13/04/2023

Evening

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-2

(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct

answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out

of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks

for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be

rounded off to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 3. The statement (p  (q))  ((p)  q)  ((p)  (q))
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 is equivalent to _____
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1) (p)  q (2) (p)  (q)
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (3) p  (q) (4) p  q
Choose the correct answer: Answer (2)
1. Let ,  be the roots of the equation Sol. ( p  (~ q ))  ((~ p )  q )  ((~ p )  (~ q ))
14 14
x − 2 x + 2 = 0. Then 
2
+ is equal to
= ( ~ p  (q  ~ q ) )  ( p  ~ q )
(1) –64 (2) −64 2
= ~ p  ( p ~ q )
(3) –128 (4) −128 2
= ( ~ p  p )  ( ~ p ~ q )
Answer (3)
= ~ p ~ q
Sol. x 2 − 2 x + 2 = 0
4. Let the centre of a circle C be (, ) and its radius r
2i 6
x= < 8. Let 3x + 4y = 24 and 3x – 4y = 32 be two
2
tangents and 4x + 3y = 1 be a normal to C. Then
1+ i 3 1 − 3i ( –  + r) is equal to
Let  = ,= = 2 2
2 2 (1) 7 (2) 5
= 2 (3) 6 (4) 9

14 = 27 2 , 14 = 27  Answer (1)

Sol.  (, ) lies on 4x + 3y = 1
 14 + 14 = 27 ( −1)
 4 + 3 = 1 …(i)
= –27
2. The plane, passing through the points (0, –1, 2) and 3 + 4 − 24 3 − 4 − 32
and =
(–1, 2, 1) and parallel to the line passing through 5 5
(5, 1, –7) and (1, –1, –1), also passes through the
Take (+ve)
point
3 + 4 – 24 = 3 – 4 – 32
(1) (–2, 5, 0) (2) (1, –2, 1)
(3) (2, 0, 1) (4) (0, 5, –2)  8 = –8   = −1
Answer (1)
So  = 1 By equation (i)
Sol. Let A(0, –1, 2) & B(–1, 2, 1)
3 − 4 − 24
So, normal vector to the plane And r = =58
5
iˆ ˆj kˆ
Take (–ve)
n = −1 −1 = iˆ (16 ) − ˆj ( −10 ) + kˆ (14)
3
−4 −2 6 3 + 4 – 24 = –3 + 4 + 32

= 16iˆ + 10 ˆj + 14kˆ 56 1  4  28 
6 = 56   = and  =  1 − 
6 3 3 
 Equation of plane
16(x – 0) + 10(y + 1) + 14 (z – 2) = 0 For then r > 8

 8x + 5y + 7z = 9  r = 5,  = 1,  = –1

 Option (1) is correct  –+r=7

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
5. The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of 
−
( )
4
+  e − x tan50 x dx
5
 3 1  e4
 2 x − 2  is
 3x  Sol. 0


( tan49 x sec2 x ) dx
4
80 −x
(1)
9
(2) 9 e
0

26 
(3) 8 (4) 
( )
3 − 4
e 4 +  e − x tan50 x dx
Answer (1)
= 0
   
r   e − x tan50 x  4 4 e − x tan50 x 
( )  –1 
5–r
Sol. Tr + 1 = 5Cr 2x 3  2   + dx 
 3x    50 
 50 
 0 0 
 
15 – 3r – 2r = 5
= 50
 r=2
8. Let for a triangle ABC,
3  1 80
Coefficient = 5C2 ( 2 )  = AB = −2iˆ + jˆ + 3kˆ
9 9

6. All words, with or without meaning, are made using CB = iˆ +  jˆ + kˆ

all the letters of the word MONDAY. These words CA = 4iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ
are written as in a dictionary with serial numbers.
If   0 and the area of the triangle ABC is 5 6,
The serial number of the word MONDAY is
then CB  CA is equal to
(1) 327 (2) 328
(1) 60 (2) 54
(3) 324 (4) 326
(3) 108 (4) 120
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol.
Sol.
3 5 4 2 1 6
M O N D A Y
2 3 2 1 0 0
5! 4! 3! 2! 1! 0!

 Rank = (2 × 5! + 3 × 4! + 2 × 3! + 1 × 2!) + 1

= 240 + 72 + 12 + 2 + 1 = 327
CA + AB = CB

 +2i + 4j + ( + 3)k = i + j + k
− 4
−x
e 4 + e 50
tan xdx   = +2,  = 4,  =  + 3
0
7. The value of  is
i j k
1 1
( tan )
4
−x Area = AB  BC = −2 1 3 = 5 6
e
49
x + tan51 x dx 2 2
0 +2 4 

(  − 12)2 + ( 6 + 2 )2 + 100 = (10 )

(1) 51 (2) 50 2
= 6
(3) 25 (4) 49
 52 = 320
Answer (2)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

2 = 64 x2 1
Sol. = 1− 1
=8 1+ x 2
1+ x 2
=5 x2
 0 1
CB  CA = ( 2i + 4 j + 8k )( 4i + 3 j + 5k ) 1+ x 2

= 8 + 12 + 40  x2  
 0  sin−1  
= 60  1+ x 2  2
 
9. Let a1, a2 , a3 ,..... be a G.P. of increasing positive
 x2 
numbers. Let the sum of its 6th and 8th terms be 2  0  4 sin−1    2
 1+ x 2 
 
