P-84 PHYSICS

15 Electric Charges
and Fields
Fill in the Blanks : If high energy X-ray beam falls on the ball, the
ball will be deflected in the direction of the field.
1. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then 4. Total flux linked with a closed body, not enclosing
its radius _______ . any charge will be zero.
2. The electric field created by a point charge falls 5. Electric fields lines start from negative charge
with distance from the point charge as ______ . and end at positive charge.
3. Quantisation of charge was experimentally
6. Electric field lines form closed loops.
demonstrated by _______ .
r 7. At the centre of the line joining two equal and
4. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a
opposite charge, electric field E = 0
r
uniform electric field E , then torque acting on Conceptual MCQs :
it is given by _______ .
5. The total electric flux emanating from a closed 1. An electric charge, + Q is placed on the
surface of a solid, conduction sphere of radius
surface enclosing an a-particle is (e-electronic
a. The distance measured from the centre of
charge) _______ .
the sphere is denoted as r. Then
6. The electric field inside a spherical shell of
(a) the charge gets distributed uniformly
ur
uniform surface charge density is _______ .
through the volume of the sphere
7. When an electric dipole P is placed in a
ur (b) The electrostatic potential has the same
uniform electric field E then at angle _______ value for r < a
ur ur (c) an equal and opposite charge gets induce
between P and E the value of torque will be
maximum. in the bottom half of the sphere
8. The law, governing the force between electric (d) the electric field is given by
charges is known as _______ . 1/(4p Î0 r2 ) for r < a
True/ False : 2. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a
1. The work done in carrying a point charge from hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
r
one point to another in an electrostatic field Coulomb force F between the two is
depends on the path along which the point
charge is carried. æ 1 ö
çè where K = 4pe ÷ø
2. Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal 0
masses are taken. One is given a positive charge
and the other an equal negative charge. Their e2 r e2
(a) K r (b) K rˆ
masses after charging are different. r3 r2
3. A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform
electric field with the help of an insulated thread. e2 e2 r
(c) - K 3
rˆ (d) - K r
r r3
Electric Charges and Fields P-85

3. A charge q is placed at O in the cavity in a (a) + 50 e, – 200 e (b) – 50 e, – 100 e

spherical uncharged conductor. Point S is (c) – 50 e, – 150 e (d) – 50 e, + 100 e
outside the conductor.
7. The total positive charge in a glass of water
If the charge is displaced from O towards S, still
containing 180 g of water is approximately :
remaining
(a) 1.0 × 107 coulomb
(b) 6.03 × 107 coulomb
(c) 1.80 × 107 coulomb
(d) 1.20 × 107 coulomb
3R
8. The electric field at a distance from the
2
within the cavity, electric field at S will centre of a charged conducting spherical shell
(a) increase of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance
(b) decrease R
(c) first increase and then decrease from the centre of the sphere is
2
(d) not change
E
4. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length (a) (b) zero
2
10 cm and having a charge of 500 mC, at a point
on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one of the E
(c) E (d)
charges in air, is 2
(a) 6.25 × 107 N/C (b) 9.28 × 107 N/C 9. Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at
(c) 13.1 × 10 N/C (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C
11 points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and
5. Four charges are rigidly fixed along the Y-axis as (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude
shown. A positive charge approaches the system and direction of the electric dipole moment
along the X-axis with initial speed just enough vector of this charge assembly are
to cross the origin. Then its total energy at the (a) 2qa along the line joining points
origin is –
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(b) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0,
y
z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

2 2q (c) 2qa along +ve x direction

–q
(d) 2qa along +ve y direction
v Q x 10. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within
–1 –q
i. If f is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
–2 2q
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
linked with the plane surface A in units of
(a) zero (b) positive voltmeter will be
(c) negative (d) data insufficient
B
6. A ball of charge + 50e lies at the centre of a
hollow spherical metal shell that has a net charge C A
of – 150e. The charge on the inner surface and
outer surface of the spherical shell is :
P-86 PHYSICS

distance 3 cm is placed in an electric field of

q f
(a) (b)
2e0 3 2 ´ 10 5 N/C. Torque acting on the dipole is
(a) 12 ´ 10 -1 N - m (b) 12 ´ 10 -2 N - m
q 1æ q ö
(c) -f (d) ç - f÷
e0 2 è e0 ø (c) 12 ´ 10 -3 N - m (d) 12 ´ 10 -4 N - m
ur 17. The point charge Q and – 2Q are placed of some
11. An electric dipole of moment p is lying along a distance apart. If the electric field at the location
uniform electric field E . The work done in of Q is E. Then the electric field at the location of
– 2 Q will be
rotating the dipole by 90° is
(a) – 2 E (b) – E
pE
(a) (b) 2 p E 5E E
2 (c) - (d) -
2 2
(c) p E (d) 2 pE 18. Two charges of magnitude q and Q – q are placed
12. A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. at a distance d from each other force between
The electric flux through any face is them would be maximum if :
(a) q = Q/3 (b) q = – Q/2d
q 2pq
(a) (b) (c) q = 2Q (d) q = Q/2
6(4pe 0 ) 6(4pe 0 ) 19. The electric field strength at a distance r from a
charge q is E. What will be electric field strength
4pq pq
(c) (d) if the distance of the observation point is
6(4pe 0 ) 6(4pe 0 ) increased to 2 r?
13. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is (a) E/2 (b) E/4
4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on (c) E/6 (d) none of the above
an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the 20. The surface density on the copper sphere is s.
The electric field strength on the surface of the
metal will be in units of V/m
sphere is
(a) 5 × 10–11 (b) 8 × 10–11 (a) s (b) s/2
(c) 5 × 10 7 (d) 8 × 107 (c) s / 2 eo (d) s / eo
14. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at
Diagram Based Questions :
rest in a uniform electric field E and then released.
The kinetic energy attained by the particle after 1. The figure shows a charge + q at point P held in
moving a distance y is equilibrium in air with the help of four + q charges
(a) qEy2 (b) qE2 y situated at the vertices of a square. The net
electrostatic force on p is given by
(c) qEy (d) q2 Ey
15. A point charge +q is placed at mid point of a +q
cube of side ‘L’. The electric flux emerging from
the cube is
2
(a) q (b) 6 q L +q +q
e0 e0

q p
(c) (d) zero +q
2
6 L e0 +q
16. An electric dipole, consisting of two opposite (a) Gauss’s law (b) Coulomb’s law
charges of 2 ´ 10 -6 C each separated by a (c) Principle of superposition
(d) net electric flux out the position of +q.
Electric Charges and Fields P-87

2. A metal sphere is being charged by induction 4. Figure shows some of the electric field lines
using a charged rod, but the sequence of corresponding to an electric field. The figure
diagrams showing the process misplaced. suggests that

I. II. A B C
Charged
rod Ground

(a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC

III. IV. (c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
5. In the figure the net electric flux through the area
r r
A is f = E × A when the system is in air. On
immersing the system in water the net electric
flux through the area
V.

Correct order of charging is Q

(a) I ® II ® III ® IV ® V
(b) V ® II ® III ® I ® IV
A
(c) V ® II ® I ® III ® IV
(d) IV ® II ® III ® I ® V
3. In the figure, charge q is placed at origin O. When
the charge q is displaced from its position the (a) becomes zero (b) remains same
electric field at point P changes (c) increases (d) decreases
y 6. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open
end of a cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric
field through the surface of the vessel is
P
q

q
x
O q
(a) at the same time when q is displaced. (a) zero (b) q/eo
(c) q/2eo (d) 2q/eo
OP
(b) at a time after where c is the speed of
c Assertion/ Reason :
light.
OP cos q DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
(c) at a time after . two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
c
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
OP sin q of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
(d) at a time after
c of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
P-88
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : When bodies are charged through
friction, there is a transfer of electric charge
from one body to another, but no creation or
destruction of charge.
Reason : This follows from conservation of
electric charges.
2. Assertion : Coulomb law and gravitational law
follow the same inverse-square law.
Reason : Both laws are same in all aspects.
3. Assertion : The coulomb force is the
dominating force in the universe.
Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the
gravitational force.
4. Assertion : If there exists coulomb attraction
between two bodies, both of them may not be
charged.
Reason : In coulomb attraction two bodies are
oppositely charged.
5. Assertion : A deuteron and an a-particle are
placed in an electric field. If F1 and F2 be the
forces acting on them and a1 and a2 be their
Matching Based Questions :
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match Column I and Column II.
Column I
(A) Additivity of charge
(B) Conservation of charge
(C) Quantisation of charge
(D) Attraction and repulsion
(a) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (3)
2. Match the physical quantities in column I and the information related to them in Column II.
Column I
(A) Electric dipole moment
(B) Electric field
(C) Electric flux
(D) Torque
(a) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1)
PHYSICS
accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2.
Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
6. Assertion : The property that the force with
which two charges attract or repel each other are
not affected by the presence of a third charge.
Reason : Force on any charge due to a number
of other charge is the vector sum of all the
forces on that charge due to other charges,
taken one at a time.
7. Assertion : On bringing a positively charged
rod near the uncharged conductor, the conductor
gets attracted towards the rod.
Reason : The electric field lines of the charged
rod are perpendicular to the surface of conductor.
8. Assertion : On going away from a point
charge or a small electric dipole, electric field
decreases at the same rate in both the cases.
Reason : Electric field is inversely
proportional to square of distance from the
charge or an electric dipole.
9. Assertion : On moving a distance two times the
initial distance away from an infinitely long
straight uniformly charged wire the electric field
reduces to one third of the initial value.
Reason : The electric field is inversely
proportional to the distance from an infinitely
long straight uniformly charged wire.
Column II
1
(1) 1
0 n + 235
92 U ® 56 Ba + 36 Kr + 30 n
144 89
(2) –5mC + 15mC = 10mC
(3) Gold nucleus repels alpha particle.
(4) q = ne
(b) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
Column II
(1) Vector product
(2) Scalar product
(3) Points towards positive charge
(4) Points away from positive charge
(b) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (2)
(d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
Electric Charges and Fields P-89

3. Column I Column II

Charge
(A) Linear charge density (1)
Volume

Charge
(B) Surface charge density (2)
Length

Charge
(C) Volume charge density (3)
Area
(D) Discrete charge distribution (4) System consisting of ultimate individual charges
(a) A ® (2), B ® (3), C ® (1), D ® (4) (b) A ® (1), B ® (3), C ® (1), D ® (4)
(c) A ® (3), B ® (1), C ® (2), D ® (4) (d) A ® (3), B ® (2), C ® (1), D ® (4)
4. Match the entries of column I with that of Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Coulomb’s law (1) Total electric flux through a closed surface.
(B) Gauss’s law (2) Vector sum of forces.
(C) Principle of superposition (3) Force is inversely proportional to square
of distance
(D) Quantisation of charge (4) Discrete nature of charge
(a) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
5. Match the source of charge given in Column I with expressions of electric field produced by them in
Column II.
Column I Column II

l
(A) Point charge (1)
2pe 0 r

s
(B) Infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire (2) 2e 0
(C) Uniformly charged infinite plane sheet (3) 0

q
(D) At a point inside a uniformly charged thin spherical shell. (4)
4pe0 r 2
(a) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (3)
P-90 PHYSICS

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. The number of electric lines of force that radiate
outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum
1. Two charge q and –3q are placed fixed on x–axis is
separated by distance d. Where should a third
(a) 1.13 × 1011 (b) 1.13 × 1010
charge 2q be placed such that it will not
experience any force ? (c) 0.61 × 1011 (d) 0.61 × 109
q –3q 5. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length
10 cm and having a charge of 500 mC, at a point
A d B
on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one of the
charges in air, is
d - 3d d + 3d
(a) (b) (a) 6.25 × 107 N/C (b) 9.28 × 107 N/C
2 2
d + 3d d - 3d (c) 13.1 × 1011 N/C (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C
(c) (d) 6. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30°
2 2
2. Force between two identical charges placed at a with an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It
distance of r in vacuum is F. Now a slab of experiences a torque of 4 Nm. Calculate the
dielectric of dielectric contrant 4 is inserted charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm.
between these two charges. If the thickness of (a) 8 mC (b) 4 mC
the slab is r/2, then the force between the
(c) 8 mC (d) 2 mC
charges will become
3 7. The surface density on the copper sphere is s.
(a) F (b) F The electric field strength on the surface of the
5
sphere is
4 F
(c) F (d) (a) s (b) s/2
9 2
(c) Q / 2eo (d) Q / eo
3. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are
placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not 8. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line
joining two equal charges Q such that the system
q
experience any force. The value of is is in equilibrium then the value of q is
m
(a) Q/2 (b) –Q/2
pe0
(a) l (b) (c) Q/4 (d) –Q/4
G
G
(c) 4pe 0 (d) 4pe 0 G
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-91

Electrostatic Potential
16 and Capacitance

Fill in the Blanks : 6. Regarding series grouping of capacitors,

Potential difference and energy distributes in the
ur reverse ratio of capacitance.
1. An electric dipole of moment p is placed normal
ur 7. Effective capacitance is even les than the least
to the lines of force of electric intensity E , then of the individual capacitances.
the work done in deflecting it through an angle Conceptual MCQs :
of 180° is ______ .
2. On decreasing the distance between the plates 1. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a certain
of a parallel plate capacitor, its capacitance voltage. Now, if the dielectric material (with
______ . dielectric constant k) is removed then the
3. A capacitor stores ______ in the electrostatic (a) capacitance increases by a factor of k
field between the plates. (b) electric field reduces by a factor k
4. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness (c) voltage across the capacitor decreases by
is introduced between the plates of a capacitor. a factor k
The capacitance of the capacitor ______ . (d) none of these.
5. The potential gradient at which the dielectric 2. In a region, the potential is represented by
of a condenser just gets punctured is called V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts
______ . and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force
6. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at
C which has been raised to a potential V is point (1, 1, 1) is :
given by ______ . (a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N
7. An arrangement which consists of two
conductors separated by a dielectric medium is (c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
called ______ . 3. A point charge q is held at a distance 2a from
8. ______ is a machine that can build up high the centre of an isolated, uncharged
voltages of the order of a few million volts. conductance sphere of radius a. The
potential of the sphere is
True/ False :
q q
1. In non-polar molecules displacement stops (a) 8pe a (b) 4pe a
0 0
when the external force on the constituent
charges of the molecule is balanced by the q
restoring force. (c) 2pe0 a (d) zero
2. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to 4. A sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge
equipotential surface. density. The electric potential at a points
3. Electric field lines are in the direction of tangent (r <R) is
to an equipotential surface. (a) due to the charge inside a sphere of
4. The potential at all the points on an equipotential radius r only
surface is same. (b) due to the entire charge of the sphere
5. Work done in moving a charge from one point to (c) due to the charge in the spherical sheel of
other on an equipotential surface is zero. inner and outer radii r and R, only
(d) independent of r
P-92 PHYSICS

a 9. Two point charge of 8 µC and 12 µC are kept in

5. A point charge q is held at a distance from the
2 air at a distance of 10 cm from each other. The
centre of a thin, conducting, uncharged, spheri- work required to change the distance between
cal shell of radius a. The potential of the shell is them to 6 cm will be.
(a) 5.8 J (b) 4.8 J
q q
(a) (b) (c) 3.8 J (d) 2.8 J
2pe0 a 4pe0 a 10. A capacitor is charges by using a battery which
q is then disconnected. A dielectric slab in then
(c) (d) zero introduced between the plates which results in
8pe0 a
the:
6. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is (a) reduction of charge on the plates and
connected to a cell of emf V and th en increase of potential difference across the
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric plates.
constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the (b) increase in the potential difference across
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the the plates and reduction in stored energy
following is incorrect ?
but no change in the charge on the plates.
(a) The energy stored in the capacitor (c) decrease in potential difference across the
decreases K times. plates and reduction in stored energy but
(b) The chance in energy stored is not change in the charge on the plates.
1 æ1 ö (d) none of these
CV 2 ç – 1÷ 11. Two conducting spheres of radii 5.0 cm and
2 èK ø
10.0 cm are given a charge of 15.0 µC each. After
(c) The charge on the capacitor is not
connective the spheres by a copper wire, the
conserved.
charge on the smaller sphere is equal to :
(d) The potential difference between the plates
(a) 20.0 mC (b) 5.0mC
decreases K times.
(c) 10 mC (d) none of the above
7. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
12. Four points a, b, c and d are set at equal distance
such that the potential on its surface is 80 V. The
from thwe centre of a dipole as shown the figure.
potential at the centre of the sphere is
The electrostatic potential Va, Vb, Vc, and Vd would
(a) zero (b) 80 V
satisfy the following relation:
(c) 800 V (d) 8 V
8. In the figure two conducting concentric spherical a
shells are shown. +q

d b
–q
c
(a) Va > Vb > Vc > Vd (b) Va > Vb = Vd > Vc
(c) Va > Vc = Vb = Vd (d) Vb = Vd > Va > Vc
If the electric potential at the centre is 20V and 13. N small drops of a liquid each having a charge
the electric potential of the outer shell is 5V, then + q are combined to form a larger drop. The new
electrostatic potential V0 is related to the
the potential of the inner shell is
potential V on each small drop by the equation :
(a) 5V (b) 15V
(a) V0 = VN3 (b) V0 = VN2/3
(c) 20V (d) 25V
(c) V0 = VN 3/2
(d) V0 = VN
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-93

14. Consider the network shown here, B is a 4V (a) BC (b) BAD

battery of zero internal resistance; S1 and S2 are (c) AD (d) ABC
switches and C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors of 17. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and
values shown. Suppose S1 is closed keeping S2
separation d. It is charged to a potential
open till the capacitor C1 is fully charged. Then
difference V 0. The charging battery is
S1 is opened and S2 is closed so that C2 gets
disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to
charged. The energy stored in the capacitors is
equal to : three times the initial separation. The work
required to separate the plates is
S1 S2 3e0 AV0 2 e0 AV0 2
(a) (b)
d 2d

B e0 AV0 2 e0 AV0 2
(c) (d)
(4V) C1= 1µF C2 = 3µF 3d d
18. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b
and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge
(a) 2 × 10 – 6 J (b) 4 × 10 – 6 J
densities s , – s and s respectively. If VA, VB
(c) 8 × 10 – 6 J (d) 32 × 10 – 6 J and VC denotes the potentials of the three
15. The figure given below shows four arrangements shells, then for c = a + b, we have
of charged particles, all at the same distance from (a) VC = VB ¹ VA (b) VC ¹ VB ¹ VA
the origin. Rank the situation according to the
(c) VC = VB = VA (d) VC = VA ¹ VB
net electric potential (V1, V2, V3, V4) at the origin,
most positive first : 19. The electric potential at a point in free space due
to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The
+2q –2q electric field at that point is
(a) 4 pe0 Q×1022 volt/m
V1 –9q –3q (b) 12 pe0 Q×1020 volt/m
V2 (c) 4 pe0 Q×1020 volt/m
1 2 (d) 12 pe0 Q×1022 volt/m
20. Consider two points 1 and 3 in a region outside
–2q –6q a charged sphere. The two points are not very
–2q ur
–2q +2q +q far away from the sphere . If E and V represent
V3 –3q –5q the electric field vector and the electric potential,
V4 which of the following is not possible :
3 4 ur ur
(a) V1 > V2 > V3 > V4 (b) V2 > V1 > V3 > V4 (a) | E1 | = | E 2 |, V1 = V2
(c) V2 > V1 > V4 > V3 (d) V4 > V1 > V3 > V2 ur ur
(b) E1 ¹ E2 , V1 ¹ V2
16. The electric potentials (in volts) and four points
ur ur
A, B, C and D are depicted in the figure on which (c) E1 ¹ E2 , V1 = V2
of the following parts with the work done on a ur ur
charge of – 2 C, be maximum (d) | E1 | = | E 2 |, V1 ¹ V2
(+2V) (– 3V) 21. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric
D· C· field E in the space between the plates. If the
(+ 1V) (– 1V) distance between the plates is d and area of each
B· A· plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is :
P-94 PHYSICS

1 4p Î0 r1r2
(a) e0 E 2 (b) E2Ad/e0
2 (a)
r2 - r1
1
(c) e0 E 2 Ad (d) e0EAd
2 (b) 4p Î0 (r1 + r2 )
Diagram Based Questions : (c) 4p Î0 r2
1. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body
placed in an electric field. Which of the quantities (d) 4p Î0 r1
are zero inside the body? 4. The effective capacitance of combination of
equal capacitors between points A and B shown
in figure is
C C

C C C

C C
A B
(a) Electric field and potential C C C
(b) Electric field and charge density
(c) Electric potential and charge density.
(d) Electric field, potential and charge density. (a) C (b) 2C
2. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. C
(c) 3C (d)
Then the electric field strength will be 2
5. In the circuit given below, the charge in mC, on
Y the capacitor having capacitance 5 mF is
10V 20V 30V
2mF
O(cm)

