Mock Test 1

Mock Test 1
PHYSICS

1. Two large parallel copper plates are 5.0 cm apart 2. The current in the circuit shown in the below
and have a uniform electric field between them as figure is
depicted in figure given below.

(1) zero (2) 0.024 A

(3) 0.03 A (4) 0.036 A
3. A crate rests on a flatbed truck that is initially
travelling at 15 m/s on a level road. The driver
applies the brakes and the truck is brought to a halt
at a distance of 38 m. If the deceleration of the
An electron is released from the negative plate at truck is constant, what is the minimum coefficient
the same time that a proton is released from the of friction between the crate and the truck that is
positive required to keep the crate from sliding?
(1) 0.20
plate. Their distance from the positive plate when
they pass each other is (2) 0.30
(3) 0.39
(Take mp/me = 2000 and neglect the force of the
particles on each other.) (4) Cannot be determined without the mass of the
crate
(1) 6.7  10−5 m
4. The minimum moment of inertia of a system of
(2) 6.7  10−10 m point masses m1 and m2 connected by a rigid light
−5 rod of length l about an axis perpendicular to the
(3) 2.5  10 m
rod and passing through it is given by
(4) 3.7  10−5 m
m1m2 l 2
(1) (2) (m1 + m2 )l 2
m1 + m2

m1m2 l 2 (m1 + m2 )l 2
(3) (4)
2(m1 + m2 ) 2
2

5. What is the equivalent capacitance of the 8. The figure given below shows a ray of light whose
capacitors in the figure given below? Given that: angle of incidence is  1= 60o , travelling through
C1 = C6 = 3μF and C3 = C5 = 2C2 = 2C4 = 4 μF . two solid materials and then undergoing total
internal reflection at a solid-liquid interface.

(1) 4.5μF (2) 1.5μF

(3) 2μF (4) 3μF
What is the largest possible index of refraction for
6. The smallest radius of a flat track around which a
the liquid?
bicyclist can travel, if her speed is 36 km h−1 and
the μs between tyres and track is 0.32, will be (1) 1.33 (2) 1.28
(Take g = 10 m s–2) (3) 1.50 (4) 1.21
(1) 72 m (2) 24 m 9. A cylindrical tube is partially filled with water
(3) 31.25 m (4) 45 m such that air column length is 0.1 m. The air
column resonates in its fundamental mode with a
7. The circuit shown below is in a magnetic field that
tuning fork. The next resonance is observed at air
is directed into the plane of the figure.
column length of 0.35 m as the level of the water
is lowered. The end correction is
(1) 2.5 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 10 cm
10. If  is the breaking stress of a material of density,
then the longest wire of that material that can hang
freely without breaking is
 
(1) (2)
g 2 g
The current in the circuit is 0.2 A. At what rate is 2 
(3) (4)
the magnitude of the magnetic field changing? Is it g 2 g
increasing or decreasing?
(1) 139 T/s, decreasing 11. The figure given below shows a circuit containing
a battery, resistor R1, resistor R2 ( R2 = 200  ),
(2) 139 T/s, increasing
and an inductor ( L = 800μH ).
(3) 420 T/s, decreasing
(4) 420 T/s, increasing

