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Sta.

Maria National High School


Bunducan, Bagbaguin, Santa Maria, Bulacan

PRE-TEST
SCIENCE 10
Name: ___________________________________ Date: _____________ Score:______/50
Grade and Section: _________________________ Parent’s signature: ______________________
Directions: Read each item carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which statement best describe the location of most earthquake epicenters relative to the location of volcanoes around the world?
A. They are far adjacent. C. Earthquake epicenters and volcanoes are both situated at the same location.
B. They are not necessarily relevant. D. Some are located near the edges of the continents.
2. Which of the following is TRUE about the tectonic plates?
A. They are constantly moving. C. The tectonic plates don't move for centuries.
B. There are fewer and fewer of them. D. Earthquakes cause the tectonic plates to crack.
3. What is the underlying force that drives the tectonic plates?
A. Ocean tides B. Tectonics C. Earthquake D. Convection current
4. Which of the following statements best describes Plate Boundaries?
A. Plate boundaries are the edges where two plates meet. C. Plate boundaries causes the occurrence of tsunami.
B. Plate boundaries are rigid sections of the lithosphere that moves as a unit. D. Plate boundaries are irrelevant.
5. What type of plate boundary causes the plates to separate?
A. Convergent B. Divergent C. Transform D. Constructive
6. What is the type of plate boundary is present when two plates slide of slip past each other?
A. Convergent B. Divergent C. Transform fault D. Constructive
7. The process of subduction happens when a denser plate submerges below a less dense plate. Which type of convergent plate
boundary does NOT exhibit subduction?
A. Continental to oceanic B. Continental to continental C. Oceanic to oceanic D. Oceanic to continental
8. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at the subduction zone?
A. The oceanic crust has a greater density. C. The oceanic crust is pushed from the ridge.
B. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth’s magnetic field. D. The continental crust has a denser composition.
9. In a hotspot, Volcano A is on top of the mantle plume. Volcano B is 10km farther from A while Volcano C is the farthest. What can
you infer about the ages of the volcanoes?
A. Volcano A is older than C. B. Volcano B is the oldest. C. Volcano B is the youngest D. volcano B is younger than C.
10. What makes up the lithosphere?
A. Continental Crust B. Upper mantle C. Crust and upper mantle D. Oceanic and continental crust
11. The movement of the lithosphere is facilitated by a soft, weak, and plastic-like layer. Which of the following is described in the
statement? A. Asthenosphere B. Lithosphere C. Atmosphere D. Hydrosphere
12. Which of the following tells the difference between lenses and mirrors?
A. Lenses refract light, mirrors reflect light. C. Lenses produce virtual images, mirrors make real image.
B. Lenses make objects appear larger; mirrors make objects smaller. D. Lenses reflect light, mirrors refract light rays.
13. What kind of spherical mirror is curved inward? A. Concave B. Convex C. Flat D. Plane
14. What kind of spherical mirror is curved outward? A. Concave B. Convex C. Flat D. Plane
15. What does it mean to reflect? A. bounce off B. bend C. refract D. lens
16. Why do you not see an image when light reflects off a rough surface?
A. Because not enough light is reflected. C. Because the reflection is diffuse.
B. Because the reflection is regular. D. Because the Law of Reflection does not apply.
17. Zed stands 200 cm tall in front of a plane mirror. What is the height of his image?
A. 800 cm B. 600 cm C. 400 cm D. 200 cm
18. What transformation can take place in a ceiling fan’s electric motor?
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy C. Alternating current into direct current
B. Mechanical energy into electrical energy D. Direct current into alternating current
19. Which is NOT a distinctive attribute of an electric generator?
A. Electric generator turns mechanical energy into electric energy. C. It is based upon the electromagnetic induction theory.
B. Electric generator turns electric power into mechanical energy. D. It provides electricity.
20. Which two forces are required for generators and electric motor to work?
A. Magnetic and thermal B. Magnetic & radiant C. Electric and thermal D. Electric & magnetic
21. All the following are uses of visible light, which one is not?
A. It enables us to see things. C. Used in thermal imaging.
B. It gives light to the screen of our devices. D. Used in optical fibers.
22. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. As the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength also increases.
B. As the frequency of a wave decreases, the energy increases.
C. As the wavelength of a wave increases, the energy also increases.
D. As the wavelength of a wave decreases, the frequency increases.
23. Which gland of the endocrine and nervous system controls the other glands in the body?
A. Adrenal gland B. Brain C. Parathyroid gland D. Pituitary gland

