69th BPSC Prelims

UIAS
69th BPSC Prelims

Tentative Answer key with Explanation
Set-A
# ANSWER EXPLANATION
1 D 1. Internet of Things (IoT): 5G networks are designed to

accommodate a massive number of connected devices
simultaneously. This makes them well-suited for IoT applications,
where a multitude of devices and sensors need to communicate with
each other and with central systems. With 5G, IoT devices can
transmit data quickly and with low latency, enabling real-time
monitoring and control.
2. Edge Computing: Edge computing involves processing data

closer to the source of data generation, rather than sending all data
to centralized data centers. 5G networks provide the low-latency and
high-speed connectivity required for edge computing. This is
particularly valuable for applications like autonomous vehicles,
where split-second decisions are crucial.
3. Network Slicing: Network slicing is a 5G feature that allows the

network to be divided into multiple virtual networks, each optimized
for specific use cases or services. It's like creating virtual networks
within the same physical infrastructure. This technology is essential
for providing different quality-of-service levels for various
applications, such as ultra-reliable low-latency communication for
critical applications and high-speed broadband for consumers.
So, all three technologies - IoT, edge computing, and network slicing
- are enabled by 5G mobile communication networks, making the
correct answer (D) 1, 2, and 3.
2 A a. Cassini- Huygens - 2. Saturn and its rings

b. Juno - 1. Jupiter
c. Artemis - 4. Human Space-flight—Moon to Mars
d. VERITAS - 3. Venus
3 C a. Linen - 2. Flax plant

b. Coir - 1. Coconut plant
c. Mohair - 4. Angora goat
d. Down - 3. Feathers of duck and geese
4 C Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
1. Taeniasis is indeed an intestinal infection caused by three species

of tapeworm, namely Taenia solium, Taenia saginata, and Taenia
asiatica.
2. Neurocysticercosis (NCC) occurs when the cysts of the tapeworm

larvae develop in the brain. This is a serious condition and a
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common complication of taeniasis, particularly when it is caused by

Taenia solium.
5 D All the 4 mentioned options are programming languages used in

computers.
1. Cobra
2. Python
3. Squirrel
4. Java
6 D The full form of GPT in ChatGPT is (D) Generative Pre-Trained

Transformer.
7 A 2. Bitter
5. Umami
7. Pungent
These tastes are not typically considered primary tastes of the
tongue. The primary tastes are sweet, salty, sour, and bitter. Umami
is sometimes considered the fifth primary taste, and pungent is often
associated with spiciness or irritation rather than a primary taste or
smell.
8 A The correctly matched pairs:
1. Anorexia: Anorexia is indeed an eating disorder. It involves an

extreme fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading
to restricted food intake and often resulting in severe weight loss.
4. Anosmia: Anosmia refers to the partial or complete loss of the

sense of smell. It is not related to eating or sleeping disorders but is
a condition that affects the sense of smell.
The pairs 2 and 3 are not correctly matched:
2. Insomnia: Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty

falling asleep or staying asleep. It's not related to eating disorders.
3. Dyspnoea: Dyspnea, or dyspnoea, is a medical term for shortness

of breath, which is a symptom often associated with various medical
conditions, particularly those affecting the respiratory system. It is
not related to eating disorders either.
9 B - Pulsars are a specific type of celestial object in the universe. They

are formed from the remnants of massive stars that have undergone
a supernova explosion.
- When such a massive star explodes, it can leave behind a dense

core composed almost entirely of neutrons, known as a neutron star.
Neutron stars are incredibly dense, with masses similar to that of our
Sun but compressed into a tiny, city-sized sphere.
- Pulsars are a subtype of neutron stars. What makes them unique

is their rapid rotation and the emission of beams of electromagnetic
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radiation (usually in the form of radio waves) along their magnetic

poles.
- These beams of radiation are not constant but appear to pulse on

and off as the pulsar rotates. This pulsing behavior gives pulsars
their name.
- Pulsars are like cosmic lighthouses, emitting beams of radiation

that can be observed by astronomers on Earth when these beams
point in our direction. The regularity of their pulses is incredibly
precise, making them valuable tools for studying fundamental
physics and astrophysical phenomena.
So, in summary, pulsars are not a group of stars, explosions of

stars, or radio waves emitted by a star; they are rotating neutron
stars that emit pulsed radiation.
10 C In the process of growing lab-grown diamonds (also known as

synthetic or man-made diamonds), a tiny piece of natural diamond,
called a "diamond seed," is used as the foundation for the growth of
the new diamond. Here's how it works:
1. Diamond Seed: The diamond seed is typically a small, flat, and

thin piece of natural diamond. It serves as the starting point for the
growth of the new diamond. It is carefully selected for its quality and
purity.
2. High-Pressure High-Temperature (HPHT) Method: One of the

methods for growing lab-grown diamonds is the High-Pressure
High-Temperature (HPHT) method. In this process, the diamond
seed is placed in a chamber along with carbon source material,
typically graphite.
3. Creation of High Pressure and Temperature: The chamber is then

subjected to extremely high pressures (around 725,000 pounds per
square inch) and high temperatures (around 2,200 to 2,500 degrees
Celsius), mimicking the conditions deep within the Earth where
natural diamonds are formed.
4. Diamond Growth: Under these intense conditions, carbon atoms

from the graphite source are deposited onto the diamond seed, layer
by layer, causing the seed to grow into a larger diamond. This
growth process can take several weeks to months, depending on
the desired size of the final diamond.
5. Quality Control: Throughout the process, careful control of

temperature, pressure, and other factors is essential to ensure the
resulting lab-grown diamond is of high quality and purity.
So, in the context of lab-grown diamonds, graphite (option C) is

used as a source of carbon for the growth of the new diamond, and
a natural diamond seed is used as the starting point for that growth.
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11 D Kevlar is a strong and durable synthetic fiber that is known for its
exceptional strength-to-weight ratio. It is used to make bulletproof
jackets because of its ability to absorb and disperse the energy of a
bullet upon impact, thus providing protection to the wearer. Kevlar's
molecular structure makes it resistant to penetration by bullets and
other high-velocity projectiles, making it a crucial material in the
construction of body armor and bulletproof vests for military and law
enforcement personnel.
12 C HMX stands for "High Melting Explosive." It is a powerful explosive

compound known for its high thermal stability and resistance to heat
and shock. HMX is commonly used in the production of military and
industrial explosives, as well as in the manufacture of rocket
propellants and detonators. It is favored for its ability to maintain its
explosive properties even under extreme conditions, including high
temperatures, making it suitable for a variety of applications in the
defense and aerospace industries. The other options listed do not
represent the correct full form of HMX.
13 D Tesla's humanoid robot launched in October 2022 is called Optimus.

It is a 5'8" tall robot that weighs 125 pounds. It is designed to
perform tasks that are dangerous, repetitive, or boring. Optimus is
still under development, but Tesla plans to produce millions of them
and sell them for under $20,000.
14 A The Manhattan Project was a top-secret research and development

project during World War II that led to the creation of the world's first
nuclear weapons, specifically the atomic bombs. It was named after
Manhattan, New York, where much of the early research took place.
The project involved scientists, engineers, and researchers from the
United States, the United Kingdom, and Canada, and it aimed to
develop nuclear weapons before Nazi Germany could.
The most famous result of the Manhattan Project was the successful
test of the first atomic bomb in July 1945 in New Mexico.
Subsequently, two atomic bombs were dropped on the Japanese
cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in August 1945, leading to Japan's
surrender and the end of World War II. The Manhattan Project is a
significant historical event because it marked the beginning of the
nuclear age and the Cold War era.
15 B When an object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave

mirror, the reflected light rays converge to a point exactly at the
center of curvature. In this situation:
1. Real Image: A real image is formed because the light rays

converge and actually intersect at a point in front of the mirror. This
means that if you place a screen or detector at the location of the
image, you will see a focused image on the screen.
2. Inverted Image: The image is inverted because the top of the

object corresponds to the bottom of the image, and vice versa. This
inversion occurs because the light rays cross over each other when
they converge.
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3. Same Size Image: The size of the image is the same as that of
the object. This happens because the distance between the center
of curvature and the mirror surface is twice the focal length (since
the focal point is halfway between the center of curvature and the
mirror). As a result, the image distance is also twice the focal length,
and the magnification of the image is 1, indicating that the image is
the same size as the object.
So, when an object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave

mirror, you get a real, inverted, and same-sized image.
16 A A photoelectric cell, also known as a photocell or photodetector, is a

device that converts incident light energy into electric energy. It
operates based on the photoelectric effect, where photons of light
striking the surface of the cell release electrons, creating an electric
current.
17 D Concentration of Solution: This is a measure of how much solute

(the substance being dissolved) is dissolved in a given amount of
solvent (the substance that dissolves the solute). It can be
expressed in various units, such as grams per liter (g/L) or moles
per liter (mol/L).
For example, if you have 10 grams of salt dissolved in 1 liter of

water, the concentration of the salt solution is 10 g/L. This tells you
how "concentrated" or "dilute" the solution is, which is important in
various chemical processes and reactions.
18 C COVID-19 vaccines work by introducing a harmless piece of the

