 136
Topic: Skeletal System 135

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

You might also like