1.

Spreading boundaries: New seafloor _____________:Volcanoes

a. Colliding Boundaries c. magma
b. transform Boundaries d. lava

2. The Himalayan mountain range of India was formed at a ____.

a. divergent boundary c. convergent boundary
b. hot spot d. transform boundary

3. What type of plate boundary occurs between the North American Plate and
the Eurasian Plate, shown in the figure above?
a. divergent boundary
b. transform boundary
c. convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
d. convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary

4. What type of plate boundary occurs between the Nazca Plate and the South
American Plate, shown in the figure above?
a. convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
b. convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
c. convergent continental-continental plate boundary
d. transform boundary

5. At an oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundary, ____.

a. new crust is created c. the older crust is recycled by subduction
b. the crust separates d. plates side past one another
6. Plates of the lithosphere float on the ____.
a. crust c. core
b. asthenosphere d. atmosphere

7. What is the driving force behind plate tectonics that causes it to happen?
a. gravity c. convection currents
b. plates floating on the ocean d. earthquakes

8. Seafloor spreading occurs because ____.

a. new material is being added to the asthenosphere
b. earthquakes break apart the ocean floor
c. sediments accumulate at the area of spreading
d. molten material beneath Earth's crust rises to the surface

9. Which one of the following cannot be used as evidence to support the theory
of continental drift?
a. Jig-saw fit of opposing continental coastlines
b. Trends of ancient fold mountain belts
c. Geological match of rocks on opposing continental coastlines
d. Radiometric dating

10. Which one of the following fossils cannot be used as evidence to support
the theory of continental drift?
a. Archaeopteryx
b. Glossopteris
c. Mesosaurus
d. Lystrosaurus

11. A certain radio station broadcast at a frequency of 675 kHz. What is the
wavelength of the radio waves?
a. 280 m b. 324 m c. 400 m d. 444m

12. Accelerating electrons produce Electromagnetic Waves, what type of EM

waves commonly use in transmission of sound and picture information?
a.Infrared Rays b.Microwaves c. Radio waves d. UV rays

13. Radar is a device that sends signals for finding out position and speed of a
moving objects such as an airplane. What type of EM waves is used in a
radar?
a.Infrared Rays b.Microwaves c. Radio waves d. UV rays

14. What type of EM radiation are dangerous to humans, but also enables
our body to make a particular vitamin?
a.Infrared Rays b.Microwaves c. Radio waves d. UV rays
15. When a small object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror
between the focus and the mirror. The image formed is ___________.

C F

a. erect, magnified, and virtual c. inverted, magnified and real

b. inverted, reduced and real d. erect, reduced and real

16. Where should the object place in front of a concave mirror to form virtual
image and magnified image?
a. at the focus
b. at the center of curvature
c. between the focus and vertex
d. between the center of curvature and focus

17. You see you face clearly if you look down on a pool of still water. Which
one of the following statements gives the best explanation for this
observation?
a. Light entering the water is dispersed
b. Regular reflection of light happens on the surface of still water
c. Irregular reflection of light happens on the surface of still water
d. Light is reflected from the surface of water in different directions

18. Concave lenses causes light to spread out, what kind image formed by a
concave lenses?
a. always real
b. always virtual
c. could be real or virtual; depends on the distance of the object from the
focal point
d. could be real or virtual, but always real when the object is placed at the
focal point

19. What optical instruments will be used to produce a reduced and inverted
image of a distant object?
a. Camera b. Projector c. Microscope d. Refracting telescope

20. A photocopy machine produces an image that is equal size as the object.
Considering the location of an object in a convex lens, where is the object in a
convex lens, where is the object located or placed to produce an image that is
equal size to the object?
a. At F' c. Between F' and V
b. At 2F' d. Between 2F' and F'
21. How will you describe the magnetic field around a current carrying coil?
a. The magnetic field is weakest near and around the coil.
b. The magnetic field vary directly with the distance from the coil.
c. The magnetic field is strongest inside the current-carrying coil.
d. The magnetic field lines are closed loops along the loops in the coil.

22. What can be inferred from the alignment of compass needles in the
set-up below?

a. A permanent magnet is nearby.

b. The power switch was turned off
for long.
c. There is a constant and uniform
magnetic field around the coil.
d. The current is drawn into the
coil

23. What basic principle enables all electric motors to operate?

a. Iron is the only element that is magnet
b. Opposite electric charges attract and like charges repel.
c. A closed- loop conductor within a changing magnetic field will have an
induced electromagnetic force
d. a carrying- current conductor placed within a magnetic field will
experience a magnetic force

24. What transformation can take place in an improvised generator?

a. mechanical energy into electrical energy
b. electrical energy into mechanical energy
c. alternating current into direct current
d. direct current into alternating current

25. What transformation can take place in a ceiling fan’s electric motor?
a. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
b. alternating current into direct current
c. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
d. direct current into alternating current
26. After passing the epididymis, through which structure do sperm cells
travel until exterioration?
a. Vas deferens - seminal vesicle - bulbourethral glands - penis
b. Seminal vesicle - vas deferens - bulbourethral glands - penis
c. Bulbourethral glands - vas deferens - seminal vesicle - penis
d. Penis - vas deferens - seminal vesicle - bulbourethral glands

27. Which of the following are effects of increased levels of estrogen in

the follicle phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Hair thinning on the external part of the female reproductive system
b. Thickening of the cervical mucous
c. Thinning of the cervical mucous

