Environment – 100

1. Which of the following is/are the 2. Consider the following statements with
components of Fly ash? reference to Fly Ash:
1. Silicon dioxide 1. National Thermal Power Corporation
(NTPC) is fulfilling its commitment
2. Aluminium oxide
towards 100% utilization of fly ash
3. Ferric oxide from power plants.
4. Calcium oxide 2. Fly ash when combined with water
Select the correct code: cause leaching of heavy metals in
ground water.
A. 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
B. 3 and 4 only
correct?
C. 4 only
A. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 only
Answer: D
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Fly Ash, also known as coal ash or pulverised
Answer: C
fuel ash is a coal combustion product
composed of fine particles of burned fuel. It is Explanation:
derived out of coal-fired boilers together with Statement 1 is correct: Recently, National
flue gases. Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) has
In the past, fly ash was generally released into developed an infrastructure to transport fly
the atmosphere, but air pollution control ash from power plants in bulk to cement
standards now require that it be captured plants, at a cheaper cost. It will pave the way
prior to release by fitting pollution control for efficient and environment-friendly
equipment. transportation.
This development is in line with NTPC's
All the statements are correct.
commitment towards 100% utilization of fly
Fly ash particles are oxide rich and consist of ash from power plants. At present, 63% of the
silica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium, and fly ash is being utilised in India.
magnesium and toxic heavy metals like lead, Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash when combined
arsenic, cobalt, and copper. with water cause leaching of heavy metals in
Major oxides are present are aluminium ground water.
silicate (in large amounts), silicon dioxide
Groundwater Contamination: Coal, which is
(SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO).
a component of Fly Ash, contains elements
such as arsenic, barium, boron,
selenium and mercury, most of which is toxic
to human and animal life. Thus, fly ash
obtained after combustion of the coal has
potential to pollute groundwater.
Ecological Impact: The Ecological effect of fly
ash will depend on the type of factory and
thermal power plant discharge at play. This is
due to the different chemical make-up of the
coal based on the geological makeup of the
environment. Thus, the fly ash that will be
deposited on the topsoil will affect the plants
and animals in the surrounding area.
3. Consider the following statements with
reference to Volatile Organic Compounds
[VOCs]:
1. Benzene is most harmful of all the
VOCs.
2. The water solubility of volatile organic
compounds is very high
3. VOCs react with harmful pollutants
and neutralise their effects on the
environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are a
large group of carbon-based chemicals that
easily evaporate at room temperature.
Formaldehyde causes irritation to the eyes
and nose and allergies.
The main indoor sources are perfumes, hair
sprays, furniture polish, glues, air fresheners,
moth repellents, wood preservatives, and
other products.
Health effects – irritation of the eye, nose and
throat, headaches, nausea and loss of
coordination.
Long term effects – suspected to damage the
liver and other parts of the body.
Statement 1 is correct: Benzene is most
harmful of all the VOCs. It is called a
carcinogen. It is commonly found in fuels,
cigarette smoke, cars, paints.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The water solubility
of volatile organic compounds is very high.
They are highly unstable at room
temperature.
Statement 3 is correct: VOCs react with
harmful pollutants and neutralise their effects
on the environment. 90% of the VOC in the
atmosphere is produced by the plants. The
VOCs play a major role in chemical processes
that occur in the atmosphere. The VOCs keep
the atmosphere above it clean. VOCs are
highly important for animal–plant
communication.
4. Consider the following statements with
reference to Sulphur Dioxide:
1. Sulfur dioxide inhibits photosynthesis
2. It is abundantly available in the
atmosphere of Venus.
3. Production of paper is one of the
sources of Sulphur Dioxide
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
 D. 1,2 and 3 Statement 3 is correct: Production of paper is
Answer: D one of the sources of Sulphur Dioxide

Explanation:
• It is a toxic gas with a pungent, 5. Montreal Protocol is associated with
which of the following?
irritating smell.
A. Ozone
• It contributes to acid rain.
B. Nitrous Oxide
• Sulfur dioxide inhibits photosynthesis
by disrupting the photosynthetic C. Chlorofluorocarbons
mechanism. D. Carbon Monoxide
• It is released naturally by volcanic Answer: A
activity.
Explanation:
• It is abundantly available in the
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that
atmosphere of Venus.
Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the
• Sulphur dioxide is primarily Vienna Convention for the Protection of the
produced for sulfuric acid Ozone Layer) is an international treaty
manufacture. designed to protect the ozone layer by
• Inhaling sulphur dioxide is associated phasing out the production of numerous
with increased respiratory symptoms substances including CFCs which are
and disease, difficulty in breathing, responsible for ozone depletion.
and premature death.
• It also weakens the functioning of 6. Consider the following statements with
certain nerves. reference to Mangroves:
• It is also produced by burning coal in 1. Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of
thermal power plants and diesel fuels. reproduction.

• Some industrial processes, such as 2. The mangroves of Sundarbans are the

production of paper and smelting of largest mangroves of the world.
metals also produce it. 3. Pneumatophores are the only roots
It is estimated that the emission of found in Mangrove plants.
sulfur dioxide by natural sources is 24
Which of the above is/are correct?
per cent, whereas anthropogenic
sources contribute the rest 76 per cent. A. 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Sulfur dioxide inhibits B. 2 and 3 only

photosynthesis. C. 3 only
Statement 2 is correct: It is abundantly D. 1 and 2 only
available in the atmosphere of Venus.
Answer: D
Explanation: Odisha
Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves exhibit a • Bhaitarkanika
Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds
• Mahanadi
germinate in the tree itself (before falling to
the ground). • Subarnarekha

Vivipary: The seed remains attached to the • Devi-Kauda

parents’ plant until it germinates. It then falls • Dhamra
from the tree and drifts on the water until it
• Mangrove Genetic Resources Centre
finds somewhere to take root. Mangroves
occur in a variety of configurations. Some • Chilka
species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop Andhra Pradesh
roots down into the water. While others (e.g.
● Coringa
Avicennia) send vertical “Pneumatophores”
or air roots up from the mud. Adventitious ● East Godavari
roots that emerged from the main trunk of a ● Krishna
tree above ground level are called stilt roots.
Statement 2 is correct: The mangroves of
Sundarbans are the largest single block of 8. Consider the following statement with
reference to Mangroves for the Future
tidal halophytic mangroves of the world.
Initiative:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangrove plants
1. It is a non-governmental organization.
have (additional) special roots such as prop
roots, pneumatophores which help to impede 2. Its aim is to promote the study of
water flow and thereby enhance the mangroves with the purpose of
deposition of sediment in areas (where it is enhancing their conservation.
already occurring), stabilize the coastal Which of the statements given above is/are
shores, provide a breeding ground for fishes. correct?
A. 1 only
7. Which of the following Mangrove Sites is B. 2 only
not located in Odisha?
C. Both 1 and 2
A. Subarnarekha
D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Devi-Kauda
Answer: D
C. Coringa
Explanation
D. Dhamra
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Both the
Answer: C statements are about International Society for
Explanation: Mangrove Ecosystem (ISME) which is a non-
governmental organization established in
Mangrove Sites:
1990 to promote the study of mangroves with
the purpose of enhancing their conservation,
rational management and sustainable
utilization.
Mangroves for the Future Initiative: IUCN
and UNDP developed a unique initiative to
promote investment in coastal ecosystem
conservation called the “Mangroves for the
Future (MFF)”. The member nations include
Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia,
Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri
Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam.
9. Consider the following statements with
reference to National Forest Inventory (NFI):
1. It is a major forest resource
assessment activity carried out by FSI.
2. The primary objective is to assess the
growing stock of trees
3. Trees Outside Forest (Rural)
Inventory is one of the components of
NFI.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
National Forest Inventory (NFI):
● It is a major forest resource assessment
activity carried out by FSI.
● The primary objective is to assess the
growing stock of trees, the number of
trees, bamboo, soil carbon, the
occurrence of NTFP (Non-Timber
Forest Products) and invasive species,
and other parameters depicting the
growth & health of the forest.
● The NFI has three components: Forest
Inventory, TOF (Rural) Inventory, and
TOF (Urban) Inventory.
10. Consider the following statements with
reference to India State of Forest Report
(ISFR):
1. India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is
prepared by Forest Survey of
India(FSI).
2. It is an annual assessment of India’s
forests.
3. ISRO and FSI collaborates in
preparing the ISFR.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation
ISFR 2021
● It is the 17th biennial assessment of
India’s forests by the Forest Survey of
India, an organisation under the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC).
● The ISFR 2021 presents the latest
status of the 'Forest cover' and 'Tree
cover' of the country, estimates of
growing stock, the extent of trees
outside forests, mangrove cover,
 bamboo resources, and assessment of
forest carbon stock.
● In addition to the regular chapters,
this time round, a special chapter on
“Forest Cover assessment in Tiger
reserves and
Tiger corridor areas of the country and
decadal change in Forest Cover” has
also been included.
● Results of the two special studies
namely Above Ground Biomass
Estimation using Synthetic Aperture
Radar data (carried out in
collaboration with ISRO) and
Climate hot spots in forest areas
studies (carried out in collaboration
with BITS Pilani, Goa campus) are also
being presented in this report.
● New initiatives taken up in the last
two years by the Forest Survey of
India (FSI) team are also being
presented as a special chapter.
● India's progress towards achieving the
Nationally Determined Contribution
commitments are also included as part
of the chapter on Forest carbon
assessment.
Statement 1 is correct: India State of Forest
Report (ISFR) is prepared by Forest Survey of
India
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a biennial
assessment of India’s forests.
Statement 3 is correct: ISRO also collaborates
in preparing the ISFR.
11. Consider the following statements with
reference to Wetlands International:
1. It is a global not-for-profit
organisation.
2. Its major mission is the conservation
and restoration of marshlands.
3. The headquarters of this organisation
is in the Netherlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
Wetlands International is a global
organization (NGO) that works to sustain
and restore wetlands and their resources for
people and biodiversity. Wetlands
International's work ranges from research,
advocacy and engagement with
governments, corporate and international
policy fora and conventions
Statements 1 is correct: It is an independent,
not-for-profit organization, supported by
government & NGO membership from
around the world.
Statement 2 is correct: Its major mission is the
conservation and restoration of marshlands.
Statement 3 is correct: The headquarters of
this organisation is in the Netherlands.
12. Which of the following statement is
incorrect with reference to National Plan for
Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems?
 A. NPCA is a single conservation
programme for both wetlands and
lakes.
B. It is a central sector scheme.
C. It was formulated by merging of the
National Lake Conservation Plan and
the National Wetlands Conservation
Programme.
D. NPCA seeks to promote better
synergy and avoid overlap of
administrative functions.
Answer: B
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: NPCA is a single
conservation programme for both wetlands
and lakes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a centrally
sponsored scheme, currently being
implemented by the Union Ministry of
Environment and Forests and Climate
Change.
Statement 3 is correct: It was formulated in
2015 by merging of the National Lake
Conservation Plan and the National
Wetlands Conservation Programme.
Statement 4 is correct: NPCA seeks to
promote better synergy and avoid overlap of
administrative functions.
13. Which of the following statement is
incorrect with reference to Dissolved
Oxygen?
A. In fresh water the average
concentration of dissolved oxygen is
more than the concentration of oxygen
in an equivalent volume of air.
B. Oxygen is less soluble in warm water.
C. When the dissolved oxygen level falls
below 3-5 ppm, many aquatic
organisms are likely to die.
D. Dissolved oxygen escapes the water
body through air-water interface and
through respiration of organisms
Answer: A
Explanation
Dissolved Oxygen
• In fresh water the average
concentration of dissolved oxygen is
10 parts per million or 10 ppm by
weight.
• This is 150 times lower than the
concentration of oxygen in an
equivalent volume of air.
• Oxygen enters the aquatic ecosystem
through the air water interface and by
the photosynthetic activities of
aquatic plants.
• Dissolved oxygen escapes the water
body through air-water interface and
through respiration of organisms
(fish, decomposers, zooplanktons,
etc.)
• The amount of dissolved oxygen
retained in water is also influenced by
temperature.
• Oxygen is less soluble in warm water.
• Warm water also enhances
decomposer activity.
• Therefore, increasing the temperature
of a water body increases the rate at
which oxygen is depleted from water.
• When the dissolved oxygen level falls
below 3-5 ppm, many aquatic
organisms are likely to die.
Statement 1 is incorrect: In fresh water the
average concentration of dissolved oxygen is
10 parts per million or 10 ppm by weight.
A. This is 150 times lower than the
concentration of oxygen in an
equivalent volume of air.
Statement 2 is correct: Oxygen is less soluble
in warm water.
Statement 3 is correct: When the dissolved
oxygen level falls below 3-5 ppm, many
aquatic organisms are likely to die.
Statement 4 is correct: Dissolved oxygen
escapes the water body through air-water
interface and through respiration of
organisms.
14. Which of the following is/are the causes
of Coral Bleaching?
1. Ocean acidification
2. Cyanide fishing
3. Subaerial Exposure
4. Fresh Water Dilution
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Ans: d
Explanation
Causes of Coral Bleaching
● As coral reef bleaching is a general
response to stress, it can be induced by
a variety of factors, alone or in
combination.
● It is therefore difficult to unequivocally
identify the causes for bleaching
events.
● The following stressors have been
implicated in coral reef bleaching
events.
○ Temperature: Coral species live
within a relatively narrow
temperature margin and
therefore, low and high sea
temperatures can induce coral
bleaching. Bleaching events
occur during sudden
temperature drops
accompanying intense
upwelling episodes, seasonal
cold-air outbreaks etc.
○ Solar Irradiance: Bleaching
during the summer months,
during seasonal temperature
and irradiance maxima often
occurs disproportionately in
shallow-living corals and on the
exposed summits of colonies.
○ Subaerial Exposure: Sudden
exposure of reef flat corals to the
atmosphere during events such
as extreme low tides, ENSO-
related sea level drops or
tectonic uplift can potentially
induce bleaching.
○ Fresh Water Dilution: Rapid
dilution of reef waters from
storm-generated precipitation
and runoff has been
demonstrated to cause coral
reef bleaching.
○ Other causes includes the
increase in the concentration of
 inorganic Nutrients, Statement C is correct: Ecophene: Population
sedimentation, oxygen which is characterized by the same genotype
starvation caused by an increase but different phenotype in a particular habitat
in zooplankton levels as a result is regarded as ecophene.
of overfishing, ocean
acidification, changes in
salinity, sea level change due to 16. Which of the following is the correct
global warming, cyanide definition of Biome?
fishing etc. A. Biome is the biological component of
earth which includes the lithosphere,
hydrosphere and atmosphere.
15. Consider the following statements:
B. Biome is a large biological community
1. Ecotone is an area that acts as a or an ecosystem where different types
boundary or a transition between two of living organisms are used to living
ecosystems. in a certain type of climate.
2. Ecotype is a plant or animal species C. The environmental gradients between
that occupy a particular habitat which two ecosystems is called Biome.
is adapted to local environmental
conditions. D. None of the above

