DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE 10

Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. What type of plate boundary will be formed if two plates will be moving away from each other?
a. Convergent b. Divergent c. Transform fault d. all of the above
2. What do you expect to find parallel to a trench? a. hot spot b. ocean ridge c. rift valley d. volcanic arc
3. Right in the middle of an island, you can find a rift valley. What type of plate boundary exists on that island?
a. convergent b. divergent c. normal fault d. transform fault
4. In a hot spot, Volcano A is on top of the mantle plume, Volcano B is 10 km farther from A while Volcano C is the farthest.
What can you infer about the ages of the volcanoes? a. Volcano A is older than C b. Volcano B is the oldest
c. Volcano B is the youngest d. Volcano is younger than C
5. You were asked to locate the epicenter of a recent earthquake. Which correct sequence of events should you follow?
i. Determine the difference in the arrival time of S and P waves recorded from each of the seismological stations.
ii. Use the triangulation method to locate the center. iii. Obtain data from three different seismological stations.
iv. Determine the distance of the epicenter from the station. a. i, iii, ii, iv b. iii, i, iv, ii c. iii, iv, i, ii d. iv, ii, i, iii
6. What makes up the lithosphere? a. Continental crust b. Crust and the upper mantle
c. Oceanic crust and continental crust d. Upper mantle
7. In 1912, Alfred Wegener proposed a theory that the Earth is once a single landmass. What is the name of the Mesozoic
supercontinent that consisted of all of the present continents? a. Eurasia b. Laurasia c. Pangaea d. Gondwanaland
8. The movement of the lithospheric plates is facilitated by a soft, weak and plastic-like layer. Which of the following layers is
described in the statement? a. Asthenosphere b. Atmosphere c. Lithosphere d. Mantle
9. If you are a cartographer, what will give you an idea that the continents were once joined? a.Ocean depth
b. Position of the south pole c. Shape of the continents d. Size of the Atlantic Ocean
10. Which observation was NOT instrumental in formulating the hypothesis of seafloor spreading? a.Depth of the ocean
b. Identifying the location of glacial deposits c. Magnetization of the oceanic crust d. Thickness of seafloor sediments
11. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at the subduction zone?
a. The oceanic crust has a greater density. b. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth’s magnetic field.
c. The oceanic crust is pushed from the ridge. d. The continental crust has a denser composition.
12. What can an electric current in a wire coil produce?
a. A generator b. A source of voltage c. Another current d. A magnetic field
13. Which device can be used to determine the polarity of an unmarked magnet? a. charged glass stirring rod
b. a gold-leaf electroscope c. a sprinkle of iron filing d. an improvised compass
14. Which of the following can change the strength of an electromagnet? a. The size and kind of the core used.
b. The number of turns of wire in the coil. c. The amount of current passing through it. d. All of these.
15. During the Student Technologists and Entrepreneurs of the Philippines (STEP) Competition in Landscaping, a water
pond transformer changes 216 V across the primary to 12V across the secondary. If the secondary coil has 10 turns,
how many turns does the primary coil have? a.10 turns b. 18 turns c. 180 turns d. 228 turns
16. What explains why the armature of a motor rotates? a.Magnetic field exerts forces on moving electrons in the loop.
b. Magnet attracts stationary electrons in the wire. c. Current exerts a force on the loop, causing it to rotate.
d. Battery effectively pushes a loop in the field.
17. How will you describe the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire? a.The magnetic field is strongest near
and around the wire. b. The magnetic field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
c. The magnetic field does not vary with the distance from the wire.
d. The magnetic field gets stronger with increasing distance from the wire.
18. A loop of conductor lies flat on a horizontal table. A toy magnet is hanging still over it with the magnet’s north-seeking
pole pointing down. What happens next? a. The magnet produces a clockwise current in the coil.
b. The magnet does not produce any current in the coil. c. The magnet produces an upward electromagnetic current.
d. The magnet produces a counterclockwise current in the coil.
19. What is the most dangerous electromagnetic waves? a.Infrared rays b. Microwave c. Gamma waves d. Ultra-violet rays
20. In the visible spectrum, which color has the longest wavelength? a. Blue b. Green c. Red d. Violet
21. A certain radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 675 kHz. What is the wavelength of the radio waves?
a. 280 m b. 324 m c. 400 m d. 444 m
22. What wave property can best explain the apparent bending of a pencil when it is dipped into a glass of water?
a. Reflection b Refraction c. Diffraction d. Interference
23. A photocopy “Xerox” machine produces an image that is of equal size as the object. Considering the location of an
object in a convex lens, where is the object located or placed to produce an image that is of equal size to the object?