Switch S has been closed for a long time and the

current through the inductor is 20.0 mA . At time
 Mock Test 3

t = 0 , the switch is opened. At what time t is the 16. A charge of +9q is fixed to one corner of a
current through the inductor 10.0 mA ? square, while a charge of −8q is fixed to the
(1) 2 (ln 2) μs (2) 4 (ln 2) μs opposite corner. In terms of q , what charge
should be fixed to the center of the square, so that
(3) 6 (ln 2) μs (4) 8 (ln 2) μs
the potential is zero at each of the two empty
12. If one complete cycle of a reversible process is corners?
carried out on an ideal gas so that its final state is (1) − q / 2 (2) − q 2
the same as its initial state, which of the following
quantities is the only one which can be non-zero? (3) − q / 2 (4) −q 3 / 2
(1) The change in the volume of the gas.
17. The power radiated by a black body is P, and it
(2) The net heat absorbed by the gas. radiates maximum energy around the wavelength
(3) The change in the entropy of the gas. 0 . If the temperature of the black body is now
(4) The change in the internal energy of the gas. changed so that it radiates maximum energy
around a wavelength 3 0 / 4 , the power radiated
13. The stopping potential for electrons emitted from a by it will increase by a factor of
surface illuminated by light of wavelength 491 nm
is 0.710 V. When the incident wavelength is (1) 4/3 (2) 16/9
changed to a new value, the stopping potential is (3) 64/27 (4) 256/81
1.43 V. What is this new wavelength?
18. Two long, thin wires parallel to the z-axis carry
(1) 664 nm (2) 529 nm currents in the positive z-direction, as shown in the
(3) 382 nm (4) 276 nm figure given below.
14. A body of mass m is dropped from a height h = 10
m. Simultaneously another body of mass 2 m is
thrown up vertically with a speed v = 10 5 m s −1
such that it collides with the first body at a height
h/2 = 5 m. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the
velocity of the combined mass as it returns to the
ground is (Take g = 10 m s−)
(1) 10 m s−1 (2) 10 2 ms−1

(3) 15 m s−1 (4) 5 5 m s −1

The wire carrying 50 A current is in the x–z plane
15. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 s. Two and is 5 m from the z-axis. The wire carrying 40 A
persons A and B use this watch to measure the current is in the y–z plane and is 4 m from the
time period of an oscillating pendulum. Person A z-axis. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field
takes the time period of 30 oscillations and person at the origin?
B takes the time period of 50 oscillations. (1) 0 T (2) 1  10−6 T
Neglecting all other source of error, we can say
that (3) 2.83  10−6 T (4) 4  10−6 T
(1) Absolute error in measurement by A is greater
19. A shell is fired with a horizontal velocity in the
than that of B.
positive x-direction from the top of an 80 m high
(2) Absolute error in measurement by A is equal
cliff. The shell strikes the ground 1330 m from the
to that of B.
base of the cliff. What is the initial speed of the
(3) Accuracy in measurement by B is greater than shell? (Take g =10 m s–2.)
that of A.
(4) Accuracy in measurement by B is equal to that (1) 332.5m s −1 (2) 170m s −1
of A. (3) 82m s −1 (4) 9.8m s −1
4
20. The nuclei of a radioactive element, with decay
constant , start getting produced at a constant rate
. Considering that before the decay began, there
was no radioactive element present, the number of
nuclei at time t is given by
  − t
(1) (1 − e− t ) (2)  − e
 
 − t
(3) e (4)  (1 − e − t )