3. Population which is characterized by Answer: B

the same genotype but different
phenotype in a particular habitat is
regarded as ecophene.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
Statement A is correct: An ecotone is an area
that acts as a boundary or a transition
between two ecosystems. For example,
estuary, grasslands, etc.
Statement B is correct: Ecotype: A plant or
animal species that occupy a particular
habitat which is adapted to local
environmental conditions.
Explanation:
The terrestrial part of the biosphere isdivisible
into enormous regions called biomes.
No two biomes are alike.
They are characterized, by distinct
climate (precipitation and temperature
mainly), vegetation, animal life and general
soil type.
The climate determines the boundaries of a
biome and abundance of plants and animals
found in each one of them.
Statement a is incorrect. Biosphere is
the biological component of earth which
includes the lithosphere, hydrosphere
and atmosphere.
Statement b is correct: Biome is a
large biological community or an ecosystem
where different types of living organisms are
used to living in a certain type of climate.
The climate determines the boundaries of a Statement b is incorrect. Edge Effect refers
biome and the abundance of plants and to the changes in population or
animals found in each of it. community structures that occur at the
boundary of two habitats.
Statement c is incorrect. Ecocline: There is
no sharp boundary between the two Statement c is incorrect as it explains
ecosystems, there are gradual but the Liebig's Law of the Minimum. The
continuous environmental gradients concept of limiting factors is based on Liebig's
comprised of Law of the Minimum, which states that
abiotic factors such as temperature, growth is controlled not by the total amount
slope, precipitation, water, soil, etc of resources available, but by the
and subsequently biotic communities scarcest resource
also changes. These environmental gradients
are called ecocline.
18. Animals living in polar regions are adapted to
live in subzero climates. Which of the following
17. Which of the following is the set of adaptations would not be advantageous for
correct definition of Carrying Capacity? Polar bear to survive in polar regions?
A. The carrying capacity is the A. High surface area to volume ratio
maximum population size of a B. Small extremities to reduce heat loss
particular species that a given
C. Thick layer of body fat / blubber
ecosystem can sustain.
D. Thick fur on the paws
B. Carrying capacity refers to
the changes in population or Answer: A
community structures that occur at Explanation:
the boundary of two habitats
The polar bear is a large, white bear
C. The concept of Carrying which lives in north polar regions of the earth.
capacity states that growth is The polar bear feeds mainly on fish and
controlled not by the total amount of seal. Polar bears have to adapt to live in
resources available, but by the subzero climates. They have various set
scarcest resource. of adaptations which are advantageous
D. None of the above to survive in polar regions.

Answer: A Statement A is incorrect: Low surface area

Explanation
Statement a is correct: The carrying
capacity is the maximum population size of
a particular species that a given ecosystem
can sustain.
to volume ratio will be advantageous for
polar bears to survive in polar regions.
Compared to other species of bears, polar
bears have small extremities, proportionally
shorter legs and a stockier build. This reduces
the surface area to lose heat from. This is a
common characteristic amongst animals that
live in cold environments that enables them
to retain their heat and conversely means
they often can't cope with warm temperatures
as they easily overheat in warmer
temperatures.
Statement B is correct: Small extremities
to reduce heat loss (anatomical) - Polar
bears have small ears covered in thick fur, a
very short tail and a relatively short and
squat muzzle, all of which help to retain heat.
Statement C is correct: Thick layer of body
fat / blubber [upto 10cm (4 inches) thick] is
used both for insulation and also for food
storage to help them to survive when food
supply may be intermittent especially in the
summer months.
Statement D is correct: Thick fur on the
paws are to insulate them from snow and ice
and also provide for grip on slippery
surfaces. The paws are large in size to help
spread the bears weight over ice and snow.
19. Which of the following is the
correct definition of Homeostasis?
A. Homeostasis is the state of
steady internal chemical and
physical conditions maintained by
living systems.
B. Homeostasis is the process by
which communities of plant and
animal species in an area are replaced
or changed into another over a period
of time
C. Homeostasis is the body's
natural reaction to an injury that
stops bleeding and repairs the
damage
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The organisms try to maintain the constancy
of their internal environment (a process
called homeostasis) despite varying
external environmental conditions that tend
to upset homeostasis.
Homeostasis can be defined as the stable state
of an organism and of its internal
environment; as the maintenance or
regulation of the stable condition, or its
equilibrium; or simply as the balance of
bodily functions.
Statement a is correct: Homeostasis is
the state of steady internal chemical and
physical conditions maintained by living
systems.
Statement b is incorrect. It is the definition of
Ecological succession. The process by
which communities of plant and animal
species in an area are replaced or changed
into another over a period of time is known as
ecological succession.
Statement c s incorrect as it is the definition of
Haemostasis. It is the body's natural reaction
to an injury that stops bleeding and repairs
the damage
20. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of
decreasing productivity? [ UPSC 2013]
A. Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
B. Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
C. Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
D. Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ecosystems in the order
decreasing productivity:
Mangroves > Grasslands > Lakes > Oceans
21. Consider the following statements with
reference to Carbon Sink:
1. A carbon sink is any natural reservoir
only
2. Soil is a critical carbon storage
medium.
3. Kyoto Protocol is associated with CO2
sinks
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A carbon sink
is any natural or man-made reservoir
that accumulates and stores some
carbon-containing chemical
compound for an indefinite period of
time, lowering CO2 concentrations in
the atmosphere.
• Statement 2 is correct: Soil is a critical
carbon storage medium. Due to
intensive farming, much of the
organic carbon retained
agricultural areas has been depleted.
• Statement 3 is correct: Since the
passage of the Kyoto Protocol, which
encourages the use of CO2 sinks as a
form of carbon offset, public
of awareness of their importance has
grown.
Additional Information:
What is a Carbon Sink?
• A carbon sink is any natural or man-
made reservoir that accumulates and
stores some carbon-containing
chemical compound for an indefinite
period of time, lowering CO2
concentrations in the atmosphere.
• The two most important carbon sinks
on a global scale are vegetation and the
ocean.
• Since the passage of the Kyoto
Protocol, which encourages the use of
CO2 sinks as a form of carbon offset,
public awareness of their importance
has grown.
• Soil is a critical carbon storage
medium. Due to intensive farming,
much of the organic carbon retained in
agricultural areas has been depleted.
• "Blue carbon" refers to carbon fixed by
ocean ecosystems. The majority of
ocean plant life is made up of
mangroves, salt marshes, and
seagrasses, which store large amounts
of carbon.
• Numerous efforts are being made to
improve natural sequestration in soils
and oceans.
in • Furthermore, a variety of artificial
sequestration initiatives, such as new
building materials, carbon capture and
storage, and geological sequestration,
are underway.
22. Which of the following statements with
reference to IPCC’s Assessment Reports
(ARs) is incorrect?
A. The first Assessment Report formed
the basis for the negotiation of the UN
Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC)
B. The second Assessment Report was
the scientific underpinning for the
Kyoto Protocol
C. The third Assessment Report won the
Nobel Peace Prize for IPCC
D. The fourth Assessment Report was
the scientific input for the 2009
Copenhagen climate meeting
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The first
Assessment Report formed the basis
for the negotiation of the UN
Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC)
• Statement 2 is correct: The second
Assessment Report was the scientific
underpinning for the Kyoto Protocol
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The fourth
Assessment Report won the Nobel
Peace Prize for IPCC
Assessment Reports
• Statement 4 is correct: The fourth
Assessment Report was the scientific
input for the 2009 Copenhagen
climate meeting
Additional Information:
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC)
• An intergovernmental body of the
United Nations (UN).
• Established by World Meteorological
Organisation (WMO) and United
Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) in 1988
• Membership: Open for all the
members of the WMO and UN.
• Function of IPCC:
o It provides objective scientific
information in order to
understand human- induced
climate change.
▪ It also covers natural, political &
economic impacts of these
anthropogenic climate changes and
possible response options.
▪ Its main activity is to prepare
Assessment Reports, special
reports, and methodology reports
assessing the state of knowledge
of climate change.
▪ However, the IPCC does not itself
engage in scientific research. Instead, it
asks scientists from around the world
to go through all the relevant scientific
literature related to climate change and
draw up the logical conclusions.
▪ It does not monitor climate or
related phenomena itself.
• The IPCC’s Assessment Reports (ARs),
which are produced every few years,
are the most comprehensive and
widely accepted scientific evaluations
of the state of the Earth’s climate.
• They form the basis for government
policies to tackle climate change, and
provide the scientific foundation for
 the international climate change
negotiations.
o Six Assessment Reports have been
published so far
▪ The sixth report (AR6) is coming
in three parts — the first in August
2021, the second in February 2022,
and the third recently .
▪ The first part of AR6 flagged more
intense and frequent heat-waves,
increased incidents of extreme
rainfall, a dangerous rise in sea-
levels, prolonged droughts, and
melting glaciers — and said that
1.5 degrees Celsius warming was
much closer than was thought
earlier, and also inevitable.
▪ The second part warned that multiple
climate change-induced disasters were
likely in the next two decades even if
strong action was taken to reduce the
emissions of greenhouse gases.
• What previous reports have said
▪ First Assessment Report
▪ The first Assessment Report
(1990) noted that emissions
resulting from human activities
are substantially increasing the
atmospheric concentrations of
greenhouse gases.
▪ Global temperatures have risen
by 0.3 to 0.6 degree Celsius in
the last 100 years.
▪ In the business-as-usual
scenario, temperatures were
likely to increase by 2 degrees
Celsius compared to pre-
industrial levels by 2025, and 4
degrees Celsius by 2100. Sea
levels were likely to rise by 65
cm by 2100.
▪ This report formed the basis for the
negotiation of the UN Framework
Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) in 1992, known as the Rio
Summit.
• The second Assessment Report (1995):
o It revised the projected rise in
global temperatures to 3
degrees Celsius above pre-
industrial levels by 2100, and
sea-level rise to 50 cm, in light of
more evidence. Global rise in
temperature by 0.3 to 0.6 degree
Celsius since the late 19th
century was “unlikely to be
entirely natural in origin”, it
said.
o AR2 was the scientific
underpinning for the Kyoto
Protocol of 1997.
• The third Assessment Report (2001)
o It revised the projected rise in
global temperatures to 1.4 to 5.8
degrees Celsius by 2100
compared to 1990.
o The projected rate of warming
was unprecedented in the last
10,000 years, it said.
o The report predicted increased
rainfall on average, and that by
2100, sea levels were likely to
rise by as much as 80 cm from
1990 levels.
o Glaciers would retreat during
the 21st century, and the
 frequency, intensity, and “large fraction of species” faced
duration of extreme weather extinction, and food security
events would increase, it said. would be undermined.
The report presented new and o AR5 formed the scientific basis
stronger evidence to show for negotiations of the Paris
global warming was mostly Agreement in 2015.
attributable to human activities.
• The fourth Assessment Report (2007):
23. REDD+ activities include which of the
o It said greenhouse gas following?
emissions increased by 70 per
1. Reducing emissions from
cent between 1970 and 2004,
deforestation
and atmospheric concentrations
of CO2 in 2005 (379 ppm) were 2. Reducing emissions from forest
the most in 650,000 years. degradation
o In the worst-case scenario, 3. Conservation of forest carbon stocks
global temperatures could rise 4. Sustainable management of forests
4.5 degrees Celsius by 2100
from pre-industrial levels, and 5. Enhancement of forest carbon stocks
sea levels could be 60 cm higher Select the correct code:
than 1990 levels. A. 1 and 2 only
o The report won the 2007 Nobel B. 4 and 5 only
Peace Prize for IPCC. It was the
scientific input for the 2009 C. 2, 3, and 4 only
Copenhagen climate meeting. D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• The fifth Assessment Report (2014) Answer: D
o It said more than half the Explanation:
temperature rise since 1950 was The differences between REDD and REDD+
attributable to human activities, are tabled below:
and that the atmospheric
concentrations of carbon REDD REDD+
dioxide, methane, and nitrous
oxide were “unprecedented” in
the last 800,000 years. REDD is the REDD+, with the
abbreviation for “plus” referring to
o The rise in global temperatures
“reducing “the role of
by 2100 could be as high as 4.8
emissions from conservation,
degrees Celsius from pre-
deforestation and sustainable
industrial times, and more
forest degradation” management of
frequent and longer heat waves
forests and
were “virtually certain”. A
 Answer: D
enhancement of
forest carbon stocks Explanation:
in developing • Statement 1 is correct: Get its non-
countries”. fossil energy capacity to 500 gigawatts
by 2030.
REDD is mostly REDD+ activities • Statement 2 is correct: Meet 50 per
focused towards include the cent of its energy requirements till
avoiding carbon following: 2030 with renewable energy.
emissions from: • Reducing • Statement 3 is correct: Reduce its
• deforestatio emissions projected carbon emission by one
n and from billion tonnes by 2030.
deforestation
• forest • Statement 4 is incorrect: Achieve net
degradation • Reducing zero by 2070.
emissions
Additional Information:
from forest
degradation What is Panchamrita?

