Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Archana Khetan holds a Master’s degree in Finance (M.S. Finance) and CFA. An
academician at heart she brings years of in depth industry experience having worked
with Religare Finvest as Manager, Investment Banking. As a professional investment
banker she has extensive experience in Debt syndication, IPO Pre-placement, corporate
finance, institutional sales of mutual funds, valuation and analysis for mergers &
acquisitions.
She has been closely associated with WIRC, ICAI and is being invited as guest faculty for
SFM since last many terms. Her teaching style is a good combination of base building
through focus on fundamental concepts, rigorous practice and development of problem
solving skills. She has gained a lot of popularity among students in Mumbai for making
the toughest of topics simplistic and solving them through basic easy to remember
thumb rules, the same being a pre-requisite from the institute’s point of view and the
standard of papers being set according to the latest trends.
After gaining experience in the respective field, She launched her Dream project “
Khetan Education”.
More than 10,000 students have attended her courses and have been faring very well in
their professional exams. The average pass rate for students coached by her is more
than 90% and those scoring exemption are in abundance. Her students have been
securing CA All India Rank in each term ranging from AIR 3rd to 50th. For more details
please refer testimonials and Awards and Accolades.
‘Khetan Education’
203, 2 Floor, Wing B, Business Point,
Paliram Road, lane opp. to Andheri(w) Bus depot,
lane next to BSES hospital, next to BMC office,
Andheri West, Mumbai- 400058
+91-9930812721/ 9137984537
khetan.education090@gmail.com
www.khetaneducation.com
STRATEGIC FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
for
C. A. FINAL
INDEX
Sr. No. Chapter Name Page No.
1 Equity Valuation 01 to 15
3 Foreign Exchange 27 to 53
6 Portfolio Management 80 to 98
“At Khetan Education, people come as students but carry lifelong experience.”
EQUITY VALUATION
I. VALUATION
• The Value of an Equity or Stock is the present value of expected future cash flows
discounted at investor’s required rate of return → ROR.
• In order to compute the value or intrinsic value or should be value of an equity, we can
use various theoretical Models suggested by experts.
As required by the Model, we would use various parameters relevant to valuation.
• The Models to be used to study the chapter can be segregated as follows:
...................................................................... 1 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
NO GROWTH MODEL
D1
P0 =
Ke
1. X Ltd reported an EPS of ` 12 for the year just ended and a pay-out ratio of 40%.
The earnings are expected to grow at 30% p.a. for the next 4 years. Beyond the 4th
year, growth rate would be 6% p.a. forever. Find out the intrinsic value of the
share if ROR is 18% p.a.
Ans. EPS = ` 12
Payout = 40%
gs = 30% till 4 years
gc = 6% beyond 4 years
ROR = 18%
DPS = ` 12 × 40% = ` 4.80
P0 = Value in gs + Value in gs
While using Dividend Discount Model, we primarily assume two points :
• The dividends grow at the same rate as EPS
• The payout ratio does not change across maturity
Value in 𝐠𝐠 𝐬𝐬 (assuming Payout does not change i.e. DPS will grow each year by
growth rate)
Year DPS ` PV @ 18% PV
1 4.8 + 30% = 6.240 0.847 5.29
2 6.24 + 30% = 8.112 0.718 5.82
3 8.112 + 30% = 10.550 0.609 6.42
4 10.55 + 30% = 13.710 0.516 7.07
TOTAL ` 24.60 ⇒ YEAR 0
...................................................................... 2 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
Value in 𝒈𝒈𝒄𝒄
D5 D (1 + g c )
P4 = = 4
K e - gc K e - gc
13.71 (1.06)
=
0.18 - 0.06
= ` 121.105 ⇒ Year 4
Present Value of P4 @ t = 0
1
= ` 121.105 ×
(1.18) 4
= ` 121.105 × 0.516
= ` 62.49
P0 = ` 24.60 + ` 62.49
= ` 87.09
2. Consider a firm which paid a dividend of ` 17.0/- share. This is expected to grow @
60% p.a. for the next 3 years. Beyond the 3rd year, the growth rate will start
falling in a linear fashion so as to become 4% p.a. from the 7th year onwards and
stay at that level forever. Find out the intrinsic value of the share if ROR is 20%
p.a.
Ans.
Linear form
D0 = ` 17
gs = 60% for 3 years
gs = 4% p.a. from 7th year
ROR = 20%
60% - 4%
Fall in the growth rate per anum = = 14%
7 years - 3 years
P0 = Value in gs + Value in gc
...................................................................... 3 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Value in gs
Year DPS PV @ 20% PV
1 17.00 + 60% = 27.20 0.833 22.66
2 27.20 + 60% = 43.52 0.694 30.20
3 43.52 + 60% = 69.63 0.579 40.32
4 69.63 + 46% = 101.66 0.482 49.00
5 101.66 + 32% = 134.195 0.402 53.95
6 134.195 + 18% = 158.35 0.335 53.05
7 158.35 + 4% = 164.68 0.279 45.95
TOTAL ` 295.13
Value in gc
D8 D (1 + g c ) 164.68 + 4% 171.2672
P7 = = 7 = = = ` 1,070.42
K e - gc K e - gc 0.20 - 0.04 0.16
Present Value of ` 1,070.42 @ t = 0
1
= ` 1070.42 ×
(1.20)7
= ` 1070.42 × 0.279
= ` 298.73
∴ P0 = Value in gs + Value in ge
= ` 295.13 + ` 298.73
= ` 593.86
The value of the firm can be computed using either of the models –
No Growth Model
Constant Growth Model
Multiple Growth Model
...................................................................... 4 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
NO GROWTH MODEL
FCFF1
V0F0 =
KC
3. The following details are available with regard to the projected operations of
Pragati Limited.
Years 1 2 3 4 5
Sales 120 132 145 159 175
Operating expenses 53 58 62 67 73
Depreciation 11 10 10 12 12
Years 1 2 3 4 5
Investment in current assets at the 6 5 6 7 5
beginning of the year
Investment in fixed assets at the 30 20 10 0 0
beginning of the year
...................................................................... 5 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Ans.
WORKING NOTE :
Computation of Kc
Kc = WdKd (1 - t) + WeKe
30 50
= × 12.5 (1 - 36%) + × 16
50 + 30 50 + 30
= 13%
Computation of value in explicit forecast period is gs
Particulars (`) 1 2 3 4 5
Sales 120 132 145 159 175
Less: Operating Expenses (53) (58) (62) (67) (73)
EBDIT 67 74 83 92 102
Less: Depreciation (11) (10) (10) (12) (12)
EBIT 56 64 73 80 90
EBIT (1 - T) 35.84[56 (1 - 36%)] 40.96 46.72 51.2 57.6
+Depreciation 11 10 10 12 12
Capex (30) (20) (10) 0 0
∆ in WC (6) (5) (6) (7) (5)
Operating FCFF 10.84 25.96 40.72 56.2 64.6
+Non-Operating Cashflow 12 - 8 - 22
FCFF 22.84 25.96 48.72 56.2 86.6
Value in gc
FCFF6 FCFF5 (1 + gc )
VOF5 = =
K c - gc K c - gc
[86.6 - 22]1.08
= = ` 1,395.36
0.13 - 0.08
1
P.V. of VOF5 = 1,395.36 × = ` 757.68
(1.13)5
Value of firm = 155.78 + 757.68 = ` 913.46
...................................................................... 6 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
NOTE: While computing FCFF6, we did not take non- operating cashflow component as
it seems like a non-recurring item.
Ans. Given:
gs = 20% p.a. for next 3 years
gc = 8% p.a.
Kc = 15%
Particulars (`) 1 2 3 4
EBIT 2,700 3,240 3,888 4,199.04
[Sales – COGS – Operating Expenses] (2,250+20%)
i.e. (7,500 – 3,000 - 2,250) at t = 0
EBIT(1-T) 1,890 2,268 2,721.6 2,939.328
Less: Capex- Dep. (172.5) (198.38) (228.13) -
(750 – 600 = 150) at t = 0 (150+15%)
Less: ∆ in W.C. (375) (450) (540) (259.2)
∴ FCFF 1,342.5 1,619.62 1,953.47 2,680.128
...................................................................... 7 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
WN : Computation of W.C.
Year 0 1 2 3 4
W.C. 1,875 2,250 2,700 3,240 3,499.2
∆ in W.C. - 375 450 540 259.2
Value in gc
FCFF4 2,680.13
VOF3 = = = ` 38,287.57
K c - gc 0.15 - 0.08
1
P.V. of VOF3 = 38,287.57 × = ` 25,193.22
(1.15)3
VOF = 3,677.79 + 25,193.22 = ` 28,871.01Cr
...................................................................... 8 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
Ans.
Particulars SK AS Average
Mkt / B.V 450 400 1.2275
= 1.125 = 1.33
400 300
Mkt / R.C 450 400 0.7400
= 0.75 = 0.73
600 550
Mkt / sales 450 400 0.8550
= 0.82 = 0.89
550 450
Mkt / PAT 450 400 25.0000
= 25.0 = 25.0
18 16
NO GROWTH MODEL
EVA1
MVA0 =
Kc
...................................................................... 9 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
CONSTANT GROWTH MODEL
EVA1 EVA 0 (1 + gc)
MVA0 = =
Kc - gc Kc - gc
6. Consider a firm with the following capital structure – Net worth= 500 Lakhs 15%
long term debt 500 lakhs. The firm is subject to tax rate of 40% and its cost of
equity is 17%. For the next year the firm is expected to generate an EBIT of 250
lakhs. Compute EVA and find out the intrinsic values of the share :
Case I : Assuming EVA to be perpetual.
Case II : Assuming EVA to be subject to a perpetual growth rate of 5% p.a. No of
shares = 10 lakhs.
Ans. Kc = WdKd (1 - T) + WeKe
500 500
Kc = × 15 (1 - 0.40) + × 17
1000 1000
= 13%
a. If EVA is perpetual:
EVA1
MVA =
Kc
Where EVA = [EBIT (1 - t) - Kc × Capital employed]
= 250 (1 - 40%) - 13% × ` 1,000 L= ` 20 L
` 20L
∴ MVA = = ` 153.85 L
0.13
Hence, Value of firm = Book Value + MVA = ` 1,000 L + ` 153.85 L = ` 1,153.85 L
∴ Value of equity = VOF - Debt = 1,153.85 - 500 = ` 653.85L
VOE ` 653.85L
∴ Price/ Share = = = ` 65.385 /-
No. of shares 10L
b. If EVA grows by 5% p.a.