30º X 3mF
10 20 30 (cm) e d

f 5mF
c
4mF
(a) 100 Vm–1 along X-axis a + b
(b) 100 Vm–1 along Y-axis 6V
(c) 200 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
(d) 50 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis (a) 4.5 (b) 9
3. Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii (c) 7 (d) 15
r1 and r2 (r2 > r1) are placed concentrically in air.
Assertion/ Reason :
A1 is given a charge +Q while A2 is earthed.
Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
A2 questions also has four alternative choices, only one
– – of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
+ + of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
A1 r1
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
+ + a correct explanation for assertion.
r2 –
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
–
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1. Assertion : Electric potential and electric
potential energy are different quantities.
Reason : For a system of positive test charge
and point charge electric potential energy =
electric potential.
2. Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin
circular ring with net charge is zero, the electric
field at any point on axis of the ring is zero.
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin
circular ring with net charge zero, the electric
potential at each point on axis of the ring is zero.
3. Assertion : Electric energy resides out of the
spherical isolated conductor.
Reason : The electric field at any point inside
the conductor is zero.
4. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot
cut each other.
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel
to each other.
Matching Based Questions :
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column-I
(A) Electric potential near an isolated positive
charge
(B) Electric potential near an isolated negative
charge
(C) Electric potential due to a charge at its own
location is not defined
(D) Electric potential due to uniformly charged
solid non-conducting sphere
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
2. When a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of one of the two identical capacitors shown in the
figure then match the following:
A
B
P-95
5. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected
across battery through a key. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant k is introduced between the
plates. The energy stored becomes k times.
Reason : The surface density of charge on the
plate remains constant.
6. Assertion : When a dielectric slab is gradually
inserted between the plates of an isolated
parallel-plate capacitor, the energy of the system
decreases.
Reason : The force between the plates decreases.
7. Assertion : A dielectric is inserted between the
plates of a battery connected capacitor. The
energy of the capacitor increases.
1
Reason : Energy of the capacitor, U = CV 2 .
2
8. Assertion. Two equipotential surfaces can be
orthogonal.
Reason: Electric field lines are normal to the
equipotential surface.
Column -II
(1) Negative
(2) Positive
(3) Varies inversly of radius
(4) Infinite
(b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4)
V
P-96 PHYSICS

Column-I Column -II

(A) Charge on A (1) Increases
(B) Potential difference across A (2) Decreases
(C) Potential difference across B (3) Remains constant
(D) Charge on B (4) Cannot say
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
3. Match the entries of Column I and Column II
Column-I Column -II
(A) Inside a conductor placed in an external (1) Potential energy = 0
electric field.
(B) At the centre of a dipole (2) Electric field = 0
(C) Dipole in stable equilibrium (3) Electric potential = 0
(D) Electric dipole perpendicular to (4) Torque = 0
uniform electric field.
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
4. Match the types of capacitors in Column I and expressions of capacitances in Column II.
Column-I Column -II

e 0 KA
(A) Spherical capacitor (1)
d

e0A
(B) Cylindrical capacitor (2)
d
2pe0 l
(C) Parallel plate capacitor air filled (3)
ær ö
ln ç 2 ÷
è r1 ø

4pe 0 r1 r2
(D) Parallel plate capacitor with dielectric slab (4)
r1 - r2
between the plates.
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-97

Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) The energy stored in the capacitor
decreases K times.
1. Two equally charged spheres of radii a and b are (b) The chance in energy stored is
connected together. What will be the ratio of
electric field intensity on their surfaces? 1 æ1 ö
CV 2 ç – 1÷
2 èK ø
a a2
(a) (b) (c) The charge on the capacitor is not
b b2 conserved.
b b2 (d) The potential difference between the plates
(c ) (d) decreases K times.
a a2
2. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, 5. In a Van de Graaff generator, a spherical metal
one at each corner of the square. The relation shell is to be 15 × 106 V electrode. The
between Q and q for which the potential at the dielectric strength of the gas surrounding the
centre of the square is zero is electrode is 5 × 107V m–1. The minimum radius
of the spherical shell required is
1 (a) 1 m (b) 2 m
(a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
q (c) 1.5 m (d) 3 m
1 6. Four metallic plates each with a surface area of
(c) Q = q (d) Q =
q one side A, are placed at a distance d from each
3. In a region, the potential is represented by other. The two outer plates are connected to one
V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts point A and the two other inner plates to another
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force point B as shown in the figure. Then the
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at capacitance of the system is
point (1, 1, 1) is
(a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N
A B
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
4. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is
connected to a cell of emf V and th en e0A 2e 0 A
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric (a) (b)
d d
constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the
capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the 3e 0 A 4e 0 A
following is incorrect ? (c) (d)
d d
P-98
17 Current Electricity
Fill in the Blanks :
1. When a potential difference V is applied across
a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity
of electrons is proportional to _______ .
2. Macroscopic form of ohm’s law’s _______ .
3. Constantan wire is used for making standard
resistance, because it has _______ .
4. When potential difference is applied across an
electrolyte, then Ohm’s law is obeyed at _______
potential .
5. A cell of internal resistance r is connected across
an external resistance nr. Then the ratio of the
terminal voltage to the emf of the cell is ______.
6. Kirchoff’s first law, i.e., S i = 0 at a junction,
deals with the conservation of _______ .
7. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the
positions of cells and galvanometer are
interchanged, then balance point will _______ .
8. The reciprocal of resistance is _______ .
9. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased
by _______ length of potentiometer .
True/False :
1. In household electric circuit, all electric
appliances drawing power are joined in parallel
2. A switch may be either in series or in parallel
with the appliance which it controls
3. Microscopic form of ohm’s law is R=
V (a) seven different combinations and seven
I different equivalents
4. When resistances are connected in parallel,
current distributes in the inverse ratio of
resistances.
5. When resistances are connected in series
maximum current flows through the resistance
having least value.
PHYSICS
6. In series a device of higher power rating
consumes less power.
7. The order of magnitude of current in lightening
is about one ampere.
Conceptual MCQs
1. If a negligibly small current is passed through a
wire of length 15 m and of resistance 5W having
uniform cross-section of 6 × 10–7 m2 , then
coefficient of resistivity of material, is
(a) 1 × 10–7 W-m (b) 2 × 10–7 W-m
(c) 3 × 10–7 W-m (d) 4 × 10–7 W-m
2. The emf developed by a thermocouple is
measured with the help of a potentiometer and
not by a moving coil millivoltmeter because
(a) the potentiometer is more accurate than the
voltmeter
(b) the potentiometer is more sensitive than
voltmeter
(c) the potentiometer makes measurement
without drawing any current from the
thermocouple
(d) measurement using a potentiometer is
simpler than with a voltmeter
3. You have been provided with four 100 ohm
resistors each with a tolerance of 2%. The
number of ways in which these can be combined
to have different equivalent resistances is
(b) eight different combinations and seven
different equivalents resistances
(c) nine different combinations and eight
different resistances
(d) ten different combinations and nine
different resistances
Current Electricity P-99

4. The equivalent resistance between points A and (a) in all cases

B is (b) only if all the resistances are equal
R R (c) only if R1 = R3 and R2 = R4
A B (d) only if R1/R3/R2/R4
R 10. Three resistances R, 2R and 3R are connected in
R
parallel to a battery. Then
(a) the potential drop across 3R is maximum
(b) the current through each resistance is same
(a) 2R (b) (3/4) R (c) the heat developed in 3R is maximum
(c) (4/3) R (d) (3/5) R (d) the heat developed in R is maximum.
5. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 W at 50ºC 11. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be
and 7W at 100ºC, then the mean temperature converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range.
coefficient of resistance (of the material) is The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be :
(a) 0.001/ºC (b) 0.004/ºC (a) 0.001 (b) 0.01 (c) 1 (d) 0.05
(c) 0.006/ºC (d) 0.008/ºC 12. A piece of copper and another of germanium are
6. The net resistance between point P and Q in the cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
circuit shown in figure is resistance of
R (a) each of them increases
R R (b) each of them decreases
P R Q (c) copper increases and germanium decreases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases
13. In the house of a person who is weak of hearing,
(a) R/2 (b) 2R/5 a light bulb is also lit when somebody rings the
(c) 3R/5 (d) R/3
7. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 door bell. The ring can be operated both from
cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and the garden gate and from the door of the house.
without being short circuited thr ough a Select the correct possible circuit required.
resistance of 10W. Its internal resistance is
(a) 1.0 ohm (b) 0.5 ohm
(c) 2.0 ohm (d) zero (a) (b)
8. A battery of internal resistance 2W is connected
to a variable resistor whose value can vary from
4W to 10W. The resistance is initially set at 4W. If
the resistance is now increased then –
(a) power consumed by it will decrease
(b) power consumed by it will increase (c) (d)
(c) power consumed by it may increase or may
decrease
(d) power consumed will first increase then
decrease. 14. If two bulbs of power 25 W and 100 W
9. The Wheatstone bridge shown in the figure is
respectively each rated at 220 V are connected
balanced. If the positions of the cell C and the
galvanometer G are now interchanged, G will in series with the supply of 440 V. Which bulb
show zero deflection – will fuse ?
(a) 25 W bulb (b) 40 watts
R1 R2
(c) none of these (d) both 1 & 2
G 15. Which of the following graphs represent the
variation of thermo emf (E) of a thermocouple
R4 R3 with temperature q of hot junction (the cold
junction being kept at 0ºC)
C
P-100 PHYSICS

E E (a) directly proportional to their marked

voltages
(a) (b) (b) inversely proportional to their marked
voltages
q q (c) directly proportional to their squares of their
E marked voltages
E
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of their
marked voltages
(c) (d) 22. Power dissipated across the 8W resistor in the
q circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power
q dissipated in watt units across the 3W resistor is
16. Consider the following devices : 1W 3W i1
I Copper voltameter
II Water voltameter i
III Semi conductor diode
Which of these obey Ohm’s law :
(a) I only (b) I and II 8W i2
(c) III only (d) I, II and III (a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
17. A copper wire of length l and radius r is to be (c) 3.0 (d) 2.0
used as fuse. If the fuse wire attains, then the 23. Two cells of the same emf E have different
heat lost H per unit surface area per second is : internal resistances r 1 and r 2. They are connected
in series with an external resistance R and the
a
(a) Ha (b) Ha r 2 potential difference across the first cell is found
r3 to be zero. Therefore, the external resistance R
(c) H a l (d) H a r3 must be
18. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical
circuits are consequences of (a) r1 – r 2 (b) r + r2
(a) conservation of electric charge and energy (c) 2r1 – r2 (d) r1 – 2r2
respectively
(b) conservation of electric charge
Diagram Based Questions :
(c) conservation of energy and electric charge 1. The figure shows three conductors I, II and III of
respectively same material, different lengths l, 2l and 3l and of
(d) conservation of energy different areas of cross-section 3A, A and 2A
19. In which of the following the carriers of electric
respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order
current are electrons only ?
(a) a super conductor of current drawn from battery.
(b) a voltaic cell l
(c) a semiconductor i1 3A i1
(d) a hydrogen discharge tube I
20. It takes t minutes for a kettle of water to start 2l
boiling when placed on an electric heater. If the i2 A i2
II
voltage drops to half its value, the time taken for 2A 3l
this water to boil will be: III
i3 i3
(a) 2 t minutes (b) 2 t minutes
(c) 4 t minutes (d) 8 t minutes ( )
21. Two electric bulbs of the same power, but with
different marked voltage are connected in series (a) i1 < i2 < i3 (b) i3 < i2 < i1
across a power line. Their brightness will be :
(c) i2 < i1 < i3 (d) i2 `< i3 < i1
Current Electricity P-101

2. The graph shows the variation of resistivity with resistance S the new position of null point is
temperature T. The graph can be of obtained
R S'
r B S

d G
A C
D

T ( )
(a) copper (b) nichrome (a) to the left of D
(c) germanium (d) silver (b) to the right of D
3. A battery of e.m.f E and internal resistance r is (c) at the same point D
connected to a variable resistor R as shown. (d) to the left of D if S' has lesser value than S
Which one of the following is true ? and to the right of D if S' has more value
E
than S.
r
6. In the figure in balanced condition of wheatstone
bridge
R
B

(a) Poten t i a l di ffer en ce a cr oss t h e R2 R4

terminals of the battery is maximum
when R = r
(b) Power delivered to resistor is maximum
when R = 2r
(c) Current in the circuit is maximum when
R= r
(d) Current in the circuit is maximum when
R >> r
4. Which of the following is the correct equation
when kirchhoff’s loop rule is applied to the loop
BCDEB in clockwise direction?
R3 R4
C D
i3
i2 R2
B E
R1 i1
A F
(a) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 – i2 R2 = 0
(b) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
(c) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
(d) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
5. The figure shows a meter bridge in which null
point is obtained at a length AD = l. When a
resistance S' is connected in parallel with
A G C
R1 R3
D
(a) B is at higher potential
(b) D is at higher potential
(c) Any of the two B or D can be at higher
potential than other arbitrarily.
(d) B and D are at same potential.
Assertion/ Reason :
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
P-102 PHYSICS

1. Assertion: Current is a vector quantity.
Reason: Current has magnitude as well as
direction.
2. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V = IR.
Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines
resistance.
3. Assertion : A current flows in a conductor only
when there is an electric field within the
conductor.
Reason : The drift velocity of electron in
presence of electric field decreases.
r r
4. Assertion: E = r j is the statement of Ohm’ss
law.
Reason: If the resistivity of the conducting
material is independent of the direction and
magnitude of applied field then the material
obeys Ohm’s law.
5. Assertion: For a conductor resistivity increases
with increase in temperature.
m Reason : As resistance increases current more
Reason: Since r = 2 , when temperature
ne t
increases the random motion of free electrons
increases and vibration of ions increases which
decreases t.
6. Assertion : The drift velocity of electrons in a
metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature of
the wire is increased.
Reason : On increasing temperature,
conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
7. Assertion : Bending a wire does not effect
electrical resistance.
Reason: Resistance of wire is proportional to
resistivity of material.
8. Assertion : The e.m.f of the driver cell in the
potentiometer experiment should be greater
that the e.m.f of the cell to be determined.
Reason : The fall of potential across the
potentiometer wire should not be less than the
e.m.f of the cell to be determined.
9. Assertion : In meter bridge experiment, a high
resistance is always connected in series with
a galvanometer.
accurately than ammeter.

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Ohm’s law is applicable to (1) Metals
(B) Ohm’s law is not applicable to (2) Greater resistivity
(C) Alloys have semiconductors (3) Diodes, electrolytes

(D) A heat sensitive resistor (4) Thermistors

(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
2. Column I Column II
(A) Silver (1) Wire bound resistor
(B) Semiconductor (2) Resistor of higher range
(C) Carbon resistor (3) Negative temperature coefficient of resistivity
(D) Manganin (4) Least resistivity
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
3. Match the physical quantities in Column I and their mathematical expressions in Column II.
Column I Column II
ne 2 t
(A) Current (1)
m
Current Electricity P-103

1 æ dp ö
(B) Conductivity (2) ç ÷
p è dT ø
r uuur
(C) Current density (3) j × DS
r
(D) Temperature coefficient of resistivity (4) nq vd
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
4. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Smaller the resistance greater the current (1) If the same voltager is
applied and resistance are in series
(B) Greater or smaller the resistance the (2) If the same current is passed
current is same
(C) Greater the resistance smaller the power (3) When resistances are connected in series
(D) Greater the resistance (4) When resistances are
greater the power connected in parallel
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
5. Column I Column II
(A) Junction rule (1) Another statement of Ohm’s law.
(B) Loop rule (2) Magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field.
r r
(C) j = s E (3) Based on law of conservation of charge
(D) Mobility (4) Based on law of conservation of energy.
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); C ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); C ® (1); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); C ® (1); (D) ® (2)
6. Column I gives certain situations in which a straight metallic wire of resistance R is used and Column
II gives some resulting effects.
Column I Column II
(A) A charged capacitor connected to the (1) A constant current flows through the wire
is ends of the wire
(B) The wire is moved perpendicular to its (2) Thermal energy is generated in the wire
length with a constant velocity in a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane
of motion
(C) The wire is placed in a constant electric field (3) A constant potential difference develops between
that has a direction along the length the ends of the wire
of the wire
(D) A battery of constant emf is connected to (4) charges of constant magnitude appear at
the ends of the wire ends of the wire.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (1, 2, 3) (b) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2, 3) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1, 3) ; (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
P-104 PHYSICS

7. Match the entries of Column I with their correct mathematical expressions in Column II
Column I Column II
(A) Balanced condition of wheatstone bridge (1) R1 R3
=
R2 R4
R l1
(B) Comparison of emf of two cells field. (2) =
S 100 - l1

E1 l1
(C) Determination of internal resistance of a cell (3) =
E 2 l2

(D) Determination of unknown resistance (4) æl ö

r = R ç 1 - 1÷
è l2 ø
by meter bridge
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); C ® (3); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); C ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); C ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (1)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. Determine the current in 2W resistor.

2W
1. Two wires A and B of the same material, having 3W
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the
1W
ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in
A and B is
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 6V 2.8 W
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
2. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C (a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A
is found to be 10 W. Now to increase the resistance (c) 0.9 A (d) 0.6 A
by 10%, the temperature of the wire must be [The 6. A meter bridge is set up as shown, to determine
temperature coefficient of resistance of the material an unknown resistance ‘X’ using a standard 10
of the wire is 0.002 per °C] ohm resistor. The galvanometer shows null point
(a) 36°C (b) 83°C when tapping-key is at 52 cm mark. The end-
corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively for
(c) 63°C (d) 33°C
the ends A and B. The determined value of ‘X’
3. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length
is
of a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of
resistance of X to that of Y is
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
4. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an
external resistance R. The internal resistance of
the two sources are R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the (a) 10.2 ohm (b) 10.6 ohm
potential difference across the source having (c) 10.8 ohm (d) 11.1 ohm
internal resistance R2 is zero, then 7. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is
(a) R= R 2 - R 1 10–7Wm current flowing through it, is 0.1 amp
(b) R= R 2 ´ (R1 + R 2 ) /(R 2 - R1 ) and cross sectional area of wire is 10–6 m2, then
potential gradient will be
(c) R= R 1R 2 /( R 2 - R 1 ) (a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m
(d) R= R1R 2 /(R1 - R 2 ) –6
(c) 10 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-105

18 Moving Charges and

Magnetism
ur
Fill in the Blanks : 4. Lorentz force, in presence of electric field E (r )
1. Ampere’s circuital law is equivalent to _______ ur
and magnetic field B(r ) on a moving electric
law.
ur ur ur
2. If a current is passed through a spring then the charge is given by F = q [ E (r ) + v ´ B (r )]
spring will _______ .
5. For a static charge the magnetic force is
3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
maximum.
form of _______ .
6. The magnetic field in the open space exterior to
4. In cyclotron the gyro radius is proportional to
the toroid is constant.
_______ .
7. Cyclotron cannot accelerates electrons because
5. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to
they have very small mass.
a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to
magnetic field is _____. Conceptual MCQs :
6. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection
of the coil q is related to the elecrical current 1. Two very long, straight, parallel wires carry
i by the relation _______ . steady currents I and –I respectively. The
7. A moving coil galvanometer has N number of distance between the wires is d. At a certain
instant of time, at a point charge q is at a point
turns in a coil of effective area A, carries a
equidistant from the two wires, in the plane of
current I. The magnetic field B is radial. The
the wires.Its instantaneous velocity v is
torque acting on the coil is ____ .
perpendicular to the plane of wires. The
8. Two parallel circular coils of equal radii having magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field
equal number of turns placed coaxially and acting on the charge at the instant is
separated by a distance equal to the radii of the
coils carrying equal currents in same direction m 0 Iqv 2m0 Iqv
(a) (b)
are known as _______ . 2 pd pd
9. If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic m 0 Iqv
field, then the torque is given by _______ . (c) (d) zero
pd
True/ False : 2. P, Q and R are long straight wires in air, carrying
currents as shown. The force on Q is directed
1. Biot-savarts’s law is valid for all current
distributions. P Q R
2. A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non–
uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in
it. 20A 40A 60A
3. Ampere’s circuital law is based only on the
priciple of magnetism.
P-106 PHYSICS

(a) to the left (b) to the right ®

(c) perpendicular to the plane of the diagram has velocity v , as shown, the force on the
(d) along the current in Q charge is
3. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a Y
circular orbit of radius r with angular speed w.
The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic
moment to that of its angular momentum
depends on –
(a) w and q (b) w , q and m O X
(c) q and m (d) w and m
4. Two observers moving with different velocities
seen that a point charge produces same magnetic
field at the same point A. Their relative velocity
must be parallel to rr , where rr is the position
vector of point A with respect to point charge. (a) along OY (b) opposite to OY
This statement is – (c) along OX (d) opposite to OX
(a) true 8. A charged paritcle (charge q) is moving in a circle
(b) false of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated
(c) nothing can be said magnetic moment µ is given by
(d) true only if the charge is moving (a) qvR2 (b) qvR2/2
perpendicular to the rr
(c) qvR (d) qvR/2
9. A beam of electron passes undeflected through
5. The negatively and uniformly charged
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields.
nonconducting disc as shown is rotated
clockwise. If the electric field is switched off, and the same
magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move
(a) in a circular orbit
(b) along a parabolic path
(c) along a straight line
A (d) in an elliptical orbit.
10. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25
divisions. A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a
deflection of one per division. To convert this
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range
The direction of the magnetic field at point A in
of 25 volts, it should be connected with a
the plane of the disc is
resistance of
(a) into the page (b) out of the page
(a) 2450 W in series (b) 2500 W in series.
(c) up the page (d) down the page
(c) 245 W in series. (d) 2550 W in series.
6. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle
of charge – 2 mC in a magnetic field of 2T acting 11. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a
in y direction, when the particle velocity is current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of 1
mm diameter carrying same current. The strength
( )
2 ˆi + 3 ˆj ×106 ms –1, is of magnetic field far away is
(a) 4 N in z direction (b) 8 N in y direction (a) twice the earlier value
(c) 8 N in z direction (d) 8 N in – z direction (b) same as the earlier value
7. A very long straight wire carries a current I. (c) one-half of the earlier value
At the instant when a charge + Q at point P
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-107

