Practice Tests

TEST 1 Outcomes (Pre-Intermediate)
Reading Test 1
Task 1 (6 x 1 mark = 6 marks)
Read the following texts and match them to the most suitable MARK
question from the list on the next page. Write your answer in the
table below. Each heading can only be used ONCE. There are
three headings you will not need. Text 0 is an example.
BREAKFASTS FROM AROUND THE WORLD

Breakfast is the most important meal of the day. Here are some dishes that people eat in the morning all
around the world.
Text 0
Nowhere else in the world has so many breakfast choices as America. Some Americans
choose to grab a coffee and eat pancakes with syrup and bacon on top, whereas others
choose a less fattening option of savoury biscuits. The biscuits are sometimes spread with jam
and sometimes served with sausage gravy.
Text 1
Jamaicans start their day with traditional banana bread, which is cut into thick slices and
served with whipped cream or fruit. There’s usually some strong local coffee or hot tea with it
too. Children sometimes take the bread to school to eat for a snack.
Text 2
The traditional Chinese breakfast is called bao and is usually steamed or baked. These soft
buns are filled with either vegetables or meat and are bought in shops called dim sum. They
are a favourite mid-morning snack and one of the most popular breakfast dishes in China.
Text 3
The traditional English breakfast is called bubble-and-squeak – but it is too fattening to eat
every day. People choose healthier breakfast foods now, but bubble-and-squeak was
traditionally eaten on Monday mornings. It is made of leftovers from the previous night’s roast
beef dinner, and served with bacon and eggs!
Text 4
Shakshouka is a popular breakfast across North Africa. The recipe includes eggs, vegetables
and meat. Jewish immigrants from the Maghreb were the first to make this a popular morning
meal in Israel. It is accompanied by a cup of local tea.
© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

Text 5
Many French people start their day with a traditional sweet cherry pie called clafoutis. It’s from
a place in France called the Limousin. It is made with cherries in early summer and other fruit
for the rest of the year. It is very sweet and is accompanied by strong black coffee.
Text 6
Visit any town in Egypt in the morning and you’ll find people cooking ful medames – a dish that
they have eaten since ancient times. It is lightly spiced and includes broad beans with olive oil,
lemon juice, garlic, spices. It is eaten with lots of flat bread. Pickled vegetables are also eaten
with the meal as a side dish.
A Is this food popular in China?
B How old is this type of dish?
C How did this food become popular?
D What do you eat with the biscuits?
E Can you eat this at school?
F Is this also a dessert?
G Do you eat this bread with a drink?
H Is this healthy breakfast food?
I Can you eat this at night as well as for breakfast?
J Can you eat this dish any time of year?
Text 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Letter D


Outcomes (Pre-Intermediate)
Reading Test 1

Read the following text. For items 7–12 choose the option (a, b or c) MARK
which best completes the sentence, according to the text. Write
your answer in the corresponding white box. Item 0 is an example.
LIVING A GOOD LIFE

What makes a country the best or worst to live in?
The best and the worst places to live in the world are calculated according to the quality of life that
people have in different countries. By comparing people’s quality of life, you can see which countries
are the best to live in – which have better education systems, healthier people and better food.
Quality of life can also be compared between people in the same country. For example, people who
live in the countryside may have a better quality of life than people in a city, because they have fresh
air and more places to exercise. But a person in a city may have a better chance of finding a job,
and a higher income could mean a higher quality of life. It all depends on how you live and where
you live: working too much can lower your quality of life, wherever you live. A recent report looked at
areas such as health, family income and children’s education, to assess the quality of life in each
county.
Several features of a high quality of life are suggested: the most important include lots of
parks and green spaces, play areas for children and little pressure in daily life. In Japan, 11% of the
population are retired and there are 36,000 people aged 100 years or older. This suggests that the
quality of life in Japan is higher than in other countries. Their long life-span is due to a healthy
lifestyle: the Japanese eat lots of fresh food and keep fit. Poor diet and lack of exercise can reduce
the quality of life.
The report also showed that the best place to be young was in the Netherlands – the study
showed that people enjoy life more, feel less pressure and have fewer arguments. Great Britain,
however, is at the bottom of the quality of life scale due to the long working hours and fewer holidays
than other European countries.
The quality of life is poorer in Britain despite an average salary of £35,000 a year: £10,000
more than the European average. However, most British people would say that this money isn’t
enough to improve their quality of life, as it spent on the home, food and household bills. France and
Spain came top in the quality of life report, having on average 41 days of holiday per year, compared
to only 28 days in Britain.

LIVING A GOOD LIFE
0. A person’s quality of life

B
a) is a way of analysing their life.
b) indicates how well they live.
c) Indicates their wealth. 
7. A person’s quality of life generally depends on
a) the school they go to.

b) how much they earn.
c) which country they live in.
8. A country with a good quality of life has
a) many schools for children.

b) no unemployment.
c) places for people to relax and enjoy life.
9. People have a good quality of life if
a) they are happy and unstressed.

b) they earn a lot of money.
c) they live in a city.
10. Japanese people live longer because
a) they are able to retire at a young age.

b) they eat well and take care of themselves.
c) they have less pressure in their lives.
11. British people have a low quality of life because
a) they work more than people in other European countries.

b) they are unhappy.
c) the food in Britain is bad.
12. The good thing about life in Great Britain is
a) it has more paid holidays per year.

b) the high average annual salary.
c) the low cost of living.

Reading Test 1

Read the following text and complete each gap with ONE suitable MARK
word from the list below. Then write your answers in the boxes
provided. Each item can be used only ONCE. There are six items you
will not need. The first gap has been completed as an example.
CLOTHING SHOP TURNED UPSIDE DOWN

A clothing shop in Canada is using an unusual campaign to attract customers
The Gap clothing stores in America are best known for their good ____ [0] ____ and reliable service –
their famous T-shirts are sold all around the world. But now one of their stores in Canada is remembered
for ____ [13] ____ reason.
A ____ [14] ____ about an exciting new store caused many people to rush to see it over. When
they arrived, many surprised customers ____ [15] ____ that everything inside the shop was upside down
– the clothing displays and mannequins were all attached to the ceiling! People looked up to see the
clothes, which were now ____ [16] ____ high to reach. It took shop employees 12 hours to hang 32
mannequins from the ceiling and turn display tables over.
Many people wondered why the store had ____ [17] ____ to turn the shop upside down. This
was neither a new store design nor a mistake. It was, in fact, a clever marketing campaign. The
campaign, named ‘Sprize’, was set up to advertise a new store ____ [18] ____, which allows customers
to claim a full ____ [19] ____ on anything they buy if the price is reduced within 45 days of purchase.
Crowds of people came to the store, which made the campaign more successful than any television
advertisement. The store said it was, ‘an idea to turn shopping on its head!’
CHOSEN ITEM RUMOUR TOOK

FOUND QUALITY ANOTHER WHEN
MORE POLICY SALE
MUCH REFUND TOO
0. QUALITY  16.
13. 17.
14. 18.
15. 19.

Reading Test 1
MARK
This task is divided into three parts. There is a time limit for this task.
The total time is 10 minutes. You do not need to read the text in detail
but find the information required to answer each question. Write the
answers in the spaces provided. Question 0 in section 1 has been
completed as an example.
You are in the following situation:
You have decided to do some voluntary work, to get some work experience,
but also to help a good cause. Now you are looking at the cost of the trip and
the activities the charity is offering. Read the information to answer the
questions at the top of each page.
Please do not start this task until you are

told to do so.

Part 1: Voluntary work with a difference
0 The voluntary work expedition is for people who want to: do something 
different
20 Expeditions are not a: ________________________________________
21 Expeditions are run: _________________________________________
AGED 17–24?
Are you up for a crash course in life?
The world is changing and so are the ways to explore it. If you are looking for
exciting work experiences and new skills which make a difference, why don’t
you try one of our voluntary work expeditions and help the world as you go?
We run expeditions of different lengths throughout the year, to fit in with your
study or work commitments. But be warned – our expeditions are no holiday!
We like to think of them as a crash course in real life.
We believe expeditions should be open to anyone who is determined to make

a change in their life and wants to help others.

Part 2: Cost
22 A five week expedition costs: ____________________________________
23 The company provides food and: _________________________________
On our voluntary work expeditions you have the chance to visit India, South
America and Africa, and help people in local communities there. Here are some
of the activities you could be involved in:
 growing food
 improving the quality of village water supplies
 teaching English in schools
 helping in local hospitals
 learning about the environment
A guide to expedition costs:

5 week expedition £750
7 week expedition £950
10 week expedition £1,200
What’s included in the cost?

 Travel and medical insurance
 Training before you go and support while you are away
 Food and accommodation
 Any special equipment
 Transport costs

Part 3: Activities
24 On a five week course you won’t have: ____________________________
25 Volunteers will learn: __________________________________________
We run expeditions in Africa, South America or India for different lengths of time.
The different activities you can take part in depend on how many weeks you can
commit to.
Length of Skills and Voluntary A 5-day trekking

expedition training work expedition
10 weeks Yes Yes Yes
7 weeks Yes Yes Yes
5 weeks Yes Yes No
E.g. A 10 week course involves skills and training, helping the local community
AND a five day trekking expedition.
Taking part in our voluntary work expeditions gives you the chance to learn
independence, work and people skills which will be important in your future career.
It is important to have a positive attitude and be organised.
So, what are you waiting for? Apply today!

Writing Test 1
Test 1
TASK 1

Task 1 (12 marks)
MARK
Write about 80 words following the instructions given below.
Estimated time for this task: 25 minutes
You want to apply for a part-time job as a journalist for a local newspaper. This is part of the
application form you have to fill out. Please write complete sentences.
Personal information: COMMENTS
Education:
School:
(Where you study/studied, subjects, grades etc.)
Work experience:
(Past job/s, what you did and what you enjoyed about your work)
Reasons why you want to be a journalist at The Weekly News:

(Include your plans and ambitions)

Writing Test 1
TASK 2

Task 2 (13 marks)
MARK
Write about 100 words, following the instructions given below.
You have arranged to go to a Moroccan restaurant with your new American friends. Send
them an email explaining the final plans:
 describe the place you are going to
 suggest what they could have to eat
 your recent experience at the same restaurant.
Dear all, COMMENTS
Here are the plans for …
Hope you can all make it!
See you soon,

Listening Test 1
MARK
You will hear seven extracts from a conversation. Read through
headings A–J before listening. For each listening extract (1–7)
choose the heading that best matches the information you hear.
Write the letter in the table below. There are three headings you will
not need, including the example. Now read the headings.
CONVERSATIONS AFTER CLASS
Listen to a conversation between university students about jobs.
A A positive interview
B First attempt not good
C Summer job
D No plans yet
E Choosing different jobs
F Training on the job
G Taking time to apply
H Found a good job
I Telling lies
J Not using your degree
TEXT 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
LETTER G

Listening Test 1
MARK
You will hear part of a conversation. Read through the sentences below and
decide if sentences 8–17 are True (T) or False (F) according to the
conversation. Mark the correct box in the table below. Sentence 0 has been
done as an example. Now read the sentences.
EATING OUT IN A RESTAURANT
Listen to Kenny and Mel talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
0 Kenny and Mel have made a reservation for two at the restaurant.
8 A table won’t be available until half-past nine that evening.
9 Mel suggests that ordering a set menu lets you try lots of different food.
10 Lychees are a type of savoury dish served with beef.
11 Mel would prefer to drink red wine.
12 They aren’t able to have set menu D because there are only two
people.
13 Kenny wants set menu E because he is a vegetarian.
14 They decide on the set menu that the waiter suggested.
15 Mel says that she would like to drink some water too.
16 Kenny does not want to order any drinks.
17 Some set menus can only be ordered by a large group of people.
TEXT 0 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
F 


Listening Test 1
MARK
You will hear part of a conversation. Read through the notes below
and fill in gaps 18–25 according to the conversation. 0 is an example.
Now read the notes.
TALKING ABOUT YOUR FAMILY
Listen to part of a conversation between Mary and Stella in which Stella is describing a family member.
Stella will visit her ____sister____ (0) later.