21. The rain-soaked shoes of a person may explode if
ground current from nearby lightning vaporizes
the water. Water has density 1000 kg m−3 and
requires 2000 kJ kg−1 to be vaporized. If horizontal
current lasts 2.00 ms and encounters water with
resistivity 150 Ω m, length 12.0 cm, and vertical
cross-sectional area 15 × 10–5 m2, then average
current required to vaporize the water is_______.
CHEMISTRY
26. Which of the following is not used as a chemical
test to test for the presence of protein?
(1) Biuret test (2) Millon’s test
(3) Ninhydrin test (4) Molisch test
27. In which of the following molecules, the
surrounding atoms imposed minimum bond angle
at the central atom?
(1) Cl2O (2) H2Te
(3) XeF2 (4) I3−
28. Which of the following cations are paramagnetic?
(1) Yb2+ (2) Lr3+
(3) Th4+ (4) None of these
[Atomic numbers are Yb = 70, Lr = 103, Th = 90]
29. Consider the redox reaction in acidic medium:
Mn 2+ +BiO3– → MnO4– +Bi3+ . Choose the correct
statement from the following:
(1) The total electrons involved in the balanced
chemical equation is 5.
22. A coil is formed by winding 250 turns of insulated
16-gauge copper wire (diameter = 1.3 mm) in a
single layer on a cylindrical form of radius 12 cm.
Neglecting the thickness of the insulation, the
resistance of the coil will be (Resistivity of copper
is  = 1.69  10−8  m )___________.
23. Monochromatic light of wavelength 700 nm is
used in a Young's double slit experiment. One of
the slits is covered by a transparent sheet of
thickness 1.4  10 −5 m made of a material of
refractive index 1.5. How many fringes will shift
due to the introduction of the sheet?
24. If the work function for a certain metal is 1.8 eV,
what is the stopping potential for electrons ejected
from the metal when light of wavelength 400 nm
shines on the metal?
25. The amplitude of a lightly damped oscillator
decreases by 4.0% during each cycle. What
percentage of mechanical energy of the oscillator
is lost in each cycle?
(2) Two moles of electrons are donated per mole
of BiO3–
(3) 2.8 mol of acid are required for the change
from BiO3– to Bi3+
(4) Acid is used as reducing agent in this reaction.
30. Which of the following electronic configuration is
not possible?
(1) [Kr] 4d8 5s1 (2) [Kr] 3d7 4s2
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d7 6s2 (4) [Ar] 3d5 4s1
31. In the reaction,
CH3–CH2–CHX–CH3 → CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
The percentage of 1-ene increases for given X in
the order
(1) Br < SMe +2 < NMe 3+
(2) Br < NMe 3+ < SMe +2
(3) SMe +2 < NMe 3+ < Br
(4) SMe +2 < Br < NMe 3+
 Mock Test 5

32. The concentration of a drug in the body is often 37. The presence of a group on benzene ring affects
expressed in units of milligrams per kilogram of the further reactions of the compound. In attempts
body weight. The initial dose in an animal was to produce 1-bromo-3-ethylbenzene from benzene,
25.0 mg/kg body weight. After 2.00 h, 10.0 mg/kg which one of the following reaction sequence
body weight is disappeared through metabolism. If would produce good yield of the product?
metabolism is of first order then the approximate (1) (i) CH3CH2Cl + AlCl3, (ii) Br2/FeBr3
rate of metabolism after 2 h is
(2) (i) Br2/FeBr3, (ii) CH3CH2Cl + AlCl3
(1) 0.083 mg/min (2) 0.076 mg/min
(3) (i) CH3COCl + AlCl3, (ii) Br2/FeBr3, (iii)
(3) 0.063 mg/min (4) 0.042 mg/min Zn(Hg) + HCl
33. In the following table, the first column lists some (4) (i) HNO3 + H2SO4, (ii) CH3CH2Cl + AlCl3,
compounds of xenon with oxygen and fluorine and (iii) Sn/HCl, HO− (iv) NaNO2, HCl/CuBr
the second column lists the shapes. Then which of
the following options is correct: 38. Amine is basic in nature but after reaction with
some reagents, its basicity is reduced to a great
Column I Column II extent. This concept is used to distinguish between
(A) XeOF4 (p) Distorted octahedron primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Which of
the following pairs can be distinguished by
(B) XeF6 (q) Square pyramidal Hinsberg’s test?
(C) XeO2F2 (r) Octahedral (1) Benzylamine and benzamide
(D) [XeO6]4− (s) Trigonal bipyramid (2) Allylamine and propylamine
(3) p-Toluidine and N-methylaniline
(4) Cyclohexylamine and aniline
(1) (A) → (p); (B) → (q); (C) → (r); (D) → (s)
(2) (A) → (q); (B) → (p); (C) → (s); (D) → (r) 39. Which of the following options is correct when six
ligands are approaching towards central metal ion
(3) (A) → (q); (B) → (s); (C) → (p); (D) → (r) along axis?
(3) (A) → (s); (B) → (r); (C) → (q); (D) → (p) (1) Energy of t2g set of d-orbitals increases and
that of eg set decreases as compared to that in
34. In a compound, the anions (X) form hexagonal
free metal ion.
close packing and cations (Y) occupy only one-
third of octahedral voids. The general formula for (2) Energy t2g set of d-orbitals decreases and that
the compound is of eg set increases as compared to that in free
metal ion.
(1) YX (2) Y2X3
(3) Energy of both sets of d-orbitals increases
(3) YX3 (4) Y3 X
equally as compared to that in free metal ion.
35. Gas A on reaction with propene, followed by (4) Energy of eg set of d-orbitals increases more
Zn/H2O forms acetaldehyde and formaldehyde. than t2g set of d-orbitals, but the energy of both
When this gas A is passed through KOH at low sets of d-orbitals increases as compared to
temperature, a deep red compound B and a gas are that in free metal ion.
obtained. The compounds A and B are,
respectively, 40. Predict the product when
cis-3-methylcyclopentanol is treated with
(1) O3, KO2 (2) O2, KO2
TsCl/pyridine, followed by sodium bromide.
(3) O3, KO3 (4) KOH, O2
(1) trans-1-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentane
36. The correct order of increasing atomic radii among (2) cis-1-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentane
Se, O, S and As is
(3) 2-Methylcyclopentene
(1) As < S < Se < O (2) Se < O < S < As
(4) 1-Methylcyclopentene
(3) O < S < Se < As (4) S < Se < As < O
6