12. When a charged particle moving with velocity 16. Two flat circular coils have a common center,
but their planes are at right angles to each other.
v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction
The inner coil has 150 turns and radius of p cm.
B , the force on it is non-zero. This implies that The outer coil has 400 turns and a radius of 2p
cm. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic
(a) angle between v and B can have any induction at the common centers of the coils
value other than 90° when a current of 200 mA is sent through each
of them is
(b) angle between v and B can have any
(a) 10–3 Wb/m2 (b) 2 × 10–3 Wb/m2
value other than zero and 180°
(c) 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2 (d) 7 × 10–3 Wb/m2
(c) angle between v and B is either zero 17. Two long parallel wires carry currents I1 and I2
or 180° (I1 > I2). When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway
(d) angle between v and B is necessarily
between the wires is 10 mT. If the direction of I2
90° is reversed, the field becomes 40 mT. The ratio
13. An electron enters a region where magnetic I1/I2 is
field (B) and electric field (E) are mutually
perpendicular, then (a) 5/2 (b) 5/3
(a) it will always move in the direction of B (c) 4/3 (d) 3/2
(b) it will always move in the direction of E 18. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform
(c) it always possesses circular motion magnetic field with four different orientations X,
Y, Z and W was shown in the figure. The correct
(d) it can go undeflected also. decreasing order of potential energy is
14. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number
of turns N, then magnetic moment of the coil, B
M is B
n̂
Ni
(a) NiA (b) n^
A X Y
Ni
(c) (d) N2Ai B n^
A
B
15. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of
side l is suspended between the pole pieces of n^
® Z W
a permanent magnet such that B is in the plane (a) X > Y > Z > W (b) Z > W> X > Y
of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a (c) X > W > Y> Z (d) X> Y > W > Z
torque t acts on it, the side l of the triangle is 19. A cylindrical conductor having radius of cross
section R carries a steady current I. If the distance
1 1 from the axis of the conductor is r, then the
2 æ t ö2 æ t ö2 magnetic field B varies as
(a) ç ÷ (b) 2çç ÷÷
3 è B.i ø è 3B.i ø (a) 1/r
(b) r for r < R and as 1/r for r > R
(c) r
2 æ t ö 1 t (d) 1/r2
(c) ç ÷ (d)
3 è B.i ø 3 B.i
P-108 PHYSICS

20. A current I flows in the anticlockwise direction direction. The net magnetic field on the axis of
through a square loop of side a lying in the xoy the cylinder is
plane with its center at the origin. The magnetic
induction at the center of the square loop is
2 2m 0 I 2 2m 0 I
(a) ê x (b) ê z
pa pa
2 2m 0 I 2 2m 0 I
(c) ê z (d) ê x m0 ni
2
pa pa 2 (a) µ0 ni (b)
2 pr
Diagram Based Questions :
m 0 ni
1. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a (c) zero (d)
4 pr
circular arc of radius r metres subtending an angle 4. The figure shows a thin rod pivoted at point O and
q at the centre as shown. The magnetic field at rotating clockwise in the plane of paper with
the centre O in tesla is constant angular velocity w. A bead having charge
+ q can slide freely on the rod as the rod rotates.
I × × × ×
q +q ×
× × ×
O × × O × ×
× × × ×

× × × ×
m0 Iq m0 Iq
(a) (b) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
4 pr 2 pr
(a) Magnetic moment of current loop generated
m0 Iq m0 Iq by the bead increases.
(c) (d) (b) Angular momentum of the bead increases.
2r 4r
(c) Torque on current loop generated is zero.
2. An element of 0.05 $i m is placed at the origin as (d) Potentential energy of current loop
shown in figure which carries a large current of generated decreases.
10 A. distance of 1 m in perpendicular direction. 5. The figure shows a closed loop bent in the form
The value of magnetic field is of a semi-circle. One bead having charge +q
slides from A to B along the diameter in uniform
motion and other bead having the same charge
slides along the arc from A to B in uniform circular
P motion. Both take some time to travel from A to
B. When both the beads are at the mid-point of
their journey, then the forces exerted by lower
bead and upper bead are respectively
A B
(a) 4.5 × 10–8 T (b) 5.5 × 10–8 T
(c) 5.0 × 10–8 T (d) 7.5 × 10–8 T
3. The figure shows n (n being an even number) (a) gravitational and magnetic
wires placed along the surface of a cylinder of (b) magnetic and electric
(c) electric and gravitational
radius r. Each wire carries current i in the same (d) gravitational and electric.
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-109

Assertion/ Reason : straight line.

DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion: Ampere’s circuital law is independent
of Biot-Savart’s law.
Reason: Ampere’s circuital law can be derived
from the Biot-savart’s law.
2. Assertion : The magnetic field due to a very
large current carrying loop is zero at its centre.
Reason : Magnetic field at the centre of loop is,
m 0i
B= .
2R
3. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is reversed
in direction while keeping the same magnitude,
the magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid
decreases.
Reason : Magnetic field energy density is
proportional to square of current.
4. Assertion : If a charged particle is released from
rest in a region of uniform electric and magnetic
fields parallel to each other, it will move in a
Matching Based Questions :
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match Column I and Column II.
Column I
(A) Biot-Savart’s law
(B) Ampere’s circuital law
(C) Force between two parallel current
carrying conductors
(D) Lorentz force
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
Reason : The electric field exerts no force on the
particle but the magnetic field does.
5. Assertion : Figure shows a current carrying
conductor and a close path. For the close path
r r
Ñò Bgd l = 0.
Reason : For the close path, the magnetic field
at each point on the path is zero.
6. Assertion : The force between two parallel
current carrying conductors carrying currents
in same direction is attractive because there is
no electrical interaction between them.
Reason : The force between two electrons
streams moving in the same direction repulsive
because there is no magnetic interaction
between them.
7. Assertion : A current carrying loop placed in a
magnetic field must experience a torque.
Reason : Torque on the loop is given by
t=MBsinq.
8. Assertion: The frequency of circular motion of
a charged particle in cyclotron is independent
of the mass of the particle.
Reason: Greater the mass of the particle less will
be the frequency of the particle.
Column II
r uur
(1) Ñò B.dl = m 0 Si
r r r
(2) q[E + (V´ B)]
r uur
(3) Ñò B.dl = m 0 Si
r m i dlsin q
(4)B= 0 ò nˆ
4p r2
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
P-110 PHYSICS

2. Match the entries given in Column I to their analogue entries of electrostatics given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Ampere’s circuital law (1) Electric dipole
(B) Biot-Savart’s law (2) Gauss’s law in electrostatics
(C) Planar current loop (3) Permitivity of free space
(D) Permeability of free space (4) Coulomb’s law
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (3)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
3. A charged particle having charge q and mass m is to be subjected to a combination of constant uniform
ur ur
magnetic field ( B) and a constant uniform gravitational field (G). Apart from these field forces there
exists no other force. Now match the column.
Column-I Column -II
ur ur
(A) The charged particle moves without change (1) It is possible that both B and G
in its direction. are zero.
ur ur
(B) The charged particle moves without change (2) It is possible that both B and G
in its velocity. are non zero.
ur ur
(C) The charged particle takes a circular path (3) It is possible that B is zero and G
is not zero.
ur
(D) The charged particle takes a parabolic path (4) It is possible that B is non zero
ur
and G is zero.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1,2,3,4) ; (B) ® (1,2,4) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
4. A square loop of side a and carrying current i as shown in the figure is placed in gravity free space
having magnetic field B = B k$ . Now match following :
0
y
i

Column-I Column -II

(A) Torque on loop (1) is zero
(B) Net force on loop (2) is in direction (– k$ )
(C) Potential energy of magnitudes (3) has minimum loop
(D) Magnetic moment of magnitudes (4) has maximum loop
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1,2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-111

5. Match the physical quantities of Column I with their mathematical expressions in Column II.
Column I Column II
m0 i
(A) Torque on a circular current loop placed in (1)
2R
uniform magnetic field
(B) Force per unit length between parallel (2) iAB sin q
current carrying wires
mV
(C) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular (3)
qB
current carrying loop.
m0 i1 i2
(D) Radius of circular path of a charge particle (4)
2 pd
moving in uniform
magnetic field.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (3)
6. A circular current carrying loop with magnetic moment parallel to the magnetic field is rotated by an angle
of 90° slowly about one of its diameter in a uniform magnetic field. Match the quantities of Column I with
Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Torque on the loop (1) Decreases from maximum to zero.
(B) Potential energy of the loop (2) Remains constant
(C) Magnetic moment of the loop (3) Increases from zero to maximum
(D) Magnetic flux through the loop (4) Increases from minimum to zero.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic
inductions at their centres will be
1. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
a current of 75 A in north of south direction, (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
magnitude and direction of field B at a point 3 m 3. A charged particle with charge q enters a region
east of the wire is of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal
(a) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical up ur ur r
(b) 5 × 10–6 T, vertical down fields E and B with a velocity v perpendicular
ur ur
(c) 5 × 10–6 T, vertical up to both E and B , and comes out without any
(d) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical down r
change in magnitude or direction of v . Then
2. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain r ur ur r ur ur
length and then from the same length a coil of (a) v = B ´ E / E 2 (b) v = E ´ B / B2
two turns is made. If the same current is passed r ur ur 2 r ur ur
(c) v = B ´ E / B (d) v = E ´ B / E 2
P-112 PHYSICS

4. A cell is connected between two points of a magnetic field induction B in tesla at the centre
uniformly thick circular conductor and i1 and i2 of circle will be
are the currents flowing in two parts of the
circular conductor of radius a. The magnetic field (a) 2 ´ 10 -19 m 0 (b) 10 -19 / m 0
at the centre of the loop will be
(c) 10 -19 m 0 (d) 2 ´ 10 -20 / m 0
m0
(a) zero (b) ( I1 - I 2 ) 7. A galvanometer of resistance 100 W gives a full
4p scale deflection for a current of 10–5 A. To
convert it into a ammeter capable of measuring
m0 m0 upto 1 A, we should connect a resistance of
(c) ( I1 + I 2 ) (d) (I1 + I 2 )
2a a (a) 1 W in parallel (b) 10–3 W in parallel
5. An electron (mass = 9 × 10–31 kg, charge = 1.6 × (c) 105 W in series (d) 100 W in series
10–19 C) moving with a velocity of 106 m/s enters 8. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around a
a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of radius nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 50 pm is 2.2 ×
0.1m, then strength of magnetic field must be 106 ms–1. Then the magnetic dipole moment of
(a) 4.5 × 10–5 T (b) 1.4 × 10–5 T an electron is
(c) 5.5 × 10–5 T (d) 2.6 × 10–5 T (a) 1.6 × 10–19 Am2 (b) 5.3 × 10–21 Am2
6. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle (c) 8.8 × 10–24 Am2 (d) 8.8 × 10–26 Am2
of radius 0.8 meter in 2 sec. The value of the
 19 Magnetism and Matter
Fill in the Blanks : 7. Diamagnetism is explained in terms of
electromagnetic induction.
1. The ultimate individual unit of magnetism in any 8. Isogonic lines on magnetic map will have zero
magnet is called _______ . angle of declination.
2. Magnetic dipole moment is a vector quantity
directed from _______ pole to _______ pole. Conceptual MCQs :
3. At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is _______
1. A bar magnet, of magnetic moment M , is placed
.
4. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation and in a magnetic field of induction B . The torque
magnetising field is called _______ . exerted on it is
5. Susceptibility is positive and large for a _______ (a) M . B (b) – M . B
magnetic material.
6. Metals getting magnetised by orientation of (c) M ´ B (d) B ´ M
atomic magnetic moments in external magnetic 2. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M
field are called _______ . are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the
7. The magnetic susceptibility for diamagnetic identical poles in the same direction. The time
materials is _______ . period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are
placed with opposite poles together and vibrate
8. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
with time period T2, then
_____ becomes.
(a) T2 is infinite (b) T2 = T1
9. The line on the earth’s surface Joining the points (c) T2 > T1 (d) T2 < T1
where the field is horizontal is _______ . 3. A short bar magnet, placed with its axis at 30°
True/ False : with an external magnetic field of 0.16 T,
experiences a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. The
1. The Earth behaves as a magnet with the magnetic moment of the bar magnet is
magnetic field pointing approximately from the (in units of J/T)
geographic South to the North. (a) 4 (b) 0.2
2. There is an attractive force between the North– (c) 0.5 (d) 0.4
pole of one magnet and the South–pole of other. 4. Ratio of magnetic intensities for an axial point
3. We can isolate the North or South–pole of a and a point on board side-on position at equal
magnet. distance d from the centre of magnet will be or
4. Paramagnetism is explained by domain theory. the magnetic field at a distance d from a shot bar
5. A paramagnetic material tends to move from a magnet in longitudinal and transverse positions
strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field. are in the ratio of
6. The resultant magnetic moment in an atom of a (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 3
diamagnetic substance is zero. (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 2
P-114 PHYSICS

5. The magnetism of magnet is due to 12. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(a) the spin motion of electron about hysteresis ?
(b) earth (a) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic
(c) pressure of big magnet inside the earth substances
(d) cosmic rays (b) The hysteresis loop area is proportional to
6. Which of the following is the most suitable the thermal energy developed per unit
material for making permanent magnet ? volume of the material
(a) Steel (b) Soft iron (c) The hysteresis loop area is independent of
the thermal energy developed per unit
(c) Copper (d) Nickel
volume of the material
7. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian
(d) The shape of the hysteresis loop is
when it shows an angle of dip q at a place. The characteristic of the material
dip circle is rotated through an angle x in the 13. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the
horizontal plane and then it shows an angle of external electric arc, it should be
tan q ' (a) wrapped with insulation around it when a
dip q'. Then is current is passing through it
tan q
1 1 (b) placed inside an iron can
(a) (b) (c) surrounded with fine copper sheet
cos x sin x
(d) placed inside an aluminium can
1 14. The time period of oscillation of a freely
(c) (d) cos x
tan x suspended bar magnet with usual notations is
8. The horizontal component of the earth’s given by
magnetic field is 3.6 ´10 -5 tesla where the dip I
(a) T = 2 p (b) T = 2p MBH
angle is 60°. The magnitude of the earth’s MBH I
magnetic field is
(a) 2.8 ´10 -4 tesla (b) 2.1´ 10 -4 tesla I B
(c) T = (d) T = 2p H
MBH MI
(c) 7.2 ´10 -5 tesla (d) 3.6 ´ 10-5 tesla
15. There are four light–weight–rod samples A,B,C,D
9. A torque of 10 -5 Nm is required to hold a separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet
magnet at 90° with the horizontal component H is slowly brought near each sample and the
of the earth’s magnetic field. The torque to hold following observations are noted
it at 30° will be (i) A is feebly repelled
(a) 5 × 10–6 Nm (b) data is insufficient (ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
1 (iv) D remains unaffected
(c) ´ 10 -5 Nm (d) 5 3 ´ 10 -6 Nm
3 Which one of the following is true ?
10. The correct relation is (a) B is of a paramagnetic material
(b) C is of a diamagnetic material
BV (c) D is of a ferromagnetic material
(a) B = B (b) B = BV ´ BH (d) A is of a non–magnetic material
H
16. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side
(c) | B |= BH2 + BV2 (d) B = BH + BV l is suspended between the pole pieces of a
®
11. Above Curie temperature permanent magnet such that B is in the plane of
(a) a paramagnetic substance becomes the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque
diamagnetic t acts on it, the side l of the triangle is
(b) a diamagnetic substance becomes 1 1
paramagnetic 2 æ t ö2 æ t ö2
(a) ç ÷ (b) 2çç ÷÷
(c) a paramagnetic substance becomes 3 è B.i ø è 3B.i ø
ferromagnetic
(d) a ferromagnetic substance becomes 2 æ t ö 1 t
(c) ç ÷ (d)
paramagnetic 3 è B.i ø 3 B.i
Magnetism and Matter P-115

17. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of (c) No sign

diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and (d) Can be positive or negative
ferromagnetic material are denoted by md, mp and 3. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig
mf respectively, then associated with
(a) md = 0 and mp ¹ 0 (b) md ¹ 0 and mp = 0
(c) mp = 0 and mf ¹ 0 (d) md ¹ 0 and mf ¹ 0 (i)
18. A small bar magnet of moment M is placed in a (ii)
uniform field H. If magnet makes an angle of 30° H
with field, the torque acting on the magnet is
MH
(a) MH (b)
2
MH MH (a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic
(c) (d) substance
3 4
19. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60°, the (b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic
apparent dip in a plane inclined at an angle of 30° substance
with magnetic meridian is (c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
(d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
-1 1
(a) tan (b) tan -1 (2) 4. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are
2
correctly shown in
-1 æ 2 ö
(c) tan çè ÷ø (d) None of these
3
20. The materials suitable for making electromagnets N N
should have
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity (a) (b)
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity S S
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity
Diagram Based Questions :
1. A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment
M. It is bent in L-shape (Figure). The new N N
magnetic moment is
(c) (d)
M l
(a) M (b) S S
2 2
M
(c) (d) 2M l
2 5. The given figure represents a material which is
2
2. Imagine rolling a sheet of paper into a cylinder
and placing a bar magnet near its end as shown
in figure. What can you
r say about the sign of
r r
B.dA for every area dA on the surface?

(a) Positive (b) Negative (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic

(c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these
P-116 PHYSICS

Assertion/ Reason : Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
questions also has four alternative choices, only one statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one statement in Column I can have correct matching
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. with one statement given in Column II. Each question
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out
a correct explanation for assertion. of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 1. Column I Column II
is not a correct explanation for assertion (A) Axial field for a short (1) – M.B
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect dipole
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (B) Equatorial field for a (2) M × B
1. Assertion : The poles of magnet can not be short dipole
separated by breaking into two pieces. (C) External field torque (3) m0 2M/4pr3
Reason : The magnetic moment will be reduced to (D) External field energy (4) –m0 M/4pr3
half when a magnet is broken into two equal pieces. (a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
2. Assertion : The earth¢s magnetic field is due to (b) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (4) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (1)
iron present in its core. (c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
Reason : At a high temperature magnet losses (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
its magnetism. 2. Column I Column II
3. Assertion : To protect any instrument from (A) Horizontal (1) BE sin q
external magnetic field, it is put inside an iron component
body. BV
Reason : Iron has high permeability. (B) Vertical (2)
BH
4. Assertion : The sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable component
magnetic material as a core inside the coil. (C) tan q (3) BE cos q
Reason : Soft ir on has high magnetic (D) Tangent law (4) B = BH tan q
permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or (a) A ® (3); B ® (2); C ® (1); D ® (4)
demagnetized. (b) A ® (3); B ® (1); C ® (2); D ® (4)
5. Assertion : Magnetism is relativistic. (c) A ® (2); B ® (3); C ® (1); D ® (4)
Reason : When we move along with the charge
(d) A ® (1); B ® (3); C ® (2); D ® (4)
so that there is no motion relative to us, we find
no magnetic field associated with the charge. 3. Column I Column II
6. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not (A) Negative (1) Ferromagnetic
obey Curie’s law. susceptibility
Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic (B) Positive and small (2) Diamagnetic
substance start behaving as a paramagnetic susceptibility
substance. (C) Positive and large (3) Paramagnetic
7. Assertion : A paramagnetic sample display susceptibility
greater magnetisation (for the same magnetic
(D) Loadstone (4) Magnetite
field) when cooled.
Reason : The magnetisation does not depend (a) A ® (3); B ® (2); C ® (4); D ® (1)
on temperature. (b) A ® (1); B ® (2); C ® (3); D ® (4)
8. Assertion : Electromagnets are made of soft iron. (c) A ® (2); B ® (3); C ® (1); D ® (4)
Reason : Coercivity of soft iron is small. (d) A ® (2); B ® (1); C ® (4); D ® (3)
Magnetism and Matter P-117