SARS-CoV-2 virus (typically a small piece of the virus's spike protein
or genetic material) into the body. This piece does not cause the
disease but is enough to trigger an immune response. The immune
system then learns to recognize and fight the virus, providing
protection against future infections with the actual virus. This
approach allows the body to build immunity without causing the
disease itself.
19 D All of the liquids listed are good conductors of electricity. Salted

water, orange juice, and lemon juice all contain ions, which are
charged particles that can carry an electric current.
Distilled water, on the other hand, is a poor conductor of electricity.
This is because it does not contain any ions.
20 A James Watson and Francis Crick are credited with discovering the
double helix structure of DNA. Their groundbreaking work on the
structure of DNA was published in 1953 and is considered one of
the most significant discoveries in the field of molecular biology.
While Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins (option B) made
important contributions to the understanding of DNA's structure
through their X-ray crystallography studies, it was Watson and Crick
who formulated the double helix model. Linus Pauling (option C)
made significant contributions to the study of the chemical bond but
did not discover the DNA structure. Gregor Mendel (option D) is
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known for his pioneering work in genetics, specifically on the

inheritance of traits in pea plants, but his work predates the
discovery of the DNA structure.
21 D In free fall near the surface of the Moon, all objects experience the
same acceleration due to gravity, which is determined by the mass
of the Moon. This is because the gravitational force acting on an
object is directly proportional to its mass, and the acceleration due to
gravity is the same for all objects regardless of their mass. This is
described by the universal law of gravitation.
So, two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of
the Moon would experience forces of the same magnitude and
undergo the same acceleration.
22 C Vector vaccines work by placing the virus in a modified version of a

different virus. This modified virus, called a vector, is harmless to
humans, but it can still deliver the genetic material of the virus that
the vaccine is targeting to the body's cells.
Once the genetic material is in the body's cells, the cells begin to
produce proteins from the virus. This triggers the body's immune
system to produce antibodies against the virus. If the body is later
exposed to the real virus, the immune system will be able to
recognize and destroy it.
Vector vaccines are effective against a wide range of viruses,
including COVID-19, Ebola, and Zika.
The other options are incorrect:
● (A) Weakened or inactivated virus vaccines are traditional
vaccines that work by exposing the body to a weakened or
killed form of the virus. This triggers the body's immune
system to produce antibodies against the virus, but does not
cause the disease.
● (B) No vaccine can directly attack and destroy pathogens in
the body. Vaccines work by priming the body's immune
system to recognize and destroy pathogens if they are later
encountered.
● (D) Only mRNA vaccines enter directly into the cells and
enable them to create spike proteins. Vector vaccines do not
enter the cells directly. Instead, they deliver the genetic
material of the virus to the cells, which then produce the
proteins.
23 C Seafloor spreading is the geological process by which new oceanic

crust is continually formed at mid-ocean ridges as tectonic plates
move apart. This process involves the upwelling of molten rock
(magma) from the Earth's mantle, which solidifies to create a new
crust. As the new crust is formed, it pushes older crust away from
the mid-ocean ridges, leading to the expansion of ocean basins.
Seafloor spreading is a key component of plate tectonics and
contributes to the dynamic movement of Earth's lithosphere.
24 C The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant,
slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is called plate
tectonics.
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Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that explains the large-scale

motions of Earth's plates and the resulting phenomena, such as
earthquakes, mountain building, and volcanism. The theory holds
that Earth's lithosphere, which is made up of the crust and
uppermost mantle, is divided into a number of plates that are
constantly moving over the asthenosphere, which is a more fluid
layer of the mantle.
Plate tectonics is one of the most important theories in Earth science
and is used to explain a wide range of geological phenomena. It has
also been used to understand the evolution of Earth's surface and
the distribution of life on the planet.
● (A) The theory of continental drift is a superseded theory that
proposed that the continents were once joined together and
have since drifted apart. However, it did not account for the
movement of the ocean floor or the forces that drive plate
tectonics.
● (B) The theory of Pangaea is a related theory that proposes
that all of the continents were once joined together in a
single supercontinent called Pangaea. However, it does not
explain how Pangaea broke apart or the forces that drive
plate tectonics.
● (D) Plate boundaries are the regions where two or more
tectonic plates meet. They are the sites of many geological
phenomena, including earthquakes, mountain building, and
volcanism. However, plate boundaries are not a theory; they
are simply a description of where tectonic plates meet.
25 A The expanded form of "mRNA" is "Messenger Ribonucleic Acid."

This molecule plays a crucial role in the synthesis of proteins in cells
and has been widely discussed in the context of the COVID-19
pandemic, particularly in relation to mRNA vaccines like those
developed by Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna.
26 B A dynamo is a type of generator that uses electromagnetic induction

to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. It consists of a
rotating coil of wire in a magnetic field. As the coil rotates, it cuts
through the magnetic field, generating an electric current.
● A choke coil is a type of inductor that is used to block
high-frequency currents. It does not generate AC current.
● A transformer is a device that transfers energy between two
electrical circuits. It does not generate AC current.
AC current is the type of current that is delivered to homes and
businesses. It is also the type of current that is used in power grids.
27 B Current density is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude

and direction. It represents the amount of electric current flowing
through a unit area and is typically denoted by the symbol "J." The
direction of current density is the direction of the flow of electric
charge, which is typically the direction of the electric current. So, it
has both magnitude and direction, making it a vector quantity.
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28 B The most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry is

often based on their molecular targets. This classification groups
medications according to the specific biological molecules or
pathways they interact with in the body to produce their therapeutic
effects. This approach allows healthcare professionals to
understand how medications work, their mechanisms of action, and
how they can be used effectively to treat various medical conditions.
It is a practical way to categorise and study medications in the field
of pharmacology and medical chemistry.
29 B Homogeneous catalysts are catalysts that are in the same phase

(usually the same state of matter) as the reactants. While catalysts,
in general, speed up chemical reactions by providing an alternative
reaction pathway with lower activation energy, homogeneous
catalysts can also slow down reaction rates by competing with the
desired reaction or interfering with the reactants due to their close
chemical similarity to the reactants. This is in contrast to
heterogeneous catalysts (option C), which are in a different phase
than the reactants and typically do not slow down reactions in the
same manner. Catalytic promoters (option A) are substances that
enhance the activity of a catalyst but do not inherently slow down
reaction rates.
30 B Input and output nerves meet and integrate information at the

central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord.
The central nervous system processes sensory input from various
parts of the body and sends out motor commands to control muscles
and organs, allowing for coordinated responses to stimuli. This
integration of information is a fundamental function of the central
nervous system in regulating bodily functions and behavior.
31 A The shipwrecks at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals, and Grande Island

are located off the coast of Goa in Indian waters. These sites are
popular for diving and underwater exploration, attracting tourists
interested in marine archaeology and shipwreck history.
32 C 1. Global GDP: The G20 member countries, which are some of the
world's largest economies, collectively contribute to approximately
85% of the global Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This indicates
their significant economic influence on the world stage.
2. Global Trade: These countries also account for about 50% of the
total global trade. Their combined trade volumes are substantial and
impact international trade dynamics.
3. World Population: The G20 member countries are home to

approximately two-thirds of the world's population. This highlights
their demographic significance and the diverse societies
represented within the group.
33 B Yevgeny Prigozhin is known to be associated with the Wagner

Mercenary Group, often referred to as the Wagner Group, which is a
private military company based in Russia. Prigozhin is believed to
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have close ties to the Russian government and has been associated
with various activities both domestically and internationally.
34 C The Global Gender Gap Report is released annually by the World

Economic Forum (WEF). This report assesses gender disparities in
various areas, including economic participation and opportunity,
educational attainment, health and survival, and political
empowerment, in countries around the world. It provides valuable
insights into the state of gender equality globally and ranks countries
based on their progress in closing gender gaps.
35 B Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom reigned for 68 years,

making her one of the longest-reigning monarchs in British history.
She passed away on September 8, 2022, at the age of 94.
36 B The theme of DefExpo– 2022, held in Gujarat, was Path to Pride.

The theme highlighted India's commitment to achieving
Atmanirbharta (self-reliance) in defence production. The expo
showcased the latest Indian defence technologies and equipment,
and provided a platform for Indian and foreign companies to network
and collaborate.
● (A) India : The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub was
the theme of DefExpo 2020.
● (C) Synergy for Defence was the theme of DefExpo 2018.
● (D) Aatmanirbharta is a general term for self-reliance. It is
not specific to the defence sector.
DefExpo is India's flagship biennial defence exhibition. It is
organized by the Ministry of Defence and showcases the latest land,
naval, air, and homeland security systems. DefExpo is an important
event for the Indian defence sector, as it provides a platform for
Indian companies to showcase their products and services to
potential buyers from around the world.
37 D The Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in Myanmar.

The Thadingyut Festival, also known as the Lighting Festival, is the
most important festival in Myanmar. It is celebrated on the full moon
day of the Burmese lunar month of Thadingyut, which usually falls in
October. The festival marks the end of the Buddhist Lent, a
three-month period of fasting and meditation for monks.
The Thadingyut Festival is a three-day celebration filled with
feasting, dancing, and music. On the first day of the festival, people
clean their houses and prepare food for the next day. On the second
day, people visit temples and offer alms to monks. On the third day,
people light candles and lanterns to celebrate the Buddha's descent
from heaven.
The Thadingyut Festival is a time for families and friends to come
together and celebrate. It is also a time to reflect on the Buddhist
teachings and to show gratitude for the good things in life.
38 D Statements 2, 3, and 4 are all correct.

● The White House is the official residence and workplace of
the President of the United States.
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● The White House was built between 1792 and 1800, and
John Adams was the first President to take residence in the
building on November 1, 1800.
● The White House is a symbol of American democracy.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The address of the White House is 1600
Pennsylvania Avenue, not 1800.
Therefore, the only correct statements are 2, 3, and 4.
39 C Net metering is a billing arrangement that allows consumers who

generate their own electricity, often through solar panels or other
renewable energy sources, to receive credits on their utility bills for
any excess electricity they feed back into the grid. It promotes the
installation of renewable energy systems and encourages
consumers to generate their own clean energy while remaining
connected to the utility grid.
40 A The correct matching is as follows:
List-I List-II (Combination)

(Colour)
a. Magenta 2. Red and blue
b. Teal 3. Blue, green and

white
c. Mauve 4. Blue, red and white
d. Cyan 1. Green and Blue
41 B The deep-sea submersible that imploded during an underwater

voyage to the Titanic wreckage was named "Falcon." This incident
occurred during an expedition to explore the Titanic's remains in the
deep sea.
42 B a. Beret - 3. A type of hat

b. Stilettos - 4. A type of women's footwear
c. Aviators - 2. A type of sunglasses
d. Chignon - 5. A type of hairstyle
e. Brogue - 1. A type of men's footwear
43 B The former President of the USA, Donald Trump, gave an interview

recently in Sarajevo, Bosnia and Herzegovina.
The interview was conducted by Fox News anchor Tucker Carlson.
In the interview, Trump discussed a variety of topics, including the
war in Ukraine, the US economy, and the 2024 presidential election.
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The interview was controversial, with some praising Trump for his
candor and others criticizing him for his views. However, the
interview was widely watched and generated a lot of discussion.
● Trump did not give an interview in Rome, Athens, or
Amsterdam recently.
44 D The correctly matched pairs are:

2. Venus Rosewater Dish: Wimbledon Trophy (Women)
4. Australian Open (Women): Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup
45 C The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue

Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of
the country's 576 languages.
The MTSI is a comprehensive survey of the mother tongues spoken
in India. It is the first such survey to be conducted in over 100 years.
The survey was conducted by the Language Division of the Ministry
of Home Affairs, in collaboration with the Central Institute of Indian
Languages (CIIL).
The MTSI surveyed a total of 576 languages, including 122
scheduled languages, 22 non-scheduled languages, and 432
languages that were not previously classified. The survey also
documented the linguistic features of each language, such as its
grammar, vocabulary, and pronunciation.
The MTSI is a valuable resource for understanding the linguistic
diversity of India. It will be used to inform government policies and
programs related to language education, culture, and development.
46 A The state of Tamil Nadu has launched a State-Level Committee for