The place her sister lives in: ______________________ (18)
Her sister works as a doctor at: ______________________ (19)
The age difference between Stella and her sister:
______________________ (20)
Stella’s sister’s personality:

 funny
 _________________ (21)
 easy to talk to
Stella’s sister got married after she: ________________________ (22)
She’s been married for: __________________________ (23)
Stella will become an aunt in: ______________________ (24)
How Stella feels about the pregnancy: ______________________ (25)

Speaking Test 1
Task 1
Social Interaction
At the clothes shop
You are in a clothes shop and like the style of a pair of jeans, but can’t
find your size. You ask the shop assistant to help you.
Talk to one of the examiners for 2–3 minutes. Your conversation will be recorded.
Speaking Test 1
Task 1
Social Interaction
At the restaurant
You are at a restaurant and your meal has just arrived. Unfortunately, you
aren’t very happy with it. Talk to the manager.

Speaking Test 1
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate A
Job interview
You have a job interview and have asked your

friend(s) to give you some advice and help to prepare.
Talk about the job interview.
You have a minute to think about what you want to say. Talk with your partner for 4–5
minutes if you are doing the exam in pairs, or for 6–7 minutes for a group of three
students. Your conversation will be recorded.

Speaking Test 1
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate B
Job interview
Your friend has a job interview and has asked you

to give him or her some advice and help to prepare.

Speaking Test 1
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate C
Job interview
Your friend has a job interview and has asked you

to give him or her some advice and help to prepare.

Speaking Test 1
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate A
Getting to know each other
You and your partner(s) are studying English together. It is the first
class and you are introducing yourselves to each other.
Talk about yourself, your family and friends and where you come from,
and ask the other students questions about them.

Speaking Test 1
Task 2
CERTIFICADO DE NIVEL BÁSICO
Social interaction INGLÉS
EXPRESIÓN ORAL
Candidate B

Speaking Test 1
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate C

Outcomes Pre-Intermediate
Use of English Test 1
Time: 30 minutes
Task 1
Read the text and fill each gap from the corresponding word list (A–D)
below. Circle the correct word in the table below.
AFTERNOON TEA – A GREAT BRITISH TRADITION
Tea is __[1]__ popular in Britain than any other hot drink. The tradition of drinking tea __[2]__
a custom since the 3rd millennium BC in China, __[3] __, surprisingly, in Britain people have only
__[4] __ tea since the mid-17th century when it was first __[5]__ to the country.
The tradition of afternoon tea in Britain __ [6]__ in 1840 by Anna, the Duchess of Bedford. It was a
tradition during this time to eat lunch around midday and have the evening meal at eight o’clock.
However, this __[7]__ there was a long period of time between meals. The Duchess __[8]__
herself getting hungry around four o’clock and as it was __[9]__ to have dinner, she requested a
tray of tea, bread and butter, and cakes be brought to her room during the late afternoon. This
became a __[10]__ of hers and she decided to invite her friends to join her.
Afternoon tea __[11]__ cucumber sandwiches, biscuits, scones with clotted cream, cakes with jam
in them, pastries and of course lots of tea! This afternoon break __[12]__ always served in the
drawing room around four or five o’clock and __[13]__ a very popular social event. In the 1880s,
upper-class women wore fashionable dresses, gloves and hats for their afternoon tea.
Now, of course, things have changed and everyone enjoys afternoon tea – while wearing
__[14]__ clothes of course! In the average home, afternoon tea is likely to include just a biscuit or
a small cake and a mug of tea, __[15]__ made with teabags.
A B C D
1 more most enough too
2 have been will be has been is being
3 neither both none whereas
4 drank been drinking drink drunk
5 brings brought is bringing is brought
6 introduces introduced was introduced introducing
7 meant meaning mean means
8 finds finding find found
9 early too early earlier earliest
10 habit hobby favourite job
11 have been included is including included includes
12 are am is was
13 became become becomes have become
not comfortable
14 more comfortable comfortable too comfortable
enough
15 rarely sometimes never usually

Task 2
Choose the most appropriate answer (a, b or c) for each item. Then
write your answer in the white box.
16. Do you have _____ brothers or sisters or are you an only child?
a. either b. any c. some
17. What do you think _____ our new teacher, he seems nice?
a. of b. at c. to
18. You don’t eat _____ fruit and vegetables.
a. plenty b. enough c. many
19. Why don’t we go to that new restaurant in town? I _____ it’s very good.
a. am hearing b. hear c. heard
20. I _____ I can get good qualifications so I can get a good job.
a. want b. hope c. wish
21. That’s a lovely jumper, did you _____ it recently?
a. buying b. buy c. bought
22. I’ve worked at my current job _____ 6 months now.
a. for b. since c. before
23. Next year, I would like to go to Africa and _____ some volunteer work.
a. doing b. do c. does
24. Emma _____ she prefers the blue jeans rather than the black. What do you think?
a. saying b. said c. told
25. Did you not manage to find _____ nice when you went shopping?
a. anything b. nothing c. something
26. My younger brother is _____ annoying; he always shouts when I’m on the phone.
a. much b. very c. too
27. There is a special offer on at the Italian restaurant this weekend. _____ you like to go?
a. Should b. Could c. Would

28. I liked both the cameras on sale, but this one was _____.
a. cheap b. cheaper c. cheapest
29. How long have you _____ in this house with your family?
a. lived b. lives c. to be living
30. My friend Poppy is very artistic. She is always _____ painting or drawing.
a. or b. either c. neither

TEST 2
Reading Test 2
Read the following texts and match each to the most suitable MARK
table below. Each heading can only be used ONCE. There are
three headings you will not need, including the example.
ILLNESSES AND HEALTH PROBLEMS
When you aren’t feeling well, going to the chemist for advice can be very useful. Here are the answers to
some questions on common illnesses.
Text 0
It’s nothing to worry about, as it happens every year in the spring – it is more irritating than
serious. Your eyes will water and you will sneeze a lot, so the best thing you can do is get
some tablets from the chemist. You should also wash you face and hands when you come in
from outside, to wash off any pollen from flowers or trees. Remember not to rub your eyes.
either.
Text 1
If you don’t feel well for a few days, it might be because you have the ’flu. You will feel weak
and tired, and your body will ache all over. You should go straight to bed and get lots of rest.
Take some aspirin and drink hot water with honey and lemon. Keep a check on your
temperature and try to eat as often as you can, to keep your strength up.
Text 2
Everyone has their own cure for this, and it’s just about finding what works best for you. It is
very annoying and can last a long time, but don’t worry – it won’t last forever. There’s one
solution that never fails. Take some water in your mouth, but don’t swallow. Then bend down
with your head between your legs and drink slowly. Then stand up again and breathe out.
Text 3
After eating too much food, your stomach can sometimes feel uncomfortable. Buy some
tablets from the chemist and dissolve them in water. You shouldn’t take more than four tablets
per day. If the problem persists, go to the doctor’s.
Text 4
People find they get out of breath easily and cough a lot when they have asthma. Maybe you
ought to speak to a doctor, because you might need an inhaler. This will help you to breathe
more easily and you will have a better night’s sleep.

Text 5
Lots of different things can give you have a headache; sometimes it’s from tiredness, from
working too hard or even from stress. They usually appear quickly and can last quite a long
time. You should take aspirin and drink lots of water. If your headache is very bad, lie down for
a while. If that does not help, you should go to your doctor.
Text 6
Some people are allergic to cats while others are allergic to some kinds of food. A rash on your
body might be a sign that you are allergic to something. You ought to visit the chemist as soon
as possible, and take tablets or put cream on your skin. If you are allergic to any type of food,
stay away from it completely and read food packets carefully when you go shopping.
A How can I get rid of my hiccups?
B Do you have anything to help a sore throat?
C Do you think I am allergic to something?
D What can I do to stop my hay fever?
E What can I do if I have trouble breathing?
F Will I have a tummy upset?
G Do you think I might have flu?
H How can I stop my nosebleed?
I What should I do if I have indigestion?
J How can I cure my headaches?
Text 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Letter D


Reading Test 2

Read the following text and choose the best option, (a, b or c) MARK
according to the text. Write each answer in the white box next to
the sentence. Item 0 is an example.
100-YEAR OLD MARATHON RUNNER

Read about a man who is still running at the age of 100!
Although British marathon runner Fauja Singh is 100 years old, there is no sign of him
slowing down. In fact, he is now training harder than ever. Fauja has broken all the
records in his age group, including many marathons, and has won lots of medals. But the
most impressive thing of all is that Mr Singh only started running at the age of 89! He is
the fittest he has ever been and one of the oldest marathon runners in the world.
Fauja was born in Punjab, India in April 1911 and spent most of his life working as
a farmer. As a young boy he was very fit and enjoyed running, but never thought about
running competitively until he moved to England 20 years ago. He became bored with his
inactive lifestyle and wanted to get fit, so he hired a personal trainer to help him.
Once Mr Singh began training, he was taking part in races against other
people of his age. Before he knew it, he was fit enough to run marathons. The first
marathon he ran took him six hours and 54 minutes, which was the fastest anyone of his
age has ever run in the race. Fauja is planning to take part in the London Marathon later
this year and wants to beat the world record for his age group. He first ran it in six hours
and two minutes when he was 89, but he wasn’t happy with his time. Fauja says he is
going to run much faster this time, as he is fitter now.
Fauja hasn’t been injured very often, but he has to do a lot of stretches and warm-
up exercises so he doesn’t injure himself. He also has to eat healthily and run every day to
keep fit.
Fauja’s passion in life is to raise money for charity and to keep on running as long
as he can. He runs 10 miles every day and says the secret of his success is eating healthy
vegetarian meals, drinking lots of ginger tea and thinking positively. He believes that the
first 20 miles of a marathon are the easiest, but after that you need lots of determination.

100-YEAR-OLD MARATHON RUNNER
0. Fauja Singh has ran

B
a) all of his life.
b) since he retired.
c) over the last few years. 
7. Mr Singh is originally from
a) England.
b) India.
c) London.
8. He took up running because
a) his doctors advised him.

b) he was good at running at school.
c) he wanted a more active lifestyle.
9. He ran his first marathon at the age of
a) 20.
b) 58.
c) 89.
10. To stay fit, Mr Singh has to
a) hire a fitness trainer.

b) avoid getting injured.
c) follow a tough routine.
11. This year he will be
a) trying to break another marathon record.

b) training less hard.
c) running the London marathon for the first time.
12. Fauja believes the secret of his success is
a) to be relaxed and forget all his problems.

b) a no-meat diet and lots of tea.
c) to be motivated to run for a good cause.