1
and the product of its 3rd and 5th terms be . Then
9  Option (3) is correct.
6(a2 + a4 )(a4 + a6 ) is equal to 11. The random variable X follows binomial
distribution B (n, p), for which the difference of the
(1) 3 (2) 3 3
mean and the variance is 1.
(3) 2 (4) 2 2 If 2P (X = 2) = 3P (X = 1), then n2P (X > 1) is equal
Answer (1) to
Sol. a6 + a8 = 2 (1) 15 (2) 11
 ar5 + ar7 = 2 …(i) (3) 12 (4) 16
1 1 Answer (2)
a3  a5 =  a2  r 2  r 4 =
9 9 Sol. np – npq = 1

 ar 3 =
1  np(1 – q) = 1
3
 np2 = 1
r2 r4 2P(X = 2) = 3P(X = 1)
+ =2
3 3
2  nC2 p2q n − 2 = 3  nC1 p  q n −1
 r4 + r2 = 6
n  ( n − 1)
 (r2 + 3) (r2 – 2) = 0  2  p = 3n q
2
 r2 = 2
 (n – 1)p = 3(1 – p)
1 1
 ar  2 =  ar =  1 
− 1 p = 3 (1 − p )
3 6
 
 p2 
Now, 6(a2 + a4) (a4 + a6)  
= 6(ar + ar3) (ar3 + ar5) (1 − p )(1 + p ) = 3
 (1 − p )
 1 1  1 2  p
= 6  +  + 
 6 3  3 3   1 + p = 3p
1
= 6 1 = 3  p=
1
2 2
 x2   n=4
10. The range of f ( x ) = 4 sin−1   is
 x2 + 1
  n2P(x > 1) = n2 (1 – P(x = 1) – P(x = 0))
(1) [0, 2] (2) [0, ]   1
4
 1 
4
= 16  1 − 4C1    −    = 11
(3) [0, 2) (4) [0, )  2  2  

Answer (3) Option (2) is correct.
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
12. The line, that is coplanar to the line 2 2 
x 3 y 1 z 5
, is
Required area = 2  ydy +
 
4 – ydy 
 
3 1 5 1 4 
2
x 1 y 2 z 5  y 3/2  4 
(1) 3/2 
1 2 4 = 2  3  – 2(4 – y )  
  
 2 1 3 2
x 1 y 2 z 5
(2)
1 2 5 4
= ( 4 2 – 1)
x 1 y 2 z 5 3
(3)
1 2 5 14. Let a 2, b 3 and the angle between the
x 1 y 2 z 5
(4) vectors a and b be . Then
1 2 5 4

(a + 2b )  ( 2a − 3b )
Answer (2) 2
is equal to
x + 3 y −1 z − 5
Sol. Given line : = = (1) 441 (2) 482
−3 1 5
(3) 841 (4) 882
No line in given options is parallel to given line.
Answer (4)
 If two lines are coplanar, then distance between
Sol. a = 2
them must be zero.
Among the given option, only option (2) satisfies b =4
above condition.

−2 −1 0 ab =
4
−3 1 5
(a + 2b )  ( 2a − 3b )
2
−1 2 5

= –2(–5) + 1 (–15 + 5) = 0.
( ) ( )
2
= −3 a  b + 4 b  a
 Option (2) is correct.

( )
2
13. The area of the region = 7 ba
x, y : x 2 y x2 4,y 1 is
2 2 
= 49 a b sin2
4
(1)
4
3
(
4 2 −1 ) (2)
4
3
(4 2 +1 ) 49  4  9 
1
2
(3)
3
4
(
4 2 +1 ) (4)
3
4
(4 2 −1 ) = 882
15. If the system of equations
Answer (1)
2x + y – z = 5
Sol. 2x – 5y + z = 
x + 2y – 5z = 7
has infinitely many solutions, then
(  +  )2 + (  −  )2 is equal to

(1) 904 (2) 916

(3) 912 (4) 920
Answer (2)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

Sol. 2x + y – z = 5
17. Let S = z   
: z = i ( z 2 + Re ( z ) ) . Then 
2
z is
2x – 5y + z =  zS
equal to
x + 2y – 5z = 7
For infinite solution  = 0 = 1 = 2 = 3 5
(1) (2) 4
2
2 1 –1
7
 = 2 –5  =0 (3) (4) 3
2
1 2 –5
Answer (2)
51 – 3 = 0   = 17 Sol. Let z = x + iy
5 2
3 =  2 –5 = 0
1
(
z = i z 2 + Re ( z ) )
7 1 2  (
x − iy = i x 2 − y 2 + 2i xy + x )
–3( + 13)
 = –13
( )
x − iy = i x 2 − y 2 + x − 2 xy

Now ( + )2 + ( – )2 x = −2 xy  x ( 2y + 1) = 0

(17 + 13)2 + (17 – 13)2 −1

 x = 0, y = …(i)
900 + 16 2
= 916 −y = x 2 − y 2 + x …(ii)
16. Let (, ) be the centroid of the triangle formed by Case (I) x = 0
the lines 15x – y = 82, 6x – 5y = – 4 and
(ii)  − y = − y 2  y 2 − y = 0  y = 0, 1
9x + 4y = 17. Then  + 2 and 2 –  are the roots
of the equation z = 0, i
(1) x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 −1
Case (II) y =
(2) x2 – 14x + 48 = 0 2

(3) x2 – 13x + 42 = 0 1 1 3
(ii)  = x2 − + x  x2 + x − = 0
2 4 4
(4) x2 – 10x + 25 = 0
4 x + 4 x − 3 = 0  ( 2 x − 1)( 2 x + 3 ) = 0
Answer (3)
Sol. 15x – y = 82 1 −3
x= ,
6x – 5y = –4 2 2