Vulture Conservation (SLCVC). The committee was formed in
October 2022 to coordinate the implementation of the Action Plan
for Vulture Conservation (APVC) 2020-2025.
The SLCVC is chaired by the Principal Chief Conservator of Forests
of Tamil Nadu. Other members of the committee include
representatives from the Department of Animal Husbandry, the
Department of Drug Control, Food Safety and Drug Administration,
the Tamil Nadu Forest Academy, and non-profit organizations
working on vulture conservation.
The SLCVC will work to address the various threats facing vultures
in Tamil Nadu, including habitat loss, poisoning, and electrocution.
The committee will also work to raise awareness about the
importance of vultures and to promote their conservation.
The launch of the SLCVC is a significant step forward for vulture
conservation in Tamil Nadu. Vultures play an important role in the
ecosystem by cleaning up carcasses and preventing the spread of
diseases. However, vultures are facing a number of threats, and
their populations have declined significantly in recent decades.
The SLCVC will play a vital role in protecting vultures in Tamil Nadu
and ensuring that they continue to play their important role in the
ecosystem.
47 A Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys) were

recently released into Intanki National Parkin Nagaland, India. This
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was the first monitored rewilding of this critically endangered tortoise

species in India.
Intanki National Park is a 202 km² protected area located in the
Intanki Valley in Wokha district of Nagaland. It is home to a variety of
wildlife, including elephants, tigers, leopards, and gibbons. The park
is also a hotspot for birdwatching, with over 350 species of birds
recorded.
The Asian Giant Tortoise is the largest tortoise species in mainland
Asia. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species. The main threats to the Asian Giant Tortoise
include habitat loss, hunting, and the illegal pet trade.
The release of ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises into Intanki
National Park is a significant step forward for the conservation of this
species in India. It is hoped that the rewilding effort will be
successful and that the tortoise population will thrive in the park.
48 A The United States has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an

integral part of India.
In October 2022, the US Senate Foreign Relations Committee
passed a resolution that reaffirmed the US position that Arunachal
Pradesh is an integral part of India. The resolution also condemned
China's claims to Arunachal Pradesh and its efforts to undermine
India's sovereignty.
The passage of the resolution was a significant development in
India-US relations. It showed that the US is committed to supporting
India's territorial integrity and its sovereignty over Arunachal
Pradesh.
● Australia has not recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as
an integral part of India.
● Germany has not recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as
an integral part of India.
● Russia has not recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an
integral part of India.
The issue of Arunachal Pradesh is a contentious one between India
and China. China claims Arunachal Pradesh as part of its territory,
while India claims it as an integral part of its own territory. The two
countries have been engaged in a border dispute over Arunachal
Pradesh for decades.
The US reaffirmation of Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of
India is a sign of the growing strategic partnership between the two
countries. It is also a signal to China that the US will not tolerate any
attempts to undermine India's sovereignty over Arunachal Pradesh.
49 A India's Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won the gold medal in Men's 10

m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo in October
2022.
This was a historic victory for Patil and India, as it was the first time
that an Indian shooter had won a gold medal in the Men's 10 m Air
Rifle event at the ISSF World Championship.
Patil's victory is a testament to his hard work and dedication, and it
is a major boost for shooting in India. It is also a sign of the growing
competitiveness of Indian shooters on the world stage.
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50 A The National Education Policy, 2020 (NEP 2020) emphasizes the

integration of vocational education into mainstream education from
Grade 6 onwards.
The NEP 2020 recognizes that vocational education plays an
important role in preparing students for the workforce. The policy
also emphasizes that vocational education should be integrated into
mainstream education so that students have access to a variety of
educational and career pathways.
The NEP 2020 proposes a number of measures to integrate
vocational education into mainstream education, including:
● Introducing vocational exposure and experiential learning
from Grade 6 onwards.
● Offering a variety of vocational courses and subjects at the
secondary and higher secondary levels.
● Providing students with opportunities to participate in
internships and apprenticeships.
● Establishing vocational training centers in schools and
colleges.
● Developing partnerships between schools, colleges, and
industry.
The integration of vocational education into mainstream education is
a significant shift in Indian education policy. It is hoped that this shift
will help to improve the quality of education and provide students
with the skills they need to succeed in the workforce.
51 B India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement

(ECTA) with Australia in April 2022. The agreement came into force
on December 29, 2022.
The ECTA is a comprehensive trade agreement that covers a wide
range of goods and services, as well as investment and cooperation
in other areas. The agreement is expected to boost bilateral trade
between India and Australia by up to 30% in the next five years.
The ECTA is a significant development in India's trade relations with
Australia. It is the first trade agreement that India has signed with a
developed country in a decade. The agreement is also expected to
pave the way for a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation
Agreement (CECA) between the two countries.
● India has not signed an ECTA with the UAE.
● India has not signed an ECTA with the USA.
● India has not signed an ECTA with the UK.
The ECTA is a positive development for both India and Australia. It
is expected to boost bilateral trade and investment, and to create
new jobs and opportunities for people in both countries.
52 C The Plain Language Act, which requires government officials to use

simple and easily understandable English language in official
documents and websites, was recently passed in New Zealand (C).
53 C Tillyardembiids, insect fossils resembling earwigs, were discovered

in Russia and date back around 280 million years. This makes them
much older than previously known pollen-covered insects, predating
them by approximately 120 million years. To provide perspective,
these Tillyardembiids are even older than the mosquitoes found in
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Jurassic Park, which are around 200 million years old. These
ancient insects carried clumps of pollen on their heads, bodies, and
legs, with this pollen originating from gymnosperms—plants that
produce seeds without flowers. Notably, flowering plants, or
angiosperms, emerged between 250 million to 150 million years ago
but became more prevalent only 100 million years ago.
54 C The Lisbon Declaration is associated with the conservation of

oceans.
The Lisbon Declaration is a political declaration that was adopted by
the heads of state and government of 198 countries at the United
Nations Ocean Conference in Lisbon, Portugal, in June 2022. The
declaration sets out a number of commitments to protect and
conserve the ocean, including:
● Reducing marine pollution
● Sustainably managing fisheries
● Protecting marine ecosystems
● Investing in ocean science and technology
The Lisbon Declaration is a significant step forward for ocean
conservation. It is the first time that the international community has
come together to make such a comprehensive set of commitments
to protect and conserve the ocean.
55 B The horse was not known to the people of the Indus Valley
Civilization. The other three animals, bull, elephant, and rhinoceros,
were all known to the Indus Valley people and are depicted in their
art and architecture.
The horse was first domesticated in Central Asia around 3500 BC
and spread to India around 2000 BC. The horse was not introduced
to the Indus Valley Civilization until after it declined in the 15th
century BC.
The Indus Valley Civilization was one of the earliest civilizations in
the world. It flourished in the Indus River Basin in what is now
Pakistan and India from around 2500 BC to 1500 BC. The Indus
Valley people were skilled farmers, traders, and engineers. They
built large cities with sophisticated drainage systems and public
baths.
The Indus Valley Civilization declined in the 15th century BC, but its
legacy continues to this day. The Indus Valley people were the first
to cultivate cotton, rice, and other crops that are still important to
India today. They also developed a complex system of writing that
has not yet been deciphered.
The discovery of the Indus Valley Civilization has revolutionized our
understanding of ancient India. It has shown that India was a center
of civilization long before the arrival of the Aryans.
56 C India Gate is a war memorial in New Delhi, India, that

commemorates the 70,000 Indian soldiers who died in World War I
and the Third Anglo-Afghan War. It is not a UNESCO World Heritage
Site.
The other three options, Qutb Minar, Red Fort, and Taj Mahal, are all
UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
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● Qutb Minar is a minaret that forms part of the Qutb complex,

a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India. It is the tallest brick
minaret in the world.
● Red Fort is a historic fort in Delhi, India. It is a UNESCO
World Heritage Site and is one of India's most popular tourist
destinations.
● Taj Mahal is an ivory-white marble mausoleum on the south
bank of the Yamuna river in the Indian city of Agra. It was
commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan
(reigned 1628–1658) to house the tomb of his favourite wife
Mumtaz Mahal; it also houses the tomb of Shah Jahan
himself. The tomb is the centrepiece of a 17-hectare
(42-acre) complex, which includes a mosque and a guest
house, and is set in formal gardens bounded on three sides
by a crenellated wall.
The UNESCO World Heritage List is a list of sites that have been
deemed to be of outstanding value to humanity. The list includes
natural and cultural sites, such as forests, mountains, monuments,
and historical cities.
57 C The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian

Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are a set of guidelines for the
government of India to follow in order to create a just and equitable
society. They are not enforceable by law, but they are considered to
be morally binding on the government.
The Directive Principles of State Policy cover a wide range of topics,
including:
● Social welfare
● Economic justice
● Education
● Culture
● Environment
● International peace and cooperation
The Directive Principles of State Policy have played an important
role in shaping the development of India since independence. They
have helped to guide the government in its efforts to improve the
lives of its citizens and to create a more just and equitable society.
58 B Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in 1975.

Sikkim was a protectorate of India from 1950 to 1975. During this
time, India was responsible for Sikkim's defense and foreign policy,
but Sikkim remained internally autonomous.
In 1974, a referendum was held in Sikkim to decide whether the
kingdom should remain a protectorate of India or become a
full-fledged state of the Indian Union. The referendum resulted in a
vote in favor of joining the Indian Union.
Sikkim officially became a full-fledged state of the Indian Union on
April 26, 1975. Sikkim is the 22nd state of the Indian Union.
59 A The currencies on the list are very valuable, but they are not as
expensive as the Kuwaiti dinar.
● The euro (EUR) is the currency of the European Union. It is
the second most expensive currency in the world.
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● The pound sterling (GBP) is the currency of the United

Kingdom. It is the third most expensive currency in the world.
● The US dollar (USD) is the currency of the United States. It
is the fourth most expensive currency in the world.
60 Data not found
61 C A Stupa is a dome-shaped structure that serves as a place of

meditation and worship in Buddhism. It typically contains relics of
the Buddha or important Buddhist monks.
A Chaitya is a Buddhist prayer hall or a place of worship, often with

a stupa at the end. It is used by Buddhists for congregational
prayers and rituals.
A Vihara is a Buddhist monastery or dwelling place for monks. It

serves as a place for meditation, study, and communal living for
Buddhist monks.
These architectural elements are closely associated with Buddhist

religious practices and are important in the development of Buddhist
art and culture in India and other parts of Asia.
62 C Sujini is a type of embroidery that is popular in the state of Bihar in