Reading Test 2
Read the following text and complete each gap with ONE suitable MARK
word from the list. Then write your answers in the table below. Each
item can be used only ONCE. There are six items you will not need.
The first gap has been completed as an example.
STUDENT LIFE IN CARDIFF

Read about what life is like for students in the city of Cardiff, Wales.
Cardiff is a great city and the ____[0]____ capital in Europe. It is a modern city with a 24-hour
____[13]____ and has everything a larger city can offer. The biggest sports stadium in Wales,
named the Millennium Stadium, is in Cardiff along with many other fun places, from theatres and
art galleries to restaurants and shops. You will also find many parks, museums and cinemas. The
city is in the south of Wales, very close to the ____[14]____ beautiful beaches of the Gower
Peninsular and ____[15]____ by magnificent countryside, including the Brecon Beacons. The
crime level in the city is low and it is one of the safest places in the UK for foreign students.
Cardiff has a good transport system and the cheapest fares of any British city. You can
easily take a bus or taxi around the city, but the best way to see the sights is ____[16]____ . You
can get around by car, but remember that on busier days you will have to drive around before you
can find somewhere to ____[17]____ . You can cycle to most places, too. There are many good
____[18]____ that take you from the centre to the surrounding areas, so you don’t need to use the
roads. From the main train station in Cardiff, you can travel to any city in the UK.
Students don’t have to worry about finding a place to live in Cardiff, as there are options for
every budget. You can live in a bedsit or with friends in a shared house or flat. For Cardiff
University students, there is a large hall of residence or an option to stay with a
____[19]___ family. Many of Cardiff’s students agree that Cardiff is an exciting city for any young
person.
ANY HOST PARK WALK

CULTURE MOST PLACES YOUNGEST
CYCLE PATHS MUCH SIGHTS
ENOUGH ON FOOT SURROUNDED
0. YOUNGEST  16.
13. 17.
14. 18.
15. 19.

Reading Test 2
MARK
You are on a city break with your family in London and want to visit the Tower
of London. You are planning your visit and need to find out about transport,
directions and opening times. Read the information to answer the questions at
the top of each page.

told to do so.

Part 1: Visitors’ Guide
0 The visit to the Crown Jewels takes: 20 minutes 
20 It takes one hour for the: ______________________________________
21 You can visit the Medieval Palace in: ____________________________
Visit planner
This visit planner will give you information on things to see

and activities to do at the Tower of London.
Let us help you plan your time.

We recommend that you allow at least three hours
to make the most of your visit.
The following times are an estimate for each activity.
Visit the Crown Jewels (20 mins)
Visit the White Tower built by William the Conqueror (20 mins)
Walk through the Medieval Palace (20 mins)
Go on the famous Yeoman Warder tour (60 mins)
Visit the Royal Armouries’ collection (30 mins)
See the famous ravens at the White Tower (10 mins)
Explore the history of the Tower at the Fortress displays (10 mins)
Watch actors perform free ‘History of the Tower’ shows (15 mins)

Part 2: Directions and Transportation
22 The nearest riverboat stop: _____________________________________
23 It takes 15 minutes to walk from: _________________________________
How to find us
The Tower of London can be reached by London Underground, train, bus and
riverboat. Please look at the following information for more details.
By London Underground
Nearest station: Tower Hill
Directions: Take the District or Circle line to Tower Hill station and then follow the signs to the
Tower. The main entrance is five minutes away on foot.
By train
Nearest station: London Bridge
Directions: Cross the bridge over the River Thames and then turn right onto Lower Thames
Street. After about a 15-minute walk, the Tower will be on your right.
By bike
There are usually three bike stands at the Tower which can be found next to the main shop. There
are a number of cycle lanes throughout the area.
By bus
Bus routes: 15, 42, 78, 100, RV1
You can also visit the Tower on most of the sightseeing bus tours. You can either ask the bus
driver where he stops, or collect a map at the tourist office.
By riverboat
Nearest pier: Tower Pier
Directions: You can take a riverboat to Tower Pier from Charing Cross railway station or
Westminster Underground station.

Part 3: Opening Times
24 Summer opening hours at the Tower of London apply from March

until: ____________
25 On Sundays in winter, it closes at: ____________
Opening times
Summer opening times
01 March – 31 October
Tuesday – Saturday 09:00 –17:30
Sunday – Monday 10:00 – 17:30
Last admission 17:00
Winter opening times
01 November – 28 February
Tuesday – Saturday 09:00 – 16:30
Sunday – Monday 10:00 – 16:30
Last admission 16:00
The Tower of London closes 30 minutes after

last admission.

Writing Test 2
TASK 1

told to do so.

Task 1 (12 marks)
MARK
Write about 80 words following the instructions below.
You are going to Edinburgh for a summer English course and you are going to stay with a
host family. This is part of an email that you are writing to the family in reply to their
questions. Please write complete sentences.
COMMENTS
Why are you visiting Scotland?
Have you stayed with a host family before?

If so, where, and what did you like/not like about your experience?
Do you have any special requirements?

(E.g. are you a vegetarian, is there anything you don’t eat?)
Do you have any questions you would like to ask us?

(E.g. house rules, the area where we live etc…)

Writing Test 2
TASK 2

told to do so.

Task 2 (13 marks)
MARK
Write a letter of about 100 words, following the instructions given
below.
You are ill and the doctor has told you to stay at home for a week. Send a letter to your
teacher explaining why you will not be at college. Write about:
 your illness and symptoms
 your doctor’s advice
 when you expect to return
Dear … COMMENTS
I will be unable to go to college this week because…
Kind regards,

Listening Test 2

MARK
headings A–J before listening. For each listening extract (1–7)
choose the heading that best matches the information you hear.
Then write the letter in the table below. There are three headings
you will not need, including the example. Now read the headings.
A SUSPICIOUS INVITATION
Listen to a conversation between a tourist and a local.
A An unexpected invitation
B The difference between places
C Suspicious objects in the car
D Providing help
E No chance of escape
F A beautiful place to live
G Connecting the evidence
H Mysterious local incidents
I Getting out of the city
J A small family business
TEXT 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
LETTER D

MARK
INGLÉS
You will hear part of a telephone conversation. Read through the sentences
below and decide if sentences 8–17 are True (T) or False (F)COMPRENSIÓN
according to ORAL TAREA 2
what you hear. Mark the correct box in the table below. Sentence 0 is an
example. Now read the sentences.
TALKING ABOUT BEING ILL
Listen to find out what’s wrong with Teresa.
0 Teresa (the caller) hears that Janet isn’t very well.
8 Teresa can’t go to class that evening.
9 Teresa has a stomach problem.
10 Janet advises her to go back to bed.
11 Teresa has not had to visit the bathroom.
12 Janet offers to help Teresa.
13 Teresa politely refuses Janet’s offer.
14 Janet tells her to drink plenty of water and take it easy.
15 Teresa says if she doesn’t get better soon, she’ll go to the doctor.
16 Janet says she’ll call Teresa tomorrow and check up on her.
17 Teresa thinks she will be better in a couple of days.
TEXT 0 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

T
F 


Listening Test 2
MARK
You will hear part of a conversation. Read through the notes below,
then listen and fill in the gaps 18–25 with the information you hear.
Gap 0 has been completed as an example. Now read the notes.
RENTING A CAR
Listen to part of a conversation at a car hire shop between a representative and a customer.
Duration of car rental: one week. (0)


Type of rental required: ____________________ (18)
The representative recommends: __________________ (19)
Class of the available car: ______________ (20)
Price of one week’s rental: __________________ (21)
Price includes: ________________________ (22)
The rental doesn’t include: _______________________ (23)
Cost of insurance: _______________ (24)
Documents needed in order to hire the car:
 Passport
 __________________ (25)
 Credit card

Speaking Test 2
Task 1
Social Interaction
At the gym
You are at the gym and you would like

some information about joining. Talk to the receptionist.

Task 1
Social Interaction
At the tourist office
You are visiting a new city and you are at the tourist office. You would
like to visit the castle and you need some information on the opening
hours and how to get there. Talk to the adviser.

Speaking Test 2
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate A
Feeling ill
You aren’t feeling very well and may have a cold.
Ask your partner(s) for some advice to help you get better.

Task 2
INGLÉS
Social interaction EXPRESIÓN ORAL
Candidate B
Feeling ill
Your partner isn’t feeling very well and may have a cold.
Give some advice to help them get better.

Speaking Test 2
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate C
Feeling ill
Your partner isn’t feeling very well and they may have a cold.
Give some advice to help them get better.

Speaking Test 2
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate A
Plans for the weekend
You and your partner(s) would like to meet at the

weekend and you are deciding what to do.
Arrange some weekend activities together.

Task 2
INGLÉS
Social interaction EXPRESIÓN ORAL
Candidate B


CERTIFICADO DE NIVEL Task 2

BÁSICO
INGLÉS
EXPRESIÓN ORAL
Social interaction
Candidate C


Outcomes
OutO) (Pre-Intermediate)
Speaking Test 2
Task 1 Time: 30 minutes

Read the text and choose the best word to fill in each gap from the
words listed below. Circle the correct word in the table below. INGLÉS
US DE LA IILENGUA
INTERNET TRAVEL NEWS
There has been a serious crash on the M6 this evening, just north of junction 12, involving four
lorries and over 30 cars, which is causing __[1]__ problems and complete __[2]__ in the area.
All the lorries lost their __[3]__, blocking most of the motorway. The accident happened at
around 8 p.m. and police have now __[4]__ lanes in both __[5]__ on the motorway to allow the
emergency services access to the scene of the __[6]__.
There is a 10-mile __[7]__ jam between junctions 11 and 12 and there will be __[8]__ for
several hours. A diversion is in __[9]__ at junction 12 but it will take many hours for the traffic
jam to clear.
The ambulance services are dealing with __[10]__ injured people, but it is taking time to
get to the crash site. The air ambulance helicopter is taking the __[11]__ seriously injured
people to hospital. People travelling by car are advised to __[12]__ the area and use alternative
routes.
Police believe that this is the __[13]__ motorway crash they have seen in Britain for a
long time and __[14]__ problems to continue over the weekend while police look investigate the
cause of the crash before the motorway can be __[15]__ . If you think you may have a relative
involved in the accident, please call the transport police, or consult their website for more
information.
A B C D
1 any of a few of enough of lots of
2 pollution chaos problem mess
3 goods passengers loads way
4 shut shutting will shut shuts
5 distances lanes ways directions
6 accident difficulty cause jam
7 vehicle traffic transport car
8 slowed waited delays stopped
9 situation confusion action place
10 any many little much
11 a lot some most enough
12 avoided avoids avoiding avoid