Critical Thinking Type Questions : vertical wire placed 20 cm east of the magnet.
Find the new time period.
1. Time periods of vibation of two bar magnets in (a) 0.076 s (b) 0.5 s
sum and difference positions are 4 sec and 6 sec (c) 0.1 s (d) 0.2 s
respectively. The ratio of their magnetic moments 5. A magnetising field of 2 × 103 A m–1 produces a
M1 / M2 is magnetic flux density of 8p T in an iron rod. The
(a) 6 : 4 (b) 30 : 16 relative permeability of the rod will be
(c) 2 . 6 : 1 (d) 1 . 5 : 1 (a) 102 (b) 1
(c) 104 (d) 103
2. A bar magnet 8 cms long is placed in the magnetic 6. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a
merdian with the N-pole pointing towards
ferromagnetic material is found to be c . Its
geographical north. Two netural points
susceptibility at 333°C is
separated by a distance of 6 cms are obtained
on the equatorial axis of the magnet. If horizontal (a) c (b) 0.5 c
component of earth’s field = 3.2 × 10–5 T, then (c) 2 c (d) 11.1 c
pole strength of magnet is 7. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am–1. It is
(a) 5 ab-amp × c (b) 10 ab-amp × cm desired to demagnetise it by inserting it inside a
solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The
(c) 2.5 ab-amp × cm (d) 20 ab-amp × cm
current that should be sent through the solenoid
3. Two magnets are held together in a vibration is
magnetometer and are allowed to oscillate in the (a) 2 A (b) 4 A
earth’s magnetic field with like poles together. (c) 6 A (d) 8 A
12 oscillations per minute are made but for unlike
poles together only 4 oscillations per minute are 8. A torque of 10 -5 Nm is required to hold a
executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is magnet at 90° with the horizontal component H
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 of the earth’s magnetic field. The torque to hold
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 it at 30° will be
4. A short magnet oscillates in an oscillation (a) 5 × 10–6 Nm (b) data is insufficient
magnetometer with a time period of 0.10s where 1 -5
(c) ´ 10 Nm (d) 5 3 ´ 10 -6 Nm
the earth¢s horizontal magnetic field is 24 mT. A 3
downward current of 18 A is established in a
P-118 PHYSICS

20 Electromagnetic
Induction
Fill in the Blanks : 4. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept
along the diameter of a circular wire loop, without
1. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an touching. The emf induced in the loop is zero if
electric circuit changes, an emf is induced in the the current decreases at a steady rate.
circuit. This is called _______ . 5. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil
2. A moving conductor coil induces e.m.f. This is changes, an induced e.m.f.is produced in the
in accordance with _______ . circuit. The e.m.f. lasts so long as the change in
3. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of flux takes place
conservation of _______ . 6. Consider coil and magnet
4. The average power dissipation in pure
inductance is _______ . Y
5. A conducting wire is dropped along east-west
direction then induced current flows from
N S
_______ to _______ . X
6. A dynamo converts _______ into _______ . Current is induced in coil when both coil and
7. Choke coil works on the principle of _______ . magnet move along y with same speed.
8. Induction furnace make use of _______ current. 7. Two coils are placed close to each other. The
mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends
True/ False :
upon the rates at which currents are changing in
1. An e.m.f. can be induced between the two ends the two coils.
of a straight copper wire when it is moved 8. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series
through a uniform magnetic field. with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of
2. A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non- the bulb decreases when an iron rod is inserted
uniform magnetic field. An e.m.f. is induced in in the coil.
the coil. Conceptual MCQs
3. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to the x-
axis (see Fig.) in a uniform magnetic field pointing 1. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of
in the positive z-direction. The end A of the rod inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with
gets positively charged. the coil is
(a) 2 Wb (b) 0.5 Wb
(c) 12.5 Wb (d) Zero
2. A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-varying
magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due
to the current induced in the coil. If the number
of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire
radius halved, the electrical power dissipated
would be –
(a) halved (b) the same
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled
Electromagnetic Induction P-119

3. If rotational velocity of a dynamo armature is (a) 5 H (b) 6 H

doubled, then induced emf will become (c) 11 H (d) 12 H
(a) unchanged (b) four times 9. The total charge induced in a conducting loop
(c) half (d) two times when it is moved in a magnetic field depend on
4. The coil is in a uniform magnetic field, (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
perpendicular to the plane of the coil, as shown. (b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only
10. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance
R changes by an amount Df in a time Dt. Then
the total quantity of electric charge Q that passes
any point in the circuit during the time Dt is
represented by
Consider now the following :
Df 1 Df
I. Rotation of the coil about an axis (a) Q = R. (b) Q= .
perpendicular to the coil and passing Dt R Dt
through its centre Df Df
II. Displacement of coil at constant speed (c) Q= (d) Q =
R Dt
towards right
11. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic
III. Rotation of coil about an axis passing field which changes from B0 to 4 B0 in time
through one of its diameters interval t. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be
In which of these an emf will be induced in the (a) 3 A 0 B0 / t (b) 4 A 0 B0 / t
coil :
(a) III only (b) I and III (c) 3 B0 / A 0 t (d) 4A 0 / B0 t
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III 12. A conducting square loop of side L and
5. Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
placed so close together that the effective flux velocity v perpendicular to one of its side. A
in one coil is completely linked with the other. magnetic induction B constant in
The mutual inductance between these coils is x x x x x x
x x x x x x x x
(a) 6 mH (b) 4 mH
x x x x x vx B
(c) 16 mH (d) 10 mH x x x x x
6. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, x x x x x x
current changes with time according to relation time and space, pointing perpendicular and into
i = t2e–t. At what time emf is zero? the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The
(a) 4s (b) 3s current induced in the loop in
(c) 2s (d) 1s
7. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. Bl v
(a) clockwise
The current changes in the first coil according R
to equation I=I0 sin wt, where I0 = 10A and w =
100p radian/sec. The maximum value of e.m.f. in Bl v
(b) anticlockwise
the second coil is R
(a) 2p (b) 5p
(c) p (d) 4p 2Blv
(c) anticlockw ise
8. A varying current in a coil changes from 10A to R
zero in 0.5 sec. If the average e.m.f induced in (d) zero
the coil is 220V, the self-inductance of the coil is
P-120 PHYSICS

13. If a current increases from zero to one ampere in (a) zero

0.1 second in a coil of 5 mH, then the magnitude (b) anticlockwise of the +ve z axis
of the induced e.m.f. will be (c) clockwise of the +ve z axis
(a) 0.005 volt (b) 0.5 volt (d) along the magnetic field
(c) 0.05 volt (d) 5 volt
14. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal
Diagram Based Questions :
resistance of 4000 hm. Its terminals are connected 1. In a coil of resistance 10 W, the induced current
to a load of 4000 ohm. The voltage across the developed by changing magnetic flux through
load is it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt magnitude of change in flux through the coil
(c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt in weber is
15. An e.m.f. of 2 volt is produced in a coil when the i(amp)
current changes at a steady rate from 3 to 2
amperes in 1 milli-second. The value of self
4
inductance is
(a) zero (b) 2 mH
(b) 2 H (d) 200 mH
16. A coil has 200 turns and area of 70 cm2. The t(s)
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the 0 0.1
coil is 0.3 Wb/m2 and take 0.1 sec to rotate through (a) 8 (b) 2
180º.The value of the induced e.m.f. will be (c) 6 (d) 4
(a) 8.4 V (b) 84 V 2. Fig shown below represents an area A = 0.5 m 2
(c) 42 V (d) 4.2 V situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 2.0 weber/
17. A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular m2 and making an angle of 60º with respect to
to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. A magnetic field.
small cut is made in the ring and a galvanometer
is connected across the ends such that the total
resistance of the circuit is R. When the ring is B
suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge 60
flowing through the galvanometer is
BR AB
(a) (b)
A R The value of the magnetic flux through the area
2
B A would be equal to
(c) ABR (d) (a) 2.0 weber (b) 3 weber
R2
18. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1A. (c) 3 / 2 weber (d) 0.5 weber
Energy stored in its magnetic field is 3. In the given situation, the bar magnet experinces
(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 A a ...A... force due to the ... B ... in coil.
(c) 0.05 J (d) 0.1 J
19. The armature of a dc motor has 20W resis-
tance. It draws a current of 1.5 A when run by
a 220 V dc supply. The value of the back emf
induced in it is
(a) 150 V (b) 170 V N
(c) 180 V (d) 190 V
20. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an Here, A and B refer to
uniform magnetic field B directed along positive (a) an attractive, air
z axis. The direction of induced current as seen (b) an attractive, induced current
from the z axis will be (c) repulsive, induced current
(d) attractive, vacuum
Electromagnetic Induction
4. An electron moves along the line AB, which lies
in the same plane as a circular loop of conducting
wires as shown in the diagram. What will be the
direction of current induced if any, in the loop
(a) no current will be induced
(b) the current will be clockwise
(c) the current will be anticlockwise
(d) the current will change direction as the
electron passes by
5. As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial
conducting loops separated by some distance.
When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current
IP flows in P (as seen by E) and an induced
current I Q1 flows in Q. The switch remains closed
for a long time. When S is opened, a current IQ2
flows in Q. Then the directions of I Q1 and IQ2
(as seen by E) are
(a) respectively clockwise and anticlockwise
(b) both clockwise
(c) both anticlockwise
(d) respectively anticlockwise and clockwise
6. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of
radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a
horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure.
The potential difference developed across the
ring when its speed is v, is :
Q B
r
P R
(a) Zero
(b) Bvpr2 /2 and P is at higher potential
(c) prBv and R is at higher potential
(d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
Assertion/ Reason :
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
P-121
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Induced emf will always occur
whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Reason : Current always induces whenever there
is change in magnetic flux.
2. Assertion : Faraday¢s laws are consequence of
conservation of energy.
Reason : In a purely resistive ac circuit, the
current legs behind the emf in phase.
3. Assertion : Lenz's law violates the principle of
conservation of energy.
Reason : Induced emf always opposes the
change in magnetic flux responsible for its
production.
4. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid
connected to a battery and a switch. A copper
ring is placed on a smooth surface, the axis of
the ring being horizontal. As the switch is closed,
the ring will move away from the solenoid.
df
Reason : Induced emf in the ring, e = - .
dt
5. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a
conductor in a magnetic field.
Reason : An emf can be induced by changing
the magnetic field.
6. Assertion : Figure shows a metallic conductor
moving in magnetic field. The induced emf
across its ends is zero.
Reason : The induced emf across the ends of a
conductor is given by e = Bvlsinq.
P-122 PHYSICS

7. Assertion : Eddy currents are produced in any
metallic conductor when magnetic flux is
changed around it.
Reason : Electric potential determines the flow
of charge.
8. Assertion : When number of turns in a coil is
doubled, coefficient of self-inductance of the coil
becomes 4 times.
Reason : This is because L µ N2.

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the following column-I and column-II.
Column I Column II
(A) AC generator (1) Eddy current
(B) DC motor (2) Slip rings
(C) Dead beat galvanometer (3) Split ring
(D) Solenoid wound in the form of a cylindrical coil (4) Insulated copper wire
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
2. Column I Column II
(A) Ring uniformly charged (1) Constant electrostatic field
out of system
(B) Rotating ring uniformly charged (2) Magnetic field strength rotating
velocity w with angular
(C) Constant current in ring i (3) Electric field (induced)
(D) i = i0coswt (4) Magnetic dipole moment
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (2, 3); (C) ® (1, 4, 3); (D) ® (3)
(b) (A) ® (3, 4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2,3); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (1, 2, 4); (C) ® (2, 4); (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4, 2, 1); (C) ® (2, 1); (D) ® (4, 2)
3. Time varying magnetic field is present in a circular region of radius R. Then
Column-I Column-II
(A) If a rod is placed along the diameter of the (1) Electric field is perpendicular to the
length of the rod. magnetic field
(B) Induced electric field at a point within (2) Constant along the length of
magnetic field (r < R) conductor.
r dB
(C) Induced electric field at a point out side the (3) -
2 dt
magnetic field (r > R)
R 2 dB
(D) Induced electric field in a conductor has a (4) -
2r dt
component parallel to length of conductor
Electromagnetic Induction P-123

(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
4. Figure shows two circuits in which a conducting bar is sliding at the same speed v through the same
uniform magnetic field and along a U-shaped wire. The parallel lengths of the wire are separated by 2L in
circuit 1 and by L in circuit 2. The current induced a circuit 1 is counterclockwise.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Direction of current in circuit 1 (1) clockwise
(B) Direction of current in circuit 2 (2) anti-clockwise
(C) Large induce emf circuit (3) 1
(D) Smaller induce emf circuit (4) 2
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 2.07 × 10–3 W (b) 1.23 × 10–3 W
(c) 3.14 × 10–3 W (d) 1.80 × 10–3 W
1. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is 4. A long solenoid having 200 turns per cm carries a
given by current of 1.5 amp. At the centre of it is placed a
f = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is coil of 100 turns of cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10–
(a) –190 V (b) –10 V 4 m2 having its axis parallel to the field produced
(c) 10 V (d) 190 V by the solenoid. When the direction of current in
2. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire the solenoid is reversed within 0.05 sec, the
in the form of a semicircle of radius r rotates induced e.m.f. in the coil is
about the diameter of the circle with an angular
(a) 0.48 V (b) 0.048 V
frequency w. The axis of rotation is perpendicular
(c) 0.0048 V (d) 48 V
to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit is
5. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the
R, the mean power generated per period of
same area A and total resistance R, rotates with
rotation is frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum
value of emf generated in the coil is
(Bprw) 2 (Bpr 2 w) 2
(a) (b) (a) N.A.B.R.w (b) N.A.B.
2R 2R (c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.w
6. The inductance of a closed-packed coil of 400
Bpr 2 w (Bprw2 ) 2 turns is 8 mH. A current of 5 mA is passed
(c) (d) through it. The magnetic flux through each turn
2R 8R
of the coil is
3. A circular coil of radius 6 cm and 20 turns rotates
1 1
about its vertical diameter with an angular speed (a) m0 Wb (b) m0 Wb
of 40 rad s–1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic 4p 2p
field of magnitude 2 × 10–2 T. If the coil form a 1
(c) m 0 Wb (d) 0.4 µ0Wb
closed loop of resistance 8W, then the average 3p
power loss due to joule heating is
P-124 PHYSICS

21 Alternating
Current
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs
1. The maximum value of a.c. voltage in a circuit is 1. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in
707 V. Its r.m.s. value is _______ . inductance is I = 5 sin (100 t – p/2) amperes and
2. All a.c. meters are based on _______ effect of the potential difference is V = 200 sin (100 t)
current. volts. The power consumption is equal to
3. The alternating current of equivalent value of (a) 1000 watts (b) 40 watts
I0 (c) 20 watts (d) 0 watt
is _______ current.
2 2. A step down transformer is connected to 2400
4. In LCR circuit if resistance increases, quality volts line and 80 amperes of current is found to
factor ____ . flow in output load. The ratio of the turns in
5. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. If transformer
______ . efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing in
6. A transformer is based on the principle of the primary coil will be
_______ . (a) 1600 A (b) 20 A
7. The parallel combination of inductor and (c) 4 A (d) 1.5 A
capacitor is called as _______ circuit. 3. In the circuit shown in fig, the resonant
8. Transformers are used in _______ circuits only. frequency is
True/ False : 5mF

1. The frequency of a.c. mains in India is 60 Hz.

2. Most of the electrical energy sold by power 0.1H 5W
companies is transmitted and distributed as
alternating current. (a) 75 kc/s (b) 750 kc/s
3. The natural frequency of a L.C. circuit is equal (c) 7.5 kc/s (d) 75 mc/s
1 L 4. The power factor of an AC circuit having
to resistance (R) and inductance (L) connected in
2p C series and an angular velocity w is
4. In LCR series ac circuit, as the frequency of the (a) R/wL (b) R/(R2w2L2)
source increases, the impedence of the circuit
first decreases and then increases. (c) wL/R (d) R/(R2w2L2)½
5. Below resonance, voltage leads the current while 5. In an experiment, 200V A.C is applied at the
above it, current leads the voltage. ends of an LCR circuit. The circuit consists of
6. An alternating voltage of frequency w is induced an inductive reactance (XL) = 50W , capacitive
in electric circuit consisting of an inductance L reactance (XC) = 50W and ohmic resistance (R)
and capacitance C, connected in parallel. Then = 10W. The impedance of the circuit is
across the inductance coil the current is minimum (a) 10W (b) 20W (c) 30W (d) 40W
when w2 = 1/(L C). 6. In an A.C. circuit with phase voltage V and
7. If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or L is large, current I, the power dissipated is
the circuit is more selective. (a) VI (b) V2I (c) VI2 (d) V2I2
Alternating Current P-125

7. In a transformers, number of turns in primary (d) lags behind the source voltage V by an angle
coil are 140 and that in secondary coil are 280. If between 0° and 90°.
current in primary coil is 4A, then that in 15. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in
secondary coil is series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (c) 6 A (d) 10 A combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt
8. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to battery. The time constant of the circuit is
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents (a) 20 seconds (b) 5 seconds
(b) make it light weight (c) 1/5 seconds (d) 40 seconds
(c) make it robust and sturdy 16. Resonance frequency of a circuit is f. If the
(d) increase secondary voltage capacitance is made 4 times the initial value, then
9. In an oscillating LC circuit the max. charge on the resonance frequency will become :
the capacitor is Q. The charge on capacitor when (a) f/2 (b) 2f (c) f (d) f/4
the energy is stored equally between electric 17. The average power delivered to an AC circuit by
and magnetic field is the source of emf is maximum when the circuit is
(a) consisting LCR away from resonance
(a) Q/2 (b) Q/ 3 (b) purely capacitive
(c) Q / 2 (d) Q (c) purely inductive
(d) purely resistive
10. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200
18. An inductor and a resistor in series are
2 sin 100 t volts is connected to a capacitor connected to an A.C. supply of variable
of capacity 1 mF. The r.m.s. value of the current frequency. As the frequency of the source is
in the circuit is increased, the phase angle between current and
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA the potential difference across L will:
(c) 200 mA (d) 20 mA
L
11. An inductance L having a resistance R is
connected to an alternating source of angular
frequency w. The Quality factor Q of inductance
is ~ R
(a) R/ wL (b) (wL/R)2
(c) (R /wL)½ (d) wL/R
(a) first increase and then decrease
12. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X,
if capacitance and frequency become double, (b) first decrease and then increase
then reactance will be (c) go on decreasing
(a) 4X (b) X/2 (d) go on increasing
(c) X/4 (d) 2X 19. An AC source of variable frequency is connected
13. Which of the following will have the dimensions to a capacitor C and an inductor L as shown. A is
of time an ammeter
(a) LC (b) R/L
(c) L/R (d) C/L
14. In the circuit shown, the voltage V1 across
capacitor C
R

V ~ C V1
As the frequency is steadily increased the
current in A will :
(a) go on decreasing gradually
(a) is in phase with the source voltage V (b) go on increasing gradually
(b) leads the source voltage V by 90° (c) first increase and then decrease
(c) leads the source voltage V by an angle (d) first decrease and then increase
between 0° and 90°
P-126 PHYSICS

20. In a series LCR circuit, if the applied voltage V (a) 150 V and 2.2 A (b) 220 V and 2.0 A
and the current in the circuit I at any instant t are (c) 220 V and 2.0 A (d) 100 V and 2.0 A
given as :
V= V0 sin wt and I = I0 sin (wt – f) 4. In the given circuit, the current drawn from the
then which of the following holds good : source is
1 1
(a) wL = (b) wL >

V = 100x sin(100pt )
wC wC

X C = 20W
X L = 10W
1

R = 20W
(c) wL < (d) none of these
wC ~
Diagram Based Questions :
1. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown
in the figure is (a) 20 A (b) 10 A
V (c) 5 A (d) 5 2 A
V0
5. The current in resistance R at resonance is
O t R
T/2 T
(a) V0 (b) V0 / 2

(c) V0/2 (d) V0 / 3 L C

2. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current ~

through the inductor is 0.9 A while the current V = V0 sin wt
through the condenser is 0.4 A. Then (a) zero
(b) minimum but finite
C
(c) maximum but finite
(d) infinite
L
Assertion/ Reason :
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
~ two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
V = V0 sin wt questions also has four alternative choices, only one
(a) current drawn from source I = 1.13 A of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(b) w = 1/(1.5 L C)
(c) I = 0.5 A (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
(d) I = 0.6 A a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
3. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter is not a correct explanation for assertion
V1 and V2 are 300 volt each. The reading of the (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete
L C R = 100 W cycle is always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined
V1 V2 V3
A over half cycle.
2. Assertion : The inductive reactance limits
~ amplitude of the current in a purely inductive
220 V, 50 Hz circuit.
Alternating Current P-127

Reason: The inductive reactance is independent 6. Assertion : When the frequency of the AC
of the frequency of the current. source in an LCR circuit equals the resonant
3. Assertion : A capacitor is connected to a direct frequency, the reactance of the circuit is zero,
current source. Its reactance is infinite. and so there is no current through the inductor
Reason : Reactance of a capacitor is given by or the capacitor.
1 . Reason : The net current in the inductor and
Xc = capacitor is zero.
wC
7. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the
4. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive
impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance.
circuit, the current is referred to as wattless
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance
current.
exceeds the capacitive reactance.
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely
8. Assertion : The power is produced when a
inductive or capacitive circuit even though a
current is flowing in the circuit. transformer steps up the voltage.
5. Assertion : The power in an ac circuit is minimum Reason : In an ideal transformer VI = constant.
if the circuit has only a resistor. 9. Assertion : A laminated core is used in
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of the transformers to increase eddy currents.
phase angle. Reason: The efficiency of a transformer increases
with increase in eddy currents.
Matching Based Questions :
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match Columns I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) RL circuit (1) Leading quantity - current
(B) RC circuit (2) Leading quantity - voltage
(C) Inductive circuit (3) Phase difference between voltage and current 0°
(D) Resistive circuit (4) Phase difference between voltage and current 90°
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)

2. In an LCR series circuit connected to an ac source, the supply voltage is V = V0 sin æç100pt + p ö÷ . VL = 40
è 6ø
V, VR = 40V, Z = 5W and R = 4W. Then match the column I and II.