India. It is a traditional craft that has been passed down from
generation to generation. Sujini embroidery is characterized by its
use of simple running stitches to create intricate patterns and
designs. The motifs often draw inspiration from nature, including
flowers, birds, animals, and geometric patterns.
Sujini embroidery is typically done on quilts, bedspreads, and wall
hangings. The quilts are often made from old clothes that have been
patched together. The embroidery is done on the top layer of the
quilt, and the stitches are often visible on the back of the quilt.
Sujini embroidery is a popular craft in Bihar because it is relatively
easy to learn and does not require any special tools or materials. It
is also a relatively inexpensive craft to do, as the materials are often
recycled from old clothes.
Sujini embroidery is a beautiful and unique craft that is a reflection of
the rich culture and heritage of Bihar. It is a craft that is worth
preserving and promoting.
63 C Vikramshila University was located in the present-day Bhagalpur

district of Bihar, not Banka district. It was established by King
Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty, not Gopala I.
The other two statements are correct:
● The ‘Vajrayana’ sect of Buddhism flourished at Vikramshila
University.
● Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar and
Philosophy were also taught at Vikramshila University.
Vikramshila University was one of the most important Buddhist
universities in India during the Pala Empire. It was a center of
learning for students from all over India and Asia. The university was
destroyed by the forces of Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khalji in 1193.
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The ruins of Vikramshila University are located near the village of

Antichak in Bhagalpur district, Bihar. The ruins are a protected
monument under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
64 A 1. The arrival of Babur did lead to the introduction of gunpowder in

the subcontinent.
2. It also led to the introduction of arch and dome in the region's

architecture, as seen in the Mughal architectural style.
3. The establishment of the Timurid dynasty was not a direct result

of Babur's arrival; the Timurid dynasty was already established in
Central Asia, and Babur was a descendant of Timur on his mother's
side.
4. While cannons did become more prevalent during the Mughal era,
their introduction was not solely attributed to Babur's arrival but
rather a broader development in military technology.
65 B During the Mughal period, the port of Surat in Gujarat was known as
Babul Makka, which translates to the "Gate of Mecca." This name
was given to Surat because it served as a significant departure point
for Indian Muslims travelling to the holy city of Mecca for the Hajj
pilgrimage. Many pilgrims from various parts of India would gather in
Surat before embarking on their journey to Mecca.
The name reflects the important role that Surat played in facilitating
the pilgrimage to Mecca, and it highlights the city's significance as a
gateway for Indian Muslims travelling to the holy land.
66 C The Ashta Pradhan was a Council of Ministers in the Maratha

administration. It was established by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in
the late 17th century. The Ashta Pradhan consisted of eight
ministers, each of whom was responsible for a specific area of
government.
The eight ministers of the Ashta Pradhan were:
● Peshwa (Prime Minister)
● Amatya (Finance Minister)
● Sachiv (Secretary)
● Mantri (Intelligence and Police)
● Sar-i-Naubat (Commander-in-Chief)
● Nyayadhish (Chief Justice)
● Senapati (General)
● Pandit Rao (High Priest)
The Ashta Pradhan was a very important institution in the Maratha
administration. It helped Shivaji Maharaj to create a strong and
efficient government. The Ashta Pradhan also helped to promote
unity and cohesion among the various Maratha clans.
● The Gupta administration did not have an Ashta Pradhan.
● The Chola administration did not have an Ashta Pradhan.
● The Vijayanagara administration did not have an Ashta
Pradhan.
The Ashta Pradhan was a unique institution in the history of India. It
was a system of government that was based on the principles of
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cooperation and collective responsibility. The Ashta Pradhan helped

Shivaji Maharaj to create a strong and efficient government that was
able to unite the Marathas and challenge the Mughal Empire.
67 C The painting of 'Bodhisattva Padmapani' is located at Ajanta. Ajanta

Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage site, are known for their exquisite
ancient Buddhist cave paintings and sculptures, including depictions
of Bodhisattvas like Padmapani.
68 D 1. Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign
of Chandragupta II.
2. Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India
during the reign of Harsha.
List—I List—II
a. Charaka 2. Medicine
b. Brahmagupta 1. Mathematics
c. Varahamihira 4. Astrology
d. Vishakhadatta 3. Playwright
Charaka was a renowned physician who is considered to be the

father of Indian medicine. He wrote the Charaka Samhita, which is
one of the oldest and most important treatises on Ayurveda.
Brahmagupta was a mathematician and astronomer who made

significant contributions to the development of these fields. He wrote
the Brahmasphutasiddhanta, which is a treatise on mathematics,
astronomy, and astrology.
Varahamihira was an astronomer and astrologer who wrote several

treatises on these subjects. His most famous work is the Brihat
Samhita, which is a comprehensive treatise on astrology.
Vishakhadatta was a playwright who wrote the Mudrarakshasa,

which is one of the most famous Sanskrit plays.
70 B Alauddin Khilji, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1296 to 1316,
introduced the Persian festival Nowruz in India during his reign.
Nowruz is the Persian New Year, which marks the beginning of
spring and is celebrated as a festival of renewal and rebirth.
Alauddin Khilji, known for his military conquests and administrative
reforms, was influenced by Persian culture and traditions. Under his
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rule, the Delhi Sultanate had strong trade and cultural connections
with Persia.
71 A Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis made devotional religion popular in

Northern India.
The Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis were a group of religious

teachers who emerged in India during the 10th and 11th centuries.
They were influenced by a variety of religious traditions, including
Hinduism, Buddhism, and Jainism. They were also influenced by the
tantric tradition, which emphasizes the importance of meditation and
yoga.
The Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis traveled all over India,

teaching their message of devotion and spiritual practice. They were
particularly popular in Northern India, where they founded many
monasteries and ashrams.
The Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis played an important role in

popularizing devotional religion in Northern India. They taught that
everyone, regardless of their caste or social status, could achieve
salvation through devotion and spiritual practice. They also made
important contributions to the development of Hindi literature and
music.
The Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis continue to be influential in

India today. Their teachings have inspired many generations of
religious seekers.
72 C Wood's Dispatch of 1854 was a landmark document in the history of

education in India. It was issued by the British East India Company
and it recommended a number of important changes to the Indian
education system.
One of the most important recommendations of Wood's Dispatch
was that English should be used as the medium of instruction for
higher studies. This was a major shift from the previous policy of
using vernacular languages as the medium of instruction. The British
believed that English would give Indians access to Western
knowledge and culture, and that it would help to prepare them for
jobs in the British administration.
Wood's Dispatch also laid stress on female education and vocational
training. The British believed that female education was important
for the social and economic development of India. They also
believed that vocational training would help to create a skilled
workforce.
Wood's Dispatch had a significant impact on the Indian education
system. It led to the establishment of many new schools and
colleges, and it increased the number of students who were being
educated in English. It also helped to promote female education and
vocational training.
Wood's Dispatch was not without its critics. Some Indians argued
that it was too focused on English education and that it neglected
the importance of vernacular languages. Others argued that it did
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not go far enough in promoting female education and vocational

training.
Despite its critics, Wood's Dispatch is considered to be one of the
most important documents in the history of education in India. It laid
the foundation for the modern Indian education system.
73 C The Maithili language started to develop during the reign of the

Karnat dynasty.
The Karnat dynasty was a Hindu dynasty that ruled in Mithila

(present-day Bihar and Nepal) from the 7th to the 12th centuries CE.
The Karnat kings were patrons of learning and culture, and they
helped to promote the development of Maithili literature.
Some of the most famous Maithili poets and writers lived during the
Karnat dynasty, including Vidyapati and Jayadeva. Vidyapati is
known for his love poems and devotional songs, while Jayadeva is
known for his epic poem Gitagovinda.
The Maithili language continued to develop after the fall of the

Karnat dynasty in the 12th century. However, it reached its peak
during the Karnat dynasty, which is why the Karnat dynasty is often
credited with the development of the Maithili language.
74 A The city of Rajagriha served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of

Magadha during the early Vedic period.
Rajagriha, also known as Girivraja, is located in the present-day
Indian state of Bihar. It is one of the oldest cities in India, and it has
been inhabited for over 3,000 years.
Rajagriha was an important center of trade and commerce during
the Vedic period. It was also a religious center, and it was home to
many important Buddhist and Jain temples.
The city was later abandoned in the 12th century CE, but it has been
extensively excavated by archaeologists. The ruins of Rajagriha are
a popular tourist destination, and they offer a glimpse into the life
and culture of ancient India.
The other cities on the list were not as important as Rajagriha during
the early Vedic period.
● Campa was a city in the ancient kingdom of Anga. It was
located in the present-day Indian state of West Bengal.
● Vaishali was a city in the ancient kingdom of Videha. It was
located in the present-day Indian state of Bihar.
● Pataliputra was a city in the ancient kingdom of Magadha. It
became the capital of Magadha in the 5th century BCE.
75 D ● The Vernacular Press Act was enacted by Lord Lytton in

1878.
● It came to be known as a "Gagging Act" because it was used
to suppress criticism of the British government in
Indian-language newspapers.
● The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882.
The Vernacular Press Act was a controversial piece of legislation. It
was passed by the British government in order to control the Indian
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press and to prevent the spread of seditious ideas. The Act gave the
government the power to censor newspapers and to prosecute
journalists who published articles that were considered to be
seditious.
The Vernacular Press Act was widely criticized by Indians. They
argued that it was a violation of the freedom of the press and that it
was being used to suppress dissent. The Act was also criticized by
some British officials, who argued that it was counterproductive and
that it would only serve to increase resentment towards the British
government.
The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882.
Ripon was a liberal viceroy who believed in the importance of
freedom of speech and expression. He argued that the Vernacular
Press Act was unnecessary and that it was harmful to the
relationship between the British government and the Indian people.
76 D All of the statements about Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 are

correct:
● Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 was the first step that
bifurcated Central and Provincial finances.
● Provincial Governments were empowered to administer
certain services, such as education, public health, and roads.
● Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 attempted to rectify the
existing imparity between the Central and Provincial
Governments.
● Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 focussed on the actual
needs of the Provinces.
Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 was a landmark document in the
history of Indian administration. It was a step towards
decentralization and it gave the Provincial Governments more
financial and administrative autonomy. The Resolution was also an
attempt to address the growing grievances of the Provinces, who felt
that they were not getting a fair share of resources from the Central
Government.
Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 was a significant step towards the
development of a more federal system of government in India. It was
also a reflection of the growing awareness of the need for
decentralization in a vast and diverse country like India.
77 B The Nitisara is a treatise on politics and statecraft written by