EVA1 ` 20L
MVA = = = ` 250 L
K c - gc 0.13 - 0.05
VOF = 1000 + 250 = ` 1,250 L
VOE = 1250 – 500 = ` 750 L
VOE ` 750L
∴ Price/share = = = ` 75 /-
No. of shares 10L
...................................................................... 10 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS:
A. RIGHT ISSUE
Desired funds Existing shares
No. of new shares = No. of rights =
Subscription price New shares
MN + SR
Ex-right price =
N + R
Where; MN = No. of existing shares × Current MPS
SR = New Shares × Subscription Price
N = No. of existing Shares
R = Right Shares
7. Mega soft Ltd plans to expand its operations and estimates the total cost of
expansion to be ` 24 crore. The same is proposed to be financed by internal
accruals of ` 9 crore and the balance through a rights Issue. The current share
capital of the company is ` 2.40 crore. The shares of the company are currently
quoting at ` 345. The company proposes to price the Rights at ` 250.
Based on the above information:
a. Compute the ratio of the Rights.
b. Calculate the value of Rights
c. Determine the gain/loss of a shareholder, if he
• Exercises his Rights in the Rights issue
• Allows his Rights to expire
Ans. Total cost of expansion = ` 24Crores
4 × 345 + 1 × 250
b. Ex-Right price = = ` 326 /-
4+1
Ex - right price - subscription price 326 - 250
Value of right = = = ` 19
N 4
...................................................................... 11 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
c. ⇒ Accept the Rights
Wealth before :
4 × 345 = `1,380
Wealth after :
Value of total shares = 5 × 326 = 1,630
Cost of Rights share = 1 × 250 = (250)
` 1,380
⇒ Allows Rights to expire
Wealth Before = 4 × 345 = ` 1,380
Wealth After = 4 × 326 = ` 1,304
∴ Loss = ` 76
8. Closing values of SSE Sensex from 6th to 17th day of the month of January of the
year 2001 were as follows:
Day Date Day Sensex
1 6 Thu 14,522
2 7 Fri 14,925
3 8 Sat No Trading
4 9 Sun No Trading
5 10 Mon 15,222
6 11 Tue 16,000
7 12 Wed 16,400
8 13 Thu 17,000
9 14 Fri No Trading
10 15 Sat No Trading
11 16 Sun No Trading
12 17 Mon 18,000
Calculate Exponential Moving Average (EMA) of Sensex during the above period.
The 30 days simple moving average of Sensex can be assumed as 15,000. The value
...................................................................... 12 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
of exponent for 30 days EMA is 0.062. Give detailed analysis on the basis of your
calculations.
Ans. α = 0.062
Prices Opening EMA 1-2 3 × α (0.062) Closing EMA
14,522 15,000 (given) -478.00 -29.64 15,000 - 29.64=14,970.37
14,925 14,970.37 -45.36 -2.81 14,967.55
15,222 14,967.55 254.45 15.78 14,983.33
16,000 14,983.33 1,016.67 63.033 15,046.36
16,400 15,046.36 1,353.64 83.93 15,130.29
17,000 15,130.29 1,869.71 115.92 15,246.21
18,000 15,246.21 2,753.70 170.73 15,416.93
...................................................................... 13 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Kd = 16%, tax =30%
⇒We require Ke for computing Kc
In order to do that, we would follow CAPM
Ke = Rf + (Rm – Rf) β
The sum provides Rf and (Rm - Rf), we need to compute Beta with the help of asset
beta concept.
Deleveraging of Proxy Beta:
For Bharat,
D
Βe = βA [ 1 + (1 - t)]
E
2.5
2.2 = βA [1 + (1 - 35%)]
1
∴ βA = 0.84
For Granular,
D
Βe = βA [ 1 + (1 - t)]
E
4
1.9 = βA [1+ (1 - 32%)]
1
∴ βA = 0.51
Average βA = (0.70 × 0.84) + (0.3 × 0.51) = 0.74
βe for X Ltd,
3
βe = 0.74 [ 1 + (1 - 30%)]
1
βe = 2.29
Ke = 8 + 7 × 2.29 = 24.03
3 1
∴ Kc = × 16 × (1-30%) + × 24.03 = 14.41
4 4
Year Cashflow PV @ 14.41% PV
1 50 0.874 43.70
2 60 0.764 45.84
3 40 0.668 26.72
4 60 0.584 35.04
Total ` 151.30 Cr
...................................................................... 14 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION EQUITY VALUATION
D. CONVERTIBLE SECURITIES
10. The data given below relates to a convertible bond:
Face value ` 250
Coupon rate 12%
No. of shares per bond 20
Market price of share ` 12
Straight value of bond ` 235
Market price of convertible bond ` 265
Calculate:
i. Stock value of bond.
ii. The percentage of downside risk.
iii. The conversion premium
iv. The conversion parity price of the stock
Ans.
a. Stock Value of Bond = No. of shares × MPS = 20 × ` 12 = ` 240
Market price of bond - Investment value
b. % downside risk = × 100
Investment value
265 - 235
= × 100
235
= 12.77%
265 - 240
Conversion Premium (%) = × 100 = 10.42%
240
...................................................................... 15 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
VALUATION OF BONDS
1. Consider a three year corporate bond of Face value of ` 1000 and coupon rate =
12% p.a. payable annually. The bond is redeemable at par at the end of three
years. The bond is presently selling at ` 957. If the required rate of return is 13%,
find out the intrinsic value and give your investment advice.
Ans. V0 = 120 × PVA(13%,3) + 1000 × PVIF(13%,3)
V0 = 120 ×2.3612 + 1000 × 0.693 = 976.344
Since the actual value of the bond is < intrinsic value, the bond is relatively undervalued
and we suggest to buy the bond.
...................................................................... 16 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION VALUATION OF BONDS
If either of the conditions are not met or both are not met, we cannot use Short Cut
Method. Rather we need to use ‘Trial and Error method’ or IRR method.
YTM is actually IRR of Bond. It considers coupon income, capital gain and interest on
reinvested coupon.
V0 = C × PVA(r,n) + R.A. × PVIF(r,n)
Here, solving for YTM means solving for ‘r’ in the above mentioned equation.
So, a YTM indicates that rate at which the present value of inflows from the bonds
equates the outflow (Price).
2. Consider the following data regarding the bonds issued by Neha Ltd. On March
15, 2003 to be redeemed on March 15, 2010. Face value of the bond ` 100 issued at
a discount 10% Redeemable at a premium of 10% Interest payable Semi-annually
8% p.a. Current market price as on March 15, 2005 ` 95. Compute:
• YTM
• BEY
• EAY
C F-P
+
Ans. YTM = m n × m × 100 (m = frequency of coupon payment)
F+P
2
8 110 - 95
+
= 2 5 × 2 × 100
110 + 95
2
= 5.37%/semester
BEY = 5.37% × 2
= 10.74%
EAY = [(1 + 0.0537)2 - 1] × 100
= 11.03% p.a.
...................................................................... 17 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
2. The following data is available for a bond:
Face Value ` 1000
Coupon rate 16%
Years to maturity 6
Redemption value ` 1000
Yield to maturity 17%
What is the current market price, duration and volatility of this bond? Calculate
the expected market price, if there is an increase in required yield by 75 basis
points.
Ans. Current Market price = 160 × PVA (17%,6) + 1000 × PVIF (17%,6)
= ` 964.10
a. DURATION OF THE BOND =
Year C.F. PV @ 17% PV Wi.xi
1 160 0.855 136.80 136.80
2 160 0.731 116.96 233.92
3 160 0.624 99.84 299.52
4 160 0.534 85.44 341.76
5 160 0.456 72.96 364.80
6 1160 0.390 452.40 2,714.40
Total ` 964.40 ` 4,091.20
` 4091.2
• Duration = = 4.24 years
` 964.40
D 4.24
• Volatility of the bond = Modified duration = = = 3.63
1 + YTM 1.17
This means if interest rate change by 100 bps or 1%, price of the bond would change by
3.63% in the opposite direction.
• The expected market price if yield increases by 75bps
So, if interest increases by 75 bps or 0.75%, the price of the bond should change by
3.63 × 0.75 = 2.7225%
New price = ` 964.40 - 2.7225% = ` 938.14
OR,
New YTM = 17.0 + 0.75 =17.75%
∴ New Price = 160 × PVA (17.75%,6) + 1000 × PVIF (17.75%,6)
= ` 938.40
...................................................................... 18 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION VALUATION OF BONDS
bonds in comparison to short maturity bonds. Similarly when rates go up, all bonds go
down, but long maturity bonds loose value relatively more. This property is exploited
by fund managers for portfolio churning.
20,591.25
b. Present Duration of the portfolio = = 7.81 years
2,637.5
...................................................................... 19 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
i. If interest rates lower by 25bps, the prices of all bonds will go up but they will go
up more for longer maturity bonds. The fund manager can shift short term bonds
to long term in order to maximise gains.
We can shift 2006 bonds to 2032 bonds and there are many more options
available. However, we follow the procedure followed by PM. One such sample
would be to shift GOI 2010 to GOI 2032.
20591.25 - 3412.5 + 525 × 13
Revised Dp = = 9.10 years
2637.5
ii. If interest rates go up by 75 bps, the prices of the bonds will go down, but they
will go down more for longer maturity bonds.
The fund manager can shift long term bonds to short term in order to avoid losses.
One such sample would be to shift GOI 2032 to GOI 2010.
20591.25 - 6565 + 505 × 6.5
Revised Dp = = 6.56 years
2637.5
V. DISCOUNTED SECURITIES
There are two ways of computing yields or returns:
a. ADD ON METHOD:
When a security is issued with a basic denomination i.e. face value which is used for
computing coupon amount is called Add on Method.
E.g. A coupon paying bond or Debenture
b. DISCOUNTED METHOD:
When a security is issued much below its price and is redeemed at par, it is called as
Discounted Method. The difference between issue price and face value is the interest
component.
E.g. A T-bill or ZCB.
The discounted securities can be segregated into two categories on the basis of their
maturity.
i. LESS THAN OR MAXIMUM ONE YEAR:
There are a few securities which are issued at discount and redeemed at par, but
the maturity does not exceed 1 year.
The yield of such securities:
F-P 12 365
Yield = × 100 × ×
P n n
Where, F = face value, P = price, n = maturity of the security
If the equation is used to compute yield of a T-bill, the computed yield would be a
good substitute for Rf.
A T-bill is a short term security issued by RBI. It is issued at discount and
redeemed at par. We have 91 days T-bill, 182 days T-bill, 364 days T-bill and so
on.
...................................................................... 20 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION VALUATION OF BONDS
A Commercial Paper or CP is a security issued by firms and organisations to meet
their working capital requirements.
They are again issued at discount and redeemed at par with a maximum maturity
of one year.
...................................................................... 21 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
4. The Following is the yield structure of AAA rated debenture:
Period Yield (%)
3 months 8.5
6 months 9.25
1 year 10.50
2 years 11.25
Based on the expectation theory calculate the implicit one year forward rates in
year 2 and 3. If the interest rate increases by 50 basis points, what will be the
percentage change in the price of the bond having a maturity of 5 years ? Assume
bond is fairly priced at the moment at ` 1000.