41. Consider the compound shown in the figure. (4) During withdrawal of electricity from cell, two
electrons are transferred from lead to
manganese.
45. When the alkyl bromides (listed here) were
subjected to hydrolysis in a mixture of ethanol and
water (80% EtOH/20% H2O) at 55°C, the rates of
the reaction showed the order:
Which of the following statements is not correct?
I. CH3Br
(1) Both protons are more acidic than acetic acid.
II. CH3CH2Br
(2) All C–C bonds in the dianion, C4 O42− are
III. (CH3)2CHBr
equal.
IV. (CH3)3CBr
(3) All C–O bonds in the dianion, C4 O42− are
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
equal.
(3) IV > I > II > III (4) IV > III > I > II
(4) The pKa1 and pKa2 values are equal for both
46. The following data is obtained during the first
deprotonations.
order thermal decomposition of
2A(g) ⎯⎯ → B(g) + C(s),
42. Which of the following monomers would be most at constant volume and
reactive towards cationic polymerization? temperature.
(1) CH 2 = CH-OCH3 Sr. No. Time Total pressure
in Pascal
(2) CH 2 = CH-CN I At the end of 10 300
(3) CH 2 = CH-NO 2 minutes
II After completion 200
(4) CH 2 = CH-CH3
The rate constant in min−1 is________.
43. Consider the transition from energy level n = 6 to
n = 4 for He+, the wavelength observed is the same 47. At 25C, 0.056 mol O2 and 0.02 mol N2O were
as the transition in [consider no reduced mass placed in a 1 liter container where the following
effect] equilibrium was established:
2N 2 O(g) + 3O 2 (g) 4NO 2 (g).
(1) Li2+ from n = 6 to n = 4
At equilibrium, the NO2 concentration was
(2) B4+ from n = 6 to n = 4
0.02 M. What is the value of KC for this reaction?
(3) H from n = 3 to n = 2
48. Consider the reaction given below, the maximum
(4) Be3+ from n = 12 to n = 8
possible deuterium atoms found in the product of
44. Consider the half-reactions of a galvanic cell given the reaction is
below:
MnO2 + H+ Mn 2+ + 2H2 O; o
EMnO2
= 1.23 V
PbCl2 Pb + 2Cl− ; EPbCl
o
2
= −0.27 V