• Conservation • ‘Panchamrita’ is a traditional method

of forest of mixing five natural foods — milk,
carbon stocks ghee, curd, honey and jaggery. These
are used in Hindu and Jain worship
• Sustainable
rituals. It is also used as a technique in
management
Ayurveda.
of forests
• The PM euphemistically termed his
• Enhancemen
scheme as ‘Panchamrita’ meaning the
t of forest
‘five ambrosia’.
carbon stocks
• Under Panchamrita’, India will:
o Get its non-fossil energy capacity
24. Which of the following is not India's to 500 gigawatts by 2030.
target under Panchamrita? o Meet 50 per cent of its energy
A. Get its non-fossil energy capacity to requirements till 2030 with
500 gigawatts by 2030 renewable energy.

B. Meet 50 per cent of its energy o Reduce its projected carbon

requirements till 2030 with renewable emission by one billion tonnes by
energy 2030.

C. Reduce its projected carbon emission o Reduce the carbon intensity of its
by one billion tonnes by 2030 economy by 45 per cent by 2030.

D. Achieve net zero by 2050 o Achieve net zero by 2070.

 Net Zero Emissions
25. Which of the following statements with
reference to carbon-neutrality is incorrect?
A. It is also referred to as Net Zero
Emissions
B. It means that a country would bring
down its emissions to zero.
C. India has not yet committed to a net
zero timeline.
D. Bhutan is often described as carbon-
negative
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is also
referred to as Net Zero Emissions
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It does not
mean that a country would bring
down its emissions to zero. Rather,
net-zero is a state in which a country’s
emissions are compensated by
absorption and removal of
greenhouse gases from the
atmosphere.
• Statement 3 is correct: India has not
yet committed to a net zero timeline.
Though India is not against 'net zero'
goal per se, the country will not
commit to the 2050 timeline. It will
strongly underline its demand for the
developed world sticking to the
principle of common but
differentiated responsibility and the
need to deliver on climate change
mitigation finance.
• Statement 4 is correct: Bhutan is often
described as carbon-negative.
Additional Information:
• It is also referred to as carbon-
neutrality.
• It does not mean that a country would
bring down its emissions to zero.
• Rather, net-zero is a state in which a
country’s emissions are compensated
by absorption and removal of
greenhouse gases from the
atmosphere.
• Absorption of the emissions can be
increased by creating more carbon
sinks such as forests, while removal of
gases from the atmosphere requires
futuristic technologies such as carbon
capture and storage.
• This way, it is even possible for a
country to have negative emissions, if
the absorption and removal exceed the
actual emissions.
• A good example is Bhutan which is
often described as carbon-negative
because it absorbs more than it emits.
• India is currently the World’s third
biggest emitter of greenhouse gases,
after the US and China.
• India has not yet committed to a net
zero timeline.
• Several other countries, including the
UK and France, have already enacted
laws promising to achieve a net-zero
emission scenario by the middle of the
century.
• The European Union is working on a
similar Europe-wide law, while many
other countries including Canada,
South Korea, Japan and Germany have
 expressed their intention to commit
themselves to a net-zero future.
• Even China has promised to go net-
zero by 2060.
26. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with reference to the Kyoto
Protocol?
A. Canada, Andorra, The United States
of America, and South Sudan are not
parties to the protocol.
B. It is legally binding and only members
of the UNFCCC can become parties to
the Kyoto Protocol.
C. To meet the targets of the Kyoto
Protocol, member countries can
include international shipping and
international aviation
D. Countries can use Land Use (LU),
land-use change (LUC), and Forestry
to meet their Kyoto targets.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Canada, Andorra, The
United States of America, and South Sudan
are not parties to the protocol.
Statement 2 is correct: It is legally binding
and only members of the UNFCCC can
become parties to the Kyoto Protocol.
Statement 3 is incorrect: To meet the targets
of the Kyoto Protocol, member countries
cannot include international shipping and
international aviation
Statement 4 is correct: Countries can use
Land Use (LU), land-use change (LUC), and
Forestry to meet their Kyoto targets.
Additional Information:
Kyoto Protocol
• 192 countries are parties to the Kyoto
Protocol.
• 84 countries are signatories of the
Kyoto Protocol.
• Canada, Andorra, The United States of
America, and South Sudan are not
parties to the protocol.
• It is legally binding and only members
of the UNFCCC can become parties to
the Kyoto Protocol.
• It was adopted at the 3rd session of
UNFCCC
• To meet the targets of the Kyoto
Protocol, member countries cannot
include international shipping and
international aviation
• Countries can use Land Use (LU),
land-use change (LUC), and Forestry
to meet their Kyoto targets.
• China signed the protocol in 1998.
• The protocol did not include ozone-
depleting substances which were later
covered by the Montreal protocol.
27. Consider the following statements with
reference to Carbon budgets:
1. A carbon budget is a cumulative
amount of carbon dioxide (CO2)
emissions permitted over a period of
time to keep within a certain
temperature threshold.
2. Carbon budgets are constructed on the
premise that there is a near-linear
relationship between rising global
 temperatures and the level of • But with carbon building up quickly,
cumulative atmospheric CO2. countries are having to redraw their
Which of the above is/are correct? budgets more often than hoped.

A. 1 only • A carbon budget is the cumulative

amount of carbon dioxide (CO2)
B. 2 only emissions permitted over a period of
C. Both 1 and 2 time to keep within a certain
temperature threshold. Figure 1 shows
D. Neither 1 nor 2
a range of carbon budgets as published
Answer: C by different institutions in the energy
Explanation: and climate change sector that it is
Statement 1 is correct: projected will keep average increases
in global temperature to within 2°C. As
• A carbon budget is a cumulative it is, these 2°C budgets are not
amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) immediately comparable, however.
emissions permitted over a period of
time to keep within a certain
temperature threshold.
• It is the maximum amount of carbon
dioxide (CO2) that can be emitted
while still having a chance to limit
warming to 1.5°C or 2°C.
Statement 2 is correct: Carbon budgets are
constructed on the premise that there is a
near-linear relationship between rising global
temperatures and the level of cumulative
atmospheric CO2. 28. Consider the following pairs of Climate
groupings:
Additional info:
1. Umbrella Group: This alliance of non-
How do carbon budgets work?
EU developed countries includes
• Carbon budgets measure how much Australia, Japan, Russia, and the
CO2 is produced by industry, homes United States.
and all other parts of the economy to
2. Africa Group: Africa’s UN members.
calculate how much emissions must be
cut in the future. 3. Climate Vulnerable Forum:
Representing 58 countries most at risk
• The aim is to reach net-zero emissions
from climate impacts.
– striking an equal balance between the
carbon released into the atmosphere Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
and that removed from it. A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Umbrella Group: This alliance of non-
EU developed countries includes
Australia, Japan, Russia, and the
United States.The Umbrella Group is a
loose coalition of non-EU developed
countries which formed following the
adoption of the Kyoto Protocol.
Although there is no formal list, the
Group is usually made up of Australia,
Canada, Japan, New Zealand,
Kazakhstan, Norway, the Russian
Federation, Ukraine and the US.
• Africa Group: Africa’s UN members.
The Group of African States, or African
Group, is one of the five United
Nations regional groups and is
composed of 54 Member States from
the African continent. The African
Group is the largest regional group,
and composes 28% of all United
Nations members.
• Climate Vulnerable Forum:
Representing 58 countries most at risk
from climate impacts. The Climate
Vulnerable Forum is a global
partnership of countries that are
disproportionately affected by the
consequences of climate change. The
forum addresses the negative effects of
climate change as a result of
heightened socioeconomic and
environmental vulnerabilities
29. The Paris Agreement talks about 20/20/20
targets. Which of them is/are a part of it?
1. Carbon Dioxide emissions reductions
by 20%,
2. Work on increasing the renewable
energy market share by 20%
3. Target to increase energy efficiency by
20%
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The goal of the Paris Agreement
1. To curtail the rise of global
temperature this century below 2-
degree Celsius, above pre-industrial
levels; and also pursue efforts to limit
the increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
2. Develop mechanisms to help and
support countries that are very
vulnerable to the adverse impacts of
climate change. An example would be
countries like the Maldives facing
threat due to sea-level rise.
3. Confirms the obligation that
developed countries have towards
developing countries, by providing
them financial and technological
support.
The agreement talks about 20/20/20 targets,
i.e.
1. Carbon Dioxide emissions reductions
by 20%,
 2. Work on increasing the renewable What is a Like-Minded Developing
energy market share by 20% Countries (LMDC) group?
3. Target to increase energy efficiency by • LMDC comprises around 25
20% developing countries from Asia and
other regions.
• It organizes themselves as a block of
30. Consider the following statements with
reference to Like-Minded Developing negotiators in international
Countries(LMDC) group: organizations such as the United
Nations.
1. LMDC comprises around 25
developing countries from Asia and • They represent more than 50% of the
other regions. world’s population.

2. It organizes themselves as a block of • Member countries: Algeria,

negotiators in international Bangladesh, Belarus, Bhutan, China,
organizations such as the United Cuba, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Iran,
Nations. Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan,
the Philippines, Sri Lanka, Sudan,
3. They represent more than 50% of the
Syria, Vietnam, and Zimbabwe.
world’s population.
Which of the above is/are correct?
31. Consider the following statements with
A. 1 only reference to Powering Past Coal Alliance:
B. 2 and 3 only 1. The Powering Past Coal Alliance or
C. 2 only PPCA is a group that aims to reduce
coal power.
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. The main objective of the alliance is to
Answer: D
phase out coal fired power plants.
Explanation:
3. It was initially launched by Canada
Statement 1 is correct: LMDC comprises and the United Kingdom.
around 25 developing countries from Asia
and other regions. 4. The Government of Canada provides
financial support to the project.
Statement 2 is correct: It organizes
Which of the statements given above is/are
themselves as a block of negotiators in
correct?
international organizations such as the
United Nations. A. 1 and 2 only

Statement 3 is correct: They represent more B. 3 and 4 only

than 50% of the world’s population. C. 2 only
Additional info: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation: A. 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: The Powering Past B. 2 only
Coal Alliance or PPCA is a group that aims to
C. Both 1 and 2
reduce coal power.
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 2 is correct: The main objective of
the alliance is to phase out coal fired power Answer: C
plants. Explanation:
Statement 3 is correct: It was initially Statement 1 is correct: SDM must contribute
launched by Canada and the United to overall emission reductions/net mitigation
Kingdom.
Statement 2 is correct: CDM is based on
Statement 4 is correct: The Government of Kyoto Protocol
Canada provides financial support to the
Additional info:
project.
Additional info:
• The Powering Past Coal Alliance or
PPCA is a group that aims to reduce
coal power. The main objective of the
alliance is to phase out coal fired power
plants.
• It was initially launched by Canada
and the United Kingdom.
• It was launched during the 2017
UNFCCC (United Nations Convention
on Climate Change) COP23 held in 33. Which among the following does not
Bonn. The Government of Canada manage the Global Environment Facility ?
provides financial support to the
A. United Nations Development
project.
Programme (UNDP)
B. World Meteorological Organization
32. Consider the following statements with (WMO)
reference to SDM and CDM building
C. World Bank
blocks:
D. United Nations Environment
1. Sustainable Development Mechanism
Programme (UNEP)
(SDM) must contribute to overall
emission reductions/net mitigation Answer: B

2. Clean Development Mechanism Explanation:

(CDM) is based on Kyoto Protocol Global Environment Facility (GEF): Since its
Which of the above is/are correct? inception, this multilateral financial
mechanism has advanced $21.1 billion in
grants and mobilized an additional $114
billion in financing for more than 5,000
projects in 170 countries.
• GEF was established during the Rio
Earth Summit of 1992.
• It is based in Washington, D.C.,
United States.
• The GEF is jointly managed by the
United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP), the World Bank,
and the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
• 183 nations are united under GEF in
partnership with civil society
organizations (CSOs), international
institutions, private sector, etc. to
address the environmental issues
across the globe.
• The financial mechanism was
established to help tackle our planet’s
most pressing environmental
problems. It provides funds to the
developing countries and transition
economies for projects related to
climate change, biodiversity, the
ozone layer, etc.
34. Consider the following statements with
reference to GEF and India:
1. India is only a donor of funding to the
GEF.
2. The political focal point for GEF in
India is the Environment Ministry
while the operational focal point is the
Finance Ministry.
3. India, Bhutan, Maldives, Sri Lanka,
Nepal, and Bangladesh have together
formed a Permanent Constituency in
the Executive Council of the GEF.
4. India receives funding from the GEF
for work in three major areas namely,
biodiversity, climate change, and land
degradation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is both a donor
and a recipient of funding from the GEF.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The political focal
point for GEF in India is the Finance Ministry
while the operational focal point is the
Environment Ministry.
Statement 3 is correct: India, Bhutan,
Maldives, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Bangladesh
have together formed a Permanent
Constituency in the Executive Council of the
GEF.
Statement 4 is correct: India receives funding
from the GEF for work in three major areas
namely, biodiversity, climate change, and
land degradation.
35. According to ‘Emissions Gap Report
2022’ which of the following countries is not
among the top 7 emitters?
A. Indonesia
B. Brazil
C. Australia
 D. Russian Federation
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The top 7 emitters (China, the EU27,
India, Indonesia, Brazil, the Russian
Federation and the United States of
America) plus international transport
accounted for 55% of global GHG
emissions in 2020.
36. Consider the following statements with
reference to findings of the Production Gap
Report:
1. There is an increase in oil and gas
production in the United States,
Canada, Australia, Saudi Arabia and
China.
2. But the UK and Indonesia are going to
decrease their oil and gas output.
3. Denmark also decides to cancel all
future licensing rounds for oil and gas,
and completely phase out oil
production by 2050.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: There is an increase in
oil and gas production in the United States,
Canada, Australia, Saudi Arabia and China.
Statement 2 is correct: But the UK and
Indonesia are going to decrease their oil and
gas output.
Statement 3 is correct: Denmark also decides
to cancel all future licensing rounds for oil
and gas, and completely phase out oil
production by 2050.
Additional info:
• The Production Gap Report — first
launched in 2019 — tracks the
discrepancy between governments’
planned fossil fuel production and
global production levels consistent
with limiting warming to 1.5°C or 2°C.
• The report represents a collaboration
of several researchers and academic
institutions, including input from
more than 40 experts. UNEP staff
provided guidance and insights from
their experience
• This year’s report presents the first
comprehensive update of the
production gap analysis since our 2019
assessment.
• The report also tracks how
governments worldwide are
supporting fossil fuel production
through their policies, investments,
and other measures, as well as how
some are beginning to discuss and
enact policies towards a managed and
equitable transition away from fossil
fuel production.
• This year’s report features individual
country profiles for 15 major fossil
fuel-producing countries and a special
chapter on the role of transparency in
helping to address the production gap.