Ans. One year forward rate in year 2 = f12
One year forward rate in year 3 = f23
⇒ (1 + r02)2 = (1 + r01)1 (1 + f12)1
(1.1125)2 = (1.105)1 (1 + f12)1
1.2376
(1 + f12)1 =
1.105
f12 = 12%
(1 + r03)3 = (1 + r02)2 (1 + f23)1
(1.12)3 = (1.1125)2 (1 + f23)1
F23 = 13.52%
b. Since the bond is fairly priced at ` 1,000 it means coupon rate = YTM = 12%
If interest ↑ by 50 bps
New YTM = 12% + 0.50 = 12.5%
V0 = 120 × PVA(12.5%, 5) + 1000 × PVIF(12.5%,5) = 982.2
∴ PV of future cashflows for 5 years discounted @ 12.5% = 982.2
982.2 - 1,000
∴ % ∆ in price = ×100 = -1.78%
1, 000
5. From the following data for Government securities, calculate the forward rates:
Face value (`) Interest rate Maturity (year) Current Price (`)
1,00,000 0% 1 91,500
1,00,000 10% 2 98,500
1,00,000 10.5% 3 99,000
Ans. a. Since the one year maturity is like ZCB.
FV
∴ Price =
(1 + r) n
...................................................................... 22 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION VALUATION OF BONDS
1,00,000
91,500 =
(1 + r) n
1,00,000
91,500 =
(1 + r)1
∴ r = 9.29% i.e. r01
10,000 1,10,000
b. 98,500 = 1
+
(1 + r01) (1 + r02) 2
10,000 1,10,000
98,500 = 1
+
(1.0929) (1 + r02) 2
110,000
98,500 = 9149.968 +
(1 + r02) 2
(1 + r02) 2 = 1.23111
⇒ (1 + r02) 2 = (1+r01)1 (1+f12)1
1.2311 = (1.0929)1 (1 + f12)1
f12 = 12.65%
10,500 10,500 1,10,500
c. 99,000 = 1
+ 2
+
(1 + r01) (1 + r02) (1 + r03)3
10,500 10,500 1,10,500
99,000 = + +
(1.0929)1 (1 + r02) 2 (1 + r03)3
1,10,500
(1 + r03)3 = = 1.366
80,863.58
(1 + r03)3 = (1 + r02)2 (1 + f23)1
1.366 = (1.2311)1 (1 + f23)1
(1 + f23) = 1.1096
f23 = 10.96%
...................................................................... 23 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
IX. BOND REFUNDING
6. M/s Transindia Ltd. Is contemplating calling ` 3 crores of 30 year, ` 1,000 bond
issued 5 years ago with a coupon interest rate of 14%. The bonds have a call price
of ` 1,140 and had initially collected proceeds of ` 2.91 crores due to a discount of `
30 per bond. The initial floating cost was ` 3,60,000. The company intends to sell `
3 crores of 12% coupon rate, 25 years bonds to raise funds for retiring the old
bonds. It proposes to sell the new bonds at their par value of ` 1,000. The estimated
floatation cost is ` 4,00,000. The company is paying 40% tax and its after tax cost
of debt is 8%. As the new bonds must be sold and their proceeds, then used to
retire old bonds, the company expects a two months period of overlapping interest
during which interest must be paid on both old and new bonds. What is the
feasibility of refunding bonds?
Ans. Computation of initial outflow
Post Tax Premium Outflow = ` 25,20,000
+ Floatation cost on new bond =` 4,00,000
+ Post tax interest expense on old bonds
2
` 3 Crores × 14% × × (1-40%) =` 4,20,000
12
-Tax benefit on unamortized portion of flotation cost
360,000
On old bonds = × 25 year × 40% = (` 1,20,000)
30 years
-Tax benefit on unamortized portion of discount
Rs. 30 × 30, 000
On old bonds = × 25 year × 40% = (` 3,00,000)
30 years
Net outflow = ` 29,20,000
Computation of incremental savings
Particulars Old Bonds New Bonds
Post Tax Interest Expense ` 3 crore ` 3 crore
× 14%(1 - 40%) × 12%(1 - 40%)
= (` 25,20,000) = ` 21,60,000
Tax benefit on floatation cost ` 3, 60, 000 ` 4,00, 000
30 years 25 years
× 40% × 40%
= (` 4,800) = (` 6,400)
Tax benefit on Discount ` 30 × 30,000 -
30 years
× 40%
= (` 12,000)
25,03,300 21,53,600
...................................................................... 24 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION VALUATION OF BONDS
Savings p.a. = 3,49,600
⟶ P.V. = 3,49,600 × PVA (8%, 25) = 3,49,600 × 10.675 = 37,31,980
NPV = ` 37,31,980 – 29,20,000. = 8,11,980
We recommend to retire the old bonds.
X. CONVEXITY
7. Consider a bond with a face value of ` 100 and coupon = 10% p.a. The bond has a
maturity of 5 years and is trading at par.
Compute:
a. YTM of the bond
b. Duration and Modified duration of the bond
c. New price using P.V. Method if
• Interest rate increase 1%
• Interest rate decrease 1%
d. Show that the relationship between interest rate and bond price is inverse
and not linear.
e. Compute Convexity
f. Compute convexity effect
g. Compute the bond price using convexity if
• Interest rate increase 1%
• Interest rate decrease 1%
Ans. Given :
a. Coupon = 10%
N = 5 years
Since the bond is trading at par
⟶ Price = F.V = 1,000
Also, Coupon = YTM = 10%
b. COMPUTATION OF DURATION
Year C.F. PV @ 10% PV Wixi
1 10 0.909 9.09 9.09
2 10 0.826 8.26 16.52
3 10 0.751 7.51 22.53
4 10 0.683 6.83 27.32
5 110 0.621 68.31 341.55
100.00 417.01
∑ wixi
∑ wi
Where, wi = Weight / PV of C.F.
xi = No. of years
...................................................................... 25 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
417.01
Duration = = 4.17 years
100
D 4.17
Modified duration = = = 3.79
1 + YTM 1.10
This means if interest rates change by 1% i.e. 100 bps, the bond price should change by
3.79% in the opposite direction.
For e.g.: If interest increases by 1%
New YTM = 10 + 1 = 11%
New Price = 100 - 3.79% = 96.21
If interest decreases by 1%
New YTM = 10 – 1 = 9%
New Price = 100 + 3.79% = 103.79
c. Interest Rate increase by 1%
New YTM = 10 + 1 = 11%
V0 = 10 × PVA (11%, 5) + 100 × PVIF (11%,5)
= 10 × 3.696 + 100 × 0.593. = 96.26
Interest Rate decrease by 1%
New YTM = 10 – 1 = 9%
V0 = 10 × PVA (9%, 5) + 100 × PVIF (9%,5) = 103.89
This calculation confirms the fact that relationship is inverse in nature.
d. When interest rate increases by 100 bps i.e. 1%
P0 = ` 100
P1 = ` 96.31
100 - 96.31
% change = = 3.69%
100
If interest rate decreases by 100 bps
P0 = ` 100
P1 = ` 103.89
103.89 - 100
% change = = 3.89%
100
3.69% + 3.89%
Average change = = 3.79% which is equal to modified duration
2
P1 + P2 - 2 × P0 96.31 + 103.89 - 2 × 100
e. Convexity = = = 10
2 × P0 × (ΔYTM) 2 2 × 100 × (0.01) 2
f. Convexity effect = convexity × (△ YTM)2 × 100
= 10 × (0.01)2 × 100 = 0.10 %
g. If Interest rate increases by 1%, Price of the bond should go down by
3.79% - 0.10% = 3.69%
If Interest rate decreases by 1%, Price of the bond should go down by
3.79% + 0.10% = 3.89%
So, if rate increase, new price = 100 - 3.69% = 96.31
If rate decrease, new price = 100 + 3.89% = 103.89
...................................................................... 26 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
FOREIGN EXCHANGE
c. SYNTHETIC QUOTATIONS:
E.g. :
$ /` = 0.0196 / 0.0198
(Bid)/ (Ask)
Synthetic rate: ` / $
1 1
=
Ask Bid
1 1
=
0.0198 0.0196
`/$ = 50.51/51.02
d. RULES OF CONVERSION:
E.g.: ` / $ = 60.00/65.00
X Y Bid Ask
...................................................................... 27 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
e. Cross Currency Rates
E.g. 1.
`/ $ . 60.00 / 65.00
$ /£ 2.1056 / 2.1086
Mechanics → `/£ = × / ×
`/£ = 60.00 × 2.1056 / 65.00 × 2.1086
`/£ = 126.336/137.059
E.g. 2. If the common currency is not diagonally placed we can compute synthetic as
required and follow × & × as e.g. 1
`/$ 60.00/65.00
£/$ 0.4560/0.4860
1 1
Synthetic $ / £ = (∵ $ not in diagonal position)
0.4860 0.4560
1 1
∴ `/£ = 60 × 65 × i.e.
0.4860 0.4560
= 123.46 / 142.54
...................................................................... 28 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
h. SWAP POINTS
Rule: Low / High ⇒ Add e.g. 30/40
High / Low ⇒ Deduct e.g. 40/30
E.g. Spot rate `/$ = 65.00/67.00
3 month swap = 40/60
6 month swap = 110/3
3 month forward rate :
Spot rate `/$ = 65.00/67.00
3 month forward rate = + 00.40/00.60
65.40/67.60
6 month forward rate :
Spot rate `/$ = 65.00/67.00
- 1.10/0.03
6 month forward rate = (`/ $)
63.90/66.97
...................................................................... 29 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Ans. Case I :
(i) We sell £ 10,000 to Bank A @ $ 2.1050/£
= £ 10,000 × $ 2.1050/£
= $ 21,050
Case II :
(1) We sell $ 10,000 to Bank C i.e. buy € @ $ 1.0180/€
= $ 10,000 ÷ $ 1.0180/€
= € 9,823.1827
Case III :
(1) We sell € 10,000 to Bank B i.e. buy £ @ € 1.9010/£
= € 10,000 ÷ € 1.9010 /£
= £ 5,260.3892
...................................................................... 30 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
(3)
We sell $ 11073.09 to Bank C i.e. buy € @ $ 1.0180 / €
= $ 11073.09 ÷ $ 1.0180 / €
= € 10,877.29
CONCLUSION : Arbitrage Profit = £ 10,877.29 - £ 10,000 = £ 877.29
3. An Indian company based at Mumbai needs short term funds of ` 50 million for a
period of 3 months. The company collected the following information from its
banker:
`/$ `/ £
Spot 48.50/55 74.05/10
3-month Interest Rates p.a. 45/50 85/90
...................................................................... 31 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
(ii) $ BORROWING
Equivalent amount of $ which need to sold in the spot market to get ` 50m
` 50m
=
` 48.50/$
= $1.03093m
$ outflow on maturity = $ 1.03093m + $ 1.03093 × 4% × 3/12
= $ 1.04124m
NOTE: This means we need to find out those no, of $’s which if sold today would yield
` 50 m.