13 small bigger big biggest
14 will expect expect expecting expected
15 cleared washed Outcomes
tidied (Pre-Intermediate)
clean up
Task 2
Choose the most appropriate answer (a, b or c) to complete each
sentence. Write your answer in the corresponding white box.
16. Sophie said she might be _____ to the concert with John this weekend.
a. go b. going c. goes
17. You have to _____ sure you have you keys with you before leaving the house.
INGLÉS
a. make b. made c. making US DE LA IILENGUA
18. Why don’t you visit a doctor before it gets any _____?
a. worst b. worsen c. worse
19. Harry said he might _____ his football with him to the beach.
a. take b. taking c. takes
20. Maybe you _____ rub some cream on that rash.
a. should b. would c. could
21. She’s going to stay at home as she’s still recovering _____ her operation.
a. for b. from c. of
22. To reach the museum, take this road and it will be _____ your right.
a. at b. to c. on
23. Could you give me some information _____ the art exhibition?
a. for b. of c. about
24. You _____ take this medicine three times per day for the next week.
a. could b. should c. would
25. I might _____ Sean’s house after school today, is that OK?
a. be going to b. have to go c. will be going
26. United football club are the _____ team in the football league this year.
a. good b. better c. best

27. Jake is going to _____ the rugby world cup final this weekend.
a. be watching b. watch c. will watch
28. You _____ to buy a train ticket before travelling on the trains from London.
a. have b. must c. should
29. _____ this cream on your arm once a day for the next few days.
a. Puts b. Putting c. Put
30. _____ attempt to drive or operate machinery while on this medication!
a. Can’t b. Won’t c. Don’t

TEST 3
Reading Test 3
Read the following texts and match each to the most suitable MARK
table below. Each question can only be used ONCE. There are
three headings you will not need. Text 0 is an example.
THE GREATEST SCIENTISTS
If these scientists hadn’t made their discoveries, the world would be a very different place.
Read and find out what each discovered.
Text 0
Archimedes was a Greek scientist. While in the bath he discovered how to measure the
volume of something which does not have a regular shape, such as the human body. When he
made his discovery, he famously shouted ‘Eureka!’ He also studied buoyancy – how and why
objects float in water. If we didn’t know about buoyancy, then we wouldn’t understand why
boats float on the sea.
Text 1
One of the most famous women scientists of the early 20th century was Marie Curie. She
discovered radiation – which can be very dangerous but also very useful. Doctors today would
not have radiotherapy as a cancer treatment, if it hadn’t been for Curie’s work.
Text 2
Some people say that Isaac Newton is the most important scientist in history – many of his
experiments still influence us today. He discovered the Earth’s gravity, the force which causes
objects to drop to the ground. He observed the laws of motion that we use to understand
physics and mechanics today.
Text 3
Every time we go to the fridge for some milk, we should remember the great scientist, Louis
Pasteur. Pasteur discovered that after a period of time, milk goes sour because of the bacteria
in it. He developed a process to heat milk and then cool it very quickly. This killed the bacteria
in the milk and made it safer to drink, without changing its flavour – a process which became
known as Pasteurisation.
Text 4
Charles Darwin loved nature and is known for his theory of evolution. He wrote a famous book
about his ideas entitled On the Origin of Species, which talks about how all species, including
humans, have changed over millions of years.

Text 5
Penicillin is a medicine commonly used to treat many serious illnesses and infections.
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin by accident while researching another disease. He
had left a sandwich on his desk and when he returned, days later, he noticed mould growing
on it. He conducted experiments on the mould and found that it can kills germs.
Text 6
Albert Einstein is the most influential scientists of the 20th century. He developed the theory of
relativity – a theory about space, time and movement. He is probably most famous for his
equation: E = mc2. He called himself the ‘superstar of science’, and was awarded the Nobel
Prize for physics.
A Whose discovery led to a treatment for cancer?
B Which scientist made milk safer to drink?
C Which scientist is still alive today?
D Which scientist made a discovery while researching something else?
E Who made their discovery with the help of a friend?
F Who discovered that animals and humans had changed over time?
G Who made their discovery while having a wash?
H Who won a prize for his discovery?
I Who made an important discovery about the Earth’s properties?
J Which discovery was made in the 21st century?
Text 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Letter G


Reading Test 3

which best completes each sentence according to the text. Then
write your answer in the white box next to each option. Item 0 is an
example.
AUSTRALIAN SCHOOLS
Read about Martin, an English teenager, who is going to school in Australia.
School in Australia is different from school in the UK. When I went to school in England, we had
to wear a school uniform, but here we don’t have to wear one. In Australia, if you don’t pass your
exams, you have to repeat the whole year again, whereas in England, you don’t. The Australian
way makes you work harder!
The school year is different too. Here, there are four terms per year, and the school year starts in
early January or February and ends in December. In the UK, the school year starts in September
and finishes in the middle of July. My school hours have also changed – we start at 8 o’clock and
finish at 2 o’clock, whereas in England we used to start later, at 8.45, and finish at 3.30.
My parents used to complain that we had too much stress and worry at school. Now they say
they are happy with the better mix between schoolwork and free-time.
The relationship between students is great here – I think it’s because the class sizes are smaller
than in England. The school has a good atmosphere and there’s no violence or bullying.
The amount of homework is the same as I used to have in England, but the approach is different
– here they teach you to be independent and to look for information by yourself, on the internet,
for example, but also to work with other students to build good relationships. In both countries
the attitude to homework is the same – you mustn’t copy another person’s work and pretend that
it is your own.
The subjects we study are very similar. We have English, maths, art subjects and languages,
studies of society and the environment (which we didn’t have in the UK), Information Technology
and personal development, health and physical education. Most students stay at school until
year 12, when they are 17 or 18 years old. That’s when students take their final exams to go to
university or for vocational training.
If I pass my finals and get the grades I want, I’ll go to university in Sydney. The career advisor
said that I could take a year out after leaving school, but I prefer to continue studying. If I work
hard enough on my course, I’ll be able to get a good job when I graduate.

AUSTRALIAN SCHOOLS
0. Martin’s school in the UK had

C
a) a different school uniform to his school in Australia.
b) no school uniform.
c) a school uniform policy.
7. The school year in Australia is
a) divided into more terms than in the UK.

b) divided into fewer terms than in the UK.
c) has the same number of terms as in the UK.
8. Life at Martin’s UK school life was
a) not strict enough.

b) well balanced.
c) more stressful.
9. Martin feels that relationships between students

a) are good.
b) are poor.
c) neither of these.
10. Schools in Australia have
a) a similar approach to learning as in the UK.

b) a different approach to learning to the UK.
c) no particular approach to learning.
11. In Australia, teachers have
a) stricter rules on homework than in the UK.

b) similar rules on homework than the UK.
c) no particular rules on homework.
12. Martin is considering
a) taking a year out.

b) leaving school early.
c) studying at university.

Reading Test 3
Task 3 (7 x 1 mark = 7 marks) MARK

Read the following text and complete each gap with ONE suitable
word from the list below. Then write your answers in the boxes
will not need. The first gap is an example.
CALL FOR AN AMBULANCE

Read a short news story about a brave little girl.
Marina Thompson works in the emergency call centre for the ambulance service. Last week, she dealt
with a very difficult situation involving a young girl and her father. It was ____ [0]____ another normal
working day, when Marina received an emergency call from an eight-year-old girl called Samantha, who
was very upset. Marina ____[13]____ to her and asked what the emergency was. Samantha replied that
her father had hurt himself while working in the house and wasn’t awake. Marina first ____[14]____ her
to stay calm and asked her for more details. The young girl bravely told Marina where she lived and
what had happened to her father – and that 20 minutes after the accident he still hadn’t woken up, so
she had decided to call 999. Marina told Samantha to stay on the line and not to move in case the
phone got ____[15]____ – Marina immediately sent out an ambulance to Samantha’s house. After a
short time, the ambulance ____[16]____ and rushed Samantha and her father to hospital.
When they reached the hospital, the doctors ____[17]____ that John, Samantha’s father, had been
fixing a cupboard to the wall when he slipped off the ladder and hit his head. John’s life was in danger
____[18]____ he didn’t have an operation to reduce the pressure on his brain. By this time, Samantha’s
mother, Julia, had arrived at the hospital. Doctors took John straight to the operating theatre. After a
successful four-hour operation, he made a full recovery.
When the TV and newspaper journalists heard about Samantha’s courage, they all wanted to interview
her and her father. Once John had recovered from the operation, lots of journalists asked him questions
about what had happened. He ____[19]____ that he wouldn’t be alive today if his daughter hadn’t called
999.
ARRIVED HUNG UP PHONE STILL

IF HEARD TOLD SPOKE
CALL JUST SAID OPERATION
CUT OFF
0. JUST  16.
14. 17.
15. 18.
19.

Reading Test 3
MARK
The total time is 10 minutes. You do not need to read the text in detail,
but find the information in the texts to answer each question. Write
the answers in the spaces provided. Question 0 in section 1 is an
example.
You are going on a camping trip with some friends on the Welsh coast and
your friend has given you a leaflet with the campsite information. You want to
find out some details about the trip. Read the information to answer the
questions at the top of each page.

told to do so.

Part 1: Campsite
0 The holiday park is in: Wales 
20 The holiday park offers parents: _________________________________
21 All caravan accommodation: ____________________________________
Discover Glamorgan Sands Holiday Park, Wales

Something for all the family!
The family holiday park was built 60 years ago and is still the most popular place to
go on holiday in Wales. You can expect a warm and friendly welcome from staff
who will make your stay as enjoyable as possible.
Glamorgan Sands Holiday Park offers low prices, comfort and excellent facilities.
All our caravan accommodation is air conditioned, enjoys sea views, and is
conveniently located close to the beach. There is something for all the family at
Glamorgan Sands, from organised children’s activities and family entertainment to
top-quality restaurants and cafés, to excellent sports facilities, including a large
swimming pool, gym and tennis courts. The holiday park has a babysitting service
for parents wanting some time on their own.
Don’t forget, all prices include breakfast at any of our restaurants.
So, whether you are camping or staying in a caravan,

your holiday at Glamorgan Sands is sure to be a memorable one!