37. Greenhouse Gas Bulletin Report shows
the average surface mole fractions for which
of the following?
1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
2. Nitrous oxide (N2O)
3. Carbon monoxide (CO)
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Greenhouse Gas Bulletin Report shows
the average surface mole fractions for
carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4)
and nitrous oxide (N2O) and
compares them with the mole fractions
during the previous year and with the
preindustrial levels.
• Greenhouse Gas Bulletin 2022 also
provides change in radiative forcing by
long-lived GHGs (LLGHGs) and the
contribution of individual gases to this
increase.
38. Consider the following statements with
reference to Ocean Acidification:
1. Ocean acidification has the potential to
impact food security.
2. As the ocean acidifies, its ability to
absorb CO2 increases.
3. Ocean acidification reduces the
amount of carbonate which is a key
building block in seawater.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Ocean
acidification has the potential to
impact food security.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: As the ocean
acidifies, its ability to absorb CO2
decreases.
• Statement 3 is correct: Ocean
acidification reduces the amount of
carbonate which is a key building
block in seawater.
Additional Information:
Carbon Storage and Climate Regulation
• As the ocean acidifies, its ability to
absorb CO2 decreases.
• More acidic oceans are less effective at
mitigating climate change.
Food
• Ocean acidification has the potential to
impact food security.
• The global annual costs of mollusk loss
due to ocean acidification could exceed
$100 by 2100.
 • When fish die, humans who rely on
them for food and a living suffer from
socioeconomic problems.
• This process also contributes to acidic
waters, which harm agricultural
production even more.
• Soil acidity rises as a result of acidic
water. This makes the cultivation and
production of certain crops impossible.
Effect of Ocean Acidification on Marine
Organisms and Ecosystem
• Ocean acidification reduces the
amount of carbonate, a key building
block in seawater.
• This makes it more difficult for marine
organisms, such as coral and some
plankton, to form shells and skeletons,
and existing shells may begin to
dissolve.
• The pH of seawater is highly variable,
and a single organism can cope with
fluctuations of different pH levels over
its lifetime.
• The issue with ocean acidification is
the long-term nature of the change, as
the risk comes from lifetime exposure
to lower pH levels. The rate of
acidification will affect the ability of
calcifying organisms to adapt.
• The effects of ocean acidification are
not the same for all species. Higher
CO2 concentrations in the ocean may
benefit some algae and seagrass by
increasing photosynthetic and growth
rates.
• A more acidic environment, on the
other hand, will harm other marine
species such as mollusks, corals, and
some types of plankton. These animals'
shells and skeletons may become less
dense or strong.
• This may make coral reefs more
vulnerable to storm damage and slow
their recovery rate.
• In response to ocean acidification,
marine organisms may experience
changes in growth, development,
abundance, and survival.
• Most species appear to be more
vulnerable in their early stages of
development. Juvenile fish, for
example, may have difficulty finding
suitable habitat to live in.
• Regardless of whether the responses
within and between marine groups are
positive or negative, research indicates
that ocean acidification will be a driver
of significant changes in ocean
ecosystems this century.
• These changes may be exacerbated by
the interaction with other emerging
climate-related hazards, such as the
decrease in ocean oxygen levels,
known as ocean deoxygenation, which
is already affecting marine life in some
areas.
39. Which of the following is/are Natural
Causes of Global Warming?
1. Volcanoes
2. Water Vapour
3. Melting Permafrost
4. Forest Fires
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Natural Causes of Global Warming
• Volcanoes: Volcanoes are one of the
most significant natural contributors to
global warming. The ash and smoke
emitted by volcanic eruptions enter the
atmosphere and affect the climate.
• Water Vapour: Water vapour is a type
of greenhouse gas. As the earth's
temperature rises, more water
evaporates from bodies of water and
enters the atmosphere, contributing to
global warming.
• Melting Permafrost: Permafrost is
frozen soil that has been trapped in it
for several years and is found beneath
the Earth's surface. It can be found in
glaciers. As permafrost melts, gases are
released back into the atmosphere,
raising Earth's temperature.
• Forest Fires: Forest fires emit a large
amount of carbon-containing smoke.
These gases are released into the
atmosphere and raise the temperature
of the Earth, resulting in global
warming.
40. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with respect to Coral reefs?
A. Fringing Reef is a coral platform
attached to a continental coast or an
island
B. The most famous example of barrier
reef is the Great Barrier Reef
C. Atolls are far more common in the
Pacific than any other ocean.
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Fringing Reef is
a coral platform attached to a
continental coast or an island
• Statement 2 is correct: The most
famous example of barrier reef is the
Great Barrier Reef
• Statement 3 is correct: Atolls are far
more common in the Pacific than any
other ocean.
Additional Information:
Fringing Reef
• It is by far the most common of the
three major types of coral reefs.
• It is a coral platform attached to a
continental coast or an island,
sometimes separated by a narrow,
shallow lagoon or channel.
• A fringing reef runs as a narrow belt,
0.5 km to 2.5 km wide.
• This type of reef grows from the deep
sea bottom with the seaward side
sloping steeply into the deep sea.
• Coral polyps do not extend outwards
because of sudden and large increases
in depth.
• The surface of a fringing reef is rough,
as it is covered with coral remains
forming a boulder zone or reef flat.
Barrier Reef
 • This is the largest of the three reefs,
runs for hundreds of kilometres and is
several kilometres wide.
• It extends as a broken, irregular ring
around the coast, or an island, running
almost parallel to it.
• A barrier reef is characterized by the
distant location of the reef from the
coast with a broader and deeper
lagoon, which is sometimes joined
with the seawater through one or more
channels cutting across the barrier reef.
• A barrier reef is very thick, going even
below 180 metres from the surface with
the seaward side sloping steeply into
the deep sea. The surface of a barrier
reef is covered with coral debris,
boulders, and sand.
• The most famous example of this type
of reef is the Great Barrier Reef off the
coast of northeastern Australia, which
is 1900 km long and 160 km wide.
Atolls
• It is a ring-like reef, which, partly or
completely, encloses a lagoon. The
lagoon may have a level surface, but
the seaward side of the reef slopes
steeply into the deep sea.
• The lagoon has a depth of 80-150
metres and may be joined with
seawater through a number of
channels cutting across the reef.
• Atolls are located at great distances
from deep-sea platforms, where the
submarine features may help in
formation of atolls, such as a
submerged island or a volcanic cone
which may reach a level suitable for
coral growth.
• Atolls are far more common in the
Pacific than any other ocean. The Fiji
atoll and the Funafuti atoll in the Ellice
Island are well-known examples of
atolls. A large number of atolls also
occur in the Lakshadweep islands.
• In the South Pacific, most atolls occur
in mid-ocean. Examples of this reef
type are common in French Polynesia,
the Caroline and Marshall Islands,
Micronesia, and the Cook Islands.
• The Indian Ocean also contains
numerous atoll formations. Examples
are found in the Maldives and Chagos
island groups, the Seychelles, and in
the Cocos Island group.
41. Consider the following statements:
1. Dry deposition results in the return of
around half of the atmosphere's acidity
to the planet.
2. Acid rain containing ions of sulfate,
nitrate, ammonium and hydrogen falls
as wet deposition.
3. Rainwater is naturally slightly acidic
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
 • Statement 1 is correct: Dry deposition
results in the return of around half of
the atmosphere's acidity to the planet.
• Statement 2 is correct: Acid rain
containing ions of sulfate, nitrate,
ammonium and hydrogen falls as wet
deposition.
• Statement 3 is correct: CO and CO2
react with rainwater to form weak
carbonic acid. Hence, rainwater is
naturally slightly acidic. But this is not
enough to call it acid rain (acid rain
must have a pH of less than 5.6). Even
increased concentration of CO and
CO2 is not enough to cause rainwater
of pH less than 5.6. Only NIOS (10.3.2
Gaseous pollutants > Table 10.3 – Page
167) mentions N2O (nitrous oxide).
42. Consider the following statements with
reference to Global Warming Potential
(GWP):
1. Gasses with a higher GWP absorb
more energy per pound than gasses
with a lower GWP, contributing more
to global warming.
2. CO2 has a GWP of 1
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Gases with a
higher GWP absorb more energy per
pound than gases with a lower GWP,
contributing more to global warming.
• Statement 2 is correct: CO2 has a GWP
of 1. Other gases are affected by the gas
and the time frame.
Additional Information:
What is Global Warming Potential?
• The global warming potential (GWP) is
the heat absorbed by any greenhouse
gas in the atmosphere expressed as a
multiple of the heat absorbed by the
same mass of carbon dioxide (CO2).
• The global warming potential of each
gas describes its impact on global
warming.
• In terms of climate impact, the two
most important characteristics of a
GHG are:
o how well the gas absorbs
energy (preventing it from
immediately escaping to space);
o how long the gas remains in the
atmosphere.
• The Global Warming Potential (GWP)
of a gas is a measure of how much
energy a gas absorbs over a specific
time period (usually 100 years) when
compared to carbon dioxide.
• Gases with a higher GWP absorb more
energy per pound than gases with a
lower GWP, contributing more to
global warming.
• CO2 has a GWP of 1. Other gases are
affected by the gas and the time frame.
• GWP is used to calculate carbon
dioxide equivalent. The mass of CO2
 would warm the earth as much as the
mass of any other gas.
• As a result, it provides a common scale
for assessing the climate effects of
various gases. It is calculated as GWP
times the mass of the other gas.
43. Consider the following statements:
1. Primary pollutants are directly emitted
into the air from the Earth’s surface.
2. Secondary pollutants react chemically
in the atmosphere to form other
compounds.
Which of the above statements given is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above.
Answer: - D
Explanation:
• The examples of both the types of
pollutants are interchanged.
• Primary pollutants: These are
persistent in the form in which they are
added to the environment, e.g. DDT,
plastic, CO, CO2, oxides of nitrogen
and sulphur, etc.
• Secondary Pollutants: These are
formed by interaction among the
primary pollutants. For example,
peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is formed
by the interaction of nitrogen oxides
and hydrocarbons.
44. Consider the following statements with
respect to Carbon Monoxide:
1. It is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, and
highly toxic gas.
2. It is short-lived in the atmosphere.
3. It is produced from the exhaust of
internal combustion engines and from
incomplete combustion of various
other fuels.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above.
Answer: - D
Explanation:
All of the above are correct.
Carbon monoxide (CO)
• Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless,
odourless, tasteless and highly toxic
gas that is slightly less dense than air.
It is short-lived (stay only a few
months) in the atmosphere.
• Carbon monoxide is produced from
the exhaust of internal combustion
engines and incomplete combustion of
various other fuels. Iron smelting also
produces carbon monoxide as a by-
product.
• It forms when there is not enough
oxygen to produce carbon dioxide
(CO2).
• In the presence of oxygen, carbon
monoxide burns with a blue flame,
producing carbon dioxide.
 • Worldwide, the largest source of
carbon monoxide is natural in origin,
due to photochemical reactions in the
troposphere.
45. Consider the following statements with
respect to Nitrate poisoning:
1. Methemoglobinemia is caused by the
decreased ability of blood to carry vital
oxygen around the body.
2. One of the most common causes is
nitrate in drinking water.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above.
Answer: - C
Explanation:
• Methemoglobinemia is caused by the
decreased ability of blood to carry vital
oxygen around the body. One of the
most common causes is nitrate in
drinking water. It is most important in
bottle-fed infants and water from wells
in rural areas is of special concern.
46. Which of the following is/are emitted
from coal combustion at thermal power
plants – (PYQ)
1. Carbon Dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Select the correct code from the options given
below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above.
Answer: - D
Explanation:
All of the above are the result of coal
combustion at thermal power plants.
Pollution from Coal-Based Thermal Power
Stations
• Coal-based thermal power stations
contribute over half sulphur dioxide
(SO2), 30% oxides of nitrogen (NOx),
about 20% particulate matter (PM), etc.
Persistent burning of coal in thermal
power stations and a delay in
implementation of latest carbon
capture storage technology are among
major reasons of air pollution in India.
47. How is the National Green Tribunal
(NGT) different from the Central Pollution
Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an
Act whereas the CPCB has been
created by the executive order of the
government.
2. The NGT provides environmental
justice and helps reduce the burden of
litigation in the higher courts whereas
the CPCB promotes cleanliness of
streams and wells, and aims to
improve the quality of air in the
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (2018)
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - B
Explanation:
• The National Green Tribunal has been
established on 18 October, 2010 under
the National Green Tribunal Act 2010
for effective and expeditious disposal
of cases relating to environmental
protection and conservation of forests
and other natural resources including
enforcement of any legal right relating
to environment and giving relief and
compensation for damages to persons
and property and for matters
connected therewith or incidental
thereto.
• The Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) of India is a statutory
organisation under the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC). It was established
in 1974 under the Water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. A
function of CPCB comes under both
national level and as State Boards for
the Union Territories.
48. Phytoremediation refers to the
A. Process of decomposition of organic matter
present in water by microorganisms using
oxygen.
B. Use of plants to remove contaminants from
soil and water.
C. Process of enhancing the degradation
process with the help of light.
D. Processing of contaminated solid material
or water through an engineered
containment system.
Answer: - B
Explanation:
Statement B is correct.
Additional Information
• Phytoremediation is a bioremediation
process that uses various types of
plants to remove, transfer, stabilize,
and/or destroy contaminants in the
soil and groundwater.
There are several different types of
phytoremediation mechanisms. These are:
• Rhizosphere biodegradation: In this
process, the plant releases natural
substances through its roots,
supplying nutrients to
microorganisms in the soil. The
microorganisms enhance biological
degradation.
• Phyto-stabilization: In this process,
chemical compounds produced by the
plant immobilize contaminants, rather
than degrade them.
• Phyto-accumulation (also called
phyto-extraction): In this process,
plant roots absorb the contaminants
along with other nutrients and water.
The contaminant mass is not destroyed
but ends up in the plant shoots and
leaves. This method is used primarily
for wastes containing metals.
 • Phyto-volatilization: In this process,
plants take up water containing
organic contaminants and release the
contaminants into the air through their
leaves.
• Phyto-degradation: In this process,
plants actually metabolize and destroy
contaminants within plant tissues.
49. Which of the following are the methods
of Sewage Water Treatment for Domestic
Use?
1. Coagulation
2. Disinfection
3. Fluoridation
4. Sedimentation
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: - D
Explanation:
• Coagulation, Disinfection,
Fluoridation and Sedimentation are
methods of sewage Water Treatment
for Domestic Use.
Additional Info
Sewage Water Treatment for Domestic Use
• Substances that are removed during
the process of drinking water
treatment include suspended solids,
bacteria, algae, viruses, fungi, and
minerals such as iron and manganese.
• The processes involved in removing
the contaminants include physical
processes such as settling and
filtration, chemical processes such as
disinfection and coagulation and
biological processes such as slow sand
filtration.
Coagulation / Flocculation
• Aluminium sulphate (alum) is the
most common coagulant used for
water purification.
• Other chemicals, such as ferric
sulphate or sodium aluminate, may
also be used.
• During coagulation, liquid aluminium
sulfate (alum) is added to untreated
water.
• This causes the tiny particles of dirt in
the water to stick together or
coagulate.
• Next, groups of dirt particles stick
together to form larger particles called
flocs.
• Flocs are easier to remove by settling or
filtration.
Sedimentation
• As the water and the floc particles
progress through the treatment
process, they move into sedimentation
basins where the water moves slowly,
causing the heavy floc particles to
settle to the bottom.
• Floc which collects on the bottom of
the basin is called sludge and is piped
to drying lagoons.
 • In Direct Filtration, the sedimentation
step is not included, and the floc is
removed by filtration only.
Filtration
• Water flows through a filter designed
to remove particles in the water. The
filters are made of layers of sand and
gravel, and in some cases, crushed
anthracite.
• Filtration collects the suspended
impurities in water and enhances the
effectiveness of disinfection. The filters
are routinely cleaned by backwashing.
Disinfection
• Water is disinfected before it enters the
distribution system to ensure that any
disease-causing bacteria, viruses, and
parasites are destroyed.
• Chlorine is used because it is a very
effective disinfectant, and residual
concentrations can be maintained to
guard against possible biological
contamination in the water
distribution system.
• The addition of chlorine or chlorine
compounds to drinking water is called
chlorination.
• Chlorine can combine with certain
naturally occurring organic
compounds in water to produce
chloroform and other potentially
harmful by-products.
• The risk of this is very small, however,
when chlorine is applied after
coagulation, sedimentation, and
filtration.
• Ozone gas may also be used for
disinfection of drinking water.
However, since ozone is unstable, it
cannot be stored and must be
produced on-site, making the process
more expensive than chlorination.
• Ozone has the advantage of not
causing taste or odour problems. It also
leaves no residue in the disinfected
water.
• The lack of an ozone residue, however,
makes it difficult to monitor its
continued effectiveness as water flows
through the distribution system.
Fluoridation
• Water fluoridation is the treatment of
community water supplies for the
purpose of adjusting the concentration
of the free fluoride ion to the optimum
level sufficient to reduce dental caries.
• Fluoride is generally present in all
natural water. Its concentration up to a
certain level is not harmful. Beyond
that level, the bones start
disintegrating. This disease is called
fluorosis.
• We have fluoride problem in many
parts of our country. Bureau of Indian
Standards prescribes 1.0 mg/l as
desirable and 1.5 mg/l as a maximum
permissible limit for drinking water.
• Defluoridation at domestic level can be
carried out by mixing water for
treatment with an adequate amount of
aluminium sulphate (alum) solution,
lime or sodium carbonate and
bleaching powder depending upon its
alkalinity (concentration of
bicarbonates and carbonates in water)
and fluoride contents.