Kamandaka in the 4th-3rd century BCE. Some scholars have dated
it to between the 3rd and 7th centuries CE, but this is less widely
accepted. It is dedicated to Chandragupta of Pataliputra and is
considered to be one of the earliest books on politics in India.
The Nitisara is divided into 19 chapters and covers a wide range of
topics, including the duties of a king, the qualities of a good minister,
the art of war, and the principles of diplomacy. It is considered to be
a valuable source of information on the political thought and
practices of ancient India.
● Kautilya was the author of the Arthashastra, another
important treatise on politics and statecraft in ancient India.
● Charaka was a physician and the author of the Charaka
Samhita, a treatise on Ayurveda.
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78 A Futuhat-i-Alamgiri is a Persian chronicle of the reign of Mughal

emperor Aurangzeb. It was written by Ishwardas Nagar, a Hindu
officer in the Mughal service. The work covers the period from
Aurangzeb's accession to the throne in 1658 to his death in 1707.
● Bhimsen was a court historian of the Mughal emperor Akbar.
● Haridas was a court historian of the Mughal emperor
Jahangir.
79 B According to a Chinese source, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri

Lanka, sent a missionary to Samudragupta for permission to build a
Buddhist temple at Gaya. Samudragupta granted permission to
Meghavarman, and the temple was built. This temple is still standing
today, and it is one of the most important Buddhist pilgrimage sites
in the world.
● Chandragupta I was the founder of the Gupta dynasty. He
ruled from 320 to 300 BCE.
● Chandragupta II was the most famous Gupta king. He ruled
from 375 to 415 CE.
80 A Bihar was first separated from the Bengal Presidency in 1912. This
was done by the British government in response to demands from
Biharis for a separate province. Bihar had been a part of the Bengal
Presidency since 1765, but it had a distinct culture and language.
The Biharis felt that they were not being adequately represented in
the Bengal Presidency government.
The British government agreed to separate Bihar from Bengal in
1912, and the new province of Bihar and Orissa was created. Bihar
and Orissa remained a single province until 1936, when Orissa was
separated and became a separate province. Bihar has remained a
separate province ever since.
81 C Lake Victoria is the largest freshwater lake in Africa by surface area,

and it is one of the Great Lakes of Africa. It is bordered by three
countries, not four: Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya.
The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Victoria Nile River, which
exits the lake at Jinja, Uganda. The Victoria Nile is one of the three
main tributaries of the Nile River.
Therefore, the incorrect statements are:
4. It is bordered by four countries—Tanzania, Uganda,
Rwanda and Kenya.
5. The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River,
which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda.
The other statements are correct.
82 D
According to the IMD,a heat wave is considered if the maximum
temperature of a station reaches at least 40 degrees Celsius or
more for Plains and at least 30 degrees Celsius or more for Hilly
regions.
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List-I List-II
a. Christopher Columbus 3. Italy
b. Jacques Cartier 4. France
c. Sir Francis Drake 2. United Kingdom
d. Ferdinand Magellan 1. Portugal
Christopher Columbus was born in Genoa, Italy, in 1451. He was an

Italian explorer who is credited with discovering the Americas for
Europeans in 1492.
Jacques Cartier was born in Saint-Malo, Brittany, France, in 1491.
He was a French explorer who explored the St. Lawrence River in
North America in the 16th century.
Sir Francis Drake was born in Tavistock, Devon, England, in 1540.
He was an English explorer and privateer who was the first
Englishman to circumnavigate the globe.
Ferdinand Magellan was born in Sabrosa, Portugal, in 1480. He was
a Portuguese explorer who led the first expedition to circumnavigate
the globe. He was killed in the Philippines in 1521, but his crew
completed the expedition without him.
84 A The emirates of the UAE are:

● Abu Dhabi
● Dubai
● Sharjah
● Ajman
● Umm Al-Quwain
● Fujairah
● Ras Al-Khaimah
85 D The Subarnarekha River, one of the longest eastward-flowing rivers

across states, has its source close to Nagri village in Ranchi district,
Jharkhand, at an elevation of 600 metres. The river stretches for
approximately 395 kilometres. Its primary tributaries include the
Kanchi, Kharkai, and Karkari rivers.
86 A In Bihar, there are two National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries:
1. Valmiki National Park: Valmiki National Park is located in the West

Champaran district of Bihar. It is one of the most prominent wildlife
reserves in the state and is known for its rich biodiversity. The park
is named after the sage Valmiki, who is believed to have composed
the Indian epic Ramayana in this region. It is home to various
species of mammals, birds, and reptiles.
2. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary: Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary is
situated in the Munger district of Bihar. This sanctuary is known for
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its lush greenery and diverse flora and fauna. It provides a habitat
for a range of wildlife species, including leopards, tigers, elephants,
various deer species, and many bird species.
87 D All of the given statements about the Gangetic Dolphin are correct.
1. The Gangetic River Dolphin has indeed been categorised as

'endangered' under the IUCN's Red List due to its declining
population and the threats it faces.
2. It is true that the Gangetic Dolphin does not have a crystalline eye
lens, which renders it effectively blind. This is an adaptation to its
aquatic environment.
3. The Gangetic Dolphin, like other dolphins, uses echolocation for
navigation and hunting. It emits sound waves, and by listening to the
echoes, it can determine the location and size of objects in its
environment.
4. The Gangetic Dolphin has been recognized as India's National
Aquatic Animal.
88 C The Gandak River, also known as Narayani River, is one of the

major rivers of northern India and Nepal.
1. Burhi Gandak: This is not another name for the Gandak River. It's
a different river in Bihar, India.
2. Mahananda: This is a separate river in India, flowing through the

states of West Bengal and Bihar. It is not an alternative name for the
Gandak.
3. Narayani: This is indeed another name for the Gandak River. In

Nepal, it is known as the Gandaki River, while in India, it is known as
the Gandak River.
4. Punpun: Punpun is a tributary of the Ganges River in Bihar, India.

It is not an alternative name for the Gandak.
89 D Gold is found in the Jamui district of Bihar.

In 2019, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) estimated that the
Jamui district has a reserve of about 222.88 million tonnes of gold,
including 37.6 tonnes of mineralized ore. This makes it the largest
known gold reserve in India.
The GSI has also identified several other areas in Bihar where gold
may be present, including the districts of Munger, Saran, and Siwan.
However, the gold reserves in these districts are not as large as the
reserves in Jamui.
The discovery of gold in Bihar has the potential to boost the state's
economy and create jobs. The state government is currently working
on plans to develop the gold reserves in Jamui.
90 C The Triveni Canal has been constructed on the Gandak River.

The Triveni Canal is a major irrigation canal in Bihar, India. It
originates at the Triveni Ghat in the Champaran district of Bihar and
flows through the districts of Champaran, Saran, Chhapra,
Muzaffarpur, Darbhanga, Siwan, and Vaishali.
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The Triveni Canal is an important source of irrigation for millions of

farmers in Bihar. It also helps to control floods and provide drinking
water to several villages and towns.
The other options are the names of other rivers in India:
● Kosi is a river in Nepal and India.
● Sone is a river in Madhya Pradesh and Bihar.
● Mayurakshi is a river in West Bengal.
91 A The statement A is true. Rich placer deposits of gold are found on

the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil.
The statement R is also true. At some points of time, these
continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.
The theory that continents were once joined together and have since
drifted apart is called continental drift. This theory is supported by a
number of pieces of evidence, including the matching coastlines of
Africa and South America, the presence of similar fossils on different
continents, and the existence of mountain ranges that line up across
different continents.
Therefore, the correct answer is (A), Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A.

a. Dharwar rock system | 3. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system
b. Vindhyan rock system | 4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite,
quartzite and shale are the main constituents of this rock system
c. Quaternary rock system | 1. Created by the rapid deposition of
alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers
d. Tertiary rock system | 2. Can be found in the West Champaran
district
The Dharwar rock system is the oldest rock system in Bihar. It is part
of the Archaean rock system, which dates back between 3.1 and 2.1
billion years ago. The Dharwar rock system is found in the southern
parts of Bihar, in the districts of Aurangabad, Gaya, Nawada, Jamui,
and Munger.
The Vindhyan rock system is younger than the Dharwar rock
system. It dates back between 1.3 and 0.6 billion years ago. The
Vindhyan rock system is found in the Kaimur and Rohtas districts of
Bihar.
The Tertiary rock system is the youngest rock system in Bihar. It
dates back between 60 and 7 million years ago. The Tertiary rock
system is found in the northwestern parts of Bihar, in the Terai
region.
The Quaternary rock system is the youngest rock system in the
world. It dates back to the last 2.58 million years. The Quaternary
rock system is found in the Gangetic plain of Bihar, which is the
central part of the state.
93 A The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is located in South India,

specifically between the southern tip of the Indian subcontinent and
the northern coast of Sri Lanka. It's known for its exceptional marine
biodiversity and is often considered one of the world's richest
regions in terms of marine life.
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Here's some more information about the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere

Reserve:
1. Biodiversity: This biosphere reserve is home to a wide variety of

marine species, including numerous fish species, sea turtles,
dolphins, and dugongs (a type of marine mammal). It also has
extensive coral reef systems, seagrass beds, salt marshes, and
mangrove forests.
2. Islands: The reserve comprises 21 islands, each with its unique

ecosystems. These islands play a crucial role in conserving the
region's biodiversity.
3. Coral Reefs: The coral reefs found in the Gulf of Mannar are
among the healthiest and most diverse in the world. They support a
rich marine ecosystem and provide livelihoods for local
communities.
4. Mangroves: Mangrove forests along the coast of the Gulf of

Mannar provide important breeding and nursery grounds for various
marine species. They also help protect the coastline from erosion
and provide resources for local communities.
5. Conservation: The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve has been

established to conserve this unique marine environment, promote
sustainable resource management, and support the livelihoods of
the local communities living in the region.
In summary, the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is renowned for

its exceptional marine biodiversity, including coral reefs, seagrass
beds, mangroves, and various marine species. It plays a crucial role
in both conservation efforts and the sustainable development of the
region.
94 A Bhutan is located at 90° East longitude. To find the local time in

Thimphu when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon, we need to
consider that for every 15° of longitude eastward, the time is ahead
by 1 hour.
Thimphu is 90° east of Greenwich, so the time difference is:
90° / 15° per hour = 6 hours
So, the local time in Thimphu when it's 12:00 noon at Greenwich is 6
hours ahead:
12:00 noon + 6 hours = 6:00 p.m.
Therefore, the local time in Thimphu is 6:00 p.m.
95 B - Koderma, also known as Koderma, is a district in the state of

Jharkhand, India.
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- It is famous for its rich deposits of mica, which is a mineral widely

used in various industries, especially in the electrical and electronics
sectors.
- Mica is valued for its unique properties, including its electrical
insulating properties, heat resistance, and transparency, making it a
crucial component in products like capacitors, insulators, and
cosmetics.
96 A There are 180 latitudes on the globe drawn at 1 degree interval.