Part 2: Equipment
22 Don’t leave home without making a: _______________________________
23 Don’t make your own fire, it can be: _______________________________
MIKE’S GUIDE TO CAMPING

Always make a checklist of everything you need to take before you leave home. If
you plan well before you go, your trip will be safe and comfortable.
Camping is all about going back to nature and leaving all your worries behind for
a few days. Here are a few tips to make sure your trip is stress free!
 If you have never put up a tent before, it can be a challenge, so why not
practise putting it up in your garden before you leave home? It can save you
a lot of time later!
 Take some tools with you – a hammer, and a pocket knife are essential.
 It’s well worth investing in a good-quality sleeping bag and buying a proper
camping stove – making a camp fire can be dangerous and can start forest
fires.
 Plan the food and water you will need carefully and take plenty of both with
you.
Here are some essential items for your list:
Plastic sheet for tent floor
Blanket
Folding table and chairs
Pillows
First aid kit
Sunscreen
Toiletries: soap, shampoo, toothpaste, toilet paper etc.
Insect repellent
Backpack
Part 3: Campsite reviews
24 Who goes there every year: _____________________________________
25 Who had problems with the shower: ______________________________
GLAMORGAN SANDS CAMPSITE REVIEWS
‘I went to Glamorgan Sands last year with my family. We booked early and got a
discount. The caravan we stayed in was clean and comfortable. However, our
bedroom was next to the road, and it was really noisy. Next time, we will stay on
the other side of the campsite where it is quieter.’ Megan, 13, Swansea
‘Last spring, some friends and I stayed in a caravan at Glamorgan Sands. We paid
a reasonable price and the caravan was comfortable. It had a free Wi-Fi
connection, which was great, and the breakfast at the restaurant was good. The
caravan had air conditioning and was right next to the beach. The only problem
was that the shower was broken: the water pressure was very low and hardly any
water came out!’ Robert, 18, Newcastle
‘My friend told me they had visited Glamorgan Sands in the summer and stayed in
a tent. They enjoyed being near the sea and exploring Wales. My friend said that
there were lots of other children to play with on the campsite. The family hadn’t
camped before, but they would like to go back again next year. He recommended it
to us, too.’ Rachel, 14, London
‘We used to go to the same campsite every year, until we found Glamorgan Sands.
Now we go there every summer instead. We prefer to camp at Glamorgan Sands
because it has a friendly atmosphere, good food and lots of things to do. There are
lots of activities for young people and it’s convenient for the beach.’ Mark, 17,
Bristol

Writing Test 3
TASK 1

Task 1 (12 marks)
MARK
You have just returned from a holiday where you stayed in a hotel. Unfortunately, you didn’t
have a very pleasant stay and you want to give the hotel some feedback. This is part of the
hotel feedback form you are filling out. Please write in full sentences.
Details about you: COMMENTS

(who you are, when you stayed with us, which room number etc.)
Tell us about your problem:

(tell us exactly what happened)
How did we help you?

(who you complained to, what they did to help)
Please give any other relevant information:

Writing Test 3
TASK 2

Task 2 (13 marks)
MARK
You have organised a camping trip for some Australian friends who are coming to visit you
soon. Send them an email giving the final plans:
 the dates you are going camping
 about the campsite and accommodation
 the things each person needs to take
COMMENTS
Hello all!
I’ve organised our camping trip, and here are the plans.
Hope you can come!
Speak soon.

Listening Test 3
MARK
headings A–J before listening. For each listening extract 1–7,
choose the heading that best matches the information you have
heard. Then write the letter in the table below. There are two
headings you will not need and an example. Now read the headings.
TALKING ABOUT UNIVERSITY
Listen to two friends discussing their university plans
A Requirements for course entry
B Meeting living expenses
C Getting to know each other
D Choosing to work instead
E Choosing an arts course at university
F Feelings about the final exams
G Unsure of the future
H Plans for the future
I A conditional offer
J A course in finance
TEXT 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
LETTER C

Listening Test 3
MARK
decide if sentences 8–17 are True (T) or False (F) according to what you
hear. Mark the correct box in the table. Sentence 0 is an example. Now read
the sentences.
MAKING A HOTEL RESERVATION
Listen to the conversation between Anton, who wants to book a room, and a hotel receptionist.
0 The name of the place where Anton wants to stay is The Old Ship.
8 Anton wants to book a room for the following month.
9 He’ll arrive on the 19th.
10 The price of a single room is £95 per night.
11 Only the twin bedrooms have an en-suite bathroom.
12 Anton decides to book the twin room for his stay.
13 In order to book the room, Anton must give his credit card details.
14 Anton’s credit card number is 5362 3870 7845 8479.
15 Anton can’t pay by credit card because his card is out of date.
16 His surname is spelt Y-U-R-I-C-K.
17 There weren’t any problems making the reservation.
TEXT 0 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
T 
F

Listening Test 3
MARK
and complete them by filling in gaps 18–25, according to what you
hear. Gap 0 is an example. Now read the notes.
PHOTOGRAPHY COURSE
Listen to Mark calling St Peter’s College to find out more about a course.
The photography class is run in the: evenings. (0)


The course at the college involves:
 learning how to take photographs
 _____________________ (18)
People who can take the course: _____________________ (19)
What’s included in the course price: ______________________ (20)
Day the next course starts on: ____________________ (21)
The time of the next course: _________________ (22)
Duration of the course: ___________________ (23)
Number of places left on the next course: _________________ (24)
The teacher suggests that Mark should: __________________ (25) about
joining.

Speaking Test 3
Task 1
Social Interaction
At the university registration office
You are interested in taking a course next year at university and would
like some more information about it. You go to the university registration
office to find out more.

Speaking Test 3
Task 1
Social Interaction
At the campsite
You are on holiday with some friends, but the caravan you are staying in
has a problem. Talk to the campsite manager.

Speaking Test 3
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate A
Buying a new pet
You would like to buy a new pet and you are talking to your friend(s)
about it. Ask about buying a pet and ask for advice on keeping it.

Speaking Test 3
Task 2
Interacting in everyday situations
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate B
Buying a new pet
Your friend would like to buy a new pet and you are talking to
your friend(s) about it. Give him or her some advice on buying a
pet and keeping it.

Speaking Test 3
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate C
Buying a new pet
Your friend would like to buy a new pet and you are talking to
your friend(s) about it. Give him or her some advice on buying a
pet and keeping it.

Speaking Test 3
Task 2
Social interaction
INGLÉS
EXPRESIÓN ORAL
Candidate A
On the news
You and your partner(s) study English together.

Today is Monday and you are having lunch at the school café.
.
Tell the others about an interesting news report that you heard at the
weekend and ask whether they heard it, too.

Speaking Test 3
Task 2
Social interaction
Candidate B
In the news


Speaking Test 3
Task 2
INGLÉS
EXPRESIÓN ORAL
Social interaction
Candidate C
In the news

.

Task 1
Read the text and choose the most appropriate answer from the Time: 30 minutes
words below. Then circle the correct answer in the table below.
ANTARCTIC MISSION
A British expedition took place last month to look for life beneath the Antarctic snow and ice. The __[1]__ of
the expedition was to get a better understanding of our environment. The scientists __[2]__ 70 tonnes of
specialist equipment with them, which was funded by the British National Lottery. The whole experiment cost
£7 million, and involved pouring hot water through the ice, which is three kilometres thick, until they reached
Lake Ellsworth below it. The lake __[3]__ contact with the outside world for at least 125,000 years – maybe
even a million years.
The team were __[4]__ working in __[5]__ cold temperatures, but during the expedition they experienced
temperatures as low as -20 degrees centigrade, and it was extremely __[6]__. They had to work quickly, but
also very carefully, because if they made a mistake, they __[7]__ be able to collect the data they needed.
A reporter for the Herald __[8]__ to the expedition team via satellite phone while they were __[9]__ at the
Antarctic. The scientists __[10]__ they had collected enough samples from the lake water and from deposits
at the bottom of the lake to assist them with their research. The __[11]__ of the experiment will allow
scientists to understand more about the limits of life on Earth and learn more about the history of the
Antarctic, the team leader __[12]__ reporters.
Experts __[13]__ it is important to carry out experiments on the Antarctic ice, so we can discover more about
how the climate is changing, and especially how __[14]__ is affecting the environment. If we don’t learn more
about our environment now, __[15]__ be able to solve environmental problems in the future.
A B C D
1 purpose result research prediction
2 had brought is bringing brought brings
3 had hadn’t had has had is having
4 used to to use using had to
5 warm boiling freezing chilly
6 snow windy sunny rain
7 wouldn’t won’t shouldn’t would
8 speak spoken spoke speaks
9 just already yet still
10 believed said told asked
11 results tests experiments answers
12 reported say told tell
13 said say ask told
14 science nature traffic pollution
15 they’ll we won’t I’ll you won’t

Task 2
Choose the most appropriate answer (a, b or c) for each item. Write
your answer in the white box.
16. The weather report ____ that it will probably rain this weekend.
a. said b. told c. mentioned
17. The recent oil spill ____ the environment, said officials.
a. was having b. had damaged c. will have
18. We ____ go camping every summer, but now we stay in a caravan instead.
a. used to b. are used to c. will be used to
19. Mary said she still hasn’t reached the town centre ____ , so she will be late.
a. just b. yet c. already
20. Emma ____ she was on the bus when she met her school teacher.
a. asked b. told c. said
21. I ____ to pass all my exams to get into this university.
a. had b. will c. has
22. Sorry I couldn’t come last night. I ____ to work late.
a. has b. have c. had
23. I’ve ____ come back from holiday; I arrived around nine this morning.
a. already b. still c. just
24. Police ____ claims that not enough was being done to solve the case.
a. had rejected b. rejects c. having rejected
25. My cat was really hungry when I got home because I ____ to feed him.
a. forget b. had forgotten c. forgot
26. If I get the grades I want, ____ probably do a master’s degree.
a. I will b. I won’t c. I am
27. I had to do my homework on paper today because my laptop ____ working.
a. doesn’t b. isn’t c. wasn’t

28. She ____ a dog before, but it was not as difficult as this one.
a. had been having b. had had c. have had
29. The scientists said they ____ a breakthrough with their research.
a. will have made b. are making c. had made
30. I ____ had a chance to speak to Michael about the weekend yet, but I will tonight.
a. won’t b. haven’t c. mustn’t

TEST 4
Reading Test 4

question from the list supplied. Write your answer in the table
below. Each question can only be used ONCE. There are three
headings you will not need. Text 0 has been matched to its
heading as an example.
HELPING THE ENVIRONMENT
You must know a lot about environmental issues to score a high grade during your class discussion. Here
is some information to help you to prepare your answers.
Text 0
You must try to reduce the amount of energy you consume in your home but of course 100%
efficiency is impossible. We must make small improvements to help the environment. You
should try not to leave the lights on if you aren’t in a room and only boil as much water as you
need in the kettle.
Text 1
There are lots of things you can do to teach your family to be more environmentally friendly.
When you shop at the supermarket, buy products with less packaging and carry the food home
in reusable bags. Choose products which are biodegradable. Every year we produce lots of
waste, so we all must try to recycle and better still, try to reduce waste and reuse what we buy.
Text 2
You can be eco-friendly in other parts of your life, including finding better ways to travel.
Instead of getting your mother or father to drive you in the car, or catching the school bus, why
not try walking to school or using your bike. If you are being eco-friendly, you’re not only
helping the environment, but also keeping healthy too.
Text 3
The next problem is the amount of meat we eat every week. Meat is bad for the environment,
firstly because cows and sheep produce a lot of natural gas, which causes global warming,
and, secondly, because eating meat is an inefficient way to get food energy. We must also try
to eat more locally-grown vegetables and cut down on dairy products.
Text 4
When we go shopping, most of the food we buy is wrapped in polystyrene trays and clear
plastic, which has been transported from other parts of the world to the shop. Transporting the
plastic produces tonnes of carbon dioxide, and the plastic is impossible to recycle. Buy your
food with little or no packaging. All packaging must be biodegradable or recyclable.