50. Consider the following statements:
1. Biological Oxygen Demand is the amount
of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in
decomposing the organic wastes present in
water.
2. Chemical Oxygen Demand is the amount
of oxygen required to oxidize organic and
oxidizable inorganic compounds in the
water sample.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above.
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Both the statements are correct.
• Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
o It is the amount of oxygen that is
dissolved and consumed by biological
organisms when they decompose
organic matters in water bodies.
o Biological oxygen demand is
essentially a measure of the amount of
oxygen required to remove waste
organic matter from water in the
process of decomposition by aerobic
bacteria.
o Main sources of BOD are: leaves and
woody debris; dead plants and
animals; animal manure; effluents
from pulp and paper mills, wastewater
treatment plants, feedlots, and food-
processing plants; failing septic
systems; and urban storm water runoff
etc.
o Higher BOD indicates more oxygen is
required, signifying lower water
quality. Low BOD means less oxygen is
being removed from water, so the
water is usually more pure.
• Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is the
amount of oxygen that is consumed when
a water sample is chemically oxidised.
• The difference between BOD and COD is:
COD or Chemical Oxygen Demand is the
total measurement of all chemicals
(organics & in-organics) in the water,
whereas, BOD is a measure of, the amount
of oxygen that require for the bacteria to
degrade the organic components present
in water.
51. Consider the following statements with
respect to Microplastics:
1. These are plastic pieces of fiber, which are
very small, generally measuring less than
1mm.
2. They have the ability to spread easily and
provide silky texture and colors to the
product.
3. They are non-biodegradable and flow
through sewers to seas and oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above.
Answer: - D
Explanation: expressing the relative intensity of sound on a
scale from 0 to 130.
• Microplastics are plastic particles less than
5mm in diameter. • Noise is unwanted sound and has become a
part of urban life and industrial centres in this
• Primary Microplastics: They are tiny
century. Noise pollution may come from
particles designed for commercial use and
loudspeakers, factories, aeroplanes, moving
microfibers shed from clothing and other
trains, construction activity or even a radio.
textiles. E.g. microbeads found in personal
care products, plastic pellets and plastic • Noise level of 80 decibels or more for more than
fibres. 8 hours a day increases tension and changes in
breathing patterns. Continued exposure to
• Secondary Microplastics: They are formed
high levels of noise results in fatigue, hearing
from the breakdown of larger plastics such
loss or even total loss of hearing, changes in
as water bottles.
blood circulation, changes in breathing, etc.
• Noise pollution above 120 decibels can cause
52. Which of the following methods can be
many adverse biochemical changes.
used to control noise pollution?
Cholesterol levels in the blood and white cell
1. To enforce acoustic zoning by distancing counts increase, besides causing hypertension.
human settlements from industrial areas,
aerodromes and railway stations.
53. Consider the following statements with
2. Silence zones should be created for respect to Indicator species:
educational institutes, hospitals and
1. Lichens Indicate high oxygen
important offices.
content in water.
3. Sound-proof chambers should be installed
2. Stoneflies indicate low air pollution.
for the machines generating loud noise.
Select the correct code: 3. Mosses indicate acidic soils.

A. 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
B. 2 and 3 only
A. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 only
Answer: - D
D. 2 and 3
Explanation:
Answer: - C
All the statements are correct.
Explanation:
• Noise pollution is a serious threat to the quality
Statement 1 and 2 are interchanged.
of man's environment. Noise, by definition, is
over-loud or disturbing sound.Sound levels are • Lichens – indicate low air pollution
measured in decibels (dB). It is a unit for
• Stoneflies –Indicate high oxygen content
 in water.
• Mosses – indicate acidic soils.
54. Consider the following statements with
respect to these toxic gases:
1. Sulfur dioxide inhibits photosynthesis by
disrupting the photosynthetic mechanism.
2. NOx gases react to form smog and acid rain
as well as being central to the formation of
tropospheric ozone.
3. Ozone may cause inhibition of CO2
acquisition when water supplies are
adequate,
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above.
Answer: - D
Explanation:
• All are correct.
Acid Rain
• Acid rain is the rain that has been acidified,
with a pH less than 5.6.
• Excessive amounts of sulfur and nitrogen
released by cars and industrial processes get
mixed with rain and result in precipitation that
is highly acidic.
• These pollutants react with water vapours
present in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid
and nitric acid respectively.
• Sulfur and Nitrogen particles may be released
in the atmosphere due to anthropogenic causes
or by natural causes.
• Anthropogenic causes include industrial
emissions, burning of fossil fuels such as diesel
and coal, incineration of garbage, production of
paper.
• Natural causes could be release of sulfur
during volcanic eruptions or nitrogen ions
released in the atmosphere during a lightning
strike. The chemical reaction occurs in the
presence of lightning to form the nitric oxide.
This further reacts with oxygen to form
nitrogen dioxide.
• Furthermore, ozone, some other organic acids
like formic and acetic acids also contribute to 5-
20% acidity in total acid rain.
55.Consider the following with reference to
Biomagnification:
1. It can be defined as the rise or increase in
the contaminated substances caused by the
intoxicating environment.
2. Pollutant must be soluble in fats and
biologically active.
3. Bio-magnification makes humans more
prone to cancer, kidney problems, and liver
failure.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: - C
Explanation:
All of the above statements are correct.
• Bio-magnification can be defined as the
rise or increase in the contaminated
substances caused by the intoxicating
 environment. The contaminants might be consultation with IIT-Kanpur and an expert
heavy metals such as mercury, arsenic, group comprising medical and air-quality
and pesticides such as polychlorinated professionals.
biphenyls and DDT.
• These substances are taken up by the
organisms through the food they
consume. When the organisms in the
higher food chain feed on the organisms in
the lower food chain containing these
toxins, these toxins get accumulated in the
higher organisms.

56. Which of the following are correct with

respect to National Air Quality Index?
57. Consider the following points about
1. It was launched by the Environment
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
Ministry under the Swachh Bharat
initiative. 1. It is a short-term, time-bound programme
to eliminate air pollution.
2. It helps the common man to judge the air
quality within his vicinity. 2. It aims at 20% to 30% reduction of PM2.5
and PM10 concentration levels by 2024,
3. It has been developed by the National
with 2020 as the base for concentration
Green Tribunal.
levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. State-specific plans are part of the
below.
programme.
A. 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
B. 2 and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above.
C. 1 and 3 only
Answer: - A
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Answer: - D
• The measurement of air quality is based on
Explanation:
eight pollutants, namely: Particulate Matter
(PM10), Particulate Matter (PM2.5), Nitrogen • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of
Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), launched the NCAP in January 2019. NCAP
and Lead (Pb). aims to:

• It has been developed by the CPCB in o prepare comprehensive mitigation actions