Column I Column II
VL VC VR
(A) Peak current (in A) (1) 10 2

(B) V0 (in volts) (2) 50 2 L C R

(C) Effective value of applied (3) 50
voltage (in volts)
(D) XC (in W) (4) 1
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2)
P-128 PHYSICS

3. In a series LCR circuit, the e.m.f. leads current. Now the driving frequency is decreased slightly. Match
columns I and II.
Column I Column II
(A) Current amplitude (1) Increases
(B) Phase constant (2) Decreases
(C) Power developed in resistor (3) Remains same
(D) Impedance decrease (4) May increase or
(a) (A) ® (1, 2); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3, 4); (D) ® (1)
(b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (1, 2)
(d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1)
4. Consider the circuit shown in figure given below and match the columns.
L = 4mH R=10 W 10 µF

~
V = 20 sin w t
Column-I Column-II
(A) For w = 5,000 rad/sec (1) The current in circuit leads the voltage
(B) For w = 2,500 rad/sec (2) The current and voltage in circuit are in same phase
(C) For w = 75,00 rad/sec (3) The peak current in circuit is less than 2A
(D) For w = 5,000 rad/sec and R = 20W (4) Voltage in circuit leads the current.
in place of 10W
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
5. Column-I Column-II
(A) An L-C-R series circuit with 100 W resistance is connected to an A.C (1) (5/3) W
source of 200V and angular frequency 300 rad/sec. When only the
capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 60°
When only the inductance is removed, the current lead by the
voltage 60°. Impedance of circuit will be
(B) A 50 W, 100 V lamp is to be connected to an ac mains of 200V, 50 Hz. (2) 12 ´ 102 W
A capacitor of capacitance C is essential to be put in series with lamp.
What is the capacitance reactance
(C) A choke coil is needed to operate an arc lamp at 160V and 50 Hz. The (3) 11 W
arc lamp has an effective resistance of 5W when running at 10A. If the
same arc lamp is to be operated on 160V (dc), what addition resistance
is required.
Alternating Current P-129

(D) An a.c. source of angular frequency w is fed across a resistance R and (4) 100 W
capacitor of capacitance C in series. The current registered is l If now the
frequency of the source is changed to w/3 (keeping voltage same) the current
is found to the halved, the initial reactance is initial resistance will be
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : The primary is connected to an A.C. supply of
120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 A. The
1. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2W voltage and the current in the secondary are
is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The (a) 240 V, 5 A (b) 240 V, 10 A
current reaches half of its steady state value in
(c) 60 V, 20 A (d) 120 V, 20 A
(a) 0.1 s (b) 0.05 s
(c) 0.3 s (d) 0.15 s 6. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge
2. In an LCR series resonant circuit, the capacitance Q0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at
is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored
frequency, the inductance should be changed equally between the electric and the magnetic
from L to field is
L p
(a) 2 L (b) (a) LC (b)
2 4
2p LC
L
(c) 4 L (d) (c) LC (d) p LC
4
3. The instantaneous values of alternating current 7. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while
and voltages in a circuit are given as the secondary has 2000 turns. If the power
1 output from the secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW,
i= sin(100pt ) A what is the primary voltage?
2
(a) 200 V (b) 300 V
1
e= sin(100pt + p / 3) Volt (c) 400 V (d) 500 V
2 8. A transformer connected to 220 V mains is used
The average power in Watt consumed in the to light a lamp of rating 100 W and 110 V. If the
circuit is primary current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the
1 3 transformer is (approximately)
(a) (b)
4 4 (a) 60% (b) 35%
1 1 (c) 50% (d) 90%
(c) (d)
2 8 9. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is
4. A step up transformer operates on a 230 V line working on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the
and supplies a current of 2 ampere. The ratio of current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage
primary and secondary winding is 1:25 . The across the secondary coil and the current in the
current in primary is primary coil respectively are :
(a) 25 A (b) 50 A
(a) 300 V, 15A (b) 450 V, 15A
(c) 15 A (d) 12.5 A
5. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 (c) 450V, 13.5A (d) 600V, 15A
turns and its secondary winding has 200 turns.
P-130 PHYSICS

22 Electromagnetic
Waves
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs :
1. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature 1. The electromagnetic radiation used in food
is evident by _______ . processing sterilizing agent is:
2. If a variable frequency ac source connected to a (a) microwaves (b) UV rays
(c) gamma rays (d) radio waves
capacitor then with decrease in frequency, the 2. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave
displacement current will _______ . r
3. The displacement current was first postulated in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and
by ______ . seconds respectively. The value of wave vector
4. According to Maxwell’s equation the velocity k is :
of light in any medium is expressed as c = (a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1
_______ .
5. The electromagnetic radiation used in food 3. Electromagnetic radiation will be emitted in the
case of a
processing sterilizing agent is _______ .
(a) neutron moving in a straight line with a
6. _______ are the cause of “Green house effect” constant speed
7. It is possible to take pictures of those objects (b) proton moving in a straight line with a
which are not fully visible to the eye using camera constant speed
films sensitive to _______ rays. (c) is constant inside and decays as I r outside
the solenoid
True/ False : æ 1ö
(d) is constant inside and decays as exp ç – ÷
outside è rø
1. Displacement current comes into play in a region
where electric field is changing with time. 4. Intensity of electromagnetic wave will be :
2. b-rays are electromagnetic waves. (a) I = cm 0 B20 / 2 (b) I = ce 0 B20 / 2
3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity I falls on a
surface kept in vacuum and exerts radiation (c) I = B20 / cm 0 (d) I = E 02 / 2ce 0
pressure P on it. Radiation pressure is I/c if the
wave is totally absorbed. 5. The electric (E) and magnetic (B) field amplitudes
4. Energy stored in electromagnetic oscillations is associated with an electromagnetic radiation from
in the form of electric energy only. a point source behave at a distance r from the
5. The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave in source as
vacuum is doubled with no other changes made (a) E = constant, B = constant
to the wave. As a result of this doubling of the
amplitude, the speed of wave propagation 1 1 1 1
(b) E µ , Bµ (c) E µ ,B µ
changes. r r r 2
r2
6. Frequency of microwaves is greater than that of
ultraviolet rays. 1 1
7. Gamma ray has shortest wavelength in the (d) Eµ 3
, Bµ
electromagnetic spectrum. r r3
Electromagnetic Waves P-131

6. In 1825, the existence of electromagnetic waves (c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the
was predicted by electric susceptibility of vacuum
(a) Maxwell (b) Hertz (d) unity
12. In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
(c) Bose (d) Marconi
space has an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103 V/
7. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave m, then the amplitude of the magnetic field is
in free space travelling along x-direction is given
(a) 2.7 × 1012 T (b) 9.0 × 10–3 T
by : Ez = 60 sin (kx + wt) V/m.
(c) 3.0 × 10–4 T (d) 3.0 × 10–5 T
The magnetic field component will be given as :
13. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature
60 is evident by
(a) Bz = sin (kz + wt)T
c (a) polarization (b) interference
(c) reflection (d) diffraction
60
(b) Bz = sin (kx + wt)T 14. Which of the following are not electromagnetic
c waves?
60 (a) cosmic rays (b) gamma rays
(c) By = sin (ky + wt)T
c (c) b -rays (d) X-rays.
60 15. Which of the following radiations has the least
(d) By = sin (kx + wt)T wavelength ?
c
Here c represents the speed of light in free space (a) g -rays (b) b -rays
8. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave (c) a -rays (d) X -rays
of frequency 8.2 × 106 Hz, then wavelength of 16. The electric field part of an electromagnetic
the electromagnetic waves transmitted from the wave in a medium is represented by Ex=0;
source will be
(a) 36.6 m (b) 40.5 m N éæ rad ö æ –2 rad ö ù ;
E y = 2.5 cos ê ç 2π ×106 ÷ t – ç π ×10 ÷x
C ëè mø è s ø úû
(c) 42.3 m (d) 50.9 m
9. We consider the radiation emitted by the human Ez = 0. The wave is :
body. Which of the following statements is true? (a) moving along x direction with frequency 106
(a) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet Hz and wavelength 100 m.
region and hence is not visible. (b) moving along x direction with frequency
(b) The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region. 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
(c) The radiation is emitted only during the day. (c) moving along – x direction with frequency
(d) The radiation is emitted during the summers 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
and absorbed during the winters. (d) moving along y direction with frequency
10. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which 2p × 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
best suited to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 17. If l = 10 Å then it corresponds to
cm is of the order of (a) infrared (b) microwaves
(a) 1015 (b) 1014
(c) 10 13 (d) 1012 (c) ultraviolet (d) X-rays
11. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the 18. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the
amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic spectrum of
wave propagating in vacuum is equal to : (a) infrared rays (b) ultra-violet rays
(a) the speed of light in vacuum
(b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum (c) microwaves (d) g -rays
P-132 PHYSICS

19. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitudes of 2. The figure here gives the electric field of an
magnetic field Ho and electric field Eo in free space electromagnetic wave at a certain point and a
are related as : certain instant. The wave is transporting energy
in the negative z-direction. The direction of the
Eo magnetic field of the wave at that point and
(a) Ho = Eo (b) H =
c instant is

eo
(c) H o = Eo m o e o (d) H o = E o
mo
20. In an electromagnetic wave
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic
field
(b) power is transmitted along the electric
field
(a) + ve x-direction
(C) power is equally transferred along the elec- (b) –ve x-direction
tric and magnetic fields (c) +ve z-direction
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpen- (d) –ve y-direction
dicular to both the fields 3. The figure shows graphs of the electric field
21. The frequency modulated waves are magnitude E versus time t for four uniform
(a) reflected by atmosphere electric fields, all contained within identical
(b) absorbed by atmosphere circular regions. Which of them is according to
(c) bend by atmosphere the magnitudes of the magnetic field?
(d) radio waves
22. The energy of electromagnetic wave in
vacuum is given by the relation

E2 B2 1 1
(a) + (b) e 0E 2 + µ0B2
2e 0 2µ 0 2 2

E 2 + B2 1 B2 (a) A (b) B
(c) (d) e0E 2 +
c 2 2µ0 (c) C (d) D
4. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor and the
Diagram Based Questions :
current in the connecting wires that is
1. Light wave is travelling
r along y-direction. If the discharging the capacitor.
corresponding E vector at any time is along the
r
x-axis, the direction of B vector at that time is
along :
y

x
(a) The displacement current is leftward.
z (b) The displacement current is rightward
(a) y-axis (b) x-axis r
(c) The electric field E is rightward
(c) + z-axis (d) – z-axis (d) The magnetic field at point P is out the page.
Electromagnetic Waves P-133

Assertion/ Reason : wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.

DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Displacement current goes through
the gap between the plates of a capacitor when
the charge of the capacitor does not change.
Reason : The displacement current arises in the
region in which the electric field is constant with
time.
2. Assertion : Electromagnetic wave are transverse
in nature.
Reason : The electric and magnetic fields in
electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each
other and the direction of propagation.
3. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with
matter and set up oscillations.
Reason : Interaction is independent of the
4. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy
and momentum.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be
polarised.
5. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves exert
radiation pressure.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
6. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic
waves depends on electric and magnetic
properties of the medium.
Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in
free space is constant.
7. Assertion : The basic difference between various
types of electromagnetic waves lies in their
wavelength or frequencies.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves travel through
vacuum with the same speed.
8. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of
signals than optical waves.
Reason : Microwaves move faster than optical
waves.
9. Assertion : Infrared radiation plays an important
role in maintaining the average temperature of
earth.
Reason : Infrared radiations are sometimes
referred to as heat waves.

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the columns I and II.
Column I Column II
1
(A) Energy associated with an electromagnetic (1)
me
wave
u
(B) Radiation pressure (2)
c
1 1 B2
(C) Speed of EM wave in a medium (3) e0 E 2 +
2 2 m0
dfE
(D) Displacement current (4) ID = e0
dt
(a) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (1) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
P-134 PHYSICS

2. Various electromagnetic waves are given in column I and various frequency ranges in column II. Match
the two columns.
Column I Column II
(A) Radio waves (1) 1 × 1016 to 3 × 1021 Hz
(B) g-rays (2) 1 × 109 to 3 × 1011 HZ
(C) Microwaves (3) 3 × 1018 to 5 × 1022 Hz
(D) X-rays (4) 5 × 105 to 109 Hz.
(a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (5) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
3. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
Electromagnetic wave Use
(A) ultraviolet rays (1) In satellite for army purpose
(B) Infrared rays (2) Aircraft navigation in RADAR
(C) Microwave (3) Television and cellular phones
(D) Radio wave (4) Checking mineral sample
(a) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4) ; (B) ® (3) ; (C) ® (2) ; (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
4. Match Column-I (Wavelength range of electromagnetic spectrum) with Column-II (Method of production
of these waves) and select the correct option from the options given below the lists.
Column I Column II
(A) 700 nm to 1 mm (1) Vibration of atoms and molecules.
(B) 1 nm to 400 nm (2) Inner shell electrons in atoms moving
from one energy level to a lower level.
(C) < 10–3 nm (3) Radioactive decay of the nucleus.
(D) 1 mm to 0.1 m (4) Magnetron valve.
(a) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3), (B) ® (4), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
5. Match the Column-I (Phenomenon associated with electromagnetic radiation) with Column-II (Part of
electromagnetic spectrum) and select the correct code from the choices given below the lists:
Column I Column II
(A) Doublet of sodium (1) Visible radiation
(B) Wavelength corresponding to temperature (2) Microwave
associated with the isotropic radiation filling
all space
(C) Wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in (3) Short radio wave
interstellar space
(D) Wavelength of radiation arising from two (4) X-rays
close energy levels in hydrogen
(a) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (2), (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1), (B) ® (2), (C) ® (3), (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4), (B) ® (3), (C) ® (1), (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (2), (B) ® (1), (C) ® (4), (D) ® (3)
Electromagnetic Waves P-135

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and

magnetic fields are 100 V m–1 and 0.265 A m–1.
1. In order to establish an instantaneous The maximum energy flow is
displacemet current of 1 mA in the space between (a) 26.5 W/m2 (b) 36.5 W/m2
the plates of 2mF parallel plate capacitor, the (c) 46.7 W/m2 (d) 765 W/m2
potential difference need to apply is 6. The transmitting antenna of a radiostation is
mounted vertically. At a point 10 km due north
(a) 100 Vs–1 (b) 200 Vs–1
–1
of the transmitter the peak electric field is 10–3
(c) 300 Vs (d) 500 Vs–1 Vm–1. The magnitude of the radiated magnetic
2. An electromagnetic wave of frequency u = 3 field is
MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric (a) 3.33 × 10–10 T (b) 3.33 × 10–12 T
medium with permittivity (c) 10 T –3 (d) 3 × 105 T
e = 4. Then 7. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free
(a) wavelength and frequency both become space along x-axis. At a particular point in space,
half. the electric field along y-axis is 9.3V m–1. The
(b) wavelength is doubled and frequency
magnetic induction (B) along z-axis is
remains unchanged.
(a) 3.1 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–5 T
(c) wavelength and frequncy both remain
unchanged. (c) 3 × 10–6 T (d) 9.3 × 10–6 T
(d) wavelength is halved and frequency 8. The rms value of the electric field of the light
remains unchanged. coming from the Sun is 720 N/C. The average
3. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave total energy density of the electromagnetic wave
r is
in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
(a) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3 (b) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and
seconds respectively. The value of wave vector (c) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3 (d) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3
k is 9. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 travelling through vaccum is given by the
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1 equation E = E0 sin (kx – wt). The quantity that
4. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic is independent of wavelength is
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value
k
of electric field strength is (a) kw (b)
(a) 3 V/m (b) 6 V/m w
(c) 9 V/m (d) 12 V/m (c) k 2 w (d) w
P-136 PHYSICS

23 Ray Optics and

Optical Instruments
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs
1. The minimum distance between an object and
1. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an
its real image formed by a convex lens is
_______. image 1/nth of the size of the object. The distance
2. Intensity of light after reflection _______ . of the object from the mirror is
n2 n1 n2 - n1 f
3. The equation - = holds true for (a) (b) (n - 1)f
v u R n -1
any _______ .
4. When the angle of incidence of a light ray is æ n -1ö
(c) nf - 1 (d) çè ÷f
greater than the critical angle it gets _______ . n ø
5. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water
2. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window
is minimum for _______ colour of light.
6. A ray of light is refracted through a prism 3
of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is
producing minimum deviation. If i and e denote 2
the angle of incidence and emergence for this is
prism, then i and e related as _______ .
(a) 2 × 10–4 sec (b) 2 × 108 sec
7. The focal length of a normal eye-lens is about
______ .
8. To increase the angular magnification of a simple (c) 2 × 10–11 sec (d) 2 × 1011 sec
microscope, one should increase _____ of lens. 3. The hypermetropia is a
True/ False : (a) short-sight defect
(b) long-sight defect
1. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal (c) bad vision due to old age
all lie in the same plane.
(d) none of these
2. After reflection, velocity, wavelength and
frequency of light remains same. 4. A thin prism P1 with angle 4° made of glass of
3. A convex mirror is used to form the real image of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another
an object. thin prism P2 made of glass of refractive index
4. In case of reflection over spherical surface, 1.72 to produce no deviation. The angle of prism
normal is taken as perpendicular of tangent at
P2 is
point of incidence.
5. Sunlight reaches to us in composite form and (a) 3° (b) 2.6°
not in its constituent colours because vacuum (c) 4° (d) 5.33°
is non–dispersive and speed of all colours is 5. Green light of wavelength 5460 Å is incident on
same in vacuum. an air-glass interface. If the refractive index of
6. At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to glass is 1.5, the wavelength of light in glass would
pass through a larger distance in the atmosphere. be (c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
7. According to Rayleigh, scattering is (a) 3640 Å (b) 5460 Å
proportional to (1/l)2. (c) 4861 Å (d) none of the above
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-137

6. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a (a) 20 cm (b) 24 cm

printed page lying on a horizontal surface. The (c) 30 cm (d) 15 cm
minimum value of the refractive index of glass
for which the letters on the page are not visible 13. For glass prism (m = 3) , the angle of minimum
from any of the vertical faces of block is – deviation is equal to the angle of prism. The angle
(a) ³ 3 (b) ³ 1.55 of prism is
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) ³ 2 (d) ³ 1.38 (c) 60° (d) 90°
7. For the normal setting of telescope 14. A ray of light falls on transparent sphere with
(a) neither the object nor the final image has to centre at C as shown in the figure. The ray
be at infinity. emerges from the sphere parallel to the line AB.
(b) both object and the final image is at infinity The refractive index of the sphere is
(c) only object is at the infinity
(d) only the final image is at infinity C
A B
8. A point object is moving on the principal axis of 60°
a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards
the mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from
the mirror its velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the (a) 2 (b) 3
velocity of the image at that instant ? (c) 3/2 (d) 1/2
(a) 9 cm/sec away from the mirror 15. A normal eye is not able to see objects closer
(b) 9 cm/sec away from the mirror than 25 cm because
(c) 4 cm/sec towards the mirror (a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm
(d) 4 cm/sec away from the mirror (b) the distance of the retina from the eye-lens
9. A planoconvex lens of focal length 6.0 cm is is 25 cm
constructed from a material of refractive index (c) the eye is not able to decrease the distance
µ = 1.5with respect to air. The radius of curvature between the eye-lens and the retina beyond
of the curved surface is : a limit
(a) 6.0 cm (b) 3.0 cm (d) the eye is not able to decrease the focal
(c) 9.0 cm (d) 4.5 cm
length beyond a limit
10. A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a 16. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m.
concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined Power of spectacle lenses required for (i) reading
together. What will be their resulting power? purposes, (ii) seeing distant objects,
(a) + 6.5 D (b) – 6.5 D respectively, are
(c) + 7.5 D (d) – 0.75 D (a) –2 D and + 3 D (b) +2 D and –3 D
11. The diameter of the moon is 3.5 × 103 km and its (c) +2 D and –0.33 D (d) –2 D and + 0.33 D
distance from the earth is 3.8 × 105 km. The 17. If two mirrors are kept at 60º to each other, then
angular diameter of the moon formed by a the number of images formed by them is
telescope, if the focal length of the objective is (a) 5 (b) 6
4m and that of the eyepiece is 10 cm, will be near (c) 7 (d) 8
to : 18. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness
t and having refractive index m. If c be the
(a) 0.37° (b) 11° velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by
(c) 21° (d) 57° the light to travel this thickness of glass is
12. A plano-convex lens has curved surface having t
radius of curvature 60 cm and it is made of (a)
mc
(b) tmc
material of refractive index 1.5. When the convex
surface is silvered, the system will work as a mt tc
concave mirror of focal length (c) (d)
c m
P-138 PHYSICS