Case 2 : No Cover
→ If he doesn’t buy any cover and waits till maturity
Outflow on maturity = $ 1.04124m × ` 48.95/$ = ` 50.969m
50.969m - 50m 12
∴ Effective cost = × 100 × = 7.752% p.a
50m 3
(iii) £ BORROWING
` 50m
Equivalent £’s to be borrowed = = £0.6752m
` 74.05/£
3
Outflow of £ on maturity = £ 0.6752m + £ 0.6752m × 6% ×
12
= £ 0.6853m
Case 2 : No Cover
@ ` 74.80/ £
...................................................................... 32 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
Outflow on maturity = £ 0.6853m × ` 74.80/£ = ` 51.26m
51.26m - 50m 12
∴ Effective cost = × 100 × = 10.08 % p.a.
50m 3
→ Though $ borrowing with no cover is the best alternative, yet the final decision would
rest on the risk appetite of the organization.
5. The following table shows interest rates for the United States dollar and French
francs. The spot exchange rate is 7.05 Francs per Dollars. Complete the missing
entries:
3 Months 6 Months 1 Year Dollar
Interest rate (Annually 11.5% 12.25% ?
compounded)
Franc interest rate (Annually 19.5% ? 20%
compounded)
Forward franc per dollar ? ? 7.5200
Forward discount per franc ? -6.3%
percent per year
Ans.
(A) Spot FFr 7.05/$
iA =19.5 % p.a. (annualized effective)
iB = 11.5 % p.a. (annualized effective)
...................................................................... 33 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
As per IRP
F (1 + iA)1/4
=
S (1 + iB)1/4
F (1.195)1/ 4
=
7.05 (1.115)1/ 4
F 1.0455
=
7.05 1.0276
3 month forward FFr/$ = 7.17
S-F 12
(B) Premium on FFr = × 100 ×
F n
7.05 - 7.17 12
Premium = × 100 × = -6.69%
7.17 3
∴ Discount per Franc per annum = 6.69%
F (1 + iA) n
=
S (1 + iB) n
7.28 (1 + FFr)1/2
=
7.05 (1 + 0.1225)1/2
1.0940 = (1.iFFr)1/2
1 + iFFr = (1.09405) 2
1+ iFFr = 1.1969
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 19.69 % p.a.
...................................................................... 34 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
(E) For 1 year
Spot FFr 7.05/$
iA = 20%
1 year forward FFr 7.5200/$
As per IRP
F (1.iA) n
=
S (1.B) n
7.52 (1.20)1
=
7.05 (1 + iB)1
i$ = 12.5% p.a.
NOTE : As per the data provided, the sum looks like Annual compounding.
*But as per the ICAI solution we get answer only if we go by quarterly / half yearly
compounding.
...................................................................... 35 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
(1) Borrow ` 42,000 @ 12% for 3 month
3
Outflow = ` 42,000 + ` 42, 000 × × 12%
12
= ` 43,260
...................................................................... 36 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
Money market cover ⟹ [Invest – buy – borrow]
(1) Invest the present value of $ 1,00,000 @ 4% for 3 month
1
PV = $ 1,00,000 × = $ 99,009.90
3
1 + 0.04 ×
12
→ Receivable £ 200,000
Since `/£ is not given directly, we have to compute cross currency rates
Spot `/$ = 43.50 /43.80
3month forward `/$ = 43.50/43.80
+ 0.20/0.30
43.70/44.10
...................................................................... 37 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
(b) Money Market Cover ⇒ [Borrow – sell – invest]
(i) Borrow the present valve of £ 2,00,000 @ 8% for 3 month
1
PV = £ 2,00,000 ×
3
1 + 0.08 ×
12
= £ 1,96,078.43
(ii) Sell £ 1,96,078.43 on the spot @ ` 91.546/£
= £ 1,96,078.43 × ` 91.546/£
= ` 1,79,50,195.95
(iii) Invest ` 1,79,50,195.95 @ 10% for 3 months
3
= ` 1,79,50,195.95 + ` 1, 79,50,195.95 × 10% ×
12
= ` 1,83,98,950.85
→ Here, money market is better since inflow is more.
Case 1 :
if ` ↑ 8 %
RFI = [(1.20) (1.08) -1] × 100 = 29.6 %
Case 2 :
If ` ↓ 8 %
RFI = [(1.20) (0.92) -1] × 100 = 10.40 %
Method 2 :
Case 1 :
(1) He converts $ 1,00,000 @ ` 40.00/$ on the spot
= $ 100,000 × ` 40.0/$ = ` 40,00,000
...................................................................... 38 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
(2) He invests ` 40,00,000 @ ` 4,000 in nifty
No. of Nifty units = 1000
(4) If `↑ 8 %
1
Synthetic rate `/$ = = $ 0.025/`
40
Expected spot = $ 0.0250/` + 8 %
= $ 0.0270/`
Inflow of $ = $ 0.0270/` × ` 48,00,000
= $ 1,29,600
1,29,600 - 1,00,000
∴ Return in $ = × 100 = 29.60 %
1,00,000
Case 2 :
Expected spot = $ 0.0250/` - 8% = $ 0.0230/`
Inflow of $ = ` 48,00,000 × $ 0.0230 /`
= $ 1,10,400
∴ Return in $ = 10.40 %
9. An Indian firm needs funds for 1 year. It has the following 3 choices.
(a) Rupee borrowing - interest rate - 10%
(b) Dollar borrowing - interest rate - 6%
(c) Yen borrowing - interest rate - 20%
Assuming IRP holds good, find out the effective cost of borrowing on a covered
basis in each case.
Ans. i` = 10 %
i$ = 6 %
i¥ = 20 %
(2) $ Borrowing
$ Cost = 6 %
1.10 - 1.06
Premium on $ = × 100 = 3.77 %
1.06
F - S (1 + iA) - (1 + iB)
i.e. =
S (1 + iB)
...................................................................... 39 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Effective cost of $ borrowing for an Indian
= [(1.06) (1.0377) - 1] × 100
= 10 %
(3) ¥ Borrowing
¥ Cost = 20 %
1.10 - 1.20
Premium on ¥ = × 100
1.20
= - 8.33 %
Effective cost of ¥ borrowing for an Indian
= [(1.20) (0.9169) - 1] × 100 = 10 %
10. Suppose in the previous sum there is a processing upfront fee of 2% in case of `
borrowing, also Indian Govt. Has announced a withholding tax of 15% in case of
borrowing from outside India. Which currency should the firm borrow?
Ans. i` = 10 %
i$ = 6 %
i¥ = 20 %
(i) ` Borrowing
` Interest Cost = 10 %
Suppose we borrow ` 100
Processing fee =2%
Effective inflow = ` 98
Interest on outflow = ` 100 × 10 % = ` 10
(10 + 100) - 98
Effective cost = × 100 = 12.24 %
98
(ii) $ Borrowing
6
$ cost with withholding tax = × 100 = 7.06 %
85
1.10 - 1.06
Premium on $ = × 100 = 3.77 %
1.06
Effective cost = [(1.0706) (1.0377) - 1] × 100 = 11.096 %
(iii) ¥ Borrowing
20
¥ cost with withholding tax = × 100 = 23.53 %
85
1.10 - 1.20
Premium on ¥ = × 100 = - 8.33 %
1.20
...................................................................... 40 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
Effective cost = [(1.2353) (1-8.33%) - 1] × 100 = 13.24 %
Therefore, $ borrowing is the best option.
...................................................................... 41 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
1.14
Rp = - 1 × 100 = 1.79 %
1.12
i.e. 14% - 12% = 2%
ROR in ($) = [(1.08) (1.0179) - 1] i.e. 8% + 2% = 10%
= 9.93 %
...................................................................... 42 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
` 43.0/$ - ` 40.0/$
(1) Nominal appreciation of $ = × 10 = 7.5 %
` 40.0/$
1 + 0.03
(2) REER (Real Effective Exchange Rate) = ` 43.0/$ × = ` 41.01/$
1 + 0.08
41.01 - 40.0
(3) Real appreciation of $ = × 100 = 2.53 %
40.0
1 + iA
If we want forward rate, we take
1 + iB
1 + iB
Similarly if we want backward rate, we should take
1 + iA
40.0 - 43.0
(4) Nominal appreciation of ` = × 100 = -6.98 %
43.0
40.0 - 41.01
(5) Real appreciation of ` =
× 100 = -2.46 %
41.01
If there are 2 countries like India and US and i` = 8% and i$ = 3% then the country
having lower inflation rate should trade at forward premium. PPP goes one step ahead
to quantify the premium. $ should trade at a premium of (8% - 3%) = 5% approximately
1.08 - 1.03
and exactly at a premium of = 4.85 % in order to avoid arbitrage.
1.03
If $ appreciates by 4.85 % it is actually trading at par. If it appreciates by more than
4.85 %, there is a real appreciation in $ and if $ appreciates by less than 4.85 % it has
actually gone down in real terms.
...................................................................... 43 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
£ € CHF
0 – 100,000 1 ¼ 0
100,001 – 500,000 2 1½ 1/4
500,001 – 1,000,000 4 2 1/2
Over 1,000,000 5.375 3 1
Ans. Dutch Subsidiary - Surplus € 7, 25,000
Swiss Subsidiary - Surplus CHF 9, 98,077
U.K. H.O. - Surplus £ 75,000
Spot rates: £ / € = 0.6858 / 0.6869
...................................................................... 44 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
91
(iv) ∴ Inflow = £ 75,000 + £ 75,000 × 1% × = £ 75,186.99
365
∴ Total inflow = £ 5,02,380.09 + £ 4,32,644.03 + £ 75,186.99
= £ 10,10,211.08
Further above of fates of forward contract can further classified into following sub categories
(A) DELIVERY UNDER THE CONTRACT
(i) Delivery on Due Date
(ii) Early Delivery
(iii) Late Delivery
...................................................................... 45 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
(C) EXTENSION OF THE CONTRACT
(i) Extension on Due Date
(ii) Early Extension
(iii) Late Extension
15. A bank enters into a forward purchase TT covering an export bill for Swiss Francs
1, 00,000 at ` 32.4000 due 25th April and covered itself for same delivery in the
local interbank market at ` 32.4200. However, on 25th March, exporter sought for
cancellation of the contract as the tenor of the bill is changed. In Singapore
market, Swiss Francs were quoted against dollars as under:
Spot USD/Sw. Fcs. 1.5076/1.5120
One month forward 1.5150/1.5160
Two months forward 1.5250/1.5270
Three months forward 1.5415/1.5445
And in the interbank market US dollars were quoted as under:
Spot USD/` 49.4302/0.4455
Spot /April 0.4100/0.4200
Spot/May 0.4300/0.4400
Spot/June 0.4500/0.4600
Calculate the cancellation charges, payable by the customer if exchange margin
required by the bank is 0.10% on buying and selling.