The correct statement about the cell is

(1) Standard cell potential is 0.95 V.
(2) During withdrawal of electricity from cell,
lead is reduced.
(3) During withdrawal of electricity from cell,
manganese is oxidized.
49. A sample of mercury (II) sulphide contains 82.6%
mercury by mass. The mass of HgS that can be
made from 30 g of mercury is [At. Wt. of
Hg = 201, S = 32]
50. For the reaction A → B, ΔH = 4 kcal mol−1,
ΔS = 10 cal mol−1 K−1. The reaction is spontaneous
when the temperature is greater than
 Mock Test 7

MATHEMATICS

51. The following question consists of two statements, 55. Let A, B, C and D be four sets, then
1 and 2. Of the four choices given, choose the one ( A  B)  (C  D) is equal to
that best describes the two statements.
(1) ( A  B)  (C  D)
Statement 1: Contrapositive of “If xy is even, then
either x or y is even” is “If neither x nor y is even, (2) ( A  B)  (C  D)
then xy is not even”
(3) ( A  C )  ( B  D)
Statement 2: Contrapositive of p → q is
~ q → ~p (4) ( A  C )  ( B  D)
(1) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; 56. A variable tangent is drawn at any point on the
Statement 2 is a correct explanation for x2 y 2
Statement 1. ellipse 2 + 2 = 1 to intersect the co-ordinate
a b
(2) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; axes at A and B, then the locus of the midpoint of
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for AB is
Statement 1.
a2 b2 a2 b2
(3) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False. (1) + =4 (2) + =1
x2 y2 x2 y2
(4) Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.
a2 b2
52. Let X be a binomial variate with parameters n and (3) + =2 (4) None of these
p. If the mean is 20 and variance is 15, then p is x2 y2
equal to
1 − cos B
1 1 57. If tan A = , then tan 3A is equal to
(1) (2) sin B
3 4
 3B 
1 3 (1) tan   (2) tan 2B
(3) (4)  2 
2 4
(3) tan B (4) –tan 2B
53. If the area bounded between two circles
( x − 5)2 + ( y − 5)2 = 52 58. For the system of equations ax + 4y + z = 0,
2y + 3z = 1 and 3x – bz = –2, which of the
and ( x − 1)2 + ( y + 1)2 = 52 following is not true?
(1) Unique solution if ab ≠ 15
  13  
is  a + b 39 + c sin −1    sq. unit, (2) Infinitely many solutions if a = 3 and b = 5
  5   (3) No solution if ab = 15, a ≠ 3
find a + b + c.
(4) No solution if ab = 15, b ≠ 5
(1) –79 (2) –29
59. The area bounded by the curve y = f(x), x-axis and
29 the ordinates x = 2 and x = k is (k + 1) cos (2k + 3).
(3) − (4) –54
4 Find the value of f(x).
54. Four natural numbers are chosen (with repetition) (1) cos(2 x + 3) − 2( x + 1) sin(2 x + 3)
and multiplied together. The probability that unit
(2) cos(2 x + 3) + 2( x + 1) sin(2 x + 3)
digit of the product is odd other than 5 is
2 1 (3) sin(2 x + 3) − 2( x + 1)sin(2 x + 3)
(1) (2)
5 210 (4) ( x + 1)(cos(2 x + 3))
16 609
(3) (4)
625 625
8