9x + 4y = 17 1 1 −3 1
z= − i, − i
2 2 2 2
1 5
z
2
= 0 + 1+ + =4
2 2

cxe −cx
eax − cos(bx ) −
18. If lim 2 = 17, then 5a2 + b2 is
x →0 1 − cos(2 x )
1+ 5 + 6 2 − 7 + 8  equal to
( ,  )   ,   ( 4, 1)
 3 3  (1) 64 (2) 72
 + 2 = 6 and 2 –  = 7 (3) 68 (4) 76

Equation x2 – 13x + 42 = 0 Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
cx −cx  1 2 3
eax − cos ( bx ) − e
Sol. lim 2 = 17 20. Let for A =   3 1 , A = 2. If |2 adj (2 adj (2A))|
x →0 1 − cos2 x  1 1 2 
      = 32n, then 3n +  is equal to
 1 + ax + ( ) + ...  −  1 − ( ) + ...  − cx  1 − ( cx ) + ( ) − ... 
2 2 2
ax bx cx
 2!   2!  2 2!  (1) 9 (2) 11
lim      
x →0  1 − cos2 x  (3) 12 (4) 10
   4x 2
 ( 2 x )2  Answer (2)
 
 1 2 3
 c  a2 + b2 + c 2  2  
 − +   x + ... Sol. A =   3 1
2 
a x
  2 
lim  1 1 2 
x →0 1
 4x 2
2 |A| = 2

c  − − 2 = 2
a− = 0  c = 2a
2   = −4

a2 + b2 + c 2 | 2adj(2adj(2 A)) | = 32n

= 17
4
= 23 adj(2adj(2A))
a 2 + b 2 + 4a 2 = 68
= 23 22 adj(adj(2 A))
5a + b = 68
2 2

= 23 · (4)3 adj(adj(2 A))

19. Let N be the foot of perpendicular from the point
2

P(1, –2, 3) on the line passing through the points = 29 | 2 A |(2)

(4, 5, 8) and (1, – 7, 5). Then the distance of N from = 29 · | 2 A |4
the plane 2x – 2y + z + 5 = 0 is
= 29 · 212 | A |4
(1) 8 (2) 6
= 221· 24 = 225 = (32)n = (2)5 n
(3) 9 (4) 7
 n=5
Answer (4)
 3n +  = 15 − 4 = 11
Sol. Dr of line L (1, 4, 1)
SECTION - B
x −1 y + 7 z − 5
Line L : = = =r Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
1 4 1 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Point N  (r + 1, 4r − 7, r + 5) questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
P  (1, − 2, 3) correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
Drs of PN (r , 4r − 5, r + 2)
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
PN ⊥ L  r + 4(4r − 5) + (r + 2) = 0 the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer.
 r =1 21. Let
N  (2, − 3, 6) 
2 n  n 
fn =    sink −1 x   ( 2k – 1) sink −1 x  cos x dx, n  .
Distance of N (2, − 3, 6) from 2 x − 2y + z + 5 = 0   
0  k =1  k =1 
4+6+6+5 Then f21 – f20 is equal to _______.
=7
4 + 4 +1 Answer (41)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

 /2  n  n  x2 y2 3 4
Sol. fn =  
 k =1 sink −1
x    (2k − 1)sink −1 x  cos x dx
 k =1
Sol.
2
−
2
= 1 , ae = 2, e =
2
 a=
3
0    a b
put sinx = t 16 20
b 2 = a 2e 2 − a 2 = 4 − =
cosx dx = dt 9 9

1 n
 n 
fn =    (t )k −1    (2 k − 1) (t )k −1  dt Equation of tangent, m =
3
0  k =1   k =1  2

1 21
 21 
f21 − f20 =    (t )k −1   (2k − 1)(t )k −1  y=
3
x−
16 9 20
 –
0  k =1  k =1  2 9 4 9

 20  20  ( Tangent is in 1st quadrant  C < 0)

−   (t )k −1   (2k − 1)(t )k −1 
 k =1  k =1  8 4
 a= , b = −  6a + 5b = 12
1 9 3
=  (1 + t + t 2 + .... + t 19 ) (41) t 20
0 24. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation

+ (1 + 3t + 5t 2 + ..... + 41 t 20 ) t 20 dt dy 4x x+2
+ y= , x 1
( ) ( x 2 – 1)52
such that
dx 2
x –1
 1 1 1   1 3 39 41 
= + + .... + 41 +  + + ..... + +
 21 22 40   21 22 40 41 
 42 44 46
= + + + ..... +
80 41
+ y (2) =
2
(
loge 2 + 3 and )
 21 22 23 40 41 9