Ans. The customer sold forward on Swiss Francs 100,000 @ ` 32.4000
He opted for cancellation on 25th March i.e. a month before. For that he needs to enter
into 1 month forward buy contract.
Since `/Swiss Francs is not quotes directly, we need to compute the same.
Spot `/ $ = 49.4302 / 49.4455
1m Forward 49.4302 / 49.4455
+ 0.4100 / 0.4200
49.8401 / 49.8655
Margin @ 0.10% - 0.10% / + 0.10%
1m Forward ` /$ 49.7904/ 49.9154
1m Forward Swiss Francs/$ = 1.5150 / 1.5160
1 1
1m Forward $/ Swiss Francs =
1.5160 1.5150
1 1
1m Forward `/Swiss Francs = 49.7904 × 49.9154 ×
1.5160 1.5150
= 32.8433 / 32.9475
Therefore, Cash flow = (` 32.4000 / Sw. Fcs. - ` 32.9475/ Sw. Fcs.)
× Sw. Fcs. 100,000
= (` 54,750)
...................................................................... 46 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
16. On 30th June 2009 when a forward contract matured for execution you are asked
by an importer customer to extend the validity of the forward sale contract for
US$ 10000 for a further period of three months.
Contracted rate US$ 1 = ` 41.87
The US Dollar quoted on 30.6.2009
Spot ` 40.4800/40.4900
Premium July 0.1100/0.1300
Premium August 0.2300/0.2500
Premium September 0.3500/0.3750
Calculate the cost for your customer in respect of the extension of the forward
contract. Rupee values to be rounded off to the nearest rupee.
Margin 0.80% for buying rate Margin 0.25% for selling rate
Ans.
(1) As given, the imported customer entered into forward buy contract @ ` 41.87/$
However, on the day of maturity, he opted for extension. Extension would involve
cancellation of existing contract at the rate computed below:
Spot Rate for cancellation = ` 40.4800/$ ( Customer will sell $ on cancellation)
` (0.3238)
- TT margin @ 0.80 % =
` 40.1562/$
Cash flow on cancellation = (` 40.1562 - ` 41.87) × $ 10,000
= ` (17,138)
(2) He also buys a new contract 3 month forward at the rate computed below:
Basic Rate ` 40.4900/ $ (Ask Rate ∵ $ is bought customer)
+ 0.3750
` 40.8650 / $
+ TT margin @ 0.25 % ` 0.1022
` 40.9672 / $
17. An importer booked a forward contract with his bank on 10th April for USD
2,00,000 due on 10th June @ ` 64.4000. The bank covered its position in the
market at ` 64.2800.
The exchange rates for dollar in the interbank market on 10th June and 20th June
were:
...................................................................... 47 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
10th June 20th June
Spot USD 1 = ` 63.8000/8200 ` 63.6800/7200
Spot/June ` 63.9200/9500 ` 63.8000/8500
July ` 64.0500/0900 ` 63.9300/9900
August ` 64.3000/3500 ` 64.1800/2500
September ` 64.6000/6600 ` 64.4800/5600
Exchange Margin 0.10% and interest on outlay of funds @ 12%. The importer
requested on 20th June for extension of contract with due date on 10th August.
Rates rounded to 4 decimals in multiples of 0.0025.
On 10th June, Bank Swaps by selling spot and buying one month forward.
Calculate:
(i) Cancellation rate
(ii) Amount payable on $ 2,00,000
(iii) Swap loss
(iv) Interest on outlay of funds, if any
(v) New contract rate
(vi) Total Cost
Ans.
(i) The forward can be cancelled by reversing on the spot @ ` 63.68
Rate applicable to the customer = ` 63.68 - 0.10% = ` 63.6163/$ ≈ ` 63.6175/$
(ii) Amount payable on $ 200,000 = (` 63.6163 - ` 64.4000/$) × $ 200,000
= ` 156,740
(iii) Swap Loss = (` 63.80/$ - ` 63.95/$) × $200,000 = ` 30,000(loss)
(iv) The bank buys $ 200,000 from inter -bank market @ ` 64.2800/$ as contracted but sells
the same on the spot @ ` 63.8000/$ due to non-performance of the customer.
The bank would charge/ pay interest on loss/gain
Cashflow = (` 63.80/$ - ` 64.28/$) × $ 200,000 = (` 96000)
Interest on outlay of funds = ` 96000 × 12% × 10/365
= ` 315.62
(v) New contracted rate = ` 64.25000 + 0.10% = ` 64.314/$ ~ ` 64.3150/$
(vi) Total cost to the customer
Cancellation charges = ` 156,740.00
+ Swap Loss = ` 30,000.00
+ Interest =` 315.62
` 1,87,055.62
...................................................................... 48 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
18. On 1 October 2015 Mr. X an exporter enters into a forward contract with a BNP
Bank to sell US$ 1,00,000 on 31 December 2015 at ` 65.40/$. However, due to the
request of the importer, Mr. X received amount on 28 November 2015. Mr. X
requested the bank the take delivery of the remittance on 30 November 2015 i.e.
before due date. The inter-banking rates on 28 November 2015 was as follows:
Spot ` 65.22/65.27
One Month Premium 10/15
If bank agrees to take early delivery then what will be net inflow to Mr. X
assuming that the prevailing prime lending rate is 18%.
Ans. Bank will buy from customer at the agreed rate of ` 65.40/$. In addition to the same if
bank will charge/pay swap difference and interest on outlay funds.
(a) Swap Difference `
Bank Sells at Spot Rate on 28 November 2015 65.22
Bank Buys at Forward Rate of 31 December 2015 (65.27 + 0.15) 65.42
Swap Loss per US$ 00.20
Swap loss for US$ 1, 00,000 = 20,000.00
...................................................................... 49 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Purchased bill of exchange, maturity 1 month $75,000
Forward sales $ 75,000
Export bills, purchased earlier, realized $ 45,000
What steps the Indian bank will take if it wants to maintain a credit balance of
$20,000 in its Nostro Account?
Ans. Nostro A/C of Indian Bank in the books of Bank of America
Particulars Amount Particulars Amount
$ $
Balance brought forward 20,000 TT purchase 50,000
TT remittance 25,000 Export bills realized 45,000
*TT sale (adjustment
entry) 30,000
Balance carried forward 20,000
95,000 95,000
We are required to maintain credit balance of $ 20,000, so the entry “TT sale” is passed
to adjust the credit balance.
#Continue the same sum and prepare exchange position with a credit balance of
$ 10,000
Exchange position of Indian Bank in the books of BOA.
Particulars (Credit) (Debit)
$ $
Purchase Sales
Balance B/F 10,000 -
TT purchase 50,000 -
Issued DD on New York - 20,000
TT remittance - 25,000
Purchase of bill of Exchange 75,000 -
Forward sales - 75,000
TT sale* - 30,000
Balance C/F 15,000 -
Total 1,50,000 1,50,000
6. TYPES OF EXPOSURE
(A) Transaction Exposure
• Internal Hedging techniques
...................................................................... 50 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
LEADING AND LAGGING
20. NP & Co. has imported goods for US $ 700,000. The amount is payable after 3
months. The company has also exported goods for US $4,50,000 and this amount is
receivable in two months. For receivable amount a forward contract is already
taken ` 48.90. The market rates for ` and Dollar are as under:
Spot ` 88.50/70
Two months 25/ 30 points
Three months 40/ 45 points
The company wants to cover the risk and it has two options as under: To cover the
payables in the forward market and To lag the receivables by one months and
cover the risk only for the net amount. No interest for delaying the receivables is
earned. Evaluate both the alternatives if the cost of the Rupee funds is 12%. Which
option is preferable?
Ans.
(i) Cover the payables in forward market
The firm can book a forward cover @ ` 48.70
+ 0.45
` 49.15/$ for 3 month maturity.
Also the firm receives the receivables @ ` 48.90 /$ at the end of second month.
` Inflow @ the end of 2nd month= $ 450,000 × ` 48.90/$ = ` 2,20,05,000
→ This amount is invested @ 12% p.a for 1month
1
= ` 2,20,05,000 + ` 2,20,05,000 × 12% ×
12
= ` 2,22,25,050
→ ` Outflow on account of payable = $ 7,00,000 × ` 49.15/$
= ` 3,44,05,000
∴ Net outflow = ` (3,44,05,000 – 2,22,25,050)
= ` 1,21,79,950
...................................................................... 51 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
` outflow on net payables = $ 2,50,000 × ` 49.15/$
= `1,22,87,500
1
= ` 45,000 + 45,000 × 12% × = 45,450
12
+ Cancellation charges
∴ Total outflow = (1,22,87,500 + 45,450) = ` 1,23,32,950
NETTING :
21. An Indian company has $ 1,00,000 payable and $ 30,000 receivable from a UK
company. The following rates are quoted
`/£ = 74.60/10
$/£ = 1.40/1.45
Calculate the benefit of netting for the Indian and UK Company.
Ans.
`/£ = 74.60 | 75.10
$/£ = 1.40 | 1.45
1 1
∴ Synthetic £ | $ =
1.45 1.40
1 1
∴ `/$ = 74.60 × 75.10 ×
1.45 1.40
= 51.45 /53.64
With Netting
Net payable = $ 70,000 × ` 53.64 / $
= ` 37,54,800
...................................................................... 52 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION FOREIGN EXCHANGE
→ From UK Co. point of view:
Without Netting:
$ 1,00,000
Receivable =
$ 1.45/£
= £ 68,965.52
$ 30,000
Payable =
$ 1.40/£
= £ 21,428.57
∴ Net receivable = £ 68,965.52 - £ 21,428.57
= £ 47,536.95
With Netting
$ 70,000
Net receivable =
$ 1.45/£
= £ 48,275.86
Benefit of netting = £ 48,275.86 - £ 47,536.95
= £ 738.91
...................................................................... 53 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
...................................................................... 54 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
is planning to raise the required funds through GDR issue in Mauritius. Each
GDR will have 5 common equity shares of the company as underlying security,
which are currently trading at ` 200 per share (Face Value = ` 10) in the domestic
market. The company has currently paid the dividend of 25%, which is expected to
grow at 10% p.a. The total issue cost is estimated to be 1 percent of issue size. The
annual sales is expected to be 10,000 units at the rate of CN¥ 500 per unit. The
price of unit is expected to rise at the rate of inflation. Variable operating costs are
40 percent of sales. Fixed operating costs will be CN¥ 22, 00,000 per year and
expected to rise at the rate of inflation. The tax rate applicable in China for income
and capital gain is 25 percent and as per GOI Policy no further tax shall be
payable in India. The current spot rate of CN¥ 1 is ` 9.50. The nominal interest
rate in India and China is 12% and 10% respectively and the international parity
conditions hold.