24. It is the monthly series of changes a woman’s body goes through in preparation for the possibility of pregnancy.
A. Menstruation B. Ovulation C. Menstrual cycle D. Fertilization
25. On average, how many days does the menstrual cycle last?
A. 7 B. 14 C. 21 D. 28
26. Where are the major endocrine glands located?
A. In the head, shoulders, knees, and toes C. In the brain, neck, abdomen, and groin
B. In the abdomen, joints, brain, and spinal D. In the gall bladder, appendix, tonsils, spleen
27. Suppose a boy skipped his for the day, how will the hormones from his pancreas help his body to cope when his blood sugar level
drops below normal?
A. Glucagon is released in response to low blood glucose level due to skipped lunch, thus increasing blood sugar into normal level.
B. Insulin is released in response to low blood glucose level due to skipped lunch, thus increasing blood sugar into normal level.
C. Glucagon is released in response to low blood glucose level due to skipped lunch, thus decreasing blood sugar into normal level.
D. Insulin is released in response to low blood glucose level due to skipped lunch, thus decreasing blood sugar into normal level.
28. Which sequence on the mRNA corresponds to the DNA template “ATA”? A. UAU B. ATA C. TUT D. UCU
29. What is the process of producing protein called? A. Replication B. Protein synthesis C. Transcription D. Translation
30. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe evolution?
A. Evolution is continuous. C. The world is stable and unchanging.
B. Evolution refers to change. D. If there is mutation, there is evolution.
31. Which of the following statements supports the idea of extinction?
A. to give way for other organisms to develop. C. to know who is the fittest
B. to let other organisms to evolve and progress D. all of the above
32. Which of the following statements DOES NOT show the process of adaptation?
A. Dying out of dinosaurs during the cretaceous period. C. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
B. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of food. D. A child learning to walk on his own.
33. Why is biodiversity so important?
A. Because all species depend on each other to survive, so if one becomes extinct another species that relies on it could go extinct
as well.
B. Because it’s better to have only one variation of each species.
C. Because it better to only have a few species on Earth.
D. Honestly, I have no idea what biodiversity is!
34. Where is DNA found? A. Cytosol B. Nucleus C. Cytoplasm D. Ribosome
35. It is a phase of matter which has no definite size and shape. A. gas B. wood C. solid D. all of them
36. Which law describes the behavior of volume and pressure at constant temperature?
A. Boyle’s Law B. Charles’ Law C. Combined Gas Law D. Ideal Gas Law
37. What will happen to the volume of a gas if the pressure increases at a constant temperature?
A. decreases B. increases C. remains the same D. stays the same
38. Which law expresses temperature–pressure at constant volume relationship?
A. Boyle’s Law B. Charles’ Law C. Gay-Lussac’s Law D. none of the choices
39. This law is based on the three laws of gases– Boyle’s, Charles’ and Gay-Lussacs.
Avogadro’s Gas Law B. Combined Gas Law C. Ideal Gas Law D. Newton’s Law of Motion
40. Which is not a unit of temperature? A. Celsius B. Fahrenheit C. Kelvin D. Millimeter of Mercury
41. What is 110 °C in Kelvin? A. 223 K B. 273 K C. 283 K D. 383 K
42. What elements make up carbohydrates? A. C, H, N, O B. S, C, H C. glucose and fructose D. C, H, O
43. Which of the following sugars are the components of lactose?
A. fructose and galactose B. glucose & galactose C. glucose & fructose D. glucose and glucose
44. Which proteins bind (and store) small molecules for future use?
A. buffer protein B. nutrient protein C. regulatory protein D. storage protein
45. Which of the following is the building blocks of protein?
A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. lactic acids D. nucleic acids
46. What is the complementary base pair of this DNA sequence 5’ A-A-T-C-A 3’?
A. 3’ T-A-A-T-C 5’ B. 3’A-T-T-G-G 5’ C. 3’ T-T-A-G-T 5’ D. 3’A-G-G-A-A 5’
47. What nucleotide base does RNA contain that DNA does not?
A. adenine (A) B. cytosine (C) C. thymine (T) D. uracil (U)
48. Some functions of lipids include waterproofing, temperature regulation, and long-term energy storage. Which of the following is NOT
a common type of lipids? A. Fats B. Oils C. Sugars D. Waxes
49. What are the nitrogen bases in DNA?
A. Adenine, thymine, cytoplasm and guanine C. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine
B. Adenine, thymine, cytosine and glycerol D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
50. What is the building block of nucleic acids called?
A. Monosaccharide B. Fatty acid C. Nucleotide D. Amino acid

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