= 40 + 1 = 41 y ( 2 ) =  loge ( )
 +  +  –  , ,,   , then
22. Let A = {–4, –3, –2, 0, 1, 3, 4} and R = {(a, b)  A × A :  is equal to _______.
b = |a| or b2 = a + 1} be a relation on A. Then the minimum
number of elements, that must be added to the relation R Answer (6)
so that it becomes reflexive and symmetric, is _______.
4x
Answer (7) 2  dx
Sol. IF = e x −1 = ( x 2 − 1)2
Sol. A = {−4, − 3, − 2, 0, 1, 3, 4}
R = {( −4, 4), ( −3, 3), (0, 0), (1, 1), x+2
y .( x 2 − 1)2 =  dx
(3, 3), (4, 4), (0, 1), (3, − 2)}
2
( x − 1)1/2
Relation to be reflexive (a, a)  R  a  A
 ( −4, − 4), ( −3, − 3), ( −2, − 2) also should be
y .( x 2 − 1)2 = ln ( )
x2 − 1 + x + x2 − 1 + C

added in R. at x = 2,
Relation to be symmetric if (a, b)  R, then 2
(b, a)  R  a, b  A 9  ln(2 + 3) = 2ln(2 + 3) + 3 + C
9
 (4, − 4), (3, − 3), (1, 0), ( −2, 3) also should be
C=− 3
added in R
 Minimum number of elements to be added to at x = 2
R=3+4=7
23. The foci of a hyperbola are (±2, 0) and its y (1) = 2ln (1 + 2 ) + 1 − 3
3
eccentricity is . A tangent, perpendicular to the  = 1,  = 2,  = 3
2
line 2x +3y = 6, is drawn at a point in the first 25. Total numbers of 3-digit numbers that are divisible
quadrant on the hyperbola. If the intercepts made by 6 and can be formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3,
by the tangent on the x- and y-axes are a and b
4, 5 with repetition, is _______
respectively, then |6a| + |5b| is equal to _______
Answer (12) Answer (16)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. a b 2 Sol. 7103 divided by 17
7  7 (mod 17)
a + b can be 4, 7, 10
72  –2 (mod 17)
if a + b = 4 then (a, b) can be (1, 3) OR (3, 1) OR (2, 2) 76  –8 (mod 17)
if a + b = 7 then (a, b) can be (2, 5), (5, 2), (3, 4), (4, 3) 78  –1 (mod 17)
if a + b = 10 then (a, b) can be (5, 5) 716  1 (mod 17)
8 such cases when 2 is at unit's place similarly there 7103  12 (mod 17)
exist 8 such cases when 4 is at unit's place.  Remainder = 12
Total = 16 29. Let [] denote the greatest integer   . Then
 1 +  2  +  3  + ... +  120  is equal to
26. For x  (–1, 1], the number of solutions of the        
__________.
equation sin–1 x = 2 tan–1 x is equal to _________.
Answer (825)
Answer (2)
Sol. [ 1] + [ 2] + [ 3 ] + ..... + [120]
−1 −1
Sol. sin(sin x ) = sin(2 tan x) E=1+1+1+2+2+2+2+2+3+3+3+3+3
+ 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 +…
2x
x= E = 3 × 1 + 5 × 2 + 7 × 3 + ….. + 19 × 9 + 10 × 21
1+ x2 10
 10  11 21 10  11
x = 0,  1 =  ( 2r + 1) r = 2  6 + 2

r =1
 x = 0 and 1 are possible. = 770 + 55
27. The mean and standard deviation of the marks of = 825
10 students were found to be 50 and 12 10

respectively. Later, it was observed that two marks

30. Let f ( x ) =  k xk , x  .
k =1
20 and 25 were wrongly read as 45 and 50
respectively. Then the correct variance is If 2f (2) + f (2) = 119(2)n + 1 then n is equal to
____________. _________.
Answer (10)
Answer (269)
10
Sol.  xi (wrong) = 500 Sol. f(x)=  k x k
k =1

 xi2
(wrong) 2
S = x + 2 x 2 + 3 x 3 + ........... + 10 x10
144 = − (50) 11
10 Sx = x 2 + 2 x 3 + ............... + 9 x10 + 10 x
26440 =  xi2 (wrong) S(1 − x ) = x + x 2 + x 3 + ..... + x10 − 10 x11
x(1 − x10 )
 xi (correct) = 450 S(1 − x ) = − 10 x11
1− x
 xi (correct) = 45 x(1 − x10 ) 10 x11
S= − = f (x)
(1 − x )2 (1 − x )
 xi2 (correct) = 26440 − 3500
f (2) = 2(1 − 210 ) + 10·211
= 22940 = 2 + 18·210
22940
Variance = − (45)2 −10 x11 110 x10 10 x10 2x(1 − x10 )
10 f = − − + +
(1 − x )2 1− x (1 − x )2 (1 − x )3
= 2294 – 2025
1 − x10
= 269
(1 − x )
28. The remainder, when 7103 is divided by 17, is
___________ 2f (2) + f (2) = 119(2)10 + 1

Answer (12)  n = 10
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

PHYSICS

( )
2
SECTION - A I I1 + I2
Sol. max =
( )
Imin 2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 I1 − I2
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2
 A + A2   2 + 1
2
= 1  =  2 − 1 = 9
 A 1 − A2 
Choose the correct answer:  
31. Given below are two statements:
34. A 10 C charge is divided into two parts and placed
Statement I : Out of microwaves, infrared rays and
at 1 cm distance so that the repulsive force between
ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are the most
them is maximum. The charges of the two parts are:
effective for the emission of electrons from a
metallic surface. (1) 7 C, 3 C (2) 8 C, 2 C
Statement II : Above the threshold frequency, the (3) 5 C, 5 C (4) 9 C, 1 C
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is
Answer (3)
inversely proportional to the frequency of the
incident light. Q Q
Sol. We know that for , force would be maximum.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct 2 2
answer from the options given below 35. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 90 km/h
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true observes another train B moving in the opposite
direction for 8 s. If the velocity of the train B is 54
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
km/h, then length of train B is:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) 120 m (2) 320 m
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) 80 m (4) 200 m
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. Since UV would be having highest frequency,
 Most effective for electron emission. Sol. Relative velocity = 144 km/h