19. The refractive index of water is 1.33. What will

be speed of light in water ?
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 2.25 × 108 m/s
8
(c) 4 × 10 m/s (d) 1.33 × 108 m/s 60°
(ii) Air
20. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive Water
41°
index m. The other half of the vessel is filled with
an immiscible liquid of refrative index 1.5 m. The
apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the actual
depth. Then m is
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.5 q
(c) 1.6 (d) 1.67 (iii) Glass
Water
21. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in 41°
contact and coaxial. Its power is same as power
of a single lens given by
(a) 30° (b) 35°
f1 + f 2 æ f1 ö (c) 60° (d) 41°
(a) (b) ç ÷
f1f 2 çf ÷ 3. The following figure shows refraction of light at
è 2ø
the interface of three media.
æ f2 ö f1 + f 2
(c) ç ÷ (d)
çf ÷ 2
è 1ø Medium 1 Medium 2
r2 Medium 3
r1
Diagram Based Questions :
r1
1. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected i1
by a mirror and going as A' and B'. The mirror

Correct the order of optical density of the three

A
media is
(a) d1 > d2 > d3 (b) d2 > d1 > d3
B A (c) d3 > d1 > d2 (d) d2 > d3 > d1
4. The graph between angle of deviation (d) and
B angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is
represented by
(a) is plane
(b) is convex
(c) is concave (a) (b) d
d
(d) may be any spherical mirror
2. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air
to water are shown in figure (i) and figure (ii) o o
below. The value of the angle q in the case of i i
refraction as shown in figure (iii) will be

(c) (d)
35° d d
(i) Glass
Air 60°
o o
i i
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-139

5. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum is not a correct explanation for assertion
deviation (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Q
R
S
1. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
P Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object
is real.
2. Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror
(a) PQ is horizontal will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.
(b) QR is horizontal Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of
(c) RS is horizontal radius R is equal to , f = R/2.
(d) Any one will be horizontal 3. Assertion : The image formed by a concave mirror
is certainly real if the object is virtual.
6. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed Reason : The image formed by a concave mirror
in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam is certainly virtual if the object is real.
incident normally on the face AB is totally 4. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of
reflected to reach on the face BC if f from a convex mirror of focal length f its image
will form at infinity.
A B Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror
q can never be infinity.
5. Assertion : The image of a point object situated
at the centre of hemispherical lens is also at the
centre.
6. Assertion : When a convex lens (µg= 3/2) of
focal length f is dipped in water, its focal length
8 2 8 4
(a) sin q ³ (b) < sin q < becomes f .
3 9 3
9 Reason : The focal length of convex lens in water
2 becomes 4f.
(c) sin q £ (d) None of these 7. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex
3
lens of radius of curvature R made of material of
Assertion/ Reason : refractive index µ = 1.5, is R.
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 8. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these emerging from a lens; the lens must be concave.
questions also has four alternative choices, only one Reason : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one 9. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. more if the diameter of the objective lens is more.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects
a correct explanation for assertion. more light.
Matching Based Questions :
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the Column-I and Column-II
Column – I Column – II
(A) An object is placed at focus (1) Magnification is –¥
before aconvex mirror
(B) An object is placed at centre of curvature (2) Magnification is 0.5
before a concave mirror
P-140 PHYSICS

(C) An object is placed at focus (3) Magnification is +1

before a concave mirror
(D) An object is placed at centre of curvature (4) Magnification is –1
before a convex mirror
(5) Magnification is 0.33
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (5) (b) (A) ® (5); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (5) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (5); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
2. Column I Column II
(A) Mirage (1) Refraction of light by
(B) Apparent depth of object is lesser than (2) Scattering of sunlight
the actual depth in water
(C) Blue colour of sky (3) Total internal reflection
(D) The formation of rainbow (4) Dispersion of sunlight
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
3. Column I Column II
(A) Lens of power + 2.0 D (1) Convex lens of focal length 200 cm.
(B) Lenses of combination of power +0.25 D (2) Concave lens of focal length 40 cm
and +0.25 D
(C) Lens of power –2.0 D (3) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(D) Lenses combination of power –60 D (4) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm
and +3.5 D
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
4. For an object placed in front of a mirror, magnification (m) is given in Column I, Column II gives the
possible nature of the mirror or that of image. Match appropriately.
Column – I Column – II
1
(A) m = (1) Concave mirror
4
(B) m = –1 (2) Convex mirror
(C) m=2 (3) Plane mirror
(D) m=1 (4) Real
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2)
5. Column I Column II

(A) Hypermetropia (1)

(B) Myopia (2)

(C) Astigmatism (3)

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-141

(D) Presbyopia (4)

(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
6. Match the columns I and II
Column I Column II
(A) Terrestrial telescope (1) Final image is inverted
w.r.t. the object.
(B) Galileo’s telescope (2) No chromatic aberration
(C) Reflecting telescope (3) Final image is erected.
(D) Astronomical (4) Uses concave lens for
telescope the eyepiece to obtain
an erected image.
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses
(refractive index 1.5) each having radius of
1. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex
refractive index m1 and the other half is filled surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening
with water of refractive index m2. The apparent space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The
depth of the vessel when viewed from above is focal length of the combination is
x (m1 + m 2 ) (a) –25 cm (b) –50 cm
xm1m 2
(a) (b) (c) 50 cm (d) –20 cm
2m1m2 2(m1 + m2 )
5. The refracting angle of a prism is ‘A’, and
xm1m2 2 x (m1 + m2 ) refractive index of the material of the prism is
(c) (d) cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is :
(m1 + m 2 ) m1m2
(a) 180° – 2A (b) 90° – A
2. Light travels in two media A and B with speeds
(c) 180° + 2A (d) 180° – 3A
1.8 ×
6. The focal lengths of objective and eye lens of
108 m s–1 and 2.4 × 108 m s–1 respectively. Then
an astronomical telelscope are respectively 2
the critical angle between them is
meter and 5 cm. Final image is formed at (i) least
æ 2ö æ 3ö distance of distinct vision (ii) infinity Magnifying
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) tan -1 ç ÷ power in two cases will be
è 3ø è 4ø
(a) – 48, – 40 (b) – 40, – 48
æ 2ö æ 3ö (c) – 40, + 48 (d) – 48, + 40
(c) tan -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
è 3ø è 4ø 7. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as
3. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
power of – 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be face, is
(a) – 1D
(c) – 25 D
(b) 1 D
(d) 25 D (a) 3/ 2 (b)
( 3 + 1)
2

(c)
( 2 +1 ) (d) 5 /2
2
P-142 PHYSICS

24 Wave Optics

Fill in the Blanks : 5. The resolving power of a telescope is limited by

1. The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating
in the same phase is called _______ .
2. A plane wave passes through a convex lens.
The geometrical shape of the wavefront that
emerges is _______ .
3. If two coherent sources are vibrating in phase
then we have _______ interference at any point
whenever the path difference is nl.
4. In young’s double slit experiment, the central
point on the screen is _______ .
5. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in
water keeping the rest of the set-up same, the
fringe width will _____.
6. When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter
wave plate, the emergent light is _______
polarised.
7. In a diffraction pattern by a wise, on increasing
diameter of wire, fringe width _____.
8. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because
it ______ intensity of sunlight.
9. According to Brewster’s law of polarisation,
m = _______ .
True/ False :
1. Shape of wavefront in case of light emerging
out of a convex lens when a point source is
placed at its focus is plane.
2. A point source emitting waves uniformly in all
directions.
3. At a small distance from the source, a small
portion of sphere can be considered as plane
wave.
4. In order to observe good interference and
diffraction pattern, the distance between the slits
should be very small (~ mm).
the diameter of objective lens.
6. The magnification by objective lens of a
microscope does not depend upon the angle
subtended by the diameter of the objective lens
at the focus of the microscope.
7. Fringes with blue light are thicker than those for
red light.
Conceptual MCQs
1. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of
width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an
angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is
incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum
is observed at an angle of :
æ 1ö æ 2ö
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
è 4ø è 3ø
æ 1ö -1 æ 3 ö
(c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin çè ÷ø
è 2ø 4
2. A parallel beam of light pass through a screen
S1 containing a slit and then produces a
diffraction pattern on a screen S2 placed behind
it. The width of the central maximum observed
on the scren S2 can be increased by
(a) decreasing the distance between the
screens S1 and S2
(b) increasing the width of the slit in screen S1
(c) decreasng the momentum of the electrons
(d) increasing the momentum of the electron
3. In Young's double slit experiment 10th order
maximum is obtained at the point of observation
in the interference pattern for l = 7000 Å. If the
source is replaced by another one of wavelength
5000 Å then the order of maximum at the same
point will be –
Wave Optics P-143

(a) 12 th (b) 14 th screen is placed at a large distance from the slit.

(c) 16 th (d) 18 th If the speed of the electrons is increased, which
4. A double slit is illuminated by two wavelength of the following statements is correct ?
450 nm and 600 nm. What is the lowest order at (a) The angular width of the central maximum
which the maxima of one wavelength coincides of the diffraction pattern will increase.
with the minima of the other wavelength – (b) The angular width of the central maximum
(a) 1 (b) 2 will decrease.
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) The angular width of the central maximum
5. In the far field diffraction pattern of a single slit will be unaffected.
under polychromatic illumination, the first (d) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the
minimum with the wavelength l1 is found to be screen in case of electrons.
coincident with the third maximum at l2. So – 12. In the Young's double slit experiment the
(a) 3l1 = 0.3l2 (b) 3l1 = l2 separation between the slits is halved and the
(c) l1 = 3.5 l2 (d) 0.3l1 = 3l2 distance between slits and the screen is doubled
6. Which of the following cannot exhibit diffraction the fringe width is
phenomenon ? (a) quadrupled (b) doubled
(a) photons (b) electrons (c) unchanged (d) halved
(c) neutrons (d) none of the above 13. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed
7. An unpolarised beam of light is incident on a with blue and with green light of wavelengths
plane surface separating air and glass at an angle 4360Å and 5460Å respectively. If x is the distance
equal to the Brewster angle. Then : of 4th maxima from the central one, then
(a) the reflected light has electric component (a) x (blue) = x (green)
only perpendicular to the incident plane. (b) x (blue) > x (green)
(b) the reflected light has electric component (c) x (blue) < x (green)
only in the plane of incidence.
(c) the electric component parallel to the plane x (blue) 5460
(d) =
of incidence in refracted ray completely x (green) 4360
disappear. 14. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe
(d) the magnetic component of the refracted width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole
light completely disappear. apparatus is immersed in water of refrative index
8. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity
of light at a point on the screen where the path 4
, without disturbing the geometrical
difference is l is K units. What is the intensity of 3
light at a point where the path difference is l/3; l arrangement, the new fringe width will be
being the wavelength of light used? (a) 0.30 mm (b) 0.40 mm
(a) K/4 (b) K/3 (c) 0.53 mm (d) 450 microns
(c) K/2 (d) K 15. In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are
9. A single slit is illuminated by light whose placed 0.90 mm apart and fringe are observed
wavelengths are la and lb, so chosen that the one metre away. If it produces second dark fringe
first diffraction minimum of la coincides with the at a distance of 1 mm from central fringe, the
second minimum of lb. The two wavelengths wavelength of monochromatic light used would
are related as : be
(a) la= lb (b) 2la = lb (a) 60 × 10–4 cm (b) 10 × 10–4 cm
(c) la= 2lb (d) 2la = 3lb (c) 10 × 10–5 cm (d) 6 × 10–5 cm
10. If the source of light used in a Young’s double 16. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with
slit experiment is changed from red to violet: light of wavelength (l) = 5000Å, the distance
(a) the fringes will become brighter
between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at
(b) consecutive fringes will comes closer
200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at
(c) the intensity of minima will increase
(d) the central fringe- will became a dark fringe x = 0. The third maximum (taking the central
11. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is inci- maximum as zeroth maximum) will be at x equal to
dent normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent (a) 1.67 cm (b) 1.5 cm
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
P-144 PHYSICS

17. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s (a) points (b) straight lines
double slit experiment is replaced by a (c) semi-circles (d) concentric circles
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity 2. Figure shows two coherent sources S1 and S2
(a) fringe width will decrease vibrating in same phase. AB is an irregular wire
(b) finge width will increase lying at a far distance from the sources S1 and
(c) fringe width will remain unchanged
(d) fringes will become less intense l
S2. Let = 10 -3 and Ð BOA = 0.12° . How
18. Interference was observed in interference d
chamber where air was present, now the chamber many bright spots will be seen on the wire,
is evacuated, and if the same light is used, a including points A and B?
careful observer will see
(a) No interference A
S1
(b) Interference with brighter bands
(c) Interference with dark bands d O
(d) Interference fringe with larger width
19. Two linear polarizers are crossed at an angle of S2
B
60°. The fraction of intensity of light transmitted
(a) 5 (b) 4
by the pair is
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/8 (c) 3/8 (d) 1/2 (c) 3 (d) 7
20. When wave of wavelength 0.2 cm is made 3. In Young's double slit experiment shown in figure
incident normally on a slit of width 0.004m, then S1 and S2 are coherent sources and S is the screen
the semi-angular width of central maximum of having a hole at a point 1.0mm away from the
diffraction pattern will be- central line. White light (400 to 700nm) is sent
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 0° through the slits. Which wavelength passing
21. In Young's experiment the wavelength of red through the hole has strong intensity?
light is 7.5 × 10–5 cm. and that of blue light
5.0 × 10–5 cm. The value of n for which (n +1)th the
blue bright band coincides with nth red band is - S1 Centre of
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1 screen
0.5mm
22. The equation of two light waves are S2 Screen
y1 = 6 coswt and y2 = 8 cos (wt + f). 1.0mm
The ratio of maximum to minimum intensities hole
produced by the superposition of these 50cm S
waves will be
(a) 49 : 1 (b) 1 : 49 (c) 1 : 7 (d) 7 : 1 (a) 400 nm (b) 700 nm
(c) 500 nm (d) 667 nm
Diagram Based Questions : 4. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white
1. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are light is incident on the plane of the slits then the
separated by a small distance 'd' as shown in distance of the
figure. The fringes obtained on the screen will nearest white spot on the screen from O is d/A.
be Find the value of A. (assume d << D, l << d]

d 2d/3
d O

S1 S2 Screen D

D
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 4
Wave Optics
5. For the given arrangement, the screen will have
Sodium lamp
S1
S2
Screen
(a) interference pattern with central maxima
(b) interference pattern with central minima
(c) two separate interference patterns with
central maxima
(d) doubly illuminated screen with no
interference pattern at all
6. A single-slit-diffraction pattern, through
following arrangement using an electric bulb as
the source of light only will be
(a) central dark fringe followed by bright fringe
of red colour
(b) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe
than bands of varying intensity
(c) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe
then wider red fringes and narrower blue
fringes.
(d) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe
then wider blue fringes followed by
narrower red fringes.
7. The figure shows Fraunhoffer’s diffraction due
to a single slit. If first minimum is obtained in the
direction shown, then the path difference
between rays 1 and 3 is
P-145
1
2
3
(a) 0 (b) l/4
(c) l / 2 (d) l
Assertion/ Reason :
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected
when two coherent sources are infinitely close
to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely
proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
2. Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of
equal intensity to study interference pattern.
Reason : There will be an effect on clarity if the
waves are of unequal intensity.
3. Assertion : White light falls on a double slit
with one slit is covered by a green filter. The
bright fringes observed are of green colour.
Reason : The fringes observed are coloured.
4. Assertion : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced
in front of the upper slit, then the fringe pattern
shifts in the downward direction.
Reason : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal,
the minima will be completely dark.
5. Assertion : In YDSE, if I1 = 9I0 and I2 = 4I0 then
Imax
= 25.
I min
Reason : In YDSE Imax = ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 and
I min = ( I1 - I 2 ) 2 .
P-146 PHYSICS

6. Assertion : In YDSE number of bright fringe or becomes narrower.

dark fringe can not be unlimited Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by
Reason : In YDSE path difference between the Dl
superposing waves can not be more than the b= .
d
distance between the slits. 8. Assertion : Coloured spectrum is seen when we
7. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using look through a muslin cloth.
yellow light instead of red light, the fringes Reason : It is due the diffraction of white light
on passing through fine slits.

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Column I Column II.
(A) Interference of light (1) I = I0 cos2 q
(B) Brewster’s Law (2) Obstacle/aperture of size = l
(C) Diffraction of light (3) m = tan ip
(D) Law of Malus (4) Coherent sources
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
2. Column I Column II.
(A) Reflection (1) Used for reducing glare
(B) Refraction (2) Change in path of light without change
in medium
(C) Interference (3) m = sin i/sin r
(D) Polarization (4) Light added to light produces darkness
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
3. In the figure shown A, B and C are the three slits each of which individually produces the same intensity
l 0 , at point P0 when they are illuminated by parallel beam of light of wavelength l.
l
(Given: BP0 - AP0 = , d << D, l 0 = 4 W/m2, Amplitude of each wave = 2 units, l = 6000Å)
2
Column-I Column-II
(A) Resultant intensity at P0 in (W/m2) (1) 4 C
d
(B) Resultant amplitude at P0 (in unit) (2) zero
B
(C) If slit C is closed then resultant (3) 2
2d
intensity at P0
A P0
(D) If slit B is closed resulting (4) 2 2

amplitude at P0 (in SI unit)

Wave Optics P-147

(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
4. Column-I
(A) Central fringes is bright and all
fringes are equally spaced
(B) Central fringes is dark and all
fringes are equally spaced
(C) Central fringes is bright and
fringes are not equally spaced
(D) All fringes are equally spaced
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
(d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
Column-II
(1) Interference in wedge-shaped thin film
(2) Young’s double slit experiment
(3) Fraunhofer single slit diffraction
experiment
(4) Lloyd’s mirror experiment
(b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
(d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes
making an angle of 60º. Then the percentage of
1. Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point incident unpolarised light which passes through
of the screen are coming from coherent sources the system is
of light with phase difference 3p rad. Their (a) 100 (b) 50
amplitudes are 1 cm each. The resultant (c) 12.5 (d) 37.5
amplitude at the given point will be. 5. If the polarizing angle of a piece of glass for
(a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm green light is 54.74°, then the angle of minimum
(c) 2 cm (d) zero deviation for an equilateral prism made of same
2. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, let b be the glass is
fringe width, and let I0 be the intensity at the [Given, tan 54.74° = 1.414]
central bright fringe. At a distance x from the (a) 45° (b) 54.74°
central bright fringe, the intensity will be (c) 60° (d) 30°
6. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light
æxö 2æ xö with mutually perpendicular planes of
(a) I 0 cos çç ÷÷ (b) I 0 cos çç ÷÷
èbø èbø polarization are seen through a polaroid. From
the position when the beam A has maximum
intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a
æ px ö æ I0 ö æ px ö
(c) I 0 cos 2 çç ÷÷ (d) ç ÷ cos 2 çç ÷÷ rotation of polaroid through 30° makes the two
è b ø è 4ø è b ø beams appear equally bright. If the initial
3. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensities of the two beams are IA and IB
IA
intensity of light at a point on the screen where respectively, then equals:
IB
the path difference is l is K, (l being the
wavelength of light used). The intensity at a point 3
(a) 3 (b)
where the path difference is l/4, will be 2
(a) K (b) K/4 1
(c) 1 (d)
(c) K/2 (d) Zero 3
P-148 PHYSICS

25 Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs
1. When the speed of electrons increase, then the 1. The phenomenon which can be explained only
value of its specific charge _______ . by quantum nature of light is
2. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the (a) photoelectric effect (b) reflection
incident light has _______ than a certain mini- (c) interference (d) polarization
mum frequency. 2. No photoelectrons are emitted from a metal if
3. A photosensitive substance emits _____ when the wavelength of the light exceeds 600 nm. The
illuminated by light. work function of the metal is approximately equal
4. In a photon-particle collision, _______ does not to
remain conserved. (a) 3 × 10–16 J (b) 3 × 10–19 J
5. The maximum energy of electrons released in a (c) 3 × 10 J –20 (d) 3 × 10–22 J
photocell is independent of _______ of incident 3. Which metal will be suitable for a photoelectric
light. cell using light of wavelength 4000Å. The work
6. Positive rays are very identical to _______ rays. functions of sodium and copper are respectively
7. One electron volt (ev) = _______ joule. 2.0 eV and 4.0 eV.
8. In Heinrich Hertz’s experiment on the production (a) Sodium (b) Copper
of electromagnetic waves by means of spark (c) Both (d) None of these
discharge, high voltage sparks across the 4. The potential difference that must be applied to
detector loop were enhanced when the emitter stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a
plate was illuminated by _____ light. nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV,
when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must
True/ False : be
(a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V
1. Dual nature of radiation is shown by photoelec- (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V
tric effect and diffraction. 5. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the
2. Cathode rays do not deflect in electric field. velocity of electrons emitted from the electron
3. Electromagnetic radiations with high intensity gun can be increased by
have high frequency. (a) increasing the potential difference between
4. The stopping potential depends on the inten- the anode and filament
sity of incident radiation. (b) increasing the filament current
5. In the interaction with matter, radiation behaves (c) decreasing the filament current
as if it is made up of photons. (d) decreasing the potential difference between
6. Davisson and Germer experiment proved wave the anode and filament
nature of light.
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter P-149

6. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light 11. A photon of 1.7 × 10–13 joule is absorbed by a
of wavelength 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% material under special circumstances. The correct
efficient in converting electrical energy to light, statement is
the number of photons of yellow light it emits (a) Electrons of the atom of absorbed material
per second is will go the higher energy states
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 (b) Electron and positron pair will be created
(c) 62 × 10 20 (d) 3 × 1019 (c) Only positron will be produced
7. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, (d) Photoelectric effect will occur and electron
the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted will be produced
photoelectrons from a metal versus the 12. Photoelectric emission is observed from a
frequency of the incident radiation gives a metallic surface for frequencies v1 and v2 of the
straight line whose slope incident light rays (v1 > v2). If the maximum
(a) depends both on the intensity of the values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
radiation and the metal used emitted in the two cases are in the ratio of 1 : k,
(b) depends on the intensity of the radiation then the threshold frequency of the metallic
(c) depends on the nature of the metal used surface is
v1 - v 2 kv1 - v 2
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of (a) (b)
the intensity of the radiation k -1 k -1
8. Two identical photocathodes receive light of kv2 - v1 v 2 - v1
frequencies f 1 and f 2. If the velocites of the (c) (d)
k -1 k
photoelectrons (of mass m ) coming out are with 13. The surface of a metal is illuminted with the light
velocity v1 and v2 respectively, then of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected
2 2h
2 photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The
(a) v1 - v2 = (f - f )
m 1 2 work function of the metal is
1/ 2 (hc = 1240 eV.nm)
é 2h ù
(b) v1 + v2 = ê ( f1 + f 2 )ú (a) 1.41 eV (b) 1.51 eV
ëm û (c) 1.68 eV (d) 3.09 eV
(c) 2 2 2h 14. If in a photoelectric cell, the wavelength of
v1 + v2 = (f + f )
m 1 2 incident light is changed from 4000Å to 3000 Å
1/ 2 then change in stopping potential will be
(d) v1 - v2 = éê ( f1 - f 2 )ùú
2h
(a) 0.66 V (b) 1.03 V
ëm û (c) 0.33 V (d) 0.49 V
9. A proton accelerated through a potential 15. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident
difference of 100V, has de-Broglie wavelength on the cathode of a photoelectric cell, the work
l0. The de-Broglie wavelength of an a-particle, function of the cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order
accelerated through 800V is to reduce the photocurrent to zero the voltage
l0 l0
(a) (b) of the anode relative to the cathode must be
2 2 made
l0 l0 (a) – 4.2 V (b) – 9.4 V
(c) (d)
4 8 (c) – 17.8 V (d) + 9.4 V
10. For same energy, find the ratio of lphoton and 16. The frequency and work function of an incident
lelectron. (m is mass of electron) photon are v and f0. If v0 is the threshold
2m 1 2m frequency then necessary condition for the
(a) c (b) emission of photoelectron is
E c E
v
1 2m (a) v < v0 (b) v = 0
1 2m 2
(c) (d) (c) v ³ v0
c 2 E c E2 (d) None of these
P-150 PHYSICS

17. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two Diagram Based Questions :
photons, each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron 1. In the given set-up, the photoelectric current
of aluminium, then emission of electrons cannot be varied by varying the
Quartz
(a) will be possible
window
(b) will not be possible S
(c) Data is incomplete
Evacuated
(d) Depends upon the density of the surface glass tube
18. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is Photosensitive
plate
given by Electrons
ìE 0 ; 0 £ x £ 1
U(x) = í
î 0; x >1
l1 and l2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the
particle, when 0 £ x £ 1 and x > 1 respectively. If Commutator
the total energy of particle is 2E0, then ratio V
l1
l2
will be
+–
(a) 2 (b) 1 (a) potential of plate A w.r.t. the plate C
1 (b) intensity of incident light
(c) 2 (d) (c) material of plate A
2
19. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function (d) material of plate C
4.7 eV is suspended from an insulating thread in 2. In Hallwach’s experiment on photoelectric emis-
freespace. It is under continuous illumination of sion with following setup, it was observed that
200 nm wavelength light. As photoelectrons are UV light Zinc plate
emitted, the sphere gets charged and acquires a
potential. The maximum number of
photoelectrons emitted from the sphere is
Photoelectrons
A ´ 10z (where 1 < A < 10). The value of ‘z’ is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 6 (d) 4
20. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of
wavelengths 400 nm and 250 nm, the maximum Electroscope
velocities of the photoelectrons ejected are u The zinc plate became _____ if initially nega-
tively charged.
and 2u respectively. The work function of the (a) positively charged
metal is (h = Planck’s constant, c = velocity of (b) negatively charged
light in air) (c) uncharged
(a) 2 hc × 106 J (b) 1.5 hc × 106 J (d) more positively charged
(c) hc × 10 J 6 (d) 0.5 hc × 106 J 3. In the given graph of photoelectric current ver-
sus collector plate potential the quantities (A),
(B), and (C) represent
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Photocurrent
B
A o
C Collector plate potential
(i) A (1) Retarding potential
(ii) B (2) Stopping potential
(iii) C (3) Saturation current
(a) (i) – 2; (ii) – 1; (iii) – 3
(b) (i) – 2; (ii) – 3; (iii) – 1
(c) (i) – 3; (ii) – 2; (iii) – 1
(d) (i) – 1; (ii) – 2; (iii) – 3
4. In a photoelectric experiment, anode potential
(v) is plotted against plate current (I)
I
C B
A
V
(a) A and B will have different intensities while
B and C will have different frequencies
(b) B and C will have different intensities while
A and C will have different frequencies
(c) A and B will have different intensities while
A and C will have equal frequencies
(d) A and B will have equal intensities while B
and C will have different frequencies
5. The maximum kinetic energy (E max ) of
photoelectrons emitted in a photoelectric cell
varies with frequency (n) as shown in the graph.
The slope of the graph is equal to
E max
n Reason : The energy of electrons emitted from
n0
P-151
(a) charge of the electron
e
(b) of the electron
m
(c) work function of the emitter
(d) Plank’s constant
6. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed.
The wavelength l of the light falling on the
cathode is gradually changed. The plate current
I of the photocell varies as follows
I I
(a) (b)
O l O l
I I
(c) (d)
O l O l
Assertion/ Reason :
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission,
all emitted electrons do not have same kinetic
energy.
Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive
surface of a metal consists of differ ent
wavelength then energy acquired by electrons
absorbing photons of different wavelengths
shall be different.
2. Assertion : Though light of a single frequency
(monochromatic) is incident on a metal, the
energies of emitted photoelectrons are different.
P-152 PHYSICS

inside the metal surface, is lost in collision with
the other atoms in the metal.
3. Assertion : The phtoelectrons produced by a
monochromatic light beam incident on a metal
surface have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason : The work function of the metal is its
characteristics property.
4. Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current
increases with the increase in frequency of
incident light.
Reason : Energy of incident photons increases
with increase in frequency and as a result
photoelectric current increases.
5. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if
its work function is small.
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the
threshold frequency.
6. Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity
always emit equal number of photons in any time
interval.
Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may
emit equal number of photons in any time interval.
7. Assertion : Two photons of equal wavelength
must have equal linear momentum.
Reason : Two photons of equal linear momentum
will have equal wavelength.
8. Assertion : The kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted from metal surface does
not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic
surface is not possible with frequency of incident
photons below the threshold frequency.

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Column I Column II
(A) Field emission (1) Heat is supplied to the metal surface
(B) Photoelectric (2) Electric field is applied to the metal surface
(C) Thermionic emission (3) Light of suitable frequency illuminates the
metal surface
(D) Secondary emission (4) Striking fast moving electrons on the metal surface.
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); C ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); C ® (3); (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); C ® (2); (D) ® (1)
2. Column I Column II
(A) Electromagnetism (1) Hertz
(B) Detection of electromagnetic waves (2) Roentgen
(C) X-rays (3) J.J. Thomson
(D) Electron (4) Maxwell
(a) (A) ® 1; (B) ® 4; (C) ® 3; (D) ® 2 (b) (A) ® 2; (B) ® 3; (C) ® 1; (D) ® 4
(c) (A) ® 3; (B) ® 2; (C) ® 4; (D) ® 1 (d) (A) ® 4; (B) ® 1; (C) ® 2; (D) ® 3
3. Column I Column II
h
(A) Einstein Photoelectric equation (1) l = p

(B) de-Broglie relation (2) Kmax = hv – f0

(C) Threshold frequency (3) DxDp ; h
f0
(D) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (4) v =
h
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter P-153

(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
4. Column I Column II
(A) Photocurrent (1) The minimum energy required by electron to
escape from the metal surface
(B) Saturation current (2) The minimum retarding potential
(C) Stopping potential (3) The number of photoelectric emitted per second
(D) Work function (4) The maximum number of photoelectrons emitted
per second
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 0.15 eV (b) 1.5 eV

(c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
1. 4eV is the energy of incident photon and the
6. If the momentum of electron is changed by P,
work function is 2eV. The stopping potential will
then the de Broglie wavelength associated with
be
it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of
(a) 2V (b) 4V electron will be
(c ) 6 V (d) 2 2 V (a) 200 P (b) 400 P
2. The photoelectric work function for a metal P
surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for (c) (d) 100 P
200
this surface is
7. The wavelength le of an electron and lp of a
(a) 4125 Å (b) 3000 Å photon are of same energy E are related by
(c) 6000 Å (d) 2062 Å
3. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive
metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × (a) l p µ le (b) l p µ le
1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off
voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly 1
(c) lp µ (d) l p µ l 2e
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V le
(c) 5 V (d) 1 V
8. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving
4. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the
with speed of light c. The de-Broglie wavelength
cut-off frequency is n. If radiation of frequency
associated is given by
2n impinges on the metal plate, the maximum
possible velocity of the emitted electron will be h m0c
(m is the electron mass) (a) (b)
m0c h
(a) hn / m (b) 2 hn / m (c) zero (d) ¥
9. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV which
(c) 2 hn / m (d) hn / ( 2m ) is equal to that of a photon. The wavelength of
5. The photoelectric threshold of Tungsten is photon is l2 and that of proton is l1. The ratio
2300Å. The energy of the electrons ejected from of l2/l1 is proportional to
the surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength (a) E2 (b) E1/2
(c) E –1 (d) E–1/2
1800Å is
P-154 PHYSICS

26 Atoms
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Radii of allowed orbits of electron ar e
proportional to the principal quantum number.
1. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by 7. Frequency with which electrons orbit around the
_______ forces. nucleus in discrete orbits is inversely
2. Equivalent energy of mass equal to 1 a.m.u. is proportional to the cube of principal quantum
_______ . number.
3. The empirical atom model was given by _______ 8. Binding force with which the electron is bound
. to the nucleus increases as it shifts to outer orbits.
4. According to the Rutherford’s atomic model,
nucleus is _______ charged. Conceptual MCQs :
5. The angular momentum of the electron in 1. The following statements are all true. Which
hydrogen atom in the ground state is given by one did Rutherford consider to be supported
_______ . by the results of experiments in which a-
6. The first spectral series was disscovered by particles were scattered by gold foil?
_______ . (a) The nucleus of an atom is held together
7. Balmer series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom by forces which are much stronger than
electrical or gravitational forces.
lies in the _______ region of the electromagnetic
(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic
spectrum.
nucleus and an a-particle varies with
8. The radius of nth Bohr’s orbit of Hydrogen atom
distance according to inverse square law.
is given by _______ .
(c) a-particles are nuclei of Helium atoms.
True/ False : (d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete
energy levels.
1. The ratio of the kinetic energy to the total energy 2. The proof of quantization of energy states in
of an electron in a Bohr orbit is 1 : 2. an atom is obtained by the experiment
2. Rutherford’s nuclear model could not explain, performed by:
how could an atom as simple as hydrogen (a) Thomson (b) Millikan
consisting of a single electron and a single (c) Rutherford (d) Franck & Hertz
proton, emit a complex spectrum of specific 3. Which of the following types of radiation is
wavelengths. not emitted by the electronic structure of
3. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment atoms:
concludes that there is a heavy mass at centre. (a) Ultraviolet light (b) X-rays
4. The observations of Geiger-Marsden experiment (c) Visible light (d) g-rays
are many of a particles pass straight through the 4. The angular speed of the electron in the n th
gold foil and only about 0.14% of a-particles orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is:
scatter by more than 1°. (a) directly proportional to n
5. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, (b) inversely proportional to n
orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shifts (c) inversely proportional to n 2
to discrete orbits away from the nucleus. (d) inversely proportional to n3
Atoms P-155

5. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 12. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom
eV. Following Bohr ’s theory, the energy is 5.29 × 10–11 meter, the radius of the second
corresponding to a transition between 3rd and orbit will be:
4th orbit is (a) 21.16 × 10–11 metre
(a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV (b) 15.87 × 10–11 metre
(c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV (c) 10.58 × 10–11 metre
6. Lines of Blamer series are emitted by the (d) 2.64 × 10–11 metre
hydrogen atom when the electron jumps: 13. The minimum energy required to excite a
(a) from higher orbits to first orbit. hydrogen atom from its ground state is:
(b) from higher orbit to second orbit. (a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(c) from second orbit to any other orbit. (c) –13.6 eV (d) 10.2 eV
(d) from third orbit to higher orbits. 14. Line spectrum is obtained whenever the
incandescent vapours at low pressure of the
7. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom:
excited substance are in their
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is (a) atomic state (b) molecular state
quantised. (c) nuclear state (d) none of these
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is 15. The total energy of electron in the ground state
quantised. of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is of an electron in the first excited state is
quantised. (a) 6.8 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is (c) 1.7 eV (d) 3.4 eV.
quantised. 16. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom,
8. Consider the spectral line resulting from the the angular momentum of an electron in any
transition n = 2 ® n = 1, in the atoms and ions orbit of hydrogen atom is:
given below, the shortest wavelength is (a) directly proportional to the radius of the
produced by: orbit
(a) hydrogen atom (b) deuterium atom (b) inversely proportional to the radius of the
(c) singly ionised helium orbit
(d) doubly ionised lithium (c) directly proportional to the square of the
9. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, radius of the orbit
the one which lies wholly in the ultraviolet (d) directly proportional to the square root of
region is: the radius of the orbit.
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series 17. According to Bohr’s model of the hydrogen
atom, the radius of a stationary orbit
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
characterised by the principal quantum
10. As the quantum number increases, the numbern is proportional to:
difference of energy between consecutive
(a) n–1 (b) n
energy levels:
(c) n–2 (d) n2
(a) remain the same (b) increases 18. The ionization energy of the electron in the
(c) decreases hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV.
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to
decreases. emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum
11. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to
the one which gives an absorption line of the transition between
highest frequency is: (a) n = 3 to n = 1 state
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 3 to n = 8 (b) n = 2 to n = 1 state
(c) n = 2 to n = 1 (d) n = 8 to n = 3 (c) n = 4 to n = 3 state
(d) n = 3 to n = 2 state
P-156 PHYSICS

19. Fraunhofer lines are observed in the spectrum of: (a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(a) a hydrogen discharge tube (c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
(b) a carbon arc 2. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is
(c) the sun shown in figure. There are some transitions A,
(d) sodium vapour lamp. B, C, D and E. Transition A, B and C respectively
20. In which region of electromagnetic spectrum
represent
does the Lyman series of hydrogen atom lie:
(a) ultraviolet (b) infrared n=¥ – 0.00 eV
(c) visible (d) X-ray n=6 – 0.36 eV
21. According to the Bohr theory of H-atom, the n=5 – 0.54 eV
speed of the electron, its energy and the radius n=4 – 0.85 eV
C
n=3 – 1.51 eV
of its orbit varies with the principal quantum B D
n=2 – 3.39 eV
number n, respectively, as :
A E
1 2 1 1 2
(a) ,n , 2 (b) n, ,n n=1 – 13.5 eV
n n n2
(a) first member of Lyman series, third spectral
1 1 1 1 2 line of Balmer series and the second spectral
(c) n, 2 , 2 (d) , ,n line of Paschen series
n n n n2
22. What is the wavelength of the most energetic (b) ionization potential of hydrogen, second
photon emitted in the Balmer series of the spectral line of Balmer series, third spectral
Hydrogen atom ? line of Paschen series
(a) 654 nm (b) 580 nm (c) series limit of Lyman series, third spectral
(c) 435 nm (d) 365 nm line of Balmer series and second spectral
23. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr’s line of Paschen series
postulates the product of linear momentum and (d) series limit of Lyman series, second spectral
line of Balmer series and third spectral line
angular momentum is proportional to (n)x where
of Paschen series
‘n’ is the orbit number. Then ‘x’ is-
3. If in hydrogen atom, radius of n th Bohr orbit is
(a) 0 (b) 2
rn, frequency of revolution of electron in nth orbit
(c) –2 (d) 1 is fn, choose the correct option.
24. One of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+
rn
has the same wavelength as that of the 2nd line
of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum. The
electronic transition corresponding to this line
is – (a)
(a) n = 4 ® n = 2 (b) n = 8 ® n = 2 O n
(c) n = 8 ® n = 4 (d) n = 12 ® n = 6
Diagram Based Questions : ær ö
log ç n ÷
è r1 ø
1. The diagram shows the path of four a-particles
of the same energy being scattered by the (b)
nucleus of an atom simulateneously which of O log n
those is not physically possible?
æf ö
log ç n ÷
1. è f1 ø

2. (c)
3. O log n
4.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Atoms P-157

4. The diagram shows the energy levels for an 2. Assertion : According to classical theory the
electron in a certain atom. Which transition proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom
shown represents the emission of a photon with model will be parabolic.
the most energy? Reason : According to electromagnetic theory
n=4
an accelerated particle continuously emits
n=3 radiation.
3. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the
n=2
electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus
do not radiate.
n =1 Reason: According to classical physics all
I II III IV
moving electrons radiate.
(a) 4 (b) 3 4. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to
(c) 2 (d) 1 coulomb forces.
5. Four lowest energy levels of H-atom are shown
in the figure. The number of possible emission Reason : The atom is stable only because the
lines would be centripetal force due to Coulomb's law is balanced
by the centrifugal force.
n=4 5. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one
n=3 electron but its emission spectrum has many
n=2 lines.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the
n =1 absorption sepectrum of hydrogen atom whereas
in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6 6. Assertion : Balmer series lies in the visible region
of electromagnetic spectrum.
Assertion/ Reason :
1 é1 1 ù
Reason : = R ê - ú where n = 3, 4, 5.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains l ë2 2
n2 û
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these 7. Assertion : Between any two given energy
questions also has four alternative choices, only one levels, the number of absorption transitions is
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one always less than the number of emission
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. transitions.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is Reason : Absorption transitions start from the
a correct explanation for assertion. lowest energy level only and may end at any
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason higher energy level. But emission transitions may
is not a correct explanation for assertion start from any higher energy level and end at
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect any energy level below it.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 8. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum
1. Assertion : The force of repulsion between 3
and maximum wavelength is .
atomic nucleus and a-particle varies with 4
distance according to inverse square law. Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines
Reason : Rutherford did a-particle scattering corresponding to transition from higher energy
experiment. to ground state of hydrogen atom.
P-158 PHYSICS

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) J.J. Thomson (1) Nuclear model of the atom
(B) E. Rutherford (2) Plum pudding model of the atom
(C) Franck-Hertz (3) Explanation of the hydrogen spectrom
(D) Nills Bohr (4) Existence of discrete energy levels in an atom
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (2) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
2. Consider Bohr's model to be valid for a hydrogen like atom with atomic number Z. Match quantities given
in Column -I to those given in Column II.
Column – I Column – II
Z3
(A) (1) Angular speed
n5

Z2
(B) (2) Magnetic field at the centre due to
n2
revolution of electron
Z2
(C) (3) Potential energy of an electron in nth orbit
n3
Z
(D) (4) Frequency of revolution of electron
n
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3,4); (B) ® (2,3); (C) ® (1,2); (D)® (1) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
3. Match the following Column II gives nature of image formed in various cases given in column I
Column – I Column – II
(A) n = 5 to n = 2 (1) Lyman series
(B) n = 8 to n = 4 (2) Brackett series
(C) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) Paschen
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) Balmer
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1,4) (d) (A) ® (1,3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)
4. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
Column – I Column – II
2pkze2
(A) Radius of n th orbit (1)
nh

-kze 2
(B) Velocity of electron in nth orbit (2)
rh
Atoms P-159

kze2
(C) Potential energy in n th orbit (3)
2rh

n 2 h2
(D) Kinetic energy in nth orbit (4)
4 pkze2 m
(a) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (3)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : 5. If u1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman
series, u2 is the frequency of the first line of
1. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third Lyman series and u3 is the frequency of the series
excited state to second excited state and then limit of the Balmer series then
from second excited to the first excited state. (a) u1 - u2 = u3 (b) u1 = u2 - u3
The ratio of the wavelength l1 : l2 emitted in
the two cases is 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) = + (d) = +
(a) 7/5 (b) 27/20 u2 u1 u3 u1 u2 u3
(c) 27/5 (d) 20/7 6. The radiation corresponding to 3 ® 2 transition
2. If the k a radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to
wavelength of 0.71Å. Calculate the wavelength produce photoelectrons. These electrons are
of the corresponding radiation of Cu (Z = 29). made to enter a magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If
(a) 1.52Å (b) 2.52Å the radius of the largest circular path followed
(c) 0.52Å (d) 4.52Å by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function
3. If the atom 100Fm 257 follows the Bohr model of the metal is close to:
and the radius of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr (a) 1.8 eV (b) 1.1 eV
radius, then find n. (c) 0.8 eV (d) 1.6 eV
(a) 100 (b) 200 7. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of
(c) 4 (d) 1/4 the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength to
4. The ratio of longest wavelengths correspond- the Lyman series ?
ing to Lyman and Blamer series in hydrogen (a) 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 3
spectrum is
(c) 4 : 9 (d) 5 : 9
3 7 8. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series
(a) (b)
23 29 for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second
9 5 line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The
(c) (d) atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is
31 27
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 2
P-160 PHYSICS