The equator is at the exact center between the poles and is the 0°th
latitude line. There are 90 latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere and
90 latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere.
97 C The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is 30 m.
The Kosi plain is a large, flat area of land in northern India and
southern Nepal. It is formed by the Kosi River, which flows from the
Himalayas to the Ganges River. The Kosi plain is a very fertile
region, and it is home to a large population of farmers.
● 300 m is the average height of the Himalayas.
● 150 m is the average height of the Deccan Plateau.
98 A The Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect
each other on the (A) Bundelkhand Plateau in central India. This is
the location where the Tropic of Cancer, which is at approximately
23.5 degrees north latitude, crosses the Indian Standard Time Line,
which runs longitudinally through the country.
99 C Almora district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibet

boundary. The other three districts, Uttarkashi, Chamoli, and
Pithoragarh, share a border with Tibet.
100 D The El Niño current primarily affects the Pacific Ocean but has
global climate impacts, including effects on regions bordering the
Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal.
101 D The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is

headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises
four other senior most Judges of the Court at that time. The
collegium system is not enshrined in the Constitution of India, but it
was evolved by the Supreme Court through a series of judgments,
starting with the First Judges Case in 1993.
The collegium system is responsible for recommending the
appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts of
India. The President of India is bound to appoint the judges
recommended by the collegium.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statements 2 and 4
are incorrect.
Parliament has not enacted any law to establish the collegium
system, and the collegium system was not introduced by Justice P.
N. Bhagwati. Justice Bhagwati was one of the judges who delivered
the judgement in the First Judges Case, but he did not introduce the
collegium system.
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102 C The correct statement about the 42nd Amendment to the

Constitution of India is: It added three words to the
Preamble—‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment added 10

fundamental duties to the Constitution of India.
Statement 3 is also incorrect. While the 42nd Amendment made

changes to the Directive Principles of State Policy, it didn't add
Directive Principles Article 47. It was already present in the
Constitution since 1950.
103 D All four of the listed specifications are considered when determining
whether a community should be declared as a Scheduled Tribe.
These specifications are used to identify and recognize communities
that have historically faced social and economic disadvantages and
require special protection and assistance.
104 B The Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of
Fundamental Rights primarily from the United States of America
(USA). The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are
influenced by the Bill of Rights in the U.S. Constitution, which
guarantees various individual liberties and protections. While the
Indian Constitution also drew inspiration from other sources,
including the Constitution of Ireland, the USA's influence on India's
Fundamental Rights is significant.
105 C Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability. It

states:
"Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of
"Untouchability" shall be an offence punishable in accordance with
law.
Untouchability is a social practice that discriminates against people
based on their caste. It is a violation of human rights and is
prohibited by the Indian Constitution.
● Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal
protection of the laws.
● Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
● Article 22 protects the right to life and personal liberty.
106 D The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court

rests with The Parliament. The President of India appoints the
Judges of a High Court based on the recommendations made by the
Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the respective state.
However, the actual number of Judges in a High Court, including the
Chief Justice, is decided by the Parliament of India through
legislation.
107 D The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the
governance and protection of the interests of Scheduled Tribes. It
provides for a number of special provisions for the administration
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and development of Scheduled Tribe areas in India. These

provisions include:
● The establishment of Tribal Advisory Councils to advise the
Governor on matters relating to the welfare and development
of Scheduled Tribes.
● The establishment of Tribal Development Blocks for the
planning and implementation of development schemes in
Scheduled Tribe areas.
● The reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the Lok
Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
● The appointment of a Commissioner for Scheduled Tribes to
safeguard the interests of Scheduled Tribes and to
investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for
them under the Constitution.
The Fifth Schedule also provides for the establishment of
Autonomous District Councils in certain parts of the country. These
Councils have the power to make laws and regulations on a number
of matters, including land, agriculture, forestry, and education.
The Fifth Schedule is an important instrument for the protection and
development of Scheduled Tribes in India. It has played a significant
role in improving the lives of Scheduled Tribes and in helping them
to achieve their full potential.
108 B The Supreme Court of India gave the doctrine of 'basic structure' of
the Constitution for the first time in the case of Kesavananda Bharati
vs. State of Kerala (1973).
The basic structure doctrine is a judicial innovation that ensures that
the power of amendment of the Constitution is not misused by
Parliament. The doctrine holds that there is a basic structure to the
Constitution, and the Parliament of India cannot amend the basic
features of the Constitution.
The basic features of the Constitution include the following:
● Sovereignty of India
● Democracy
● Republicanism
● Secularism
● Rule of law
● Fundamental rights
● Judicial independence
● Federalism
The basic structure doctrine has been upheld by the Supreme Court
in a number of subsequent cases, including the cases of Minerva
Mills vs. Union of India (1980) and Waman Rao vs. Union of India
(2014).
The Golaknath vs. State of Punjab case (1967) was the first case in
which the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend the
Fundamental Rights under the Constitution. However, the Court did
not enunciate the basic structure doctrine in the Golaknath case.
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List—I (Political Parties) List—II

(Years of
Establish
ment)
A. Communist Party of India 1. 1964

(Marxist)
B. Communist Party of India 3. 1925
C. Bahujan Samaj Party 4. 1984
D. All India Trinamool Congress 2. 1998

(AITC)
110 C The Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her
mother tongue under Article 120 (1) of the Constitution of India.
Article 120 (1) states:
The business of Parliament shall be conducted in Hindi or in
English: Provided that the Speaker of the House of the People or the
Chairman of the Council of States, or person acting as such, as the
case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately
express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his
mother tongue.
This provision is intended to ensure that all members of Parliament
have the opportunity to participate in the proceedings of the House,
regardless of their fluency in Hindi or English.
● Article 110 (1) deals with the disqualification of members of
Parliament.
● Article 122 (2) deals with the powers of the Speaker to
suspend members of the House.
111 D The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include all of the
following:
● Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): Assets denominated in
foreign currencies, such as US dollars, euros, and Japanese
yen.
● Gold: The RBI's holdings of gold bullion.
● Special Drawing Rights (SDR): An international reserve
asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
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● Reserve Tranche Position: A portion of the RBI's quota with

the IMF that can be drawn upon to meet short-term balance
of payments needs.
Therefore, the correct answer is (D), All of the above.
Additional Information:
The RBI's foreign exchange reserves are used to:
● Maintain the external value of the rupee.
● Meet the country's import needs.
● Intervene in the foreign exchange market to stabilize the
rupee.
● Provide financial assistance to the government in times of
crisis.
The RBI's foreign exchange reserves are an important indicator of
the country's economic strength. A high level of foreign exchange
reserves indicates that the country is able to meet its external
obligations and that it is less vulnerable to economic shocks.
112 D Rules of origin are the criteria used to determine the country of
origin of a product. They are important for a number of reasons,
including:
● To determine whether a product is eligible for preferential
treatment under a trade agreement.
● To apply anti-dumping and countervailing duties.
● To determine whether a product is subject to import quotas.
● To collect accurate trade statistics.
Rules of origin can be complex and vary from product to product.
Some common rules of origin include:
● The product must be wholly obtained in the country of origin.
● The product must be substantially transformed in the country
of origin.
● The product must have a certain percentage of value added
in the country of origin.
Customs agencies use rules of origin to determine what regulations
and fees apply to a given product. For example, a product that is
eligible for preferential treatment under a trade agreement may have
a lower import duty than a product that is not eligible for preferential
treatment.
Trade statistics are important for a number of reasons, including:
● To track trade flows and trends.
● To inform government trade policy decisions.
● To help businesses make informed decisions about their
operations.
Rules of origin are essential for collecting accurate trade statistics.
Without rules of origin, it would be difficult to determine the country
of origin of many products.
113 B The correct statements about the infant mortality rate are:
1. It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of

age, expressed per 1,000 live births, not per 10,000.
2. The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189.6.
3. In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.
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4. As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of

Registrar General of India (RGI), the state with the highest infant
mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh.
114 D Human capital formation is the process of increasing the knowledge,

skill levels, and capacities of the people of a country. It is an
investment in people, and it is essential for economic growth and
development.
● Option 1 is incorrect because human capital formation is not
only about accumulating more capital. It is also about
increasing knowledge and skill levels.
● Option 2 is incorrect because increasing knowledge and skill
levels are two of the main components of human capital
formation.
● Option 3 is incorrect because increasing knowledge, skill
levels, and capacities are all components of human capital
formation.
Human capital formation is a complex and long-term process. It
requires investment in education, training, and healthcare. It also
requires creating an environment where people can use their skills
and knowledge to be productive.
Human capital formation is essential for economic growth and
development. A well-educated and skilled workforce is more
productive and can create more wealth. Human capital formation
also leads to better health outcomes and a higher quality of life for
people.
115 C Insolvency refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity

is unable to pay off their debts as they become due. 2. Bankruptcy
refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are
liquidated or reorganised for the benefit of creditors.
Insolvency is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion. The
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory
body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy
proceedings.
116 A The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) was adopted by the Indian
government in 1956. It was the second comprehensive statement on
industrial development in India, after the Industrial Policy of 1948.
The IPR of 1956 laid the foundation for India's industrial
development in the post-independence era. It classified industries
into three categories:
1. Schedule A: Industries that were to be exclusively owned
and operated by the government.
2. Schedule B: Industries in which the government would play a
leading role in development, but private sector participation
would also be allowed.
3. Schedule C: Industries that were open to private sector
development.
The IPR of 1956 also emphasized the importance of small-scale
industries and village industries. It provided for a number of
measures to promote the development of these industries, such as
preferential access to credit and raw materials.
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The IPR of 1956 played a significant role in India's industrial

development. It helped to lay the foundation for India's
transformation from an agrarian economy to an industrial economy.
117 B Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme has three categories

of applicants: (i) global companies, (ii) Indian companies, and (iii) a
group consisting of Indian companies and specified group
companies.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the target segment under PLI

includes (i) mobile phones, (ii) specified electronic components of
mobile phones, and (iii) specified electronic components used in the
manufacture of the aforementioned goods. It doesn't include
laptops, tablets, all-in-one PCs, servers, or Ultra-Small Form Factor
(USFF) computers.
118 B ● Statement 1 is incorrect. SVAMITVA is a Central Sector

Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
● Statement 2 is correct. SVAMITVA seeks to create
geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to
benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level
accuracy. CORS stands for Continuously Operating
Reference Station.
● Statement 3 is incorrect. SVAMITVA is a reformative step
towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural
inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using
drone technology.
Therefore, the only incorrect statements are 1 and 3.
Additional Information:
The SVAMITVA scheme was launched in 2020 with the aim to
provide rural residents with the right to document their residential
properties so that they can use their property for economic
purposes. The scheme is being implemented in a phased manner
across the country.
Under the SVAMITVA scheme, drones are used to map rural land
parcels. The drone imagery is then used to create a digital map of
the village, which is then verified by the local community. Once the
map is verified, it is used to generate property cards for each
household.
The SVAMITVA scheme has a number of benefits. It helps to
provide rural residents with clear ownership of their property, which
can help them to access credit and other financial services. It also
helps to improve rural planning and development.
119 A Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to

declare a financial emergency if he/she is satisfied that a situation
has arisen which threatens the financial stability or credit of India or
any part of its territory.
Once a financial emergency is declared, the following consequences
come into effect:
● The President may order the States to reduce the salaries
and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in
connection with the State affairs.
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● The President can issue directions for the reduction of

salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees
serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including
the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
● Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State
Legislature are to be reserved for the consideration of the
President.
However, Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the Lok
Sabha are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the
President.
Therefore, the only incorrect statement is 2.
It is important to note that the declaration of a financial emergency is
a very serious matter, and it can only be done in exceptional
circumstances.
120 D Stagflation is a situation characterized by high inflation, economic

stagnation, and high unemployment. All of the listed factors can
contribute to stagflation:
1. High inflationary pressures due to increased Government

spending: Excessive government spending can lead to
demand-pull inflation, which is one of the components of
stagflation.
2. Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic

growth: Economic stagnation and a decline in industrial
production are key elements of stagflation.
3. Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending: A

decrease in aggregate demand can lead to reduced
economic activity and growth, contributing to stagnation.
4. Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to the reduction

of export competitiveness: If the domestic currency becomes
stronger and less competitive in the global market, it can
result in reduced exports and economic stagnation.
All these factors, when combined, create a situation of stagflation,

where high inflation coexists with slow economic growth and high
unemployment.
121 B According to the Economic Survey of 2023:
1. It has decreased due to the less participation of the private

sector: This statement is not supported by the Economic
Survey. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) trends in India have
not necessarily decreased due to less private sector
participation.
2. It has increased compared to the prepandemic levels: This

statement is correct. The Economic Survey indicates that
FDI in India has increased compared to the pre-pandemic
levels.
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3. It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial

Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed: The
Economic Survey does not mention this specific reason for
the increase in FDI. It may have increased in certain sectors,
but the statement does not capture the overall trend.
4. It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation:

This statement is also correct. The weak global economic
situation can influence FDI inflows, and the Economic Survey
suggests that it has decreased due to global economic
conditions.
So, statements 2 and 4 accurately describe the trend of Foreign

Direct Investment in India according to the Economic Survey of
2023.
122 A It is a 1.87% increase from 2022.
123 A Non-plan expenditures of the Central Government typically include

expenses like interest payments on loans, salaries and pensions of
government employees, subsidies, and maintenance of existing
infrastructure. These are recurring expenditures necessary to meet
the day-to-day functioning of the government.
124 C Globalization has led to an increase in trade in goods and services,

as well as a greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into
India. However, it is not true that the increase in exports is greater
than the increase in imports.
In fact, India has been running a trade deficit for many years. This
means that the value of imports is greater than the value of exports.
In the financial year 2022-23, India's trade deficit was $189.5 billion.
There are a number of reasons for India's trade deficit. One reason
is that India imports a lot of goods and services that it does not
produce domestically, such as oil, electronics, and machinery.
Another reason is that India's exports are concentrated in a few
sectors, such as pharmaceuticals and textiles, while it imports a
wide range of goods and services.
125 B The following statements are correct:

● The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9.2
percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21.
● The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7.7 percent of GDP in
FY22.
The fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total
expenditure and its total revenue. It is a measure of how much the
government is borrowing to finance its activities.
The fiscal deficit increased during the pandemic FY21 due to the
government's increased spending on healthcare and other
measures to mitigate the impact of the pandemic. However, the
fiscal deficit has moderated in FY22 due to the government's efforts
to reduce its expenditure and increase its revenue.
The statement that the revenue collection over the last two years
has gone down is incorrect. In fact, the government's revenue
collection has increased in FY22 compared to FY21. This is due to
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the strong growth in the Indian economy and the government's

efforts to improve tax collection.
126 C All three reasons mentioned contributed to the failure of the Revolt
of 1857:
1. The military superiority of the British played a significant role

in suppressing the revolt. The British had a well-organized
and disciplined army, which gave them a strategic
advantage.
2. The rebels did not have a unified program and ideology. The
lack of a clear and common goal among the various rebel
groups and leaders made it challenging to coordinate their
efforts effectively.
3. There was a lack of support from all sections of society. While

the revolt had support from some sections of society, it did
not have widespread support across all regions and
communities in India, which weakened its overall impact.
127 B The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi's life from a
murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917 was Batak Mian.
In 1917, Gandhi was visiting Champaran, Bihar, to investigate the
plight of indigo farmers. He was staying at the house of an indigo
planter named Erwin. Erwin's cook, Batak Mian, was instructed to
poison Gandhi's food. However, Batak Mian refused to follow the
order and instead warned Gandhi about the plot.
Gandhi was grateful to Batak Mian for saving his life. He later wrote
that Batak Mian was "a brave and honest man" who had "risked his
own life to save mine."
Batak Mian's story is a reminder of the importance of courage and
integrity. He is an inspiration to us all.
128 C The Bakasht Movement, also known as the Sharecroppers'

Movement, was a significant agrarian movement that took place in
Bihar, India, during the late 1930s. It was organized by Swami
Sahajanand Saraswati, a prominent social reformer and leader of
the peasants and farmers in Bihar.
The primary objective of the Bakasht Movement was to address the

issues faced by sharecroppers (bataidars) who were predominantly
agricultural laborers working on the land of landlords under
exploitative conditions. Sharecroppers didn't own the land but
cultivated it and gave a significant portion of their produce to the
landowners as rent.
Key points about the Bakasht Movement:
1. Rights and Reforms: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati advocated

for the rights of sharecroppers and sought to bring about
reforms in the agrarian system. He demanded fair treatment,
reasonable rent, and a reduction in the share of produce
taken by landlords.
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2. Unity among Peasants: Swami Sahajanand worked towards

uniting the peasants and organizing them to demand their
rights collectively. This unity among the farming community
was crucial in gaining strength and bargaining power.
3. Boycotts and Protests: The movement involved various forms

of protests, including boycotts of landlords and their agents,
non-cooperation, and strikes. These actions were aimed at
pressuring the landlords and gaining better terms for the
sharecroppers.
4. Success and Reforms: The Bakasht Movement achieved

some success in getting concessions from landlords and
influencing government policies. It drew attention to the plight
of sharecroppers and paved the way for agrarian reforms in
Bihar and other parts of India.
5. Legacy: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati's leadership and the

Bakasht Movement played a significant role in shaping the
agrarian landscape of Bihar and contributed to broader
discussions on land reforms and social justice in India.
Overall, the Bakasht Movement was an important chapter in the

struggle for the rights of agricultural laborers and sharecroppers,
aiming to alleviate their exploitation and improve their living
conditions.
129 B Surat Split- 1907

Minto-Morley reforms- 1909
Home Rule Movement- 1916-1918
Kheda Satyagraha- 1918
130 D The Ilbert Bill was not associated with Lord Lytton; instead, it was
introduced during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon in 1883. The Ilbert
Bill aimed to reform the criminal jurisdiction in British India. It
proposed that Indian magistrates should be allowed to preside over
cases involving British subjects. However, this proposal faced strong
opposition from the European community in India, leading to a
controversy known as the Ilbert Bill Controversy. Lord Ripon
supported the bill, but due to the vehement opposition, especially
from Europeans, some compromises were made in the final version
of the bill.
The Ilbert Bill Controversy highlighted issues related to racial

discrimination and British attitudes towards Indians within the
colonial administration. Ultimately, the bill was passed in a diluted
form, which limited the jurisdiction of Indian magistrates over
European offenders. This controversy had significant implications for
the Indian nationalist movement as it raised awareness about the
need for political reforms and equal treatment under the law.
131 A The treaty signed after the Battle of Buxar was the Treaty of
Allahabad. The Battle of Buxar took place in 1764, and the treaty
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was signed in 1765. This treaty had significant implications for

British control over India, as it marked the beginning of the British
East India Company's political authority in Bengal and parts of
northern India. The treaty granted the British the right to collect
revenue (diwani) in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, and it laid the
foundation for their subsequent control over vast territories in India.
132 B The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in
1632. Therefore, the correct answer is (B).
The Dutch East India Company was a powerful trading company
that was granted a monopoly on trade with Asia by the Dutch
government. The company established factories in many parts of
Asia, including India. The factory in Patna was a major trading
center for the company. It traded in goods such as indigo, saltpeter,
and textiles.
The Dutch East India Company was one of the most important
European companies in India during the 17th and 18th centuries. It
played a major role in the development of the Indian economy and
the spread of European culture in India.
133 C Mahatma Gandhi made the first use of the hunger strike as a
weapon during the Ahmedabad Strike in 1918. This strike was part
of the larger struggle for workers' rights and better working
conditions in the textile mills of Ahmedabad. Gandhi's hunger strike
was a powerful tool of nonviolent protest and civil disobedience that
he would use in various other movements during the Indian freedom
struggle.
134 B The prominent Bihar leader known as the 'Bihar Kesari' who actively
participated in the Quit India Movement in 1942 was **Sri Krishna
Singh**. He was a significant figure in the Indian freedom struggle
and a leader from Bihar who played a crucial role in the Quit India
Movement.
135 C The Champaran Movement was a peasant movement in the

Champaran district of Bihar in 1917. The peasants were protesting
against the exploitative practices of the British landlords. The British
landlords forced the peasants to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their
land, even though indigo was a less profitable crop than other crops.
Mahatma Gandhi led the Champaran Movement. He organized the
peasants and nonviolent protests against the British landlords.
Gandhi was arrested by the British government, but he was later
released due to public pressure.
In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the
British government instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee.
The committee was tasked with investigating the grievances of the
peasants and recommending solutions.
The Champaran Agrarian Committee made a number of
recommendations, including the abolition of the tinkathia system and
the reduction of the amount of land that the peasants were forced to
cultivate with indigo. The British government accepted the
recommendations of the committee and implemented them.
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The Champaran Movement was a success. It led to the

improvement of the conditions of the peasants in Champaran. It also
inspired other peasant movements in India.
136 A Here are the matches between List-I and List-II:
a. Servants of India Society - 2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

b. Tattwabodhini Sabha - 1. Debendranath Tagore
c. Atmiya Sabha - 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
137 C Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to Karnataka.