You are required to:
(a) Identify expected future cash flows in China and determine NPV of the
project in CN¥.
(b) Determine whether Opus Technologies should go for the project or not
assuming that there neither there is restriction on the transfer of funds from
China to India nor any charges/taxes payable on the transfer of funds.
Ans.
WN: Computation of Post tax salvage value of fixed assets:
a. Land Cost @ t= 0 = CN ¥ 30,00,000
Salvage @ t= 2 = CN ¥ 35,00,000
Capital gain = CN ¥ 5,00,000
Tax @25% = CN ¥ 5,00,000 × 25% = CN ¥ 1,25,000
∴ Post tax salvage value = CN ¥ 35,00,000 – CN ¥ 1,25,000 = CN ¥ 33,75,000
...................................................................... 55 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
A. Preparations of Cashflows: Life = 2years
Particulars 1 2
No. of units 10,000 10,000
Price/unit (CN ¥) i.e. add inflation 540 (500 + 8%) 583.20 (540 + 8%)
Annual sales (CN ¥) CN ¥ 54,00,000 CN ¥ 5,832,000
- Variable op. cost(40%) (CN ¥) (21,60,000) (23,32,800)
- Fixed op. cost (CN ¥) (23,76,000) (25,66,080)
(22L + 8%) (23.76L + 8%)
EBDIT (CN ¥) 8,64,000 9,33,120
- Depreciation (CN ¥) 7,50,000 7,50,000
EBIT (CN ¥) 1,14,000 1,83,120
Tax @ 25% (28,500) (45,780)
NOPAT (CN ¥) 85,500 1,37,340
+ Depreciation (CN ¥) 7,50,000 7,50,000
Operating Cashflow (CN ¥) 8,35,500 8,87,340
⇒ Check for working capital if given in question. W.C. shall be recovered entirely at the
end of the life of the project.
- Initial investment
- Operating cashflows
- Terminal cashflow
0 1 2
Initial cash outflow (CN ¥) 45,00,000(35L+10L)
Operating cashflow (CN ¥) 8,35,500 8,87,340
Terminal cashflow:
a. Land 33,75,000
b. Office 3,75,000
Net cashflow(CN ¥) 45,00,000 8,35,500 46,37,340
Computation of NPV in CN ¥
Year Cashflow(CN ¥) PV @ 11.39% PV (CN ¥)
0 (45,00,000) 1.000 (45,00,000)
1 8,35,500 0.898 7,50,279.00
2 46,37,340 0.806 37,37,696.04
Total -12,024.96
...................................................................... 56 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
B. Computation of NPV from Opus point of view:
Particulars 0 1 2
Cashflow CN ¥ (45,00,000) 8,35,500 46,37,340
Exchange rate 9.50 (Spot rate) 9.5 × 1.12 9.5 × (1.12) 2
= 9.67 = 9.85
(`/CN ¥) 1.10 (1.10) 2
Cashflow ` 45,00,000 × 9.5 = 8,35,500 × 9.67 46,37,340 × 9.85 =
4,27,50,000 = 80,79,285 4,56,77,799
PV @12% 1.000 0.893 0.797
Present value(CN ¥) (4,27,50,000) 72,14,801.51 3,64,05,205.80
∴ NPV = ` 8,70,007.313
Thus, we can see that the project is not viable from Chinese shareholders point of view
but it is viable in Indian Rupees.
...................................................................... 57 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
· FORWARDS:
A forward is a promise to buy or sell any asset on a particular date or maturity at a pre
specified rate.
A forward is an OTC product and banks play a major market maker for the same. The
most commonly asset traded in forward market are currencies. It provides good
opportunity to exporters and importers for hedging their exposures like a payable or
receivable of foreign currency.
For E.g. An importer imported goods worth $ 5,00,000 on 1st Jan, maturity 31st March.
He is afraid of $ going up and hence he buys Forward @ ` 70.00/$.
On maturity he pays (` 70.00/$ × $ 5,00,000) and receives $ 5,00,000. The spot on
maturity is ` 72.00/$ but the hedger could get at ` 70.00 only due to Forward
Agreement.
· FUTURES:
Futures are a sophisticated form of Forwards traded on Exchange. The contracts are
standard in terms of quality, quantity and maturity. They are marked to market on daily
basis.
1. A trader has gone long on 5 Brent crude futures for December settlement at $26.32
per barrel. The minimum contract size for Brent futures contract is 1,00,000 per
barrel. The initial margin is $50,000 and the maintenance margin is $ 30,000. The
futures close at the following prices on the next ten trading days.
Day 1 $26.19 Day 6 $ 26.21
Day 2 $ 26.30 Day 7 $ 25.98
Day 3 $ 26.45 Day 8 $ 25.87
Day 4 $ 26.48 Day 9 $ 25.90
Day 5 $ 26.34 Day 10 $ 25.95
...................................................................... 58 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
The trader will take out the profit out of the margin whenever he gets the
opportunity to do so. You are required to prepare the margin account showing all
the cash flows. Find the profit/ loss for the trader after 10 trading days.
Ans. Position: Long
...................................................................... 59 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
i.Find out the Theoretical Futures price
ii.
Check for arbitrage and process of arbitrage if the price on maturity turns
out to be
• Case I – 1000
• Case II – 1500
• What are the limitations of stock future arbitrage?
Ans. Spot = 1200, AF = 1290, Rf = 10% p.a, DY = 1%
Lot Size = 250 Shares, n = 3months
3
A) TF = 1200 + 1200 x 10% × – 1200 x 1%
12
= 1200 + 30 – 12
TF = 1218
B) AF = 1290, TF = 1218
Since, AF > TF, Futures are relatively overvalued & spot is undervalued. We sell
futures at AF = 1290, & Buy stock @ Spot = 1200.
On Maturity :
Particulars S=F = 1000 S=F = 1500
1) Profit on Futures = (1290 – 1000) × 250 = (1290 - 1500) × 250
= 72,500 = (52,500)
2) Profit on Stock = (1000 – 1200) × 250 = (1500 – 1200) × 250
= (50,000) = 75,000
3) Interest Expense 3 3
= 1200 × 250 × 10% × = 1200 × 250 × 10% ×
12 12
= (7,500) = (7,500)
4) Dividend Gain = 1200 × 250 × 1% = 1200 × 250 × 1%
= 3,000 = 3,000
Net Profit on maturity ` 18,000 ` 18,000
= (AF - TF) × lot
= (1290 – 1218) × 250
= ` 18,000
NOTE :
A) Cost of Carry Model assume no transaction costs like margins, brokerage, commission
or taxes.
B) When we open a ‘sell position’, we mean ‘Short Sell’ i.e. Sell first & Buy later.
→ For futures there is no inflow in case of short sell but, there would be cash inflow
in case of short sell in cash market & position on be carried forward for any
maturity.
→ Practically, a short position in Cash Market must be closed intraday.
...................................................................... 60 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
V. HEDGING OF FOREIGN CURRENCIES USING FUTURES
The hedger has an exposure of payable or receivable and hence he is afraid of currency price
going up or down. In order to hedge himself he can use futures where by the cash profits of
futures market would reduce or increase the overall cost / in flows in the spot market.
3. On 10/ 07, an Indian firm knows that it has $ 590,000 payables on the 10/ 09. The
spot rate is ` 47.64/ $ and the 2-month forward rate is ` 47.85/ $. Dollar futures of
maturity on the same date are trading at ` 47.89/$ (contract size is $ 1,00,000). On
the 10/ 09, the spot rate happens to be ` 47.95/ $ and the futures quote at ` 48.07/ $.
Compare no cover, forward cover and futures cover with respect to Rupee outflow
on the 10/ 09?
Ans. Payable = $ 5,90,000
2 months forward ₹/$ = 47.85
$ Futures @ t = 0 : ₹ 47.89/$
$ Future @ t = maturity : ₹ 48.07/$
E (S) i.e. Expected spot = ₹ 47.95/$
Lot size = $ 1,00,000
1. No cover
Outflow or maturity = $ 5,90,000 × ₹ 47.95/$ = ₹ 2,82,90,500
2. Forward cover
Outflow on maturity = ₹ 5,90,000 × ₹ 47.85 /$ = ₹ 2,82,31,500
3. Futures cover
The Indian firm has $ payable and hence, it is afraid of $ going up. Ideally it
should buy $ futures and since $ futures are available, it buys them at the rate of ₹
47.89/$ at t = 0 and squares them off at a price ₹ 48.07/$ on the day of maturity.
• Since futures are traded in lots, we need to convert the exposure into lots.
$ 5,90, 000
No. of lots = = 5.90 lots
$ 1, 00, 000
...................................................................... 61 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Case 1: Round –Off the lots to 6 lots
a. Profit on squaring off in futures market = (₹ 48.07/$ - ₹ 47.89/$) × 6 lots × $ 1,00,000
= ₹ 0.18/$ × $ 6,00,000
= ₹ 1,08,000
Case 2 : → Hedge for 5 lots in futures market and hedge for 0.90 lots in is Forward market.
a. Profit on squaring off in futures market = (₹ 48.07/$ - ₹ 47.89/$) × 5 lots × $ 1,00,000
= ₹ 90,000
...................................................................... 62 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
Since we are using Market Futures hence, the Beta = 1, as beta of market is always = 1,
lot = 50.
A) Future price = ` 5000
250 Cr [0 - 2.056]
∴ No of lots =
1 × 50 × 5000
250 Cr [0 - 2.056]
∴ No of lots =
2,50, 000
= - 20,560 lots.
Suppose Nifty ↓ 10%
Cash Futures
Loss ⇒ Opening price (Short) = 5000
= 250cr × 2.056 × 10% Closing price = 5000 – 10% = 4500
= ` 51.40cr Profit on futures = (5000 - 4500) × 20560 × 50
= ` 51.40cr
Hence, no profit & no loss.