 for prevention, control and abatement of air
pollution,
o augment the air quality monitoring
network and strengthen awareness
activities. It is a long-term, time-bound,
national level strategy to tackle air
pollution problem across the country in a
comprehensive manner with targets to
achieve 20% to 30% reduction in Particulate
Matter concentrations (PM 2.5 and PM 10)
by 2024 (with 2017 as base year).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: (NCAP) is a long-term,
time-bound, national level strategy to tackle air
pollution problem across the country in a
comprehensive manner with targets to achieve
20% to 30% reduction in Particulate Matter
concentrations (PM 2.5 and PM 10) by 2024
(with 2017 as base year).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: City-specific action
plans are to be formulated for the 102
nonattainment cities identified by CPCB. The
city action plans have been prepared to control
specific air pollution sources through
multidimensional actions by bringing several
implementation agencies together. Expansion
of ambient air quality network, source
apportionment studies, public awareness,
grievance redressal mechanism and sector
specific action points are part of these action
plans.
58. Consider the following with reference to
Flue Gas Desulphurization:
1. It is a set of technologies used to remove
Sulphur dioxide from fossil-fuel power
plants.
2. It can use various methods like wet
scrubbers, spray dry system or dry
injection system.
3. At present vast majority of coal-based
power plants do not possess this
technology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: - C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct as it a set of
technologies used to remove Sulphur
dioxide from fossil-fuel power plants.
• Statement 2 is correct as Flue gas
Desulphurization can use various
methods like wet scrubbers, spray dry
system or dry injection system.
• Statement 3 is correct as at present.
59. Consider the following:
1. Bio-sparging—is a process of stimulating
the natural in situ biodegradation of
contaminants in soil by providing air or
oxygen to existing soil microorganisms.
2. Bio-venting—is an in-situ remediation
technology that uses indigenous
microorganisms to biodegrade organic
constituents in the saturated zone.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - D
Explanation:
Both the statements are incorrect as they are
interchanged.
• Bio-venting is a process of stimulating the
natural in situ biodegradation of contaminants
in soil by providing air or oxygen to existing
soil microorganisms. Bio-Venting uses low air
flow rates to provide only enough oxygen to
sustain microbial activity in the vadose zone.
• Bio-sparging is an in-situ remediation
technology that uses indigenous
microorganisms to biodegrade organic
constituents in the saturated zone. In
biosparging, air (or oxygen) and nutrients (if
needed) are injected into the saturated zone to
increase the biological activity of the
indigenous microorganisms
60. Which of the following is/are non-
biodegradable organic pollutants?
1. DDT
2. Plastics
3. Aldehydes
4. Detergents
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation
Non-biodegradable organic pollutants
• These are the organic materials which are
resistant to biological degradation.
• Most of these are synthetic organics, which are
of high concern.
• Some naturally occurring organic compounds
biodegrade so slowly that they are considered
refractory.
• For example, lignic acid, tannic acid, cellulose,
and many of the organics associated with
petroleum.
• Pesticides (DDT, aldrin, dieldrin, endrin,
endosulfan, lindane, toxaphene, mirex,
heptachlor etc.), polychlorinated biphenyls
(PCB’s), polyaromatic hydrocarbons (PAH’s),
plastics, dioxins, furans, phenols, dyes,
detergents etc.
Additional Info
Chemical pollutants can further be divided into
Organic pollutants and Inorganic pollutants.
Organic pollutants
• Organic pollutants are the compounds that
contain carbon atoms in them and mainly of
biological origin.
• These are the oxygen depleting substances in
water. They are carried to the water course
from different sources like sewage, animal and
human excreta, refineries,
• distillery, pulp and paper industry, tanneries,
dairy industry, textile industry, slaughter
houses etc.
• BOD and COD is a common indicator of high
organic content of wastewater.
• The organic pollutants could be further
subdivided into two.
Biodegradable organic pollutants
• These are the organic materials which can be
easily degraded by microorganisms.
• Most of the naturally occurring organic
 compounds (originated from plants and
animals) are biodegradable.
• Examples: Proteins, fats, carbohydrates,
alcohols, acids, aldehydes, esters, soaps etc.
Inorganic pollutants
• Inorganic pollutants include inorganic acids,
alkalis, salts, anions, cations, free chlorine,
ammonia etc.
• They are added as a result of industrial
effluents, sewage, household cleansers and
surface run-off from urban and agricultural
fields etc.
• They affect the physical and chemical quality of
water.
61. Consider the following statements
regarding difference Between BS-IV and
BS-VI norms:
1. In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges
from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre
whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120
micrograms per cubic metre.
2. BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content
by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
• Both the statements are correct.
Additional Info
Bharat Stage Emission Standards
• The Bharat Stage (BS) are emission standards
instituted by the Government of India to
regulate the output of air pollutants from
motor vehicles.
• The Environment Ministry is responsible for
deciding the fuel standard in the country. The
Central Pollution Control Board implements
these standards.
• The BS regulations are based on the European
emission standards.
• Companies can come up with new vehicles
with BS VI fuel standards even before the April
2020 deadline. But after the deadline, vehicles
that do not comply with BS VI standards will
not be registered.
• With the implementation of new norms,
pollution levels are expected to come down
significantly as the particulate matter (PM) will
decrease. About one-third of the air pollution is
caused by cars and motor vehicles.
Advantages of BS-VI fuel Over BS-IV Fuel
• In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from
20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre whereas
in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per
cubic metre.
• BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by
5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10
ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.
o Sulphur in the fuel contributes to fine
particulate matter emissions. High sulphur
content in the fuel also leads to corrosion
and wear of the automobile engine.
• With BS-VI fuel, for every one kilometre, a car
will emit 80% less particulate matter and nearly
70% less nitrogen oxide.
• Air pollutants in BS-VI fuel are much less as
compared to BS-IV fuel.
• BS-VI norms also seek to reduce the level of
certain harmful hydrocarbons in the emissions
that are produced due to incomplete
combustion of fuel.
62. Which among the following statements
is/are correct in context to the effect of
eutrophication on ecosystem:
1. Increase in algal growth
2. Increase in dissolved oxygen
3. Decrease in Biological oxygen demand
4. Shift in species composition
Select the correct answer code:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2,3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Answer: - D
Explanation:
What is Eutrophication?
• Eutrophication is a process driven by the
enrichment of water by nutrients, especially
compounds of nitrogen and/or phosphorus,
leading to:
o Increased growth
o Primary production and biomass of algae
o Changes in the balance of organisms
o Water quality degradation.
• The consequences of eutrophication are
undesirable if they appreciably degrade
ecosystem health and biodiversity and/or the
sustainable provision of goods and services.
Primary Impacts
• Algal growth in marine waters is regulated by
the level of nitrogen and phosphorous and to a
lesser extent other inorganic compounds.
• Eutrophication leads to an increased algal
growth (because the level of nutrients
increases).
• It can lead to a shift in species composition to
fast growing algae species (including toxic
species) and a shift from long lived macroalgae
to more nuisance species.
Secondary Impacts
• The reduced amount of sunlight received by
bottom waters can lead to the reduction in the
depth distribution of macroalgae and sea
grasses.
• Increased decomposition of organic matter
(dead algae) can lead to oxygen deficiency in
bottom waters. Lowered oxygen
concentrations can then impact the fish and
benthic fauna (animals living on the bottom of
the sea or a lake), which either flee or die from
the area.
• In the end, eutrophication can cause a shift in
the biodiversity and ecosystem balance.
63. The Objective of Stockholm convention
is to protect human health from Persistent
Organic Pollutants (POPs). Which of the
following statements is/are correct in context
to POPs?
1. They are highly toxic.
2. They do not degrade into less toxic form.
3. They can travel long distance through air &
water
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: - C
The Stockholm Convention
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic
Pollutants is an international environmental
treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from May
2004.
• POPs is a global treaty to protect human health
and the environment from the potentially
harmful effects of POPs.
• Parties to the Convention will take measures to
control/restrict the trade, domestic production
and use of intentionally produced POPs, and
to reduce, and where possible to ultimately
eliminate, the production and release
of unintentionally produced POPs by-
products.
• The convention listed 12 POPs as ‘dirty dozen’.
Initially, twelve POPs have been recognized as
causing adverse effects on humans and the
ecosystem and these can be placed in 3 categories:
• Pesticides:
o aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin,
heptachlor, hexachlorobenzene, mirex,
toxaphene
• Industrial Chemicals:
o Hexachlorobenzene, polychlorinated
biphenyls (PCBs)
• By products:
o hexachlorobenzene; polychlorinated
dibenzo-p-dioxins and polychlorinated
dibenzofurans (PCDD/PCDF), and PCBs.
POPs
• Persistent Organic Pollutants are a group of
toxic chemicals widely used as pesticides
and/or industrial chemicals.
These chemicals share four common properties:
• They are highly toxic
• They are persistent, lasting for years or even
decades in the environment before degrading
into less toxic forms
• They travel long distances through the air
and/or water
• They accumulate in the fatty tissues of people
and the wildlife.
64. Among the following which is the best
description of a Carbon negative company?
A. It removes as much carbon dioxide from
the atmosphere as they contribute.
B. It removes more CO2 from the atmosphere
than it contributes.
C. It releases more CO2 to the atmosphere
than it removes.
D. It balance the whole amount of greenhouse
gas released and the amount removed from
the atmosphere.
Answer: - B
Explanation:
• Carbon neutral means that an entity removes
as much carbon dioxide from the atmosphere
as they contribute.
• Carbon-negative means that an entity removes
more CO2 from the atmosphere than it
contributes.
• Carbon negative means the same thing as
“climate positive.”
• Net-Zero carbon emissions mean that an
activity releases net-zero carbon emissions into
the atmosphere.
• Net-Zero emissions balance the whole amount
of greenhouse gas (GHG) released and the
amount removed from the atmosphere.
65. Volcanoes might seem like nature’s
incinerators that can burn garbage. Why
don’t we throw all our trash into a volcano
and burn it up?
1. The temperature of volcanoes is not as high
as waste incinerators.
2. Dumping trash into active lava lakes can
cause an explosion.
3. It will supress release of toxic gases from
volcano which leads to groundwater
pollution.
4. It’s not hot enough to melt many common
materials like steel, nickel and iron
Select the correct answer using codes:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1,2 and 3 only
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Why can’t we throw all our trash into a volcano
and burn it up?
• It’s true that lava is hot enough to burn up
some of our trash. When Kilauea erupted on
the Big island of Hawaii in 2018, the lava flows
were hotter than 2,000 degrees Fahrenheit
(1,100 Celsius).
• That’s hotter than the surface of the planet
Venus and hot enough to melt many rocks. It’s
also as hot as waste incinerators, which usually
burn garbage at 1,800 to 2,200 F (1,000-1,200 C).
• But not all lavas are the same temperature.
Beyond temperature, there are other good reasons
not to burn our trash in volcanoes.
• First, although lava at 2,000 degrees F can melt
many materials in our trash — including food
scraps, paper, plastics, glass and some
metals — it’s not hot enough to melt many
other common materials, including steel,
nickel and iron
• Second, there aren’t many volcanoes on Earth
that have lava lakes, or bowl-like craters full of
lava, that we could dump trash into. Of all of
the thousands of volcanoes on Earth, scientists
know of only eight with active lava lakes
• If rocks or other materials fall onto the surface
of a lava lake, they will break the crust, disrupt
the underlying lava and cause an explosion.
• Finally, many indigenous communities view
nearby volcanoes as sacred places.
• For example, Halema’uma’u crater at Kilauea
is considered the home of Pele, the native
Hawaiian goddess of fire and the area around
the crater is sacred to native Hawaiians.
Throwing trash into volcanoes would be a
huge insult to those cultures.
66. Fluoride poisoning is a major concern in
in few regions of India, which among the
following step can provide appropriate
solution to it:
1. Promote use of ground water and restrict
use of surface water
2. Ban use of leafy vegetables and promote
use of pulses .
3. Promote fluoride free tooth pastes
throughout India
Select the correct answer code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
Answer-D
Explanation
Fluoride has poisoned agricultural soil, crops in
Bengal
• Recently new study has pointed out how crops
and vegetables that use fluoride-contaminated
groundwater have been contributing to an
increase in consumption of fluoride among
locals.
Key findings
• West Bengal has been grappling with
groundwater contamination for decades.
• About 12 per cent of the population in eight of
the state’s 23 districts is impacted by water
contaminated by fluoride.
• The contamination is higher in western parts of
the state such as Purulia and Bankura.
• Groundwater in Purulia and Bankura is
already known to be fluoride-contaminated, as
it crosses the desirable limit of 1.5 milligram
per litres of concentration as per the World
Health Organization standards.
• The study found that the accumulation of
fluoride was higher in leafy and non-leafy
vegetables than in pulses and cereals from both
districts.
• The maximum accumulation was found in
onion, while being minimum in rice.
• It also found that children were the most
vulnerable to fluoride contamination due to
their low body weight.
• Fluoride is not carcinogenic like arsenic. It
attacks the calcium in the body
Causes
• Contaminated water, therefore, is being used
to cultivate crops for years due to the lack of
government intervention.
• The concentration of fluoride in groundwater
above the permissible level is, therefore, a
factor that contributes to the accumulation of
fluoride in agricultural soil and crops
There are three stages to fluoride toxicity:
• First, the groundwater used for agricultural
purposes deposits a good amount of fluoride in
the soil.
• This fluoride is absorbed by crops
• It enters the food chain system, causing harm
to the human body.
Impact
• Fluoride is an essential micronutrient and has
both beneficial and detrimental effects on
human health.
• However, exposure to high levels of fluoride
causes dental fluorosis, skeletal fluorosis and
non-skeletal fluorosis.
• Ligaments calcification, liver and kidney
dysfunction, nerve weakness, developmental
 disorder, organ tissue damage, bending of legs, C. 3 only
weakness, anemia, depression, gastrointestinal D. All of the above
problems, loss of appetite, and brittle bone
problems in children are some of the Answer: A
commonly seen health issues Explanation
Steps Detergent footprint
• To address the fluoride menace, the West Impact of detergent
Bengal government introduced a Fluoride Task Nonylphenol, a hazardous chemical
Force Committee.
• It is present in detergents, is known to enter
• The committee, in collaboration with UNICEF, water bodies and the food chains.
has distributed filtering devices to households
• It bio-accumulates and can pose serious
in these districts. These devices filter at least 20
environmental and health risks.
liters of drinking water.
• It has been detected in human breast milk,
• Nano technology and electro-coagulation
blood and urine, and is associated with
methods can be used to filter out the
reproductive and developmental effects in
contaminated water.
rodents
• Surface water resources are important. We
Phosphate salts
need to focus on rainwater harvesting, so that
there is minimum dependence on groundwater • Many laundry detergents contain
approximately 35 to 75 per cent phosphate
• Water pipelines need to be installed in affected
salts.
areas to provide large scale water supply.
• Phosphates can cause a variety of water
pollution problems. For example,
67. Consider the following statements phosphate tends to inhibit the
regarding consequences of detergent biodegradation of organic substances.
footprint:
• Non-biodegradable substances cannot be
1. It bio-accumulates and can pose serious eliminated by public or private
environmental and health risks. wastewater treatment
2. Phosphate based detergents tends to • Some phosphate-based detergents can also
inhibit the biodegradation of organic cause eutrophication.
substances.
• Phosphate-enrichment can cause the water
3. High concentration of detergent kills fishes body to become choked with algae and
whereas fish eggs are unharmed due to other plants.
their solid layer.
• Eutrophication deprives the water of
Select the correct answer code:
available oxygen, causing the death of
A. 1 and 2 only other organisms.
B. 2 and 3 only
 • In Belgium, phosphates are restricted for
use in household detergents since 2003.
Other
• Detergents are capable of destroying the
external mucus layers that protect
the fish from bacteria and parasites,
causing severe damage to the gills.
• Mostly fish diewhen detergent concentrat