a. At F’ b. At 2F’ c. Between F’ and V d. Between 2F’ and F’
24. What is the distance of your image from you if you stand 1.5 m in front of a plane mirror?
a. 1.5 m b. 2.0 m c. 3.0 m d. 4.5 m
25. An object is placed between a concave mirror and its focal point. What is the type and orientation of the image formed?
a.virtual and inverted b. real and inverted c. virtual and erect d. real and erect
26. A light ray, traveling parallel to a concave lens’ axis and strikes the lens, will refract and _______.
a. pass through the lens’ focal point c. continue to travel in the same direction
b. travel parallel to the principal axis d. travel at right angles to the principal axis
27. Reflexes are behavior that a. are controlled by the autonomic nervous systems. b. occur involuntarily without
conscious control. c. are under conscious control d. involve only sensory neurons
28. The ability or tendency of an organism to maintain internal equilibrium by regulating its processes is called ______.
a. stimulus b. synapse c. homeostasis d. hormone
29. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Endocrine glands secrete substances into ducts. b. Endocrine glands
secrete substances directly into target cells. c. Endocrine glands secrete substances into the lymphatic system.
d. Endocrine glands secrete substances into blood system.
30. What characterizes the menopause? a. The appearance of secondary sexual characteristics.
b. The cessation of ovulation and menstruation. c. The start of menstruation. d. The start of ovulation.
31. One chain of a DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence C, C, G, C, and T. What is the sequence of the nucleotides
on its partner chain? a. CCGCU b. GGCGU c. CCGCT d. GGCGA
32. Which of the following is the correct sequence in which a DNA sequence is used to produce a protein? a. tRNA, mRNA,
amino acids b. tRNA, amino acids, mRNA c. mRNA, tRNA, amino acids d. amino acids, mRNA, tRNA
33. What is the changes in the chromosomes where parts of the chromosomes are broken and lost during mitosis?
a. Gene mutation b. Chromosomal mutation c. Codon d. Mutagen
34. Where can most of the fossils be found? a. Sedimentary rock b. Granite rock c. Lava flows d. Black soil
35. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe evolution? a. Evolution is continuous. b. Evolution refers to
change. c. The world is stable and unchanging. d. If there is mutation, there is evolution.
36. Davao is known for its wide variety of fruits and other plant species that makes it more attractive to tourists. Which of the
following classification of value of biodiversity is described?
a. Direct economic value b. Indirect economic value c. Ethical/cultural d. both a and c
37. Which of the two protists is better adapted to competition? a. P. Aurelia b. Both of them c. P. caudatum d. None of them
38. A person breeds guinea pigs in a cage. After a few generation, the breeder observes that the guinea pigs are more
aggressive towards each other, the young are less healthy and more young guinea pigs die. What do you think will
happen to the population of the guinea pigs? a. The population will remain the same. b. The population will increase.
c. The population will decrease. d. The population is not affected.
39. The average kinetic energy of the molecules is ________related to the temperature of gas.
a. directly b. inversely c. equal d. inverse square
40. A bag of chips has a volume of 2.0 L at 760 torr of pressure. What is its volume in an airplane flying at a high altitude
with a pressure of 550 torr? a. 105 L b. 2.8 L c. 1.4 L d. 210 L
41. When performing an experiment to study the conditions necessary for rusting, some water is boiled and allowed to cool.
Why is this done? a. To purify the water b. To sterilize the water c. To wash the metal being tested
d. To remove oxygen that may be dissolved in the water
42. Which one of the following is not true for a chemical reaction? a. Heat is usually involved. b. It can easily be reversed.
c. A completely new substance is formed. d. It involves a change in energy.
43. During a chemical reaction, a. atoms are destroyed b. atoms are rearranged
c. elements are rearranged d. new elements are produced
44. What determines an atom’s ability to undergo chemical reactions?
a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Innermost electrons d. Outermost electrons
45. Which of the following statements about collisions is correct? a. Reaction will occur even without collision of molecules.
b. All colliding particles have the same amount of energy. c .Only fast-moving particles collide with each other.
d. Reactions can happen if the colliding particles have enough energy.
46. When the equation, Fe + Cl2  FeCl3, is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl2? a.1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
47. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? a. Lactose b. Glucose c. Sucrose d. Maltose
48. Which of the following contains the most lipids? a. banana b. champorado c. olive oil d. cheese
49. Which of the following is the major function of carbohydrates? 1. Structural framework 2. Storage 3. Energy production
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 & 3 only
50. Which is a correct pair of an example of protein and its function?
a. Enzymes: speed up reactions in the body and eventually used up in the process.
b. Collagen: provides strength and flexibility to connective tissues.
c. Actin and myosin: supplies amino acids to baby mammals.
d. Hemoglobin: helps regulate blood sugar levels.