Text 5
Recycling is a great way to help the environment – but where does the packaging come from
in the first place? To make objects like aluminium cans, people must mine tonnes of rock
containing the metal ore and then transport it. Drink more tap water and cut down on drinks
from plastic bottles and aluminium cans.
Text 6
You must always remember this useful phrase: reduce, recycle, reuse. You can cut down on
your waste by recycling, but also remember to reuse as much as possible, so you don’t make
too much waste in the first place. You could also collect food scraps from fruit and vegetables
and create a compost heap in your back garden.
A What drink should I choose?
B What can I do to get my family involved?
C How could I help at school?
D Is it bad to eat lots of meat?
E Is there anything I can do in the garden to help the environment?
F How could I save energy at home?
G What should I do with my waste?
H What transport should I use to help the environment?
I How can I get my friends involved?
J What changes should I make when I shop at the supermarket?
Text 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Letter F


Reading Test 4

Read the following text. For items 7-12 choose the option (a, b or c) MARK
which best completes them according to the text. Then write your
answer in the table. Item 0 is an example.
THE BRITISH FILM INDUSTRY

Read about the film industry in the UK.
Since 2000, an organisation called the UK Film Council has been monitoring films produced in the
British film industry. It is backed by the British government and funded by the British National
Lottery, which helps to keep the standard of creativity in British films high. Supporting the
production of more than 900 films over the past 12 years, the organisation has generated around
£700 million worldwide. For every £1 that the Lottery invests, the Film Council generates £5 at the
cinema box office.
The Film Council specialises in making sure that the industry employs many different types of
people. Everyone has a chance to work in the industry, whether they come from a wealthy
background or not. Since the beginning, they have been making sure that the films produced in
the UK represent true British life and culture. Its aim is to support women’s rights, people from
minority groups and people with disabilities.
The British film industry produces many different kinds of films, from action to romance and
historical dramas to comedies. Many of these films have become internationally famous, including
the James Bond, Harry Potter and Wallace and Gromit films. Compared to Hollywood, which
spends £65 million a year to produce a film, British films are cheaper to make, but still have the
same excellent quality, with great special effects and amazing costumes. Historical dramas have
become increasingly popular – films like The Queen and The King’s Speech generated millions of
pounds around the world. Other films, such as Slumdog Millionaire, Vera Drake and Billy Elliott,
have dealt with issues in society.
In the past, some of the most famous directors in Britain have been Alfred Hitchcock, Richard
Attenborough and Ridley Scott. Nowadays, one of the most famous British directors is Danny
Boyle, who directed Slumdog Millionaire. His films deal with current issues such as corruption and
poverty. Boyle has directed films with difficult subjects that could cause tension or even be
banned in other countries. However in Britain, unlike America, films are more realistic and don’t
hide from the truth.

THE BRITISH FILM INDUSTRY
0. The UK Film Council has generated

A
a) £700 million worldwide.
b) £900 million this year.
c) £5 for each film. 
7. The film council monitors
a) the amount of people employed.

b) the standards of all films produced.
c) the subjects that are used in a film.
8. The Council supports
a) employee rights.
b) people from rich backgrounds.
c) the rights of women.
9. The film industry in Britain produces
a) only action films.

b) mainly historical dramas.
c) a wide range of films.
10. British films have become
a) well known around the world.

b) more popular then American films.
c) more expensive to make over the years.
11. Danny Boyle’s films deal with
a) love and relationships.

b) international problems.
c) social issues.
12. Boyle’s films include
a) popular American culture.

b) difficult topics to watch.
c) mainly banned subjects.

Reading Test 4

Read the following text and complete each blank with ONE suitable
word from the list supplied. Then write your answers in the boxes
will not need. The first blank has been completed as an example.
A NEW YEAR’S EVE PARTY

Read about a special date in Scotland’s calendar.
____ [0] ____ the 17th century, Scotland has been celebrating a very special ____ [13]____
which takes place on the 31st of December. There is a big party for New Year’s Eve, which is
called Hogmanay in Scotland. The whole event is very impressive, including firework displays
and lots of tasty food and drink. The party, which is a tradition only in Scotland, starts in the
evening and goes on until the morning of New Year’s Day. Sometimes the partying goes on
until 2nd January, which is a national holiday in Scotland.
The date has a____[14]____ significance in the country, as the Norse people who used to live
in Scotland had a similar winter celebration around this time, which lasted for 12 days – just
like the modern ’12 days of Christmas’, which include Hogmanay. During these special
occasions, the atmosphere is really ____[15]____ and friendly, and people invite each other
____[16]____ to their houses. A typical tradition throughout the celebration is called ‘first-
footing,’ which involves a race to be the first person through the front door of a friend or
neighbour’s home. ____[17]____ give gifts such as salt, coal, shortbread, whisky or a black
bun – a rich fruit cake. A gift must be given to bring good luck to the home for the following
year.
Plans for Hogmanay start a few months before the big day. The ____[18]____ for the special
occasions is usually someone’s home – guests can enjoy a ____[19]____ of food and a
selection of drinks. Music can often be heard up and down the street from each party. All the
guests are easy to talk to and even if you don’t know anyone, the hosts will make you feel
very welcome. It’s a happy time of the year for everyone to enjoy.
BIRTHDAY HOUSE-WARMING UP WARM

BUFFET IMPRESSIVE ROUND WARMLY
EVENT NATION SINCE
GUESTS NATIONAL VENUE
0. SINCE  16.
13. 17.
14. 18.
15. 19.

Reading Test 4
MARK
You have decided to start an English course in Cambridge. However, you are
worried about your money, so are researching costs of accommodation, fees,
and how to open a British bank account. Read what the school has to offer
and answer the questions below.

told to do so.

Part 1: Course Fees
0 Summer courses run from June to: September 
20 A standard two-week rest of the year course costs: ___________________
21 The price of a twenty-four week course: ___________________________
NEW SCHOOL OF ENGLISH

est.1962
2012 ENGLISH COURSE FEES

Weeks Standard 15 Hours
Rest of the Summer*
year
2 £390 £430
3 £585 £645
4 £780 £860
Extra week £195 £215
12 £2,160 -
24 £4,320 -
Extra week £180 -
*Summer courses
from 20 June – 16 September

Part 2: Student Housing
22
You can put your clothes in the available: _________________________
23
Staying with a family costs: ____________________________________
Accommodation
New School of English offers its students a wide range of rooms and accommodation, from
Halls of Residence and hostels, to homestay families. Rooms are either self-catering or half-
board / full-board. All accommodation is:
 close to the school (within 15 minutes on foot)
 well equipped. Most rooms have:
- access to bathroom, kitchen, living room, laundry facilities
- bed linen, a duvet and pillows
- a desk, lamp, bin, kettle, hairdryer, vacuum cleaner, pans
- a sink with hot and cold water, central heating
- shelves for your books and drawers for your clothes.
TYPE: Homestay Family

Room: Single
Food: Breakfast and evening meals
Price £100 - £140 per week
TYPE: Hall of Residence

Room: Shared Room
Food: Self-catering
TYPE: School Hostel

Room: Single Room
Food: Self-catering
Please note: To book a room you must pay a deposit of £150 in advance. The
deposit is refunded at the end of the course.

Part 3: Bank Account
24 Amount of money you can take out per day: _____________________
25 Pay interest on a loan after: ___________________________
NATIONBANK STUDENT ACCOUNT

Get a student bank account with Nationbank and you’ll have
no money worries while you study!
Account Benefits and Features
Account Benefits
Pay no interest if your

bank account balance
Available until the end of your course.
goes under £0
Free money transfers

Transfer money back to your own country for no
abroad extra charge.
Interest-free loans up to
Take out a loan and pay no interest for six
£4,000 months.
Account Features
Debit card The easiest way to pay for everything, every

day.
24/7 telephone banking Day and night, you can manage your account
whenever you want.
Access to any of our
cash machines Take out up to £300 per day – with no charge.
Extras: Close your account at any time – with no charge.

Writing Test 4
TASK 1

Task 1 (12 marks)
MARK
Your American pen-friend has just celebrated Thanksgiving, a special event in the USA. He
or she has written to you, asking you about a special day you celebrate where you live.
Describe a festival that you celebrate to him or her. Write in complete sentences.
COMMENTS
Describe celebration:
(name, date etc…)
Activities you do to celebrate:

(how do you celebrate, describe party)
Reason(s) why you celebrate:

(history of event, national significance)
Types of presents you give and receive:

Writing Test 4
TASK 2

Task 2 (13 marks)
MARK
You are invited to a launch party and can bring another friend with you, so you decide to
email a classmate and invite them. Include the following details about the party:
 Date, time and place
 type of party
 present(s)
Hi! COMMENTS
Would you like to come with me to a launch party for…
I look forward to hearing from you.
See you soon,

Listening Test 4
MARK
You will hear seven extracts. Read through headings A–J before
listening. For each extract 1–7, choose the heading that best
matches the information you have heard. Then write the letter in the
table below. There are two headings you will not need and an
introductory extract as an example. Now read the headings.
DISCUSSING TIMES AND DATES
Listen to some people describing the last time they did different activities.
A Playing sport
B Taking exams
C Getting your hair cut
D Buying a new computer
E Going on holiday at last
F Hanging out with friends
G Introducing the new girlfriend
H Shopping for new clothes
I Going out for dinner
J Going to the dentist
TEXT 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
LETTER D

Listening Test 4
MARK
hear. Mark the correct box in the table below. Sentence 0 has been done as
an example. Now read the sentences.
ARRANGING TO SEE A SHOW
Listen to Leroy speaking to the ticket seller at the box office
0 Leroy is booking tickets to see a show at the weekend.
8 Unfortunately, there are no tickets available for the time he would like.
9 Leroy decides to see the showing at four o’clock instead.
10 He would like to sit as far away from the front as possible.
11 The tickets for the seats upstairs cost less than the seats downstairs.
12 Leroy can’t afford the seats in row C.
13 He finally has to be happy with seats in Row U.
14 Leroy will pay for his tickets using an American Express card.
15 The number of his credit card is 4926 8631 6321 9221.
16 The address at which the card is registered is 14 Beechwood Park.
17 He can go to the box office to pick his tickets up on the 4th of the
month..
TEXT 0 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
T 

Listening Test 4
MARK
and complete them by filling in gaps 18–25 according to what you
hear. Gap 0 has been completed as an example. Now read the notes.
BORROWING MONEY
Listen to a conversation between two friends, Bob and Tim, in which Bob offers to lend Tim money.
Two friends decide to: have a coffee. (0)


The problem is that Tim has: ________________________ (18)
His friend (Bob) helps by offering to: _______________________ (19)
Tim says he will still have to: __________________________ (20)
Tim will still be able to meet his friend because: _________________ (21)
The amount of money Bob will lend his friend: _________________ (22)
First, Bob needs to: ______________________ (23)
The two friends agree to meet: _________________ (24)
Tim promises Bob that he will pay him back: ________________ (25)

Speaking Test 4
Task 1
Social Interaction
EXAMPLE 1
At the bank
You are at the bank and you would like to open a new
student bank account. Talk to the manager.

Speaking Test 4
Task 1
Social Interaction
EXAMPLE 2
At the recycling centre
You have recently become interested in the environment.

You go to the recycling centre to find out how to help.

Speaking Test 4
Task 2
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate A
Last Saturday’s party

You are on the bus on the way home after lessons.
Tell the others about a party you went to on Saturday

and ask if they have been to a good party recently.