Also, Kmax = hf –  = 40 m/s

 Statement II is wrong  Length = 40 m/s × 8 s

32. The distance travelled by an object in time t is given = 320 m
by s = (2.5)t2. The instantaneous speed of the 36. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas are
object at t = 5 s will be : P0 and V0. The final pressure of the gas when the
(1) 25 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 V
gas is suddenly compressed to volume 0 will be:
(3) 62.5 ms–1 (4) 12.5 ms–1 4
Answer (1) (Given  = ratio of specific heats at constant
Sol. s = 2.5t2 pressure and at constant volume)
 Speed = 5t (1) P0(4) (2) 4P0
 At t = 5 s, speed = 25 m/s 1

33. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of (3) P0 (4) P0 (4) 
amplitude of light coming from slits is 2 : 1. The ratio Answer (1)
of the maximum to minimum intensity in the
Sol. PV = constant
interference pattern is

(1) 9 : 4 (2) 25 : 9 V 
P0V0 = P   0 
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 4

Answer (4)  P = 4P0

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
37. A vehicle of mass 200 kg is moving along a levelled Sol. For resonance, XL = XC
curved road of radius 70 m with angular velocity of  Both inductor and capacitor would be required.
0.2 rad/s. The centripetal force acting on the vehicle
is: Also, for pure capacitor or pure inductor power
factor = 0
(1) 560 N (2) 2800 N
 Both statements are incorrect
(3) 2240 N (4) 14 N
40. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The
Answer (1)
distance from the mean position when it's kinetic
Sol. F = MR2 energy becomes equal to its potential energy is:
= 200 × 70 × 0.22 N 1
(1) A (2) 2A
= 560 N 2
38. In the network shown below, the charge 1
accumulated in the capacitor in steady state will be: (3) 2A (4) A
2
Answer (1)
1 1
Sol. m2 ( A2 − x 2 ) = m2 x 2
2 2
A
 x=
2
 a 
41. In the equation  X + 2  Y – b = RT , X is
(1) 10.3 C (2) 4.8 C  Y 
pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas constant
(3) 12 C (4) 7.2 C
T is temperature. The physical quantity equivalent
Answer (4) a
to the ratio is:
Sol. In steady state, capacitor behaves as open circuit. b
 VC = i × 6  (1) Pressure gradient

3 (2) Energy
= 6 V
10 (3) Impulse
= 1.8 V (4) Coefficient of viscosity
 Q = CV = 7.2 C Answer (2)
39. Given below are two statements: Sol. a  PV2
Statement I : An AC circuit undergoes electrical bV
resonance if it contains either a capacitor or an
a
inductor.   PV  Energy
b
Statement II: An AC circuit containing a pure
42. To radiate EM signal of wavelength  with high
capacitor or a pure inductor consumes high power
due to its non-zero power factor. efficiency, The antennas should have a minimum
size equal to:
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: 
(1) 2 (2)
2
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false (3) (4) 
4
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (3)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Answer (3) Sol. Length of antenna =
4

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

43. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R (3)

Assertion A : A spherical body of radius (5 ± 0.1)

mm having a particular density is falling through a
liquid of constant density. The percentage error in (4)
the calculation of its terminal velocity is 4%.

Reason R : The terminal velocity of the spherical

Answer (2)
body falling through the liquid is inversely
proportional to its radius. Sol. Y = (AB)

In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
 Y would be zero only when both A and B are 1.
 option 2.
45. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at
STP is 1500d, where d is the diameter of the gas
molecules. While maintaining the standard
pressure, the mean free path of the molecules at
373 K is approximately:
(1) 750d

(4) A is false but R is true (2) 1098d

(3) 2049d
Answer (3)
(4) 1500d
2
Sol. VT = r 2g
( −  ') r 2 Answer (3)
9 
1
Sol. Mean free path =

dVT dr
= 2 = 2
0.1 2 nd 2
VT r 5
1500d 273
 =
 4% ' 373

44. The output from a NAND gate having inputs A and   = 2049.45d
B given below will be, 46. Two planets A and B of radii R and 1.5 R have
densities  and /2 respectively. The ratio of
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of B to A
is:
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 4 : 3
(1) Answer (3)

GM
Sol. g =  R
R2
(2) gB 1
 =  1.5 = 0.75
gA 2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
47. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at a
particular position, the electric field is along the
negative z-axis and magnetic field is along the
positive x-axis. Then the direction of propagation of
electromagnetic wave is:
(1) positive z-axis
(2) positive y-axis
(3) at 45° angle from positive y-axis
(4) negative y-axis
Answer (4)
Sol. Cˆ = Eˆ  Bˆ
 Ĉ is along –y axis
48. An electron is moving along the positive x-axis. If
uniform magnetic field is applied parallel to the
negative z-axis, then
A. The electron will experience magnetic force
along positive y-axis
B. The electron will experience magnetic force
along negative y-axis
C. The electron will not experience any force in
magnetic field
D. The electron will continue to move along the
positive x-axis
E. The electron will move along circular path in
magnetic field
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) A and E only (2) C and D only
(3) B and E only (4) B and D only
Answer (3)
Sol. F = qv  B
= −ev  B
 F along –y axis
Also, motion would be circular.
49. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is
practically independent of the atomic number for
nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
- 13 -
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Answer (2)
Sol. Binding energy per nucleon is almost constant in
the mass number range 30 – 170. This is because
nuclear force is a short-range force.
50. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : For a planet, if the ratio of mass of
the planet to its radius increase, the escape velocity
from the planet also increase.
Statement II : Escape velocity is independent of
the radius of the planet.
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (2)
2GM
Sol. v esc =
R
 Statement I is correct while statement II is wrong.
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer.
 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