60. If a, b, c, are distinct positive real numbers such x dx

that a > b > c and 2ln(a – c), ln(a2 – c2), 64. Evaluate:  .
2 −x
4 4
ln(a2 + 2b2 + c2) are in arithmetic progression, then
x2 1 −1  x2 
(1) a , b, c are in arithmetic progression (1) sin −1 +c (2) sin   + c
16 2  2 
(2) a, b, c are in arithmetic progression
(3) a, b, c are in geometric progression 1 −1  x2  1 −1  x2 
(3) sin   + c (4) sin   + c
(4) a, b, c are in harmonic progression 2  16  2  4 
61. Two vectors r and s are non-collinear. The 65. Straight lines are drawn from the point A(3, 2) to
volume of parallelopiped whose co-terminal edges meet the line 6 x + 7 y − 30 = 0 at point P. Then,
are p , q and s is v1 and the volume of the locus of the mid-points of the segment AP is
parallelopiped whose edges are p , q , r is v2. If
(1) x 2 − y 2 = 30
( p  q )  (r  s ) = log b ar − log a bs (where
a, b > 1), then the least value of v1 + v2 is (2) 6 x + 7 y = 31
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) (6 x − 3)2 + (7 y − 2)2 = 302
(3) 4 (4) 12 (4) 6 x + 7 y = 32
62. Consider y = x for 0 ≤ x ≤ 9. P(α, β) is any point 66. Let S be the set of all 3 × 3 symmetric matrices
whose entries are either 0 or 1. Five of these
on y = x and Q (2, 0) is a point not on the curve.
entries are 1 and four of these entries are 0. If a
Then matrix is selected from set S, what is the
(1) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and point (9, 3) is probability that the selected matrix will be a non-
farthest from Q. singular matrix?
(2) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and 1 1
(1) (2)
3 3 4 3
point  ,  is farthest from Q.
2 2 (3)
1
(4)
2
2 3
3 3
(3) Point  ,  is closest to Q and Point (9, 67. Two circles c1 and c2 touch each other externally
2 2 and both circles also touch the coordinate axes. If
3) is farthest from Q. c1 is smaller than c2 and its radius is 2 units, then
the radius of c2 is
(4) Point (0, 0) is closest to Q and point (3, 3) is
farthest from Q. (1) 6 + 4 2 (2) 2 + 2 2
(3) 3 + 2 2 (4) 6 − 4 2
63. Find the equation of the locus of a point P which
moves such that its distance from the origin is x dy − y dx
68. Solve: = x dy + y dx .
twice its distance from the point A(1, 2). x2 + y 2
(1) 3x2 + 3y2 − 8x – 16y + 20 = 0
 y
(2) 3x2 – 3y2 − 8x – 16y + 20 = 0 (1) loge   = xy + c
 x
(3) x2 + y2 − 8x – 16y – 20 = 0
 x
(4) x2 + y2 − 8x – 16y + 20 = 0 (2) log e   = xy 2 + c
 y
 x
(3) tan −1   = xy + c
 y
 y
(4) tan −1   = xy + c
 x
 Mock Test 9

69. Find the value of [( 2 + 1)6 ]. ([·] denotes greatest 72. There are six different green shade balls, five
different red shade balls and four different blue
integer function.)
shade balls in a bag. The number of combinations
(1) 196 (2) 197 taking at least one green shade and one red shade
(3) 198 (4) 199 ball is _________.
70. The direction cosines of two lines satisfy the 73. If a1, a2, …, a2014 are in arithmetic progression
equations 2l + 2m − n = 0 and mn + nl + lm = 0 . such that
1
+
1
+ +
1
=3
The angle between two lines is a1  a2 a2  a3 a2013  a2014
(1) 30 (2) 60 and a2 + a2013 = 72, then the value of a2014 − a1
(3) 90 (4) 120 __________.
2 z1 74. The number of five-digit numbers formed using
71. If is purely an imaginary number, then the the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 8 without repetition and
3 z2 divisible by 6 is ____________.
z1 − z2
 
75. If y = ( x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 ) sin  x  , x  R is
value of is _______.
z1 + z2
 2
not differentiable for n values of x, the value of n
is ________.
10

Answer Key of Mock Test - 1

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (1)

11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)

21. (12.25) 22. (2.4) 23. (10) 24. (1.31) 25. (8.0) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (2)

31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (3) 36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1)

41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (0.0693) 47. (23.2) 48. (8) 49. (34.8) 50. (400)

51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1) 57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (3)

61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (1) 64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3)

71. (1) 72. (31,248) 73. (50) 74. (150) 75. (2)