28. Why does menstrual cycle stop during menopause?

a. The ovaries degrade after so many years
b. There are no ovaries left
c. The cells of the endometrium degenerate
d. There is a significant change of hormone levels produced by
ovaries

29. What might happen to a person whose nervous and endocrine

system fail to maintain homeostasis?
a. The person will suffer from mental disorder
b. The endocrine system will not be affected
c. Failure in homeostasis can be potentially dangerous to a person as
it may lead to various diseases and even death
d. The person will just suffer from temporary amnesia

30. Which statement is true about protein synthesis process?

a. Transfer RNA copies the DNA and then goes out to the ribosome
b. mRNA are produced after DNA molecules unzips its bases
c. When a section of a DNA molecule unwinds and unzips along its
bases, a transfer RNA forms by copying one side of the DNA
d. The protein synthesis process is crucial of both meiosis and mitosis

31. Which statement does not describe mutation?

a. It occurs in the DNA of sex cells and can be passed from one
generation to next
b. The fertilized egg will result to two pairs producing twins
c. It leads to variety of genetic disorder
d. Incomplete pair of chromosomes
32. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger
evolutionary relationships?
a. They have varied and different ancestry
b. They have similar patterns during their early stages of development
c. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins
d. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary
relationship closer

33. Which of the following statements does not describe evolution?

a. Evolution is continuous
b. Evolution refers to change
c. The world is stable and unchanging
d. If there is mutation, there is evolution

34. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural
Selection?
a. Organs that are not used may disappear while organs that are
constantly used may develop
b. In nature, the organism with desirable characteristics may survive
while those with weaker traits may not
c. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given
environment
d. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring

35. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is
necessary?
a. To give way for other organisms to develop
b. To let other organism evolve and progress
c. To know who is the fittest
d. All of the above

Molecule A Molecule B

36. Refer to the illustration above. Molecule A is a

a. carbohydrates c. nucleic acid
b. lipid d. protein
37. Starch and cellulose have similarities EXCEPT
a. Contain 1-4 glycosidic bonds
b. found only in plant cells
c. can be broken down through hydrolysis
d. made up of sugars that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

38. Which of the following are the best describe the carbohydrates.
I. They are molecules made from aldehydes and ketones containing numerous
hydroxyl groups
II. They are water insoluble molecules that are combinations of glycerol and
fatty acids
III. Polymers of amino acids that are found as structural materials in hair, nails
and connective tissue
IV. Major source of energy for the body that contains Carbon, Hydrogen and
Oxygen
a. I and II c. II, III and IV
b. I and IV d. III and IV

39. How do gas particles respond to an increase in volume?

a. increase in kinetic energy and decrease in temperature
b. decrease in kinetic energy and decrease in pressure
c. increase in the temperature and increase in pressure
d. increase in kinetic energy and increase in temperature

40. The volume of a gas increased from 150 mL to 350 mL by heating it. If the
original temperature of the gas was 25 °C, what will its final temperature be?
a. 146 °C c. 422 °C
b. 58.3 °C d. 695 °C

41. A given mass of gas in a rigid container is heated from 100 °C to 500 °C.
Which of the following responses best describes what will happen to the
pressure of the gas?
a. The pressure will decrease by a factor of five
b. The pressure will increase by a factor of five
c. The pressure will increase by a factor of about two
d. The pressure will increase by a factor of about twenty-five

42. The pressure of a gas is 750 torr when its volume is 400 mL. Calculate the
pressure in atm if the gas is allowed to expand to 600 mL at constant
temperature.
a. 0.660 atm c. 1.48 atm
b. 500 atm d. 1125 atm
43. If the volume of a confined gas in doubled while the temperature remains
constant, what change would be observed in the pressure?
a. It would be half as large
b. It would be four times larger
c. It would be doubled
d. It would remain the same

44. An athlete will usually load up on this type of biomolecule the night before
the game.
a. lipid c. nucleic acid
b. carbohydrates d. protein

45. Which of the following is not true about ideal gas molecules?
a. They have negligible size
b. They do not have attractive force
c. They do not apply pressure
d. They move in random motion

46. Quicklime (CaO) is used as a drying agent . When water is added to this,
slaked lime Ca (OH)₂ is formed. What type of reaction is this?
a. combination c. decomposition
b. single displacement d. double displacement
.
47. Which of the following is the correct balanced reaction?
a. 2C₃H₈ +10O₂ 6CO₂ + ₈H₂O
b. C₃H₈ + O₂ CO₂ + H₂O
c. C₃H₈ +O₂ 3CO₂ +2H₂O
d. C₃H₈ +5O₂ 3CO₂ +4H₂O

48. Fresh fish and meat that are not stored in a refrigerator show signs of
spoilage in less than a day. What has caused this spoilage?
a. temperature changes
b. presence of microorganisms
c. oxygen in air
d. all of the above

49. The rate of reaction increases as the temperature increases. Which of the
following statements provides the best explanation for this?
a. At lower temperature the particles do not collide with each other
b. At higher temperatures the particles have more energy, move faster,
and collide more often.
c. Higher temperature has higher activation energy
 d. Increasing the temperature increases the number of particles, so they
collide more often

50. In a reaction with hydrochloric acid , why does powdered magnesium

reacts faster than the same mass of magnesium ribbon?
a. The powdered magnesium contains more atoms than the magnesium
ribbon
b. The powdered magnesium is hotter than the magnesium ribbon.
c. The powdered magnesium has a bigger surface area than the
magnesium ribbon
d. The powdered magnesium has a smaller surface area than the
magnesium ribbon