51. Two plates A and B have thermal conductivities 84 P 1

 =
Wm–1K–1 and 126 Wm–1K–1 respectively. They have P 2
same surface area and same thickness. They are
P
placed in contact along their surfaces. If the  P = =5D
temperatures of the outer surfaces of A and B are 2
kept at 100°C and 0°C respectively, then the 54. Three point charges q, –2q and 2q are placed on x-
temperature of the surface of contact in steady 3
state is _______ °C. axis at a distance x = 0, x = R and x = R
4
Answer (40) respectively from origin as shown. If q = 2 × 10–6 C
84  A  (100 − T ) 126  A  (T − 0) and R = 2 cm, the magnitude of net force
Sol. =
L L experienced by the charge –2q is _______ N.

 200 – 2T = 3T
 T = 40°C
52. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm
and emits another photon of wavelength 600 nm.
Answer (5440)
The net energy absorbed by the atom in this
process is n × 10–4 eV. The value of n is _______. 1 4q2 1 2q2
Sol. –
[Assume the atom to be stationary during the 40  R 2 40  3R 
2

4  4 
absorption and emission process] (Take h = 6.6 ×    
10–34 Js and c = 3 × 108 m/s).
16q2  2
= 9  109  2 
4– 
Answer (4125) R  9
hc hc 9  109  16  4  10–12 34
Sol. E = − =  N = 5440 N
1 2 4 9
104
6.6  10−34  3  108  100
=
500  600  10−9 55. A straight wire AB of mass 40 g and length 50 cm
is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in uniform
6.6  3
=  10−19 J magnetic field of magnitude 0.40 T as shown in the
30 figure. The magnitude of the current required in the
6.6  3 wire to remove the tension in the supporting leads
= eV is _______ A. (Take g = 10 ms–2).
30  1.6

6.6  3  104
=  10−4 eV
30  1.6
= 4125 × 10–4 eV
53. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in two
identical parts along a plane perpendicular to the
principal axis. The power of each lens after cut is
_______ D.
Answer (2)
Answer (5)
Sol. On current carrying wires
1 2
Sol. = ( − 1)   ILB = Mg
f R
40
1  1  10
= ( − 1)    I= 1000 =2A
f R 0.5  0.4

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
56. In an experiment with sonometer when a mass of 59. An insulated copper wire of 100 turns is wrapped
180 g is attached to the string, it vibrates with around a wooden cylindrical core of the cross-
fundamental frequency of 30 Hz. When a mass m sectional area 24 cm2. The two ends of the wire are
is attached, the string vibrates with fundamental connected to a resistor. The total resistance in the
frequency of 50 Hz. The value of m is __________ circuit is 12. If an externally applied uniform
g. magnetic field in the core along its axis changes
from 1.5 T in one direction to 1.5 T in the opposite
Answer (500)
direction, the charge flowing through a point in the
circuit during the change of magnetic field will be
v 1 T
Sol. f = = ___________ mC.
2L 2L 
Answer (60)
30 180
 = −d 
50 m Sol.  = = iR
dt
25 −
 m = 180  = 500 grams
9   idt = R

57. A light rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of 1

 − [2  1.5  24  10−4 ]  100 C
mass 5 kg and radius 70 cm. The rope is pulled with R
a force of 52.5 N. The angular acceleration of the
0.72
cylinder will be ___________ rad s–2.  Charge = C
12
Answer (15) = 60 mC

Sol.  = I 60. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in the

capacitor is n J. The value of n is _______.
70
52.5 
 = 100 = 10.5  10
2 7
 70 
5 
 100 

= 15 rad/s2

58. A car accelerates from rest of u m/s. The energy

spent in this process is E J. The energy required to
accelerate the car from u m/s is to 2u m/s is nE J.
The value of n is ____________. Answer (75)

Sol. Capacitor would behave as open circuit.

Answer (3)
4 3 
VC =   12 −  12  volts
1
Sol. E = mv 2 (1) 6 12 
2
= (8 − 3)V = 5 V

nE =
1
2

m (2v )2 − v 2  (2)
 U=
1
C (5)2
2
 n=3 = 75 J

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A Sol. Ba2+ belongs to Vth Group and hence they are
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 precipitated with CO32− to give ppt of BaCO3.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
63. Match Lis-I with List-II.
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer: List-I List-II
61. Match List-I with List-II. A. Weak I. Hexamethylenediamine
1-Bromopropane is reacted with reagents in List-I intermolecular + adipic acid
to give product in List-II forces of
List-I List-II attraction
Reagent Product
B. Hydrogen II. AlEt3 + TiCl4
A. KOH (alc) I. Nitrile
bonding
B. KCN (alc) II. Ester
C. Heavily III. 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene
C. AgNO2 III. Alkene
branched
D. H3CCOOAg IV. Nitroalkane polymer
Choose the correct answer from the options given
D. High density IV. Phenol + formaldehyde
below
polymer
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
Answer (1)
Sol. (A) (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (4)
(B)
Sol. (A) Weak Intermolecular Forces are present in
polymer of 2-chloro, 1, 3-butadiene
(C)
(B) Hydrogen Bonding is present in NYLON-66
which is a polymer of Hexamethylenediamine
and adipic acid
(D)
(C) Heavily branched polymer is Bakelite which is
polymer of phenol and formaldehyde
(D) High density polymer prepration requires
62. In the wet tests for detection of various cations by
AL(Et)3 and TiCl4 as a catalyst (Ziegler Natta
precipitation, Ba2+ cations are detected by obtaining
precipitate of Catalyst)