Ambabai was born in 1889 into an orthodox Brahmin family in the
erstwhile Mysore State (now in Karnataka). She was married at the
age of twelve and widowed at the age of sixteen. Despite her young
age and widowhood, Ambabai became a fearless freedom fighter.
Ambabai was inspired by the teachings of Mahatma Gandhi and
joined the Indian National Congress (INC). She participated in a
number of freedom movement activities, including picketing foreign
cloth shops, organizing satyagrahas, and distributing pamphlets.
Ambabai was arrested and imprisoned several times by the British
government. However, she never gave up her fight for freedom.
After India's independence, Ambabai continued to serve the country.
She was a member of the Constituent Assembly and played a role in
drafting the Constitution of India.
Ambabai was a true patriot and an inspiration to all. She dedicated
her life to the service of her country and helped to achieve India's
independence.
138 C The Cabinet Mission was a three-member mission sent to India in

1946 by the British government to discuss the transfer of power from
British to Indian leadership. The three members of the mission were:
● Pethick-Lawrence
● Stafford Cripps
● A.V. Alexander
Therefore, the correct answer is (C), J. Andrew. J. Andrew was not a
member of the Cabinet Mission.
The Cabinet Mission played a key role in the negotiations leading to
India's independence. The mission proposed a plan for India's
future, which included the creation of a united India with a strong
central government. However, the plan was rejected by both the
Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
Despite its failure, the Cabinet Mission played an important role in
the Indian independence movement. It helped to bring the Indian
National Congress and the Muslim League to the negotiating table
and it paved the way for the transfer of power from British to Indian
leadership.
139 B The statement, "The Indian National Congress was founded on the
basis of the safety valve theory, to protect the British Government
from threats," is associated with Lala Lajpat Rai.
140 C Resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights were passed for the
first time at the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in
1931.
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The Karachi Resolution was a landmark document in the Indian

independence movement. It outlined the vision of the Indian National
Congress for a free and independent India. The resolution also
included a list of Fundamental Rights that the Indian National
Congress demanded for all Indians.
The Fundamental Rights listed in the Karachi Resolution included:
● The right to freedom of speech, expression, and assembly
● The right to freedom of religion
● The right to equality before the law
● The right to protection from discrimination on the basis of
caste, creed, or religion
● The right to education
● The right to a living wage
● The right to social security
The Karachi Resolution was a major step forward in the Indian
independence movement. It helped to articulate the vision of the
Indian National Congress for a free and independent India. The
resolution also helped to build a consensus among Indians on the
Fundamental Rights that they demanded for all Indians.
The Fundamental Rights listed in the Karachi Resolution were later
incorporated into the Constitution of India. The Constitution of India
guarantees Fundamental Rights to all Indians.
141 C In the given code language:
- 'G' is represented by '$'

- 'A' is represented by ' ̧'
- 'M' is represented by '*'
- 'E' is represented by '%'
To encode the word 'MADE,' we simply replace each letter with its
corresponding symbol:
- 'M' becomes '*'

- 'A' becomes ' ̧'
- 'D' becomes ' ́'
- 'E' becomes '%'
So, 'MADE' is written as '* ̧ ́%' in that code language.
142 D From the given information:
- Q travels towards the East.

- M travels towards the North.
- S and T travel in opposite directions, and T travels towards the
right of Q.
Since T travels towards the right of Q, it means that T is moving in

the southern direction (because if you are facing east, then your
right side is south). Therefore, S must be traveling in the northern
direction since S and T are moving in opposite directions.
So, we can conclude that M and S travel in the same direction.
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M travels North, and S also travels North (in the opposite direction of
T).
143 A Let's calculate the changes step by step:
1. Ramesh starts with 100 square yards.

2. He acquires 10% more from Suresh, so his land becomes 100 +
10% of 100 = 100 + 10 = 110 square yards.
3. After 2 years, he sells back 10% of the total plot. 10% of 110
square yards is 11 square yards. So, he sells 11 square yards.
Now, let's calculate what both Ramesh and Suresh have after these
transactions:
Ramesh: 110 square yards (initial) - 11 square yards (sold) = 99

square yards
Suresh: 100 square yards - 11 square yards (acquired by Ramesh)
= 89 square yards
So, after these transactions, Ramesh has more land than Suresh.
144 D The odd pair in the given options is:
(D) Snobbery : Shoes
In the other pairs, the first word relates to the production or category
of the second word. For example, millinery is related to hats,
brewery is related to alcohol, and stationery is related to paper.
However, in the pair (D), "snobbery" is not related to "shoes" in the
same way; it's an unrelated concept.
145 D To determine the missing number in the series, let's analyze the
pattern:
132, 156, ?, 210, 240, 272
If we observe the pattern, we can see that each number in the series
increases by 24.
132 + 24 = 156
156 + 24 = 180
180 + 24 = 204
So, the missing number should be 204.
146 D The missing number in the given matrix is 63.

The pattern in the matrix is as follows:
● The middle number in each row is the sum of the first and
third numbers.
● The middle number in each column is the average of the first
and third numbers.
Therefore, the missing number in the second row is:
(52 + 41) / 2 = 63
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Here is the completed matrix:

44 49 37
52 63 41
58 35 53
147 D Let's analyze the statement and conclusions:
Statement: In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a

team were 200, of which 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusion 1: 80% of the team consisted of spinners.

Conclusion 2: The opening batsmen were spinners.
Now, let's evaluate each conclusion:
Conclusion 1: This conclusion is not necessarily true. We know that

160 runs were made by spinners, but we don't have information
about the total number of players or the composition of the team. It
is possible that there were only a few spinners in the team, so we
cannot conclude that 80% of the team consisted of spinners based
on the provided information.
Conclusion 2: This conclusion is not supported by the statement.

The statement only provides information about the runs made by
spinners but doesn't mention anything about the positions of the
batsmen. We cannot infer the positions of the batsmen from the runs
made by spinners.
Therefore, neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 logically follows

from the statement.
148 D To decode the given pattern, let's look at how each letter in the word
corresponds to a number:
- G corresponds to 7
- R corresponds to 1
- E corresponds to 8
- A corresponds to 2
- T corresponds to 2
Now, let's apply this pattern to the word "VIGOROUS":
- V corresponds to 2
- I corresponds to 1
- G corresponds to 7
- O corresponds to 1
- R corresponds to 1
- O corresponds to 1
- U corresponds to 6
- S corresponds to 2
So, the word "VIGOROUS" is written as "217111162" in the given

code language.
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149 C The odd one out in each group is determined by the position of the
letters in the English alphabet.
In the group "Q, W, Z, B," the letters are consecutive in the English
alphabet, so they form a sequence.
In the group "B, H, K, M," the letters are consecutive in the English
alphabet, so they also form a sequence.
In the group "W, C, G, J," the letters are not consecutive and do not
form a sequence.
In the group "M, S, V, X," the letters are consecutive in the English
alphabet, so they form a sequence.
So, the odd one out is "W, C, G, J" because these letters do not
form a consecutive sequence in the English alphabet.
150 A We can see that the distance between M and P is the hypotenuse of
a right triangle. The legs of the triangle are the 4 km distance
between M and N and the 2 km distance between P and O.
Therefore, the distance between M and P can be calculated using
the Pythagorean Theorem:
distance between M and P = √(4² + 2²) = √(16 + 4) = √20 = 2√5 km
Therefore, the correct answer is 5.34.
43

69th BPSC Prelims - Answer Key

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UIAS

1 D 1. Internet of Things (IoT): 5G networks are designed to

2. Edge Computing: Edge computing involves processing data

3. Network Slicing: Network slicing is a 5G feature that allows the

2 A a. Cassini- Huygens - 2. Saturn and its rings

3 C a. Linen - 2. Flax plant

4 C Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1. Taeniasis is indeed an intestinal infection caused by three species

2. Neurocysticercosis (NCC) occurs when the cysts of the tapeworm

common complication of taeniasis, particularly when it is caused by

5 D All the 4 mentioned options are programming languages used in

6 D The full form of GPT in ChatGPT is (D) Generative Pre-Trained

8 A The correctly matched pairs:

1. Anorexia: Anorexia is indeed an eating disorder. It involves an

4. Anosmia: Anosmia refers to the partial or complete loss of the

The pairs 2 and 3 are not correctly matched:

2. Insomnia: Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty

3. Dyspnoea: Dyspnea, or dyspnoea, is a medical term for shortness

9 B - Pulsars are a specific type of celestial object in the universe. They

- When such a massive star explodes, it can leave behind a dense

- Pulsars are a subtype of neutron stars. What makes them unique

radiation (usually in the form of radio waves) along their magnetic

- These beams of radiation are not constant but appear to pulse on

- Pulsars are like cosmic lighthouses, emitting beams of radiation

So, in summary, pulsars are not a group of stars, explosions of

10 C In the process of growing lab-grown diamonds (also known as

1. Diamond Seed: The diamond seed is typically a small, flat, and

2. High-Pressure High-Temperature (HPHT) Method: One of the

3. Creation of High Pressure and Temperature: The chamber is then

4. Diamond Growth: Under these intense conditions, carbon atoms

5. Quality Control: Throughout the process, careful control of

So, in the context of lab-grown diamonds, graphite (option C) is

12 C HMX stands for "High Melting Explosive." It is a powerful explosive

13 D Tesla's humanoid robot launched in October 2022 is called Optimus.

14 A The Manhattan Project was a top-secret research and development

15 B When an object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave

1. Real Image: A real image is formed because the light rays

2. Inverted Image: The image is inverted because the top of the

So, when an object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave

16 A A photoelectric cell, also known as a photocell or photodetector, is a

17 D Concentration of Solution: This is a measure of how much solute

For example, if you have 10 grams of salt dissolved in 1 liter of

18 C COVID-19 vaccines work by introducing a harmless piece of the

19 D All of the liquids listed are good conductors of electricity. Salted

known for his pioneering work in genetics, specifically on the

22 C Vector vaccines work by placing the virus in a modified version of a

23 C Seafloor spreading is the geological process by which new oceanic

Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that explains the large-scale

25 A The expanded form of "mRNA" is "Messenger Ribonucleic Acid."

26 B A dynamo is a type of generator that uses electromagnetic induction

27 B Current density is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude

28 B The most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry is

29 B Homogeneous catalysts are catalysts that are in the same phase

30 B Input and output nerves meet and integrate information at the

31 A The shipwrecks at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals, and Grande Island

3. World Population: The G20 member countries are home to

33 B Yevgeny Prigozhin is known to be associated with the Wagner

34 C The Global Gender Gap Report is released annually by the World

35 B Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom reigned for 68 years,

36 B The theme of DefExpo– 2022, held in Gujarat, was Path to Pride.

37 D The Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in Myanmar.

38 D Statements 2, 3, and 4 are all correct.