250 Cr [0.5 - 2.056]
B) No. of lots =
1 × 50 × 5000
= - 15,560 lots
Suppose market goes ↑ 3%
Cash Futures
Gain = 250cr × 2.056 × 3% Opening price (Short) = 5000
= `15.42cr Closing price = 5,000 + 3%
= 5150
Loss = (5000 - 5,150) × 15,560 × 50
= - ` 11.67 Cr (Loss)
...................................................................... 63 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Ans. 1 MT = 1,000 kgs
σS 4%
Hedge ratio = γSF ×
= 0.75 × = 0.5
σF 6%
Long position in Cash market = ₹ 474/kg × 10 MT × 1,000 kgs
= ₹ 47,40,000
Short position on Copper futures = ₹ 47,40,000 × 0.5 → Hedge ratio
= ₹ 23,70,000
OPTIONS
NOTES:
A. Call will be always exercised above strike price
Put will be always exercised below strike price
B. There are 2 types of options traded in the market:
a. European Option
The options that can be exercised only on the day of maturity are called
European option.
b. American option
Options which can be exercised any day before the maturity are called
American option.
C. In case of call, In case of put
If S > E → in the money If S > E →out the money
If S = E → at the money If S = E →at the money
If S < E → out the money If S < E → in the money
...................................................................... 64 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
6. Consider a 2-month call option on the stock of Tata Motors at a strike price of
800 trading at a premium of ` 25. Show profit profile for the call holder and call
writer.
Ans. For call holder C + @ 800; premium = (25)
Spot E/L Pay off [Max = (S-E,0)] Initial prem. Net profit
750 L 0 (25) (25)
775 L 0 (25) (25)
800 L 0 (25) (25)
825 E (825 – 800) = 25 (25) 0
850 E (850 – 800) = 50 (25) 25
875 E (875 – 800) = 75 (25) 50
900 E (900 – 800) = 100 (25) 75
For call writer C − @ 800; premium = 25
Spot E/L payoff initial Net profit
750 L 0 25 25
775 L 0 25 25
800 L 0 25 25
825 E (25) 25 (0)
850 E (50) 25 (25)
875 E (75) 25 (50)
900 E (100) 25 (75)
7. Consider a 3 month put option on the stock of HUL at a strike price of 200 trading
at a premium of ` 10. Show the profit profile for the put holder and put writer.
Ans. For put holder → Put will always be exercised below strike price
P + @ 200; premium = (10)
Spot E/L Payoff = Max (E-S,O) Initial Net profit
premium
150 E 200 – 150 = 50 (10) 40
160 E 200-160 = 40 (10) 30
170 E 200 – 170 = 30 (10) 20
180 E 200 – 180 = 20 (10) 10
190 E 200 – 190 = 10 (10) 0
200 L 0 (10) (10)
210 L 0 (10) (10)
220 L 0 (10) (10)
230 L 0 (10) (10)
...................................................................... 65 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
For put writer → the put writer has to buy option at 150
P − @200; premium = 10
Spot E/L Payoff initial Net profit
150 E (50) 10 (40)
160 E (40) 10 (30)
170 E (30) 10 (20)
180 E (20) 10 (10)
190 E (10) 10 0
200 L 0 10 10
210 L 0 10 10
220 L 0 10 10
230 L 0 10 10
8. An Indian firm has $ 2 lakhs payable 3 months from now. The spot rate is
presently ` 43.05/ $. The three-month forward rate is ` 43.60/ $. The following
three month European options are traded.
Options Strike price/ exercise price Premium
Put 42.50 50 paisa
Call 43.50 40 paisa
The treasury department has the following forecast to share with you.
Spot rate after 3- month Probability
41.50 0.2
43.00 0.4
44.50 0.1
46.00 0.3
Evaluate No cover, Forward cover, Call cover, Put cover, and Range forward.
Ans.
1. No cover
E(s) = [(41.50) × 0.2] + (43.0 × 0.4) + (44.5 × 0.1) + (46.0 × 0.3) = ₹ 43.75/$
Outflow on maturity = $ 2 lakhs × ₹ 43.75/$ = ₹ 87, 50,000
2. Forward cover
Outflow on maturity = $ 2 lakhs × ₹ 43.60/$ = ₹ 87, 20,000
3. Call cover (Since the quotes given in the question are direct, we will buy Call) (i.e. C+)
C+ @ E = ₹ 43.50/$
Premium = ₹ 0.40/$
Net outflow = $ 2 lakhs × ₹ 0.40/$ = ₹ 80,000
...................................................................... 66 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
Spot (𝐂𝐂 + ) (S-E,0) Rate of buy Net rates Purchase Premium Total
𝐄𝐄/𝐋𝐋 Payoff ₹/$ cost
₹/$ ₹/$ ₹/$ ₹ ₹ ₹
41.50 L 0 (41.5) (41.5) (83 Lakhs) (0.8 lakhs) (83.8L)
43.00 L 0 (43.0) (43.0) (86 Lakhs) (0.8 lakhs) (86.8L)
44.50 E 1.00 (44.5) (43.5) (87 Lakhs) (0.8 lakhs) (87.8L)
46.00 E 2.50 (46.0) (43.5) (87 Lakhs) (0.8 lakhs) (87.8L)
Put cover
P− @ E = ₹ 42.50/$
Premium = ₹ 0.50/$
Net inflow = $ 2 lakhs x ₹ 0.50/$ = ₹ 1,00,000
Spot 𝐄𝐄/𝐋𝐋 (E-S,0) Rate of buy Net rates Purchase Premiu Net P Px
Payoff ₹/$ cost m
₹/$ ₹/$ ₹/$ ₹ ₹ ₹ ₹
41.50 E (1.0) (41.50) (42.50) (85 Lakhs) 1.0 L (84L) 0.2 (16.8L)
43.00 L 0 (43.00) (43.00) (86 Lakhs) 1.0 L (85L) 0.4 (34 L)
44.50 L 0 (44.50) (44.50) (89 Lakhs) 1.0 L (88L) 0.1 (8.8L)
46.00 L 0 (46.00) (46.00) (92 Lakhs) 1.0 L (91L) 0.3 (27.3L)
(86.9L)
Expected value of outflow = ₹ 86.90 L
4. Range forward:
Call cover C+ @ E = ₹ 43.50/$ ; Premium = ₹ 0.40/$ , Outflow = ₹ 80,000
Put cover P − @ E = ₹ 42.50/$; Premium = ₹ 0.50/$ , inflow = ₹ 1,00,000
(In range forward, the importer buys one call (𝐶𝐶 + ) and sells one put (𝑃𝑃− ) in order (to
reduce the premium outflow.)
...................................................................... 67 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Spot (S-E,0) (𝐄𝐄 − 𝐒𝐒, 𝐎𝐎) Rate of Net Purchase Premium Net P Px
𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏𝐏 (𝐏𝐏− ₹ ₹ ₹
₹/$ Payoff buy ₹/$ cost
(𝐂𝐂+ ) ₹/$ ₹/$ ₹
₹/$ In Lakhs
41.50 0 (1.0) (41.50) (42.50) (85) 0.2 L (84.8L) 0.2 (16.96L)
43.00 0 0 (43.00) (43.00) (86) 0.2 L (85.8L) 0.4 (34.32L)
44.50 1.0 0 (44.50) (43.05) (87) 0.2 L (86.8L) 0.1 (8.68L)
46.00 2.5 0 (46.00) (43.05) (87) 0.2 L (86.8L) 0.3 (26.04L)
86.0 L
Expected value of outflow = ₹ 86 L
9. A Ltd. of UK has imported some chemicals worth of USD 3,64,897 from one of the
US supplier. The amount is payable in six- months time. The relevant spot and
forward rates are: Spot Rate USD 1.5617 - 1.56736 months’ Forward rate USD
1.545 - 1.5609 The Borrowing rate in UK & US are 7% and 6% respectively and
the deposit rates are 5.5% and 4.5% respectively. Currency options are available
under which one option contract is for GBP 12,500. The options premium for GBP
at a strike price of USD 1.70/ GBP is USD 0.037 (call option) and USD 0.096 (Put
option For 6 months period)
The company has three choices:
1. Forward cover 2. Money Market Cover 3. Currency Options
Ans. Spot $/£ = 1.5617/ 1.5673
6 m Forward $/£ = 1.545/ 1.5609
1 $ = 4.5%/ 6 %
1 £ = 5.5%/ 7 %
Call @ E = $ 1.70/£ ; premium = $ 0.037/£
Put @ E = $ 1.70/£ ; premium = $ 0.096/£
(i) Forward cover
$ 3, 64,897
Outflow on maturity = = £ 2,36,179.29
$ 1.545 / £
Sell £ @ $ 1.545/£ i.e. Bid rate
...................................................................... 68 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
$ 3, 64,897
1. £ Equivalent = = £ 2,14,645.29
$ 1.70 / £
£ 2,14,645.29
2. No of lots = = 17.17 lots
£ 12,500 per lot
...................................................................... 69 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
IX. VALUATION OF OPTIONS
Valuation of option stands for computing the Should be value of a Call premium and
Put premium.
A. Binomial model
1. Risk Neutral Method
2. Portfolio Replicating Approach
B. Put Call Parity Model
C. Black Scholes Model
Binomial Model
Risk Neutral Approach /Risk Neutralization Approach
10. Consider a one-year Call option on a stock at Strike price of 480. The stock
presently trades at 500. At the end of the year the stock price can go up by 20% or
come down by 10%. Risk free interest rate is 6% p.a. Find out the price of the call
using Risk Neutralization method.
Ans. US = 500 + 20 % =600
DS = 500 – 10 % = 450
Cu = [600 – 480, 0]= 120
Cd = [450 – 480, 0]= 0
R -d
P=
u -d
Where,
P = probability of market going ↑
u = upgoing factor
d = down going factor
us = stock price if market goes ↑
ds = stock price if market goes ↓
Cu = call payoff is market – goes ↑
Cd = call payoff if market goes ↓
C0 = call value @ t =0
...................................................................... 70 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION DERIVATIVES – FUTURES & OPTIONS
12
R = 1 + 6% × = 1.06
12
R - d 1.06 - 0.9
→P = = = 0.53
µ-d 1.20 - 0.9
1 – P = 0.47
P × Cu + (1 - p) × Cd
C0 =
R
(0.53 × 120) + (0.47) (0)
C0 = = 60.0
1.06
*The price of an asset (i.e. options) is the PV(present value) of expected future
cashflows.
11. Mr. Dayal is interested in purchasing equity shares of ABC Ltd. Which are
currently selling at ` 600 each. He expects that price of share may go up to `780 or
may go down to ` 480 in three months. The chances of occurring such variations
are 60% and 40 % respectively. A call option on the shares of ABC Ltd can be
exercised at the end of three months with a strike price of ` 630.
a) What combination of share and option should Mr. Dayal select if he wants a
perfect hedge?
b) What should be the value of option today (the risk free rate is 10% p.a.)?
c) What is the Expected rate of return on the option?
Cu - Cd 150 - 0
Ans. a. D = Delta = = = 0.5
US - DS 780 - 480
A delta of 0.5 means a combination of 0.5 share for every 1 call would provide a
perfect hedge.