(1) Ba(ox) : Barium oxalate 64. The covalency and oxidation state respectively of

(2) BaCO3 boron in [BF4]–, are

(3) Ba(OAc)2 (1) 3 and 5 (2) 3 and 4

(4) BaSO4 (3) 4 and 4 (4) 4 and 3
Answer (2) Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. [BF4]– 67. Which of the following complexes will exhibit
Covalency = No. of Bonds = 4 maximum attraction to an applied magnetic field?

Oxidation state = +3 for Boron (1) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Co(en)3]3+

65. Identify the correct order of standard enthalpy of (3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]2+

formation of sodium halides. Answer (4)

(1) NaI < NaBr < NaF < NaCl Sol. Complex having maximum number of unpaired

(2) NaI < NaBr < NaCl < NaF electrons will exhibit maximum attraction to applied
magnetic field.
(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI
[Ni(H2O)6]2+ = 2 unpaired electrons
(4) NaCl < NaF < NaBr < NaI
[Co(en)3]3+ = 0 unpaired electrons
Answer (2)
[Zn(H2O)6]2+ = 0 unpaired electrons
1
Sol. Lattice energy  [Co(H2O)6]2+ = 3 unpaired electrons
(r+ + r− )
68. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
Size  Enthalpy of formation 
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Order : Reason R.
NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI Assertion A : The diameter of colloidal particles in
66. What happens when methane undergoes solution should not be much smaller than
combustion in systems A and B respectively? wavelength of light to show Tyndall effect.

Adiabatic Diathermic Reason R : The light scatters in all directions when

system container the size of particles is large enough.
System A System B In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
System A System B
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(1) Temperature Temperature
correct explanation of A
rises remains same
(2) A is true but R is false
(2) Temperature Temperature
(3) A is false but R is true
remains same rises
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(3) Temperature falls Temperature explanation of A
remains same
Answer (4)
(4) Temperature falls Temperature Sol. Conditions for Tyndall effect:
rises (i) Diameter of colloidal particles in solution is not
Answer (1) much smaller than wavelength of the light used.

Sol. For adiabatic system, heat will not escape and (ii) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
temperature of system will rise. and dispersion medium differ greatly in

For diathermic container, heat will escape the magnitude.

container and hence temperature of container will If size of particles is large enough than light scatters

remain same. in all directions.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

69. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as 71. Compound A from the following reaction sequence
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. is :
Assertion A : Isotopes of hydrogen have almost
same chemical properties, but difference in their
rates of reactions.
Reason R: Isotopes of hydrogen have different (1) Benzoic Acid
enthalpy of bond dissociation. (2) Aniline
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Salicylic Acid
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) Phenol
below:
Answer (2)
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct Sol.
explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
Answer (2)
Sol. Isotopes of hydrogen have almost same chemical
properties, but rate will be different due to
72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
difference in bond dissociation enthalpy.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
70. The major product for the following reaction is :
Assertion A : Order of acidic nature of the following
compounds is A > B > C.

(1)

(2)

(3) Reason R: Fluoro is a stronger electron

withdrawing group than Chloro group.
(4)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :

Answer (2) (1) A is false but R is true

Sol. Nucleophilicity: SH > OH (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
Stable carbocation will be that which is away from explanation of A
CN group. (3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. The F & Cl are electron withdrawing while CH3 is
electron loosing hence acidic strength will be
On further differentiation the – I effect depends most
importantly over distance hence.
The F has higher –I effect as compared to Cl hence
reason is correct statement but the –I effect
depends more on distance as compared to power
hence is stronger acid than
73. The correct group of halide ions which can be
oxidised by oxygen in acidic medium is
(1) Br– and I– only
(2) Br– only
(3) I– only
(4) Cl–, Br– and I– only
Answer (3)
Sol. Fluorine oxidises water to oxygen whereas chlorine
& bromine react with water to form corresponding
HX & HOX acids. The reaction of I2 with water is
nonspontaneous. In fact I– can be oxidised by
oxygen in acidic medium.
It is why the I– in nature is not present in that much
amount as other halides are present in nature.
74. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : SO2 and H2O both possess V-shaped
structure.
Statement II : The bond angle of SO2 is less than
that of H2O.
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In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
Answer (4)
Sol.
SO2 and H2O both have V-Shape
Bond angle: SO2 > H2O
75. Better method for preparation of BeF2, among the
following is

(1) BeO + C + F2 ⎯⎯ → BeF2

(2) (NH4 )2 BeF4 ⎯⎯ → BeF2

(3) Be + F2 ⎯⎯ → BeF2

(4) BeH2 + F2 ⎯⎯ → BeF2
Answer (2)
Sol. (NH4 )2 BeF4 ⎯⎯→ 2NH4F + BeF2
76. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Tropolone is an aromatic compound
and has 8  electrons.
Statement II :  electrons of >C = O group in
tropolone is involved in aromaticity.
In the light of the above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (1)
 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

Sol. Ellingham diagram have plot of  Gof vs.

temperature
Sol. 79. Which of the following are the Green house gases?