Speaking Test 4
Task 2
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate B

One of your friends tells you about a party they went to on Saturday. Ask
them about it and tell them about a good party you went to recently.

Speaking Test 4
Task 2
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate C

One of your friends tells you about a party they went to on Saturday. Ask
them about it and tell them about a good party you went to recently.

Speaking Test 4
Task 2
EXAMPLE 2
Candidate A
Films
You and your friend(s) are talking about films that

have been showing at the cinema this week.
Talk about which film you would like to see and

ask them which film they would like to see.

Speaking Test 4
Task 2
EXAMPLE 2
Candidate B
Films



Speaking Test 4
Task 2
EXAMPLE 2
Candidate C
Films



Task 1
Time: 30 minutes
Read the text and choose the most appropriate answer from the words
provided. Circle the correct answer in the table below.
THE END OF AN EMPIRE
The last significant __[1]__ of the British Empire was Hong Kong. For 99 years, China __[2]__ Hong
Kong to Britain and the handing __[3]__ of the city to China in 1997 marked a new __[4]__in the
history of Hong Kong – and the end __[5]__ an era for Britain.
Hong Kong __[6]__ as a result of a war in 1840 and was made bigger in 1898 with the lease of the
colony to the Empire. For many __[7]__ it remained a small harbour town, but after World War II
people in the West started regarding the colony differently. It was only after the__[8]__ of Nationalist
China and the rise of the Communists that the world came __[9]__ see Hong Kong as economically
important. With a positive cultural attitude to work and a good legal system, Hong Kong __[10]__
one of the most successful economies the world had ever known.
A famous saying, ‘Britain governed best when it governed least’, was true regarding the colony of
Hong Kong. __[11]__ the years, the British allowed Hong Kong to get on what it did best –__[12]__
money. As the new millennium approached, Hong Kong was facing the ending of the old system of
__[13]__. At the __[14]__ of the British rule in Hong Kong, some people wondered how the system
in that city would fit into modern China, but it was time to move forward. The best possible solution
was always__[15]__ to let them rule themselves.
A B C D
1 people monarch colony empire
2 leases had been leasing has leased have been leasing
3 currently when since over
4 starting beginning begin start over
5 of in at for
6 has been found founded was founded has been founding
7 decades times dates centuries
8 invade vote rise fall
9 to will at for
10 will become became becomes become
11 When For Since Over
12 make made making makes
13 rule government monarch vote
14 stop finish end last
15 gone to be going to be be going to goes to

Task 2
Choose the most appropriate answer (a, b or c) for each item. Write
your answer in the white box.
16. My parents have promised to support me until I ____ .
a. graduates b. graduating c. graduate
17. Why should I tell you who I voted ____?
a. for b. from c. of
18. Prices have doubled ____ the last couple of years.
a. from b. since c. over
19. You ____ eat too much unhealthy food; otherwise you could become overweight.
a. don’t b. mustn’t c. must
20. Food ____ we buy in the supermarkets often has too much plastic packaging.
a. which b. who c. that
21. I ____ online now for many years and I haven’t had any problems.
a. had shopped b. am shopping c. have been shopping
22. The country is currently in huge debt, ____ is a big problem to society.
a. it b. which c. that
23. I ____ remember to take Megan’s present with me when I go to her party.
a. must b. mustn’t c. need
24. How long ____ dance classes now?
a. have you been having b. had you been having c. are you having
25. The film was so boring that we left half way ____ it.
a. with b. of c. through
26. Sorry, what did you say? I wasn’t paying ____ .
a. listening b. attention c. notice
27. Turning off the tap ____ brushing your teeth can save lots of water.
a. where b. which c. when

28. The council is planning to introduce a new ____ to solve the parking problem.
a. parking b. scheme c. investment
29. My mum ____ my bedroom since I was very young but I am trying to do more myself.
a. has cleaned b. is cleaning c. has been cleaning
30. I ____ for the last two years now.
a. recycle b. have recycled c. have been recycling

TEST 5
Reading Test 5
questions from the list supplied. Write your answer in the table
below. Each heading can only be used ONCE. There are three
headings you will not need. Text 0 has been matched to its heading
as an example.
POPULAR KINDS OF FILM

In your media class you are looking studying film and your teacher has set you some questions to
answer. Here is some useful information you can use.
Text 0
Adventure films usually have exciting stories, new experiences and are very similar to
action films. They can include searches or expeditions for lost worlds, treasure hunts
or journeys into the unknown. They include amazing special effects and usually have a
happy ending.
Text 1
Comedies have light-hearted and uncomplicated plots and always have a happy
ending. This type of film is designed to make you laugh throughout but can sometimes
be quite predictable. Often the situations, characters and language are over-the-top,
but still it’s a film which will make you feel good.
Text 2
Crime films often include car chases and explosions, and always have a complicated
plot. These films include the bad world of bank robbers and thieves who ignore the
law, and the police who try to stop them. Crime films can be quite violent but the
audience feels happy at the end when the criminal is caught.
Text 3
Historical dramas are serious and have complicated plots showing realistic characters,
settings, life situations and stories. Often in these films the characters wear amazing
costumes from the past. The focus is not on special effects, comedy, or action, but on
situations and characters.
Text 4
Horror films are very scary and can also be quite violent. They are made to frighten
you and bring out your worst fears. This type of film is far from predictable – it keeps
you on the edge of your seat! Sometimes horror themes are combined with science
fiction themes in which the Earth is threatened by another planet.

Text 5
Science-fiction films are set in space or on an unfamiliar planet Earth. These films
have heroes, aliens, amazing costumes and great special effects. They usually have
an important message about society or the environment that leaves the audience
thinking, ‘what if?’
Text 6
Western films came from the U.S. and are usually set in America in the 19 th century.
The U.S. produces most Wild West films and has the largest industry making this kind
of film in the world. They are one of the oldest and the longest-lasting types of film,
with familiar plots and characters – cowboys and native American ‘Indians’ on
horseback, and the sheriff trying to keep the peace.
A Which type of film makes you laugh?
B What type of film shows aliens?
C What is the purpose of horror films?
D When was the first film shown?
E Which type of film shows an adventure?
F How old is the film industry in America?
G What type of characteristics does a crime film have?
H Where can you go to watch films?
I What type of film deals with serious subjects?
J Which film genre is mostly made in America?
Text 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Letter E


Reading Test 5

which best completes them according to the text. Then write your
answer in the table. Question 0 is an example.
RARE WHALES
Read about a rare species of whale seen off the coast of Australia.
Seeing a group of whales is a treat for anyone, but just think how exciting it must have
been for Wayne Fewings and his family, who saw a baby, or calf, white humpback
whale. This whale is the rarest in the world and not many exist.
The rare sighting took place on Thursday, September 29th, when the family encountered
a group of whales while in their boat near a harbour in North Queensland. They noticed
some activity in the water around their boat. They stopped to have a look, and saw an
amazing 12-feet long whale calf. Wayne estimated that it was probably only a few weeks
old. He said that the best part was that the curious whale came close enough to the boat
to allow them to touch it and take some photographs, before it was taken away by the
grey adult humpback whales.
This kind of white whale is very rare. The reason it is white rather than grey is that some
marine mammals are born without melanin – a substance in their skin. White whales are
so rare that only one other white whale has been sighted amongst the 15,000 whales
that live along Australia's east coast. That particular whale lives close to where the
Fewings family saw the whale calf. Local people call the whale Migaloo. This whale was
first seen in 1991 and is one of Australia's most famous humpback whales – there are
two websites and a Facebook page about her!
Experts believe that while the white whale calf could be Migaloo's baby, it could also
belong to a normal grey humpback whale that has the rare skin problem. If the experts
can get samples from the calf and run some experiments, then they may be able to
understand more about this rare mammal – and whether it is related to Migaloo. Locals
hope the new whale will become as famous as Migaloo and as popular with tourists.

RARE WHALES
0. The term used to describe a group of whales is

C
a) a calf.
b) a humpback.
c) a pod. 
7. The family were lucky enough to
a) touch a rare humpback whale.

b) catch a glimpse of rare whales.
c) take a tour to see rare whales.
8. Mr Fewings believed the whale was
a) being harmed by other whales.

b) seperated from its family.
c) only recently born.
9. Whales become white because
a) they are a special bread.

b) of a rare medical condition.
c) of too much time in the sun.
10. Migaloo is
a) the name given to all white whales.

b) another famous rare whale.
c) the place where the whale was seen.
11. The whale the Fewings family saw
a) has genes similar to grey whales.

b) could be the only one in the world.
c) may be the baby of Migaloo.
12. The writer of the article hopes
a) to get a chance to see Migaloo.

b) the whale will become famous.
c) the whale won’t be harmed.

Reading Test 5

Read the following text and complete each blank with ONE suitable
word from the list supplied. Then write your answers in the boxes
will not need. The first blank has been completed as an example.
THE CURRENT ECONOMY

Read about the world’s current economy and money issues.
The global __ [0] __ is currently doing very badly – many countries around the world have
problems with debt and many companies are finding it hard to survive. __ [13] __ in some
European countries has reached as high as 18% – a large number of the working population
are out of jobs. However, some countries are still doing well. The Chinese economy is
improving rapidly. Their __ [14] __ is strong, so it is cheap for them to travel abroad.
Over the last five years, the __ [15] __ of living has increased. As __ [16] __ continues to rise
and taxes go up, people find they cannot afford __ [17] __ items. In some countries, milk is
much more expensive than it used to be.
Many European governments are losing their __ [18] __ and there have been riots and strikes
over the last few months. The average salary has fallen and many people no longer have job
__ [19] __ as they used to – no one can expect a job for life. Society must wait to see how life
will be affected in the next few years.
BASIC DOUBLE INVEST SECURITY

COST ECONOMY POPULAR UNEMPLOYMENT
CLIMATE ENVIRONMENT POPULARITY
CURRENCY INFLATION SECURE
0. ECONOMY  16.
13. 17.
14. 18.
15. 19.

Reading Test 5

MARK
You have decided to go to a restaurant with your friends to celebrate your

birthday and they have recommended a popular restaurant called JoJo’s. Now
you are checking for further information, such as the menu and prices. Read
about the restaurant and answer the questions that follow.

told to do so.

Part 1: The Restaurant
0 Jojo’s is a restaurant serving: Irish food 
20 The main dish on Jojo’s menu is: _____________________________
21 Food used in the restaurant is grown: _____________________________
Welcome to Jojo's
Jojo's is a neighbourhood restaurant and we aim to provide Irish-style

delicious burgers made from top-quality, locally-produced meat.
You can enjoy our fresh, locally-grown food and generous portions in a
fun, friendly atmosphere with lots of dishes to choose from.
Our aim is to take our food seriously and make your eating experience
at Jojo’s the best possible! Our food is delicious and affordable.