ions are near 15 parts per million (ppm);
however, detergent concentrations as low
as 5 ppm will kill fish eggs
• Turbidity also clogs the respiratory system
of some species of fishes.
• Detergents also contain oxygen-reducing
substances (ie, a chemical compound that
readily transfer oxygen atoms) that may
cause severe damage to the fishes and
other marine animals
Standards
• The Bureau of Indian Statistics (BIS) has
set the standard of phenolic compounds in
drinking water {0.001 milligram per litre
(mg/L)} and surface water (5.0 mg/L).
• The detergents contain suspected
carcinogens, and ingredients that do not
fully biodegrade.
68. Consider the following statements with
reference to Bioethanol:
1. It is derived from corn and sugarcane using
fermentation process.
2. A litre of ethanol contains approximately
two thirds of the energy provided by a litre
of petrol.
3. When mixed with petrol, it improves
combustion performance and lowers the
emissions of carbon monoxide and sulphur
oxide.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is derived from corn
and sugarcane using fermentation process.
• Statement 2 is correct: A litre of ethanol
contains approximately two thirds of the
energy provided by a litre of petrol.
• Statement 3 is correct: When mixed with petrol,
it improves combustion performance and
lowers the emissions of carbon monoxide and
sulphur oxide.
69. Consider the following statements:
1. Methanol is a low carbon, hydrogen
carrier fuel produced from high ash
coal
2. 'Methanol Economy' programme is
aimed at reducing India's oil import
bill
3. Methanol is the best pathway for
meeting India’s commitment to COP
21.
4. Di-methyl Ether, a derivative of
methanol can be blended with LPG
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
 C. 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Methanol is a low
carbon, hydrogen carrier fuel produced from
high ash coal
• Statement 2 is correct:'Methanol Economy'
programme is aimed at reducing India's oil
import bill
• Statement 3 is correct: Methanol is the best
pathway for meeting India’s commitment to
COP 21.
• Statement 4 is correct: Di-methyl Ether, a
derivative of methanol can be blended with
LPG
• Methanol is a low carbon, hydrogen carrier fuel
produced from high ash coal, agricultural
residue, CO2 from thermal power plants and
natural gas. It is the best pathway for meeting
India’s commitment to COP 21.
• NITI Aayog's 'Methanol Economy'
programme is aimed at reducing India's oil
import bill, greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions,
and converting coal reserves and municipal
solid waste into methanol.
• Although slightly lower in energy content
• than petrol and diesel, methanol can replace
both these fuels in the transport sector (road,
rail and marine), energy sector (comprising DG
sets, boilers, process heating modules, tractors
and commercial vehicles) and retail cooking
(replacing LPG [partially], kerosene and wood
charcoal).
• Blending of 15% methanol in gasoline can
result in at least 15% reduction in the import of
gasoline/crude oil. In addition, this would
bring down GHG emissions by 20% in terms of
particulate matter, NOx, and SOx, thereby
improving the urban air quality.
• Methanol Economy will also create close to 5
million jobs through methanol
production/application and distribution
services. Additionally, Rs 6000 crore can be
saved annually by blending 20% DME (Di-
methyl Ether, a derivative of methanol) in LPG.
This will help the consumer in saving between
Rs 50-100 per cylinder.
70. Which of the following is/are the Impact of
E20 as a Fuel?
1. The use of E20 as fuel reduces carbon
monoxide emission more for four
wheelers than two wheelers
2. Hydrocarbon emissions also reduce
compared to unblended petrol
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The use of E20 as fuel
reduces carbon monoxide emissions by 50% in
two-wheelers and 30% in four-wheeler
vehicles.
• Statement 2 is correct: Hydrocarbon emissions
also reduce compared to unblended petrol
• Impact of E20 as a Fuel
Impact on Environment
• The use of E20 as fuel reduces carbon
 monoxide emissions by 50% in two-wheelers
and 30% in four-wheeler vehicles.
• Hydrocarbon emissions also reduce compared
to unblended petrol.
• Ethanol blending can thus reduce emissions in
vehicles.
Impact on Consumers
• The fuel efficiency of vehicles will reduce by:
• 6-7% for 4 wheelers designed for E0 and
calibrated for E10
• 3-4% for 2 wheelers designed for E0 and
calibrated for E10
• 1-2% for 4 wheelers designed for E10 and
calibrated for E20
• However, with improvements in engines, the
loss in fuel efficiency can be minimised.
Impact on Vehicle Manufacturer
• Engines and components will need to be tested
and calibrated with E20 as fuel.
• No major change in the assembly line is
required.
• Vendors need to be developed for the
procurement of additional components
compatible with E20
71. Which of the statement is incorrect with
reference to PAT Scheme?
A. PAT is a cyclic scheme
B. The PAT scheme is not a market-based
mechanism
C. The chief goal of the scheme is to make
India’s industrial sector energy
efficient.
D. PAT scheme is a part of the BEE’s
National Mission for Enhanced Energy
Efficiency (NMEEE).
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The PAT scheme is a
market-based mechanism wherein energy
saving certificates are given as incentives to
industries that overachieve their targets. These
certificates can be traded in an energy exchange
(Indian Energy Exchange or Power Exchange
India). The certificates can be bought by other
DCs that have not achieved their prescribed
targets under the scheme.
• Units that are unable to achieve the targets
either by their own actions or by buying the
energy saving certificates are liable to pay the
prescribed penalty.
PAT Scheme
• PAT is a cyclic scheme where certain notified
energy intensive units having threshold energy
consumption are given Specific Energy
Consumption (SEC) reduction targets over a
cycle of three years. PAT Scheme or the
Perform, Achieve and Trade Scheme was
launched by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(BEE) in July 2012.
o The chief goal of the scheme is to make
India’s industrial sector energy efficient.
o The scheme sets energy efficiency targets
o for industries with those failing to achieve
the targets having to pay a penalty. The
penalty is based on what remains to be
achieved in terms of the target.
o PAT scheme is a part of the BEE’s National
Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
(NMEEE).
72. Consider the following statements:
 1. The objective of the Bio- fuel policy is to
achieve 20% ethanol-blending and 5%
biodiesel-blending by the year 2030.
2. National Biofuel Coordination Committee
is headed by - Prime-Minister
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the Bio-
fuel policy is to achieve 20% ethanol-blending
and 5% biodiesel-blending by the year 2030.
• Statement 2 is correct: National Biofuel
Coordination Committee is headed by - Prime-
Minister
National Policy on Bio-fuels
• The National Policy on Bio- fuels 2018 has
empowered the National Bio-fuel
Coordination Committee (NBCC) to allow
conversion of surplus quantities of food-grains
for production of ethanol during an agriculture
crop year when there is projected oversupply
of food-grains.
• The objective of the Bio- fuel policy is to
achieve 20% ethanol-blending and 5%
biodiesel-blending by the year 2030. The policy
also expands the scope of feedstock for ethanol
production and has provided for incentives for
production of advanced bio-fuels.
• National Biofuel Coordination Committee is
headed by - Prime-Minister to provide policy
guidance and coordination.
73. With reference to Green Term Ahead Market,
consider the following statements:
1. The renewable developers get into long
term PPAs
2. Transactions through GTAM will be
bilateral in nature
3. GTAM contracts will be segregated into
Solar RPO & Non-Solar RPO
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is an alternative new
model introduced for selling off the power by
the renewable developers in the open market
without getting into long term PPAs.
• Statement 2 is correct: Transactions through
GTAM will be bilateral in nature with clear
identification of corresponding buyers and
sellers, there will not be any difficulty in
accounting for Renewable Purchase
Obligations (RPO).
• Statement 3 is correct: GTAM contracts will be
segregated into Solar RPO & Non-Solar RPO
74. Which of the following is/are the benefits of
Green Day Ahead Market?
1. Deepen Green Market
2. Accelerate the renewable capacity addition
 3. Focus on PPAs
Select the correct code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Expected Benefits:
• Statement 1 is correct: Deepen Green Market: It
will deepen the green market and will provide
competitive price signals, besides offering an
opportunity to the market participants to trade
in green energy, in the most transparent,
flexible, competitive, and efficient manner.
• Statement 2 is correct: Accelerate the
Renewable Capacity Addition: It will provide
another option to renewable generators to sell
power as well as accelerate the renewable
capacity addition towards India's vision as a
sustainable and efficient energy economy. The
distribution utilities would also be able to sell
surplus renewable power generated in their
area.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Shift from PPA based
Contract to Market-Based Models:
o It will create a domino effect that will lead
to a gradual shift from Power Purchase
Agreements (PPAs) based contracts to
market-based models.
o It will build and deepen the markets to the
next level, paving the way for India to meet
its ambitious target of 450 GW green
capacity by 2030.
Reduction of Curtailment of Green Power:
• It would reduce the curtailment of green
power, unlock untapped renewable energy
potential, ensure instant payment to
Renewable Energy generators i.e. on the day of
delivery itself.
75. Consider the following statements:
1. Green hydrogen is produced by
electrolysis of water using renewable
energy.
2. Brown hydrogen is produced using coal
where the emissions are released into the
air.
3. Blue hydrogen is produced from natural
gas where the associated emissions are
released into the air.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Green hydrogen is
produced by electrolysis of water using
renewable energy (like Solar, Wind) and has a
lower carbon footprint. Electricity splits water
into hydrogen and oxygen. By Products:
Water, Water Vapor.
• Statement 2 is correct: Brown hydrogen is
produced using coal where the emissions (By
products) are released into the air.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Blue hydrogen is
produced from natural gas, where the
emissions are captured using carbon capture
and storage.
76. Which of the following is not an advantage of
Electric Vehicles?
A. Have the potential to reduce greenhouse
gas emissions
B. Reduce dependence on petroleum
C. Reduce health effects from air pollution
D. They produce tailpipe emissions
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Have the potential to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions
• Statement 2 is correct: Reduce dependence on
petroleum
• Statement 3 is correct: Reduce health effects
from air pollution
• Statement 4 is incorrect: They produce little or
no tailpipe emissions
77. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with reference to International
Solar Alliance?
A. It is co-founded by India and France
B. All member states of the United Nations are
eligible to join the ISA.
C. The United Nations General Assembly
(UNGA) has granted Observer Status to the
International Solar Alliance (ISA).
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is co-founded by India
and France
• Statement 2 is correct: All member states of the
United Nations are eligible to join the ISA.
• Statement 3 is correct: The United Nations
General Assembly (UNGA) has granted
Observer Status to the International Solar
Alliance (ISA).
What is the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?
• Co-founded by India and France during 2015,
the ISA is an action-oriented, member-driven,
collaborative platform for increased
deployment of solar energy technologies. Its
basic motive is to facilitate energy access, ensure
energy security, and drive energy transition in
its member countries. ISA is the nodal agency
for implementing One Sun One World One
Grid (OSOWOG), which seeks to transfer solar
power generated in one region to feed the
electricity demands of others.
• The Headquarters is in India with its Interim
Secretariat being set up in Gurugram.
• A total of 109 countries have signed the ISA
Framework Agreement and 90 have ratified it.
• All member states of the United Nations are
eligible to join the ISA.
78. Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Solar Council (GSC) is an
international non-profit association of the
national, regional and international
associations in solar energy and the world.
2. National Solar Energy Federation of India
(NSEFI) is an umbrella organization of all
solar energy stakeholders of India
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Global Solar Council
(GSC) is an international non-profit association
 of the national, regional and international
associations in solar energy and the world.
• Statement 2 is correct: National Solar Energy
Federation of India (NSEFI) is an umbrella
organization of all solar energy stakeholders of
India
79. Consider the following with reference to
Offshore Wind Energy:
1. Offshore wind farms have alower
capacity utilization factor (CUF) than
onshore wind farms.
2. Offshore wind turbines require
stronger structures and foundations
than onshore wind farms.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Offshore wind farms
have a higher capacity utilisation factor (CUF)
than onshore wind farms.
• Statement 2 is correct: Offshore wind turbines
require stronger structures and foundations
than onshore wind farms.
Offshore wind energy refers to the deployment of
wind farms inside the water bodies. They utilise the
sea winds to generate electricity.
• These wind farms either use fixed-foundation
turbines or floating wind turbines.
• A fixed-foundation turbine is built in shallow
water, whereas a floating wind turbine is built
in deeper waters where its foundation is
anchored in the seabed.
• Floating wind farms are still in their infancy.
• Offshore wind farms must be at least 200
nautical miles from the shore and 50 feet deep
in the ocean.
• Offshore wind turbines produce electricity
which is returned to shore through cables
buried in the ocean floor.
• The coastal load centres distribute this
electricity based on priority.
• In India, where land is limited and the
population is increasing, large wind farms
positioned over water bodies will be vital.
80. Consider the following statement with
reference to National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy:
1. The Policy provides for the integration of
both energy sources i.e., wind and solar at
alternating current (AC) as well as direct
current (DC) level.
2. It seeks to promote new hybrid projects as
well as hybridisation of existing wind and
solar projects.
3. It will be on the tariff-based transparent
bidding process for which Government
entities may invite bids.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Features of National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy
Some of the important features of the National
Wind-Solar Policy are mentioned below:
• It has been provided in a hybrid project, subject
to the condition that, rated power capacity of
 one resource be at least 25% of the rated power
capacity of other resources for it to be
recognised hybrid project.
• The Policy provides for the integration of both
energy sources i.e., wind and solar at
alternating current (AC) as well as direct
current (DC) level.
• It seeks to promote new hybrid projects as well
as hybridisation of existing wind and solar
projects. It allows hybridisation of existing
projects (wind or solar) with higher
transmission capacity than sanctioned one,
subject to availability of margin in existing
transmission capacity.
• It will be on the tariff-based transparent bidding
process for which Government entities may
invite bids.
• The policy permits the use of battery storage in
hybrid projects for optimising output and
reducing variability.
• It mandates the regulatory authorities to
formulate necessary standards and regulations
for wind-solar hybrid systems.
81. Consider the following statements with
reference to Wind energy:
1. The amount of power that can be
harvested from wind depends on the
size of the turbine and the length of its
blades.
2. The National Offshore wind energy
policy has the objective to develop the
offshore wind energy in the Indian
Exclusive
3. Economic Zone (EEZ) along the Indian
coastline
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The amount of power
that can be harvested from wind depends on the
size of the turbine and the length of its blades.
The output is proportional to the dimensions of
the rotor and to the cube of the wind speed.
o Theoretically, when wind speed doubles,
wind power potential increases by a factor
of eight
• Statement 2 is correct: The National Offshore
wind energy policy has the objective to develop
the offshore wind energy in the Indian
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) along the
Indian coastline
82. Consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy for large hydro projects and the
mandate for the small hydro power is
given to Ministry of Power.
2. Small hydro is defined as any
hydropower project which has an
installed capacity of less than 50 MW
3. India and China are the major players
of the SHP sector, holding the highest
number of installed projects.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: C
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect: Tropical rainforest
soils are often deep but not particularly
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Ministry of Power,
fertile. This is partly due to the fact that huge
Government of India is responsible for large
amounts of some mineral nutrients are tied
hydro projects, the mandate for the subject
up inside the vegetation rather than being
small hydro power (up to 25 MW) is given to
free in the soil at any given time.
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Statement 3 is correct: Tropical rain forests
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Small hydro is defined
help in maintaining the water cycle to protect
as any hydropower project which has an
against flood, drought, and erosion.
installed capacity of less than 25 MW
• Statement 3 is correct: India and China are the
major players of the SHP sector, holding the 84. Consider the following pairs of plants
highest number of installed projects. and their examples:

Plants Examples
83. Consider the following statement with
reference to Tropical Rain Forests:
1. Hydrophytic plants Water lily
1. Brazil, the Democratic Republic of
Congo , and Indonesia are home to the
world's largest rainforests. 2. Xerophytic plants Cactus

2. Tropical rainforest soils are often deep

and very fertile. 3. Mesophytic plants Corn

3. Tropical rain forests help in

Which of the above is/are correctly
maintaining the water cycle to protect matched?
against flood, drought, and erosion.
A. 1 and 2 only
Which of the above is/are correct?
B. 2 and 3 only
A. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Answer: C
Based on their water requirements and
Explanation adaptations, plants are divided into three
Statement 1 is correct: Brazil (South major groups: (1) Hydrophytes, (2)
America), the Democratic Republic of Congo Mesophytes, (3) Xerophytes and.
(Africa), and Indonesia are home to the Statement 1 is correct: Hydrophytic plants,
world's largest rainforests. such as water lily or pondweed, grow in
saturated soil or water
Statement 2 is correct: Xerophytic plants,
such as cactus, grow in extremely dry soil,
mesophytes are ordinary plants that exist
between the two extremes.
Statement 3 is correct: Mesophytic plants are
adapted to neither too dry nor too wet type
climate. A majority of plants living on this
planet are mesophytes. Example: corn, rose,
clover, squash, etc.
85. Consider the following statement with
reference to Mediterranean Climate:
1. Trees with small broad leaves are
widely spaced and never very tall.
2. Fire is an important hazardous factor
in this ecosystem
3. It is also known as drought-deciduous
forest
4. Teak and neem are some of the
important species.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Trees with small broad
leaves are widely spaced and never very tall.
Statement 2 is correct: Fire is an important
hazardous factor in this ecosystem, and the
adaptation of the plants enable them to
regenerate quickly after being burnt.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tropical Monsoon
Forests are also known as a drought-
deciduous forest; dry forest; dry-deciduous
forest; tropical deciduous forest.
Mediterranean Biome is also known as
Temperate Deciduous Biome
Statement 4 is incorrect: Teak, neem,
bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair,
mulberry are some of the important species
of Tropical Monsoon Forests.
86. Consider the following statement with
reference to Tropical Grasslands:
1. They have cold winters and warm
summers
2. African savanna is one of the tropical
grasslands.
3. It is an excellent hunting ground.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Tropical grasslands
have dry and wet seasons that remain warm
all the time. These regions are warm
throughout the year, followed by dry and
wet seasons. Tropical Grasslands are the ones
which receive 50 cm to 130 cm rain.
Temperate Grasslands are similar to tropical
grasslands, except for the climatic conditions.
They have cold winters and warm summers
with 25 cm and 75 cm. of annual rainfall.
Shrublands are the best example of temperate
grasslands.
Statement 2 is correct: African savanna is one
of the tropical grasslands.
Statement 3 is correct: The tropical grasslands
contain quite short plants which makes it an
excellent hunting ground.
87. Consider the following statement with
reference to Taiga Biome:
1. This biome is only located in Northern
Hemispheres
2. It is mainly made up of coniferous
trees
3. Fungi such as mushrooms are found
in large quantities here.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
● The boreal forest is the planet’s
second-largest biomestretching in
unbroken pattern across Europe, Asia,
and North America and covers an
extensive 20 million hectares.
● The forest is also referred to as Taigaor
the snow forest.
● It is mainly made up of coniferous
forestand trees such as larches,
spruces, birches, aspens, firs, and
pines.
● The tree coverage in most parts of the
forest is extensive and close forming a
canopy with moss undergrowth.
● But in some areas, the trees are apart
with an undergrowth of lichens
referred to as lichen woodland.
● The forest also has diverse climatic
patterns and different species of
organisms.
Statement 1 is correct: This biome is only
located in Northern Hemispheres at latitudes
between 60° and 50° North. The forest
stretches in a belt pattern across the Northern
hemisphere covering approximately 100
million acres of land. Due to the ability of the
plants found in this forest to survive in
snowy or extremely cold temperatures, the
location of the boreal forestcan be seen to be
between the temperate deciduous forests that
are located on the South Side and the Tundra
located on the North.
Statement 2 is correct: Boreal forest is mainly
made up of coniferous trees evergreens such
as the spruces, pines, and larches. These trees
maintain the green color to ensure that they
utilize the minimum sunlight available and
to start the process of photosynthesis early.
The conifers have characteristic needle-like
leaves that are waxy that ensure that they lose
a minimal amount of water during the
summer and spring periods.
Statement 3 is correct: Fungi such as
mushrooms are found in large quantity in the
boreal forest. The fungi are saprophytes and
get enough nutrients from the many dead
branches and trees found within the forest.
The common fungi found at the root of the
conifers are the mycorrhizal fungi.
88. Consider the following statements with
reference to Arctic Tundra Biome:
1. It is considered a major carbon sink
2. The arctic tundra biome is the
northernmost biome.
 3. Plants in this biome tend to go
dormant during the long winters.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
● The arctic tundra is a vast, dry, rocky
place that is noted for its lack of trees.
● In fact, the word “tundra” comes from
the Finnish word tunturi, meaning
‘treeless plain.’ One important
characteristic of the tundra is the
permafrost.
● The word permafrost is short-form for
the permanently frozen soil, which
starts within a meter of the soil
surface. In the winter almost all of the
soil is frozen.
● In the summer the soil near the surface
thaws, but the permafrost at lower
depths remain frozen.
● The permafrost limits how far roots of
plants can extend down into the soil.
● It also is what prevents trees from
growing.
● The ground in the arctic tundra tends
to be rocky and the soil has few
nutrients.
Statement 1 is correct: Despite the lack of
trees, this biome is still considered a major
carbon sink as there are large amounts of
organic matter found in deposits of peat and
humus. Peat is decayed sphagnum moss and
humus is organic matter.
Statement 2 is correct: The arctic tundra
biome is the northernmost biome. It covers
the lands north of the Arctic Circle up to the
polar ice cap. It reaches as far south as the
Hudson Bay area of Canada and the northern
part of Iceland. It covers approximately 11.5
million km2.
Statement 3 is correct: Plants in this biome
also tend to go dormant during the long
winters. This means that they slow down
their normal life functions.
89. The Cactus plant has many features
which helps it to thrive in harsh desert
biome. Which of these features is/are
correct?
1. Shallow roots
2. Spongy interior
3. Slow growth
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
● The cactus plant, particularly, has
adapted well to the harsh climatic
conditions of desert biomes such that
it’s able to grow up to 20 feet or more
and liver for over 200 years.
● The Giant Saguaro cactus, in
particular, has managed to thrive in
this harsh biome due to shallow roots,
 which enable it to soak up rain and
dew before it evaporates. It also
features a spongy interior, which has
the ability to expand and hold a lot of
water. Another adaptation of the
cactus is that it grows slowly to save
energy.
90. Consider the following statement with
reference to Desert Biome:
1. In Desert Biome the rate of
evaporation typically overtakes
precipitation.
2. The desert biomes of the world are
located in six biogeographic domains
3. The largest hot desert biome is the
subtropical Sahara.
4. Fox are unable to survive in the Desert
Biome.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2,3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In Desert Biome the
rate of evaporation typically overtakes
precipitation.
Statement 2 is correct: The desert biomes of
the world are located in six biogeographic
domains including:
The Australian Deserts
• The Australian deserts consist of a
collection of lowlands arid eco-regions in
the heartland of Australia. They are
hardly inhabited, and their average
population density is lower than one
person per square kilometer. Of all the
deserts in the world, Australian deserts
have the lowest human population, by
far.
Afrotropic Deserts
• These desert biomes are located in Sub-
Saharan Africa, including the southern
fringe of the Arabian Peninsula. The
biome receives a lot of pressure from
humans, particularly in Madagascar and
the horn of Africa.
The Indo-Malay region
• The Indo-Malay region consists of 2 hot
lowlands including the Indus Valley and
the Thar. These deserts top the world
deserts regarding human footprint.
The Neotropic Deserts
• Those located in South America cover an
area of about 684, 000 million square
miles. However, only 6 percent of this
total area is protected.
The Nearctic Deserts
• These deserts cover an estimated area of
1.04 million square miles in North
America. Due to the expansion of urban
corporations like Phoenix in the U.S., their
average population is relatively high.
Palearctic Domain
• This domain concentrates the largest
range of desserts in the entire world,
covering an area of a staggering 9.9
million square miles. That’s, essentially,
63% of all deserts in the world. These
deserts are famous for their extreme
dryness and sheer inaccessibility. The
Sahara desert in Africa covers an area of
 about 9.9 square miles or approximately
10% of the African continent. On the flip
side, the deserts located in the Central
area are characterized by folded
mountains, high landscape heterogeneity,
as well as enclosed basins.
Statement 3 is correct: The largest hot desert
biome (the subtropical Sahara) stretches over
3.5 million square miles or 9 million square
kilometers.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Foxes survive here
due to their burrowing and nocturnal
lifestyles. This burrowing ensures they escape
the intense heat during the day. They also
have large ears to aid in the dissipation of
excess body heat during hot days. Their thick,
sandy fur helps protect them from the cold
nights in the desert. The thick, sandy fur also
helps reflect heat and for camouflage.
91. Which of the following is not an external
factor of climate change?
A. Solar variability
B. Earth’s orbit alteration
C. Variability within the climate system
D. Volcanic activity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Climate change may be due to internal
processes and/or external forces. The
External Climate Forcing Processes are:
Option a is correct: Variations in the amount
of energy received from the sun. About 30-
40% of the UV energy from the sun is believed
to be reflected back into space after hitting the
earth's upper atmosphere, while the
remaining 60- 70% gets through to the earth.
This ratio could change, however, due to
variations in the sun's characteristics from
time to time, thus leading to changes to the
global energy balance above and hence
changes in our climate
Option b is correct: Variations in the earth's
orbit around the sun changes in the tilt of the
earth's axis, changes in the shape of the earth's
orbit (i.e. eccentricity) and the shifting of the
equinoxes (i.e. precession) play major roles in
determining variations in the amount of sun's
energy reaching the earth and hence lead to
variations in the earth's climate (i.e. Climate
Change).
92. Which of the following UV Radiation is
responsible for the immediate tanning?
A. UV-A
B. UV-B
C. UV-C
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
About UV-A:
• Relatively long-wavelength.
• Accounts for approximately 95% of the
UV radiation reaching the Earth's
surface.
• Penetrate into the deeper layers of the
skin and is responsible for the
immediate tanning.
• Enhances the development of skin
cancers.
93. Consider the following statements regarding
SAFAR:
 1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of
Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
2. It is an integral part of India’s first Air
Quality Early Warning System operational
in Delhi.
3. Ammonia is one of the pollutants that it
monitors.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The System of Air
Quality and Weather Forecasting And
Research (SAFAR) is a national initiative
introduced by the Ministry of Earth Sciences
(MoES).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Pollutants
monitored: PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, Carbon
Monoxide (CO), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx),
Sulfur Dioxide (SO2), Benzene, Toluene,
Xylene, and Mercury.
• The System of Air Quality and
Weather Forecasting And Research
(SAFAR) is a national initiative
introduced by the Ministry of Earth
Sciences (MoES) to measure the air
quality of a metropolitan city, by
measuring the overall pollution level
and the location-specific air quality of
the city.
• The system is indigenously developed
by the Indian Institute of Tropical
Meteorology (IITM), Pune and is
operationalized by the India
Meteorological Department (IMD).It
has a giant true color LED display that
gives out real-time air quality index on
a 24x7 basis with color-coding (along
with 72 hours advance forecast).
• The ultimate objective of the project is
to increase awareness among the
general public regarding the air quality
in their city so that appropriate
mitigation measures and systematic
action can be taken up. It organizes
awareness drive by educating the
public (prompting self-mitigation),
and
• It also helps the policy-makers to
develop mitigation strategies keeping
in mind the nation’s economic
development.
• SAFAR is an integral part of India’s
first Air Quality Early Warning System
operational in Delhi. It monitors all
weather parameters like temperature,
rainfall, humidity, wind speed, and
wind direction, UV radiation, and
solar radiation.
• Pollutants monitored: PM2.5, PM10,
Ozone, Carbon Monoxide (CO),
Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), Sulfur
Dioxide (SO2), Benzene, Toluene,
Xylene, and Mercury.
• The World Meteorological
Organization has recognized SAFAR
as a prototype activity on the basis of
the high-quality control and standards
maintained in its implementation.
• SAFAR system would benefit cost
savings to several other sectors like
agriculture, aviation, infrastructure,
 disaster management, tourism, etc. Act seeks to combat air pollution by
which directly or indirectly gets prohibiting the use of polluting fuels
affected by air quality and weather. and substances, as well as by
regulating appliances that give rise to
air pollution.
94. Consider the following statements
about The Air (Prevention and Control of • Statement 3 is correct: The Air Act
Pollution) Act, 1981 (the "Air Act"): empowers the State Government, after
consultation with the SPCBs, to declare
1. It provides for the establishment of
any area or areas within the Sate as air
Pollution Boards at the Central and State
pollution control area or areas.
levels with a view to prevent, control, and
abate air pollution.
2. It seeks to combat air pollution by
prohibiting the use of polluting fuels and
substances only.
3. It empowers the State Government, after A. Water Hyacinth
consultation with the State Pollution B. Hydrilla
Control Board, to declare any area or areas
C. Water Lily
within the State as air pollution control
areas or areas. D. All of the above.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Air
(Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1981 (the "Air Act") is an act to
provide for the prevention, control and
abatement of air pollution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: To counter the
problems associated with air pollution,
ambient air quality standards were
established under the Air Act. The Air
100. Which of the following biome is also
called sclerophyll ecosystem or biome?
A. Tundra Biome
B. Taiga Biome
C. Temperate Deciduous Biome
D. Tropical Deciduous Biome
Answer: C
Explanation
The Mediterranean biome is also called as
sclerophyll ecosystem or biome because of the
develop-ment of special feature and
characteristic in the domi-nant trees and
shrubs to adapt to the typical environ-mental
conditions of the Mediterranean climates (dry
summer and wet winter).
● The Mediterranean climate has three
typical characteristic features which
give sclerophyll charac-teristics to the
vegetation of this biome :
○ Winters are cool but wet
whereas summers are dry, most
of the annual rainfall is received
during wet winter months
○ Summer season is warm and
dry whereas winters are
moderately cool
○ There is sufficient sunlight
throughout the year but
summer is more sunny.