A. Water vapour
Tropolone has 8 electrons B. Ozone

C. I2
-electrons of group does not get involved
D. Molecular hydrogen
in aromaticity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
77. The naturally occurring amino acid that contains
options given below :
only one basic functional group in its chemical
(1) A and D only (2) B and C only
structure is
(1) asparagine (2) histidine (3) A and B only (4) C and D only

(3) arginine (4) lysine Answer (3)

Answer (1) Sol. I2 and H2 are not green house gases.

Sol. Asparagine have only one Basic Functional Group 80. The total number of stereoisomers for the complex
Structure of Asparagine: [Cr(ox)2ClBr]3– (where ox = oxalate) is

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 1

Answer (1)

Cis– 2
Sol.
trans– 1
78. Given below are two statements related to
Ellingham diagram : Total 3 stereoisomers.

Statement I : Ellingham diagrams can be SECTION - B

constructed for formation of oxides, sulfides and Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
halides of metals.
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Statement II : It consists of plots of fH° vs T for
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
formation of oxides of elements.
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
most appropriate answer from the options given
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
below :
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
the place designated to enter the answer.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect 81. 1g of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is excess HCl produces 0.01 mol of CO2. The molar

correct mass of M2CO3 is ______ g mol–1. (Nearest integer)

Answer (3) Answer (100)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening
M2CO3 + 2HCl → MCl + H2O + CO2 Sol. K sp = 10−20 = (Cu2+ )(1)2
Sol.
0.01 mole 0.01 mole
[Cu2+ ] = 10−20
1
 = 0.01 0.059
MW Ecell = Ecell
o
− log1020
2
 gm 
MW = 100   0.059
 mole  Ecell = 0.34 − (20)
2
82. 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.1 M
= 0.34 – 0.59
acetic acid solution. The pH of the resulting solution
is ______ × 10–2. (Nearest integer) = – 0.25

Given : pKa(CH3COOH) = 4.76 x = 25

log 2 = 0.30 85. See the following chemical reaction:

log 3 = 0.48 Cr2O72− + X H+ + 6Fe2+ → Y Cr 3+ + 6Fe3+ + Z H2O
Answer (458)
The sum of X, Y and Z is
Sol.
Answer (23)

Sol. (Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e− )  6

6e− + 14H+ + Cr2O72− → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O

6Fe2+ + 14H+ + Cr2O72− → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O
2
pH = pK a + log  
3 X = 14
pH = 4.76 + 0.30 − 0.48 Y=2
Z=7
= 4.76 – .18
(X + Y + Z) = 14 + 2 +7
= 4.58
83. If the formula of Borax is Na2B4Ox(OH)y·zH2O, then = 23
x + y + z = ________ 86. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 3s
Answer (17) xh
orbital is . The value of x is ________ (nearest
2
Sol. Borax is Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O
integer)
x=5
y=4 Answer (0)
z=8 Sol. Orbital angular Momentum
(x + y + z) = 5 + 4 + 8 = 17
h
( )( + 1)
84. At 298 K, the standard reduction potential for 2
Cu2+/Cu electrode is 0.34 V.
For s-orbital =  = 0
Given : Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 × 10–20
2.303 RT Orbital angular momentum for s – orbital = 0
Take = 0.059 V
F 87. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic
The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above lattice with unit cell edge length of 4 Å. The radius
couple is (-)x × 10–2 V. of sodium atom is _______ × 10–1 Å. (Nearest
The value of x is integer)
Answer (25) Answer (17)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (13-04-2023)-Evening

Sol. a 3 = 4r 89. Sea water contains 29.25% NaCl and 19% MgCl2
by weight of solution. The normal boiling point of the
4 3 = 4r
sea water is _____ °C (Nearest integer)
r = 3Å = 1.73 Å
Assume 100% ionization for both NaCl and MgCl2
1.73 = t × 10–1 Given: Kb(H2O = 0.52 K kg mol–1)
t = 17.3 Molar mass of NaCl and MgCl2 is 58.5 and 95 g
Closest integer = 17 mol–1 respectively.
88. A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) is a first order reaction. The Answer (116)
initial pressure of the system was found to be Sol. Molality of solutions
800 mm Hg which increased to 1600 mm Hg after
0.5
10 min. The total pressure of the system after NaCl =  1000
51.75
30 min will be ________ mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
0.2
Answer (2200) MgCl2 =  1000
51.75
Sol.
( Tb ) = (i1m1 ) + (i2m2 )kb
 2  0.5  1000 3  0.2  1000 
    1000
 51.75 51.75 
= 16.077
800 + 2x = 1600
Boiling point of sea water
2x = 800
= 116.077ºC
x = 400
 116ºC (Nearest integer)
2.303 800 2.303  log2
K= log =
10 400 10 90. 0.400 g of an organic compound (X) gave 0.376 g
For 30 min, of AgBr in Carius method for estimation of bromine.

2.303 ( 800) % of bromine in the compound (X) is _______.

K= log
30 (800 – y ) (Given: Molar mass AgBr = 188 g mol–1

2.303  log2 2.303  800  Br = 80 g mol–1)

= log  
10 30  800 – y  Answer (40)

 800  0.376
 =8 Sol. Moles of AgBr =
 800 – y  188

100 = 800 – y Moles of Br =

0.376
188
y = 700
Total pressure after 30 min 0.376
Mass of Br =  80
188
(800 – y) + (2y) + (y)
= 800 + 2y 0.376  80
% of Br =  100
= 800 + 1400 188  ( 0.400 )

= 2200 mm Hg = 40%

❑ ❑ ❑

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