27 Nuclei
Fill in the Blanks : 6. Nuclear density is very large compared to
ordinary matter.
1. Positron has the mass closest in value to that of 7. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus.
the _______ . 8. The phenomenon in which proton flips is called
2. Chadwick was awarded the 1935 nobel prize in nuclear fusion.
physics for his discovery of the _______ .
3. A nuclei having same number of neutron but
Conceptual MCQs :
different number of protons / atomic number are 1. An element A decays into an element C by a two
called _______ . step process
4. The mass of an atomic nucleus is _______ than
the sum of the masses of its constituents. A ® B + 2He4 and B ® C + 2e - . Then,
5. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by (a) A and C are isotopes
_______ . (b) A and C are isobars
6. Fusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the (c) B and C are isotopes
(d) A and B are isobars
order of _______ .
7. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made 2. Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear
of ______ . reactor. The function of the moderator is
8. According to radioactive decay law, the rate of (a) to control energy released in the reactor
disintegration, at a given instant, is ______ to (b) to absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
the number of atoms present at that instant.
(c) to cool the reactor
True/ False : (d) to slow down the neutrons to thermal
energies.
1. A reaction between a proton and 8O18 that
produces 9F18 must also liberate 0e1. 3. Nuclear forces are
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central
2. Atomic species of the same element differing in
part
mass but same in atomic number are called
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central
isotopes.
part
3. For binding energy per nucleon versus mass
(c) spin independent and have no non-
number curve. Binding energy per nucleon Ebn
central part
is independent of mass number range 30 < A <
(d) spin independent and have a non-central
170.
part
4. In one half-life time duration, activity of a sample
4. Which one of the following nuclear reactions
reduced to half of its initial value.
is possible?
5. At a specific instant, emission of radioactive
14 +
element is deflected in a magnetic field. The (a) ® 13
7 N ¾¾ 6 C+b + nc
compound can emit electrons, protons, He2+, and
13 +
neutrons. (b) ® 13
7 N ¾¾ 6 C+b + nc
Nuclei P-161

13 13 + 13. In which sequence the radioactive radiation are

(c) 7 N ¾¾
® 6 C+b emitted in the following nuclear reaction
13 +
(d) ® 13
7 N ¾¾ 7 +b + nc
Z
XA ¾¾
® Z+ 1
YA ¾¾
®
5. The ratio of the radius of the nucleus of mass
number 216 to the radius of the nucleus of mass KA–4 ¾¾ ® Z – 1 KA–4
Z–1
number 64 is approximately : (a) g, a, b (b) a, b, g
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (c) b, g, a (d) b, a, g
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.8 14. The radioactive decay of uranium into thorium
6. At what rate must the 235U nuclei undergo fission is expressed by the equation
reaction to generate energy at the rate of 3.0 W.
Assume the Q-value of fission to be 200 MeV: U238 ¾¾
92
® Th + X, what X is?
(a) 1023 (b) 1019 (a) A deuteron (b) An alpha particle
(c) 10 11
(d) 106 (c) A proton (d) An electron
7. What is the energy released in the b-decay of 15. The activity of a radioactive substance is R1 at
time t1 and R2 at a later time instant t2. Its decay
P ¾¾
32 ® 32S
constant is l. Then,
(Given : Atomic masses : 31.97391 u for 32 P (a) R1t1 = R2t2
and 31.97207 u for 32 S) (b) R2 exp (lt2) = R1 exp (lt1)
(a) – 1.2 MeV (b) + 1.7 MeV (c) R2 = R1 exp [l(t2 – t1)]
(c) + 2.1 Me V (d) – 0.9 MeV (d) R1 – R2 = a constant (t2 – t1)
8. In a nuclear reaction between a deuteron and 16. An element X decays, first by positron emission
C12, 7N 13 is produced. The other liberated an d then two a-particles are emitted in
6
particle is a/an : successive radioactive decay. If the product
nuclei has a mass number 229 and atomic number
(a) proton (b) electron
89, the mass number and atomic number of
(c) neutron (d) positron element X are –
9. How many alpha a – and b– decays does U238 (a) 237, 93 (b) 237, 94
experiences before turning finally into stable (c) 221, 84 (d) 237, 92
Pb206 isotope ? 17. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets
(a) 12, 6 (b) 10, 4 disintegrated into two small fragments of mass
(c) 8, 6 (d) 8, 8 number 80 and 120. If binding energy per
10. The activity of a certain radioactive sample is nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV and for
128 mCi. If the decay constant of the material be daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively,
6.93 per hour then its activity after 30 minutes then the energy released in the decay will be –
(a) 200 MeV (b) –220 MeV
will reduced.
(c) 220 MeV (d) 180 MeV
(a) 4mCi (b) 12.8 mCi 18. A U235 atom undergoes fission by thermal
(c) 16 mCi (d) 32 mCi neutrons according to the following reaction :
11. Actinium 231
AC89, emit in succession two b 140 94
particles, four alphas, one b and one alpha plus U235+ n = 54
Xe + 38Sr + 2n
several g rays. What is the resultant isotope: Then Xenon undergoes four and Strontium
(a) 221 Au79 (b) 211 Au 79 undergoes two consecutive b decays and six
(c) 221
Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb 82 electrons are detected. What is the atomic
12. The energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit number of the two final decay products of Xenon
is and Strontium ?
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 J (b) 6.02 × 1023 J (a) 50, 36 (b) 58, 40
(c) 931 MeV (d) 9.31 MeV (c) 56, 42 (d) 57, 41
P-162 PHYSICS

19. At an instant, the ratio of the amounts of (a) Y ® 2Z (b) W ® X + Z

radioactive substances is 2 : 1. If their half lives
(c) W ® 2Y (d) X ® Y + Z
be respectively 12 and 16 hours, then after
2 days, the ratio of amounts of substances left 3. The energy spectrum of b-particles [number N(E)
over will be as a function of b-energy E] emitted from a
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 radioactive source is
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
20. Determine the energy released in the process
2 2 ¾¾® 2He4 + Q (a) N(E)
1H + 1H
Given M (1H2) = 2.01471 amu M (2He4) = 4.00388
amu E
E0
(a) 3.79 MeV (b) 13.79 MeV
(c) 0.79 MeV (d) 23.79 MeV
21. The half life of a radioactive substance is 34.65 (b) N(E)
minute. If 1022 atoms are active at any time then
find the activity of substance?
E
(a) 3.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec E0
(b) 0.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec
(c) 1.34 × 1018 disintegration /sec
(d) 3.4 × 1018 disintegration /sec (c) N(E)
Diagram Based Questions :
E
1. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the E0
mass number for stable nuclei is shown in the
figure. Which curve is correct?

(d) N(E)

E
E0

4. Radioactive element decays to form a stable

nuclide, then the rate of decay of reactant is
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
N N
2. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y
(a) (b)
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve.
The process that would release energy is t t

N N

(c) (d)
t t
Nuclei P-163

Assertion/ Reason : with A.

Reason : The forces are weak for heavier nuclei.
DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains 5. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108 undecayed
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these radioactive nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal
questions also has four alternative choices, only one to that of 1.2 × 108 number of undecayed nuclei
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of some other material with half life of 60 days.
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-
life.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is 6. Assertion : The ionising power of b-particle is
a correct explanation for assertion. less compared to a-particles but their penetrating
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason power is more.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Reason : The mass of b-particle is less than the
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect mass of a-particle.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 7. Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit b–1 particles.
1. Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same. Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional 8. Assertion : Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer therapy.
to the cube root of mass number. Reason : Cobalt -60 is source of g- radiations
2. Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily capable of killing cancerous cells.
as compared to protons. 9. Assertion : It is not possible to use 35Cl as the
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than fuel for fusion energy.
protons. Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is to small.
3. Assertion : The mass number of a nucleus is 10. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy
always less than its atomic number. nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
Reason : Mass number of a nucleus may be fusion and
equal to its atomic number. Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per
4. Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon, for nucleon increases with increasing Z while for
nuclei with atomic mass number A > 100, decrease light nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.
Matching Based Questions :
DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Isotopes (1) Mass number same but different atomic number
(B) Isobars (2) Atomic number same but different mass number.
(C) Isotones (3) Number of nentrons plus number of protons
(D) Nucleons (4) Number of nentrons same but different
atomic number
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
2. Match Column I of the nuclear processes with Column II containing parent nucleus and one of the end
products of each process.
Column I Column II
15 15
(A) Alpha decay (1) 8 O®7 N + ...

b+ decay 238 234

(B) (2) 92 U ® 90 Th + ...
P-164 PHYSICS

185 184
(C) Fission (3) 83 Bi ® 82 Pb + ...
239
(D) Proton emission (4) 94 Pu ® 140
57 La + ...
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
(c) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
3. Column – I Column – II
(A) Nuclear fusion (1) E = mc2
(B) Nuclear fission (2) Generally possible for nuclei with low atomic
number
(C) b-decay (3) Generally possible for nuclei with higher atomic
number
(D) Mass-energy (4) Essentially proceeds by
equivalence weak reaction nuclear forces
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (4); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
4. Column – I Column – II
(A) Hydrogen bomb (1) Fission
(B) Atom bomb (2) Fusion
(C) Binding energy (3) Critical mass
(D) Nuclear reactor (4) Mass defect
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1)

Critical Thinking Type Questions : (a) 56 (b) 2

26 Fe 1H
1. In the options given below, let E denote the rest
(c) 235 (d) 4
mass energy of a nucleus and n neutron. Then 92 U 2 He
the correct option is 3. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron

( ) ( ) ( )
and an a-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What
(a) E 236 U > E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n) will be the energy Q released in the reaction 1H2
92 53 39
+ 1H2 ® 2He4 + Q

(b) (92 ) ( ) ( )
E 236 U < E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n)
53 39
(a) 4(x1 + x2)
(c) 2(x1 + x2)
(b) 4(x2 – x1)
(d) 2(x2 – x1)

( ) ( ) ( )
4. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample
(c) E 236 U < E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n) decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0,
92 56 36
number of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q are
(d) ( ) ( ) ( )
E 236 U = E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n)
92 56 36
N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute
where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are
2. If the total binding energies of no nuclei of R present in the sample. When
number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the
2 4 56 235 nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492
1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U number of nuclei of R present in the sample
and 1786 MeV respectively, identify the most would be
stable nucleus of the following.
Nuclei P-165

9N 0 (a) 60 s (b) 80 s
(a) 3N0 (b)
2 (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
5N0 7. The half-life period of a radio-active element X
(c) (d) 2N0 is same as the mean life time of another radio-
2
active element Y. Initially they have the same
5. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days.
number of atoms. Then
The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time
2 (a) X and Y decay at same rate always
t2when of it has decayed and the time t1 when (b) X will decay faster than Y
3
1
of it had decayed is (c) Y will decay faster than X
3
(a) 30 days (b) 50 days (d) X and Y have same decay rate initially

(c) 60 days (d) 15 days 8. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and
an electron. The energy released during this
6. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials
process is : (mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10–27
A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s
kg, mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of
respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1
electron = 9 × 10–31 kg).
and 160 g of A2. The amount of the two in the
mixture will become equal after (a) 0.511 MeV (b) 7.10 MeV
(c) 6.30 MeV (d) 5.4 MeV
P-166 PHYSICS

Semiconductor Electronics :
28 Materials, Devices and
Simple Circuits
Fill in the Blanks : Conceptual MCQs :
1. The majority charge carriers in P-type 1. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50
semiconductor are ______ . Hz mains frequency, the fundamental frequency
2. In P-N junction, avlanche current flows in circuit in the ripple would be
when biasing is _______ . (a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
3. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap (c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz
between the valence band and the conduction 2. If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode
band is of the order of _______ . is changed from 0.5V to 0.7 V, then the forward
4. Zener diode is used for _______ . current changes by 1.0 mA. The forward
5. The part of a transistor which is most heavily resistance of diode junction will be
doped to produce large number of majority (a) 100 W (b) 120 W
carriers is _______ . (c) 200 W (d) 240 W
6. To use a transistor as an amplifier, emitter-base 3. Current gain of a transistor in common base
junction is _______ biased and base-collector mode is 0.95. Its value in common emitter mode
is
junction is _____ biased.
7. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with (a) 0.95 (b) 1.5
_______ . (c) 19 (d) (19)–1
8. NAND and NOR gates are called _______ gates. 4. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and
emitter current 90 mA. The collector current
True/ False : will be
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA
1. The depletion layer in the P-N junction region (c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
is caused by migration of impurity ions.
5. For a common base amplifier, the values of
2. Function of rectifier is to convert d.c. into a.c. resistance gain and voltage gain are 3000 and
3. Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 2800 respectively. The current gain will be
eV are insulators. (a) 1.1 (b) 0.98
4. The resistivity of a semiconductor increases (c) 0.93 (d) 0.83
with increase in temperature. 6. The current gain for a transistor working as
5. In forward biasing electrons from n-sdie crosses common-base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter
junction and reach p-side. current is 7.2 mA, then the base current is
6. Due to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side an (a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA
ionised acceptor is left in the p-region. (c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA
7. For transistor action Base, emitter and collector 7. A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an
region have similar size and doping alternating voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The
concentrations. number of pulses of rectified current obtained
in one second is
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-167

(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) Silicon is a direct band gap semiconductor

(c) 100 (d) 2000 (d) Silicon is has diamond structure
8. The intrinsic semi conductor becomes an 16. The donor level in a semiconductor is placed:
insulator at (a) half-way in the forbidden energy gap
(a) 0ºC (b) 0 K (b) in the forbidden energy gap close to the
(c) 300 K (d) –100ºC upper edge of the valence band
9. In a P -N junction (c) in the conduction band close to the lower
(a) the potential of P & N sides becomes higher edge to the conduction band
alternately
(b) the P side is at higher electrical potential (d) in the forbidden energy gap close to the
than N side. lower edge of the conduction band
(c) the N side is at higher electric potential than 17. Identify the logic operation of the following logic
P side. circuit:
(d) both P & N sides are at same potential.
10. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does
not depend on
(a) doping density (b) diode design
(c) temperature (d) forward bias (a) NAND (b) AND
11. The energy band gap is maximum in (c) NOR (c) OR
(a) metals 18. A transistor amplifier in CE configuration
(b) superconductors amplifies an input of 0.01 V to 2.5V. The collector
(c) insulators resistance Rc and the input resistance RB are in
(d) semiconductors.
the ratio of 5 : 1. The current amplication factor b
12. The part of a transistor which is most heavily
of the transistor is :
doped to produce large number of majority
carriers is (a) 5 (b) 50
(a) emmiter (c) 250 (d) 25
(b) base
19. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a
(c) collector band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of
(d) can be any of the above three. the radiation that can be absorbed by the material
13. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier is nearly
(a) electrons move from collector to base (a) 10 × 1014 Hz (b) 5 ×1014 Hz
(b) holes move from emitter to base 14
(c) 1 × 10 Hz (d) 20 × 1014 Hz
(c) electrons move from base to collector 20. Two NOT gates are connected at the two inputs
(d) holes move from base to emitter of a NAND gate. This combination will behave
14. In a common base amplifier the phase difference like :
between the input signal voltage and the output (a) NAND gate (b) AND gate
voltage is
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
(a) 0 (b) p/4
(c) p/2 (d) p 21. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the
15. Which one of the following is NOT a correct flow of current across the junction is mainly due
statement about semiconductors? to
(a) The electrons and holes have different (a) diffusion of charges
mobilities in a semiconductor (b) drift of charges
(b) In an n-type semiconductor, the Fermi level (c) depends on the nature of material
lies closer to the conduction band edge (d) both drift and diffusion of charges
P-168 PHYSICS

Diagram Based Questions : (a) XOR gate (b) AND gate

(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
1. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams,
which one is reverse biased ? 5. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs
+10 V A and B and the output C. The voltage wave
forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic
R
(a) gate circuit is:
+5 V
(b)
–12 V R

–5 V

(c) R

–10 V A
+5 V

R
(d)
B
2. In bridge rectifier circuit, (see fig.), the input
signal should be connected between
A C
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6

(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate

D B
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
6. The following circut represents
C
(a) A and D (b) B and C A
(c) A and C (d) B and D
3. Which of the following gates will have an output Y
of 1?
B
1 0
1 1 (a) OR gate (b) XOR gate
(A) (B)
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
0 0
1 0 7. The following configuration of gate is equivalent
(C) (D) to

(a) D (b) A A OR
B
(c) B (d) C Y
4. Following diagram performs the logic function AND
of
NAND
A
Y (a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate
B
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-169

Assertion/ Reason : 4. Assertion : Silicon is preferred over germanium

DIRECTIONS : Each of these questions contains
two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
1. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative
temperature coefficient of resistance.
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the
temperature, more charge carriers are released,
conductance increases and resistance
decreases.
2. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor
is increased then its resistance decreases.
Reason : The energy gap between conduction
band and valence band is very small.
3. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a
positive type crystal.
Reason : A p- type semiconductor is an
uncharged crystal.
for making semiconductor devices.
Reason : The energy gap in germanium is more
than the energy gap in silicon.
5. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and
n type are brought in contact, they form p-n
junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating
current into direct current.
6. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n
junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction
is greater than the drift current when the junction
is in forward biased.
7. Assertion : A transistor amplifier in common
emitter configuration has a low input impedence.
Reason : The base to emitter region is forward
biased.
8. Assertion : NOT gate is also called invertor
circuit.
Reason : NOT gate inverts the input order.
9. Assertion : NAND or NOR gates are called
digital building blocks.
Reason : The repeated use of NAND (or NOR)
gates can produce all the basis or complicated
gates.

Matching Based Questions :

DIRECTIONS : Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four or five
statements (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one
statement given in Column II. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Match the column I and Column II
Column I Column II
(Rnge of resistivity, r)
(A) Metals (1) 1011 – 1019 W m
(B) Semiconductors (2) 10–5 –106 W m
(C) Insulators (3) 10–2 –10–8 W m
(4) 10–20 – 1025 W m
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1) (b) (A) ® (1,4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3,4) (d) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2,4); (C) ® (3)
2. Match the elements in column I, with their respective energy gaps in column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Diamond (1) 1.1 ev
(B) Aluminium (2) 0.71 ev
P-170 PHYSICS

(C) Germatium (3) 0.03 ev

(D) Silicon (4) 6 ev
(a) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (1) (d) (A) ® (4); (B) ® (3); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (1)
3. Column I Column II
(A) Moderate size and heavily doped (1) Base
(B) Very thin and lightly doped (2) Collector
(C) Moderately doped and of large size (3) Emitter
(D) Dopped with penta valent impurity (4) N-type semmiconductor
(a) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
4. Column I Column II
(A) OR gate (1) A Y
(B) AND gate (2) A Y
B
(C) NOT gate (3) A Y
B
(D) NAND gate (4) A Y
B
(a) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (1); (D) ® (4) (b) (A) ® (1); (B) ® (2); (C) ® (4); (D) ® (3)
(c) (A) ® (3); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (2); (D) ® (4) (d) (A) ® (2); (B) ® (1); (C) ® (3); (D) ® (4)
Critical Thinking Type Questions : 4. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter
configuration for load impedance of 1k W
1. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron
(ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 (hfe = 50 and h oe = 25ms) the current gain is
m–3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 (a) – 24.8 (b) – 15.7
m–3. The doped semiconductor is of (c) – 5.2 (d) – 48.78
(a) n–type with electron concentration 5. The current gain of a transistor in common base
ne = 5 × 1022 m–3 mode is 0.995. The current gain of the same
transistor in common emitter mode is
(b) p–type with electron concentration
(a) 197 (b) 201
ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3
(c) 198 (d) 199
(c) n–type with electron concentration 6. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the
ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3 emitter in 10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in
(d) p–type having electron concentration the base. The current transfer ratio will be
ne = 5 × 109 m–3 (a) 0.98 (b) 0.97
2. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor if (c) 0.96 (d) 0.94
electron density = 5 × 1012/cm3 and hole density 7. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain
= 8 × 1013/cm3 of 50, an input impedance of 100W and an output
(µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1, µh = 0.01 m2V–1 s–1) impedance of 200W. The power gain of the
(a) 5.634 W–1 m–1 (b) 1.968 W–1 m–1 amplifier is
(c) 3.421 W–1 m–1 (d) 8.964 W–1 m–1 (a) 500 (b) 1000
3. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across (c) 1250 (d) 50
8. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal
its junction which does not depend on current, is
voltage across the collector resistance of 2kW
connected in series with resistance of 20 W is 2V. If the base resistance is 1kW and the
across source. If 0.1 A current passes through current amplification of the transistor is 100, the
resistance then what is the voltage of the source? input signal voltage is
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V (a) 0.1 V (b) 1.0 V
(c) 2.5 V (d) 5 V (c) 1 mV (d) 10 mV