Part 2: The Menu
22 An Irish traditional burger costs: ________________
23 The Cheese Burger includes traditional: ___________________________
Burgers
Plain and Simple Burger
A juicy beef burger made from the best
€6.50
local beef, with chunky chips and a green
salad.
Cheese Burger
The best beef burger topped with
Traditional Dublin Cheddar cheese €7.00
(iceberg lettuce, beef tomato and mayo
optional).
Bacon Cheese Burger

A beef burger with smoked bacon and
€7.50
traditional Irish Cheddar Cheese (iceberg
lettuce, beef tomato and mayo optional).
Irish Traditional Burger

A juicy beef burger with Cheddar cheese,
€7.95
beef tomato, red onion, gherkins, iceberg
lettuce, and Jojo's special sauce.
Barbecue Burger
A beef burger with smoked bacon, red
€8.95
onion, iceberg lettuce, beef tomatoes,
mayo and barbecue sauce.

Part 3: Directions
24 You can call Jojo’s restaurant on: ____________________________
25 The restaurant can accommodate: ___________________________
Address:
Jojo's
22 Boxford Street
City Centre South
Dublin
Telephone: 01 4577 28280
Opening hours:
Sun: 5 p.m. – 11.30 p.m.
Mon – Tues: 12 a.m. – 11 p.m.
Wed – Thurs: 12 a.m. – 2 a.m.
Fri: 10 p.m. – 4 a.m.
Sat: 10 p.m. – 4 a.m.
Restaurant Capacity: 35 people

Writing Test 5
TASK 1

Task 1 (12 marks)
MARK
You want to take part in a volunteering scheme to help the environment in Britain. This is
part of a form you have to complete in order to apply. Please write in complete sentences.
Experience helping the environment: COMMENTS

(what you do at home, in the local community)
Reason(s) why helping the environment is important:
Details of the type of environmental project that interests you:
Reason(s) why you want to volunteer:

Writing Test 5
TASK 2

Task 2 (13 marks)
MARK
Your British friend isn’t feeling well and wasn’t at college today. Send him or her an email
offering some advice on ways to feel better:
 food and drink they should have
 suggest to visit a doctor
 anything else your friend could do.
COMMENTS
Hello,
I heard you aren’t well and want to give you some advice.
Hope you feel better soon!
From,

Listening Test 5

MARK
You will hear seven conversations. Read through questions A–J
before listening. For each extract 1–7 choose the question that best
matches the information you have heard. Then write the letter in the
table below. There are two headings you will not need and an
introductory extract as an example. Now read the headings.
TALKING ABOUT POSSESSIONS
Listen to different people talking about themselves.
A Have you got any pets?
B Have you got a driving licence?
C Have you got your own home?
D Have you got any siblings?
E Have you go a boyfriend?
F Have you got a degree?
G Have you got any children?
H Have you got a mobile phone I can use?
I Have you got a computer?
J Have you got an email account?
TEXT 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
LETTER E

Listening Test 5

MARK
hear. Mark the correct box in the table below. Sentence 0 has been done as
an example. Now read the sentences.
RESTAURANTS
Listen to Mike and Lauren discussing where to eat out.
0 Both Mike and Lauren would like something to eat.
8 Lauren (the woman) says that she knows a good pizza place nearby.
9 Mike doesn’t like pizza.
10 Mike doesn’t want to go to the pizza place.
11 There is a Thai restaurant in the Soho area.
12 Lauren’s friend told her about the restaurant to try
13 Mike thinks Thai food is too spicy.
14 Lauren says there is lots of choice at the Thai restaurant.
15 She reassures Mike that he will like the food there.
16 Mike says he’s open to giving Thai food a try.
17 They decide to walk there.
TEXT 0 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
T X

Listening Test 5
MARK
and complete them by filling in gaps 18–25 according to what you
hear. Gap 0 has been completed as an example. Now read the notes.
COMMON FRIENDS
Listen to Beth and Salma talking about a friend of theirs named Mark.
Salma saw Beth while she was on the: bus. (0)


When Salma saw Beth, she was at: ___________________ (18)
Salma knows Mark from: __________________________ (19)
Salma can’t believe that Beth is: ___________________ (20) with Mark.
Beth and Mark met through: ____________________ (21)
When Beth first met Mark she was surprised because:
__________________________________ (22)
An upsetting event that happened to Beth recently: _______________ (23)
The reason the doctor gave as to why it happened:

___________________ (24)
Beth doesn’t want to tell her parents about Mark because:

___________________________ (25)

Speaking Test 5
Task 1
Social Interaction
EXAMPLE 1
At work
You have recently been given a task to do by your boss but

you are having trouble with it. You go to your boss for help.

Speaking Test 5
Task 1
Social Interaction
EXAMPLE 2
At the computer repair shop
Your computer has just broken down and you have gone to a computer
repair shop to ask for help. Talk to the computer technician.

Speaking Test 5
Task 2
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate A
Birthday plans
You are your friend(s) are at your house and you are
planning your birthday party next month.
Talk about your plans.

Speaking Test 5
Task 2
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate B
Birthday plans
You are at your friend’s house and your friend is planning his or her
birthday party next month.
Ask your friend questions and talk about plans for the party.

Speaking Test 5
Task 2
EXAMPLE 1
Candidate C
Birthday plans
You are at your friend’s house and your friend is planning his or her
birthday party next month.
Ask your friend questions and talk about plans for the party.

Speaking Test 5
Task 2
EXAMPLE 2
Candidate A
Shopping
You are your partner(s) study English together.

You are speaking while having coffee on your break.
Tell the others about where you like to go shopping

and ask for details about where they go.

Speaking Test 5
Task 2
EXAMPLE 2
Candidate B
Shopping



Speaking Test 5
Task 2
EXAMPLE 2
Candidate C
Shopping



Task 1 Time: 30 minutes
Read the text and choose the most appropriate answer from the
words provided. Then circle the correct answer in the table below.
RECYCLING – FACTS AND FIGURES
In the UK, the average household __[1]__ a large amount of waste every day. Last year alone, households
got rid of 30.5 million tonnes of waste and only 17% of that was recycled. This figure is actually very low
compared to other parts of Europe, __[2]__ some recycle as much as 50% of their waste. It costs around
£150 per tonne to dispose of waste, and over £1,000 to get rid of chemicals such as paint. There is still a
great deal of waste that can __[3]__, but still ends up in landfill sites. This is harmful to the environment. If
we don’t try to do something now, __[4]__ end up with a heavily polluted planet.
When __[5]__ the figures between Britain and other European countries, the facts are quite startling. It is
clear that we still have a lot of work to do, in order to protect our environment. In the UK, we still bury
__[6]__ 90% of our waste. Compare this to Denmark, where they __[7]__ bury around 10% – a huge
difference.
Recycling is the best way to reduce the amount of energy we consume. For instance, did you know that
recycling one recycled aluminium __[8]__ save enough energy to power a television for three hours.
Recycling a single glass bottle could save enough energy to power a computer for 25 minutes.
Experts __[9]__ that up to 60% of the waste that ends __[10]__ in the rubbish bin __[11]__ be recycled.
This includes aluminium cans, cardboard, glass and plastic. The energy that could be saved by recycling
the waste which is left in the average person’s bin could power a television for 5,000 hours. We __[12]__
cut down on packaging from supermarkets and shops too. On average, 16% of the price of products we buy
pays for packaging, and this __[13]__ ends up in the rubbish bin. In a recent poll, it __[14]__ that nine out of
10 people would recycle if it was made easier. Now the local council __[15]__ a service to collect recyclable
waste every week, so really, there is no excuse. We must all start recycling now.
A B C D
1 produce produced producing produces
2 when that where which
3 am recycling be recycled are recycling were recycling
4 we will we are we won’t we can
5 compared compare comparing compares
6 inside within outside around
7 still only can yet
8 would should did shall
9 see wonder believe said
10 of up in on
11 may might would could
12 can’t must mustn’t can
13 just yet still only
14 have found has been finding was found find
15 sets up had to set up have been setting up has set up

Task 2
Choose the most appropriate answer (a, b or c) for each item. Then
write the answer in the white box.
16. It’s really exciting that the new adventure film is coming ___ next week.
a. off b. in c. out
17. ___ I was at university I used to go out a lot with my friends.
a. Why b. When c. Where
18. At school we used to have to sign a register to show we ___ present each day.
a. will be b. are c. were
19. While at college we could go home if we ___ have lessons.
a. didn’t b. can’t c. won’t
20. Martin is still not here ___ though he specifically said 18:00.
a. yet b. how c. even
21. ___ don’t you want to go to the cinema?
a. Who b. How c. Why
22. My mum said that the good weather will ___ last for the rest of the holiday.
a. hopes b. hoping c. hopefully
23. ___ my time at university, I hope to get the chance to spend a term in another country.
a. Throughout b. While c. During
24. What time do you usually have breakfast ___ the morning?
a. in b. at c. on
25. Would you ___ if I left my suitcases in the spare room?
a. worry b. mind c. problem
26. What time ___ I be ready for you to take me to the train station?
a. would b. should c. could
27. Where ___ you originally come from?
a. does b. do c. did

28. Lizzy had straight black hair ___ she dyed it blonde.
a. before b. after c. since
29. My hometown is very small, ___ it only has about 500 residents living there.
a. as b. being c. like
30. You can find the sports shop in the centre of town, ___ the Main Square and
opposite the church.
a. close b. next c. near

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TEST 1 Outcomes (Pre-Intermediate)

BREAKFASTS FROM AROUND THE WORLD

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

A Is this food popular in China?

B How old is this type of dish?

C How did this food become popular?

D What do you eat with the biscuits?

E Can you eat this at school?

F Is this also a dessert?

G Do you eat this bread with a drink?

H Is this healthy breakfast food?

I Can you eat this at night as well as for breakfast?

J Can you eat this dish any time of year?

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

Task 2 (6 x 1 mark = 6 marks)

LIVING A GOOD LIFE

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

0. A person’s quality of life

7. A person’s quality of life generally depends on

a) the school they go to.

8. A country with a good quality of life has

a) many schools for children.

9. People have a good quality of life if

a) they are happy and unstressed.

10. Japanese people live longer because

a) they are able to retire at a young age.

11. British people have a low quality of life because

a) they work more than people in other European countries.

12. The good thing about life in Great Britain is

a) it has more paid holidays per year.

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

Task 3 (7 x 1 mark = 7 marks)

CLOTHING SHOP TURNED UPSIDE DOWN

CHOSEN ITEM RUMOUR TOOK

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

You are in the following situation:

Please do not start this task until you are

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

20 Expeditions are not a: ________________________________________

21 Expeditions are run: _________________________________________

Are you up for a crash course in life?

We believe expeditions should be open to anyone who is determined to make

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

22 A five week expedition costs: ____________________________________

23 The company provides food and: _________________________________

A guide to expedition costs:

What’s included in the cost?

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

25 Volunteers will learn: __________________________________________

Length of Skills and Voluntary A 5-day trekking

10 weeks Yes Yes Yes

7 weeks Yes Yes Yes

5 weeks Yes Yes No

So, what are you waiting for? Apply today!

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

Estimated time for this task: 25 minutes

Personal information: COMMENTS

Reasons why you want to be a journalist at The Weekly News:

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

© 2013 National Geographic Learning, a part of Cengage Learning PHOTOCOPIABLE

Estimated time for this task: 35 minutes

Dear all, COMMENTS

Here are the plans for …

Stella will visit her sister (0) later.