Test Bank for Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing Chapters 3, 5-24, 3r

Test Bank for Primary Care Art and Science of

Advanced Practice Nursing Chapters 3, 5-24, 3rd
Edition : Dunphy

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Chapter 10

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following drug categories commonly prescribed for hyperlipidemia should not be given if the
triglycerides are over 400 mg/dL?
a. Folic acid derivatives c. HMG-CoA reductase Inhibitors
b. Bile acid sequestrants d. Folic acid derivatives
____ 2. If chest pain may be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential
diagnosis be?
a. Peptic ulcer c. Costochondritis
b. Hiatal hernia d. Pericarditis
____ 3. Sandra has palpitations that are occurring with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What might a
specific diagnostic test be to determine the cause?
a. Serum calcium
b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test
d. Complete blood cell count (CBC)
____ 4. A blood pressure (BP) of 142/92 is considered:
a. Normal. c. Stage 1 hypertension.
b. Prehypertension. d. Stage 2 hypertension.
____ 5. Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension include:
a. Maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 17.
b. Restricting dietary sodium to 2 g per day.
c. Encouraging 90 minutes of exercise per day.
d. Limiting beer intake to 24 oz/day.
____ 6. Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?
a. ACE inhibitor
b. Calcium channel blocker
c. Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)
d. Beta blocker
____ 7. Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
a. Greater than 30 c. Greater than 50
b. Greater than 40 d. Greater than 60
____ 8. You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?
a. Her waist is 36 inches.
b. Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.
c. Her blood pressure (BP) is 128/84.
d. Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
____ 9. Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and
most often in the early morning hours?
a. Stable angina c. Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)
b. Unstable angina d. Probably not angina but hiatal hernia
____ 10. Which typical electrocardiogram (ECG) change is usually seen with cardiac ischemia?
a. T-wave inversion c. Significant Q wave
b. ST-segment elevation d. U-wave
____ 11. In which type of AV block does the PR interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
a. First-degree AV block c. Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
b. Second-degree Mobitz I AV block d. Third-degree AV block
____ 12. A Delta wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) may be present in which condition?
a. Prinzmetal’s angina c. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
b. Bundle Branch Block d. Aortic stenosis
____ 13. Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?
a. A physiologic split S2 c. S3
b. A fixed split S2 d. S4
____ 14. Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).
____ 15. The clinical risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which include venous insufficiency, poststroke, and
heart failure, fit into which of Virchow’s Triad for being a causative factor for DVT?
a. Venous stasis c. Hypercoagulability
b. Vessel injury
____ 16. George has cardiovascular disease (CVD), is 64 years old, has a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, has a systolic
blood pressure (BP) of 158, and is being treated for hypertension. You are doing a Framingham Risk
Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?
a. His age
b. His cholesterol level
c. His systolic BP
d. The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
____ 17. Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?
a. Fleeting c. Diffuse
b. Moving d. Localized
____ 18. What percentage of patients with angina pectoris will have simultaneous dyspnea, caused by transient
increase in pulmonary venous pressures that accompany ventricular stiffening during an episode of
myocardial ischemia?
a. About 20% c. About 50%
b. About 30% d. Almost all
____ 19. Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be
used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved
after three doses?
a. 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency
department (ED).
b. One more dose of NTG may be tried.
c. The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
d. A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.
____ 20. For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within
the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of presentation of symptoms. Studies have shown that thrombolytic
therapy, however, can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of symptoms of MI?
a. 6 hours c. 10 hours
b. 8 hours d. 12 hours
____ 21. When teaching patients post myocardial infarction (MI) about their nitroglycerine tablets, the clinician should
stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and not be put in
another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must
be dated and discarded after how many months?
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. As long as they are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
____ 22. There are four stages of heart failure classified as A to D that describe the evolution and progression of
disease. Patients in which stage have refractory symptoms of heart failure at rest despite medical therapy, are
hospitalized, or require specialized interventions or hospice care?
a. Stage A c. Stage C
b. Stage B d. Stage D
____ 23. Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart
failure which makes it a good diagnostic test?
a. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
b. C-reactive protein (CRP)
c. Serum albumin
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
____ 24. Which assessment tool is used for peripheral artery disease?
a. FAQ c. MMSE
b. WIQ d. MOCA
____ 25. Which diagnostic test has long been considered the “gold standard” for a diagnosis of venous
thromboembolism?
a. Ultrasound c. Ascending venogram
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. D-dimer
Test Bank for Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing Chapters 3, 5-24, 3r

Chapter 10
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1
2. ANS: C PTS: 1
3. ANS: A PTS: 1
4. ANS: C PTS: 1
5. ANS: D PTS: 1
6. ANS: A PTS: 1
7. ANS: D PTS: 1
8. ANS: A PTS: 1
9. ANS: C PTS: 1
10. ANS: A PTS: 1
11. ANS: B PTS: 1
12. ANS: C PTS: 1
13. ANS: D PTS: 1
14. ANS: D PTS: 1
15. ANS: A PTS: 1
16. ANS: B PTS: 1
17. ANS: C PTS: 1
18. ANS: B PTS: 1
19. ANS: A PTS: 1
20. ANS: D PTS: 1
21. ANS: C PTS: 1
22. ANS: D PTS: 1
23. ANS: A PTS: 1
24. ANS: B PTS: 1
25. ANS: C PTS: 1

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