...................................................................... 71 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
X. PUT CALL PARITY MODEL
As per put-call parity, if we have 2 assets and if the pay-off of both the assets on maturity is
same, the price of both the asset should be the same at t = 0. Otherwise, there will be an
arbitrage opportunity.
If we have 2 portfolios,
a. Protective put = S + + P +
b. Fiduciary call = C + + PV of E
At Equilibrium
Protective put = Fiduciary call
S + + P + = C + + PV of E
Assumptions of Put – Call Parity model
a. The put and call has a same underlying stock (“S”).
b. The exercise price of both, call and put, should be the same.
c. The options under contemplation are European in nature.
d. There are no transaction costs like brokerage, commission, taxes.
e. Unlimited amount of borrowing and lending is possible at Rf.
f. The securities can be bought and sold in fractions.
...................................................................... 72 ..............................................................
DERIVATIVES –
KHETAN EDUCATION INTEREST RATE RISK MANAGEMENT
I. SWAPS
A swap is an agreement between two companies to exchange cash flows in the future. The
agreement defines the dates when the cash flows are to be paid and the way in which they are
to be calculated.
Assume that A wants to borrow U.S. dollars at a floating rate of interest and B
wants to borrow Canadian Dollars at a fixed rate of interest. A financial institution
is planning to arrange a swap and requires a 50 basis point spread. If the swap is
equally attractive to A and B what rates of interest will A and B end up paying.
Ans.
Particulars Canadian US dollars Preference
(Fixed rate) (Floating rate)
A 5.0% L + 0.5% Floating
B 6.5% L + 1.0% Fixed
Difference 1.5% 0.5%
...................................................................... 73 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
d. Share of A = 1.0% × ¼ = 0.25 %
Share of B = 1.0% × ¼ = 0.25 %
Intermediary = 1.0% × ½ = 0.50 %
14. X Ltd wants to borrow floating rate funds for 5 year. It can do so at a spread of
250 basis points over LIBOR. It considers the interest rate to be too high. Instead it
may borrow fixed rate funds at 11%. However, it does not want to borrow fixed.
When it approached its bank for advice, the bank quoted fixed v/s libor swap at
30/ 130 basis points over 5 year treasuries v/s libor. Five year treasuries are
presently yielding 9%.
a. Explain how X Ltd. can use a swap to achieve floating rate funding at a
cheaper cost?
b. If Libor at the beginning of each year in the 5-year period to be 8%, 10%,
7%, 9% and 8%. Find out the average annual cost of funds.
Ans. (a) Swap quotation → 9.30%/10.30% VS. Libor
Net liability = 11.0% + L – 9.30%
= L + 1.70%
8 + 10 + 7 + 9 + 8
(b) Avg. Libor = = 8.40 %
5
Avg. cost = L + 1.70% = 8.40% + 1.70%
= 10.10%
...................................................................... 74 ..............................................................
DERIVATIVES –
KHETAN EDUCATION INTEREST RATE RISK MANAGEMENT
Ans.
Day Principal (`) MIBOR(%) Interest (`)
Tuesday 10,00,00,000 7.75 21,233
Wednesday 10,00,21,233 8.15 22,334
Thursday 10,00,43,567 8.12 22,256
Friday 10,00,65,823 7.95 21,795
Saturday & Sunday (*) 10,00,87,618 7.98 43,764
Monday 10,01,31,382 8.15 22,358
Total interest @ floating 1,53,740
Less : Net Received -317
Expected interest @ fixed 1,53,423
Thus fixed Rate of interest 0.07999914
Approx 8%
NOTE : Alternative, answer can also be calculated on the basis of 360 days in a year.
# CURRENCY SWAPS
16. Drilldip Inc. a US based company has won a contract in India for drilling oil field.
The project will require an initial investment of 500 Crores. The Oil field along
with equipment will be sold to Indian Government for ` 740 crores in one-year
time. Since the Indian Government will pay for the amount in Indian Rupee, the
company is worried about exposure due to exchange rate volatility.
You are required to:
(a) Construct a swap that will help the Drilldip to reduce the exchange rate risk.
(b) Assuming that Indian Government offers a swap at spot rate which is 1 US$
= ` 50 in one year, then should the company opt for this option or should it
just do nothing. The spot rate after one year is expected to be 1US $ = ` 54.
Further you may also assume that the Drilldip can also take a US $ loan at
8% p.a.
Ans. a) The following swap arrangement can be entered by Drilldip:
i) Swap a US $ loan today at an agreed rate with any party to obtain Indian
Rupees to make initial investment.
ii) After one-year swap back the Indian Rupees with US $ at the agreed rate. In
such case the company is exposed only on the profit earned from the project
b) With the swap
Year 0 (Million Year 1 (Million
US $) US $)
Buy ` 500 crores at spot rate of 1 US $ = ` 50 (100.00) -
Swap ` 500 crores back at agreed rate of ` 50 - 100.00
...................................................................... 75 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Sell ` 240 crores at 1 US $ = ` 54 - 44.44
Interest on US $ loan @ 8% for one year - (8.00)
(100.00) 136.44
Net Result is a net receipt of US $ 36.44 million.
Without Swap:
Year 0 (Million Year 1 (Million
US $) US $)
Buy ` 500 crores at spot rate of 1 US $ = ` 50 (100.00) -
Sell ` 740 crores at ` 54 - 137.04
Interest on US $ loan @ 8% for one year - (8.00)
(100.00) 129.04
Net Result is a net receipt of US $ 29.04.
DECISION: Since the net receipt is higher in swap option the company should opt for
the same.
FRAs are forwards on interest rates for short-term borrowing or lending a prospective
borrower or investor can book an FRA and block his rate to avoid future dis-comfort.
1. Electra space is consumer electronics wholesaler. The business of the firm is highly
seasonal in nature. In 6 months of a year, firm has a huge cash deposits and
especially near Christmas time and other 6 months’ firm cash crunch, leading to
borrowing of money to cover up its exposures for running the business. It is
expected that firm shall borrow a sum of €50 million for the entire period of slack
season in about 3 months. A Bank has given the following quotations:
Spot 5.50% - 5.75%
3 × 6 FRA 5.59% - 5.82%
3 × 9 FRA 5.64% - 5.94%
How a FRA, shall be useful if the actual interest rate after 6 months’ turnout to
be:
• 4.5%
• 6.5%
Ans.
Case 1 :
Spot Libor = 4.5 %
Hedger → The firm borrows $ 500,00,000 @ 4.5 % in the spot market, out flow on maturity
...................................................................... 76 ..............................................................
DERIVATIVES –
KHETAN EDUCATION INTEREST RATE RISK MANAGEMENT
6
= $ 5,00, 00,000 + $5, 00, 00, 000 × 4.5% ×
12
= $ 5,11,25,000
6
Pay off from FRA = (4.5 % - 5.94 %) × $ 5,00,00,000 × = $ 3,60,000 → Outflow
12
∴ Net outflow = $ 5,11,25,000 + $ 3,60,000
= $ 5,14,85,000
$ 5,14,85, 000 - $ 5, 00, 00, 000 12
∴ Effective cost = × 100 × = 5.94 %
$ 5, 00, 00, 000 6
For Speculator
Notional Principal r1 − r0 → for Borrower
Payoff = [r1 - r0 ] × t
1 + r1 × t r0 − r1 → for Investor
6
$ 5, 00, 00, 000 (4.5% - 5.94%) ×
Payoff = 12
6
1 + 4.5% ×
12
= ($ 3,52,078.24) Outflow
Case 2 :
Spot Libor = 6.5 %
Hedger → The firm borrows $ 50, 00,000 @ 6.5 % in the spot market,
6
Out flow on maturity = $ 500,00,000 + $5, 00, 00, 000 × 6.5% ×
12
= $ 5,16,25,000
6
Pay off from FRA = (6.5 % - 5.94%) × $ 5,00,00,000 ×
12
= $ 1,40,000 → Inflow
∴ Net outflow = $ 5,16,25,000 - $ 1,40,000
= $ 5,14,85,000
6
$ 5, 00, 00, 000 (6.5% - 5.94%) ×
Payoff = 12
6
1 + 6.5% ×
12
= $1,35,593.22 Inflow
...................................................................... 77 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
III. INTEREST RATE OPTIONS
i. Caps
ii. Floors
iii. Collars
𝐂𝐂 + 𝐂𝐂 −
Right to Buy @ E Obligation to Sell @ E
Buy Call Sell Call
Right to Borrow @ E Obligation to Invest @ E
Buy Cap Sell Cap
→ pay premium → receive premium
𝐏𝐏 + 𝐏𝐏 −
Right to Sell @ E Obligation to Buy @ E
Buy Put Sell Put
Right to Invest @ E Obligation to Borrow @ E
Buy Floor Sell Floor
→ Pay Premium → Receive Premium
2. XYZ Inc. issues a £ 10 million floating rate loan on July 1, 2013 with resetting of
coupon rate every 6 months equal to LIBOR + 50 bps. XYZ is interested in a collar
strategy by selling a Floor and buying a Cap. XYZ buys the 3 years Cap and sell 3
years Floor as per the following details on July 1, 2013:
Notional Principal Amount $ 10 million
Reference Rate 6 months LIBOR
Strike Rate 4% for Floor and 7% for Cap
Premium 0*
*Since Premium paid for Cap = Premium received for Floor.
Using the following data, you are required to determine:
(i) Effective interest paid out at each reset date,
(ii) The average overall effective rate of interest p.a.
Reset Date LIBOR (%) Reset Date LIBOR (%)
31-12-2013 6.00 30-06-2014 7.00
31-12-2014 5.00 30-06-2015 3.75
31-12-2015 3.25 30-06-2016 4.25
+ −
Ans. The borrower buys a cap (C ) and sells a floor (P ) on a principal of £ 10 m
C+@ E = 7 % P− @ E = 4 %
(Here, assume that the strike rate of 7% and 4% includes spread of 0.5 % hence, the Libor of
reset period will should also include spread of 0.5 % → so we add 0.5 % to it)
...................................................................... 78 ..............................................................
DERIVATIVES –
KHETAN EDUCATION INTEREST RATE RISK MANAGEMENT
Date Days Spot Rate Payoff Payoff (E-S,O) Int. Cost Net Outflow
Count (S-E,O)
31-12-2013 184 6+0.5= 6.50% 0 0 (£ 327,671.23) (£ 327,671.23)
30-06-2014 181 7+0.5=7.50 % *£ 24794.52 0 (£3,71,917.81)) (£3,47,123.29)
31-12-2014 184 5 +0.5= 5.50% 0 0 (£2,77,260.27) (£2,77,260.27)
30-06-2015 181 3.75+0.5=4.25 % 0 0 (£2,10,753.43) (£2,10,753.43)
31-12-2015 184 3.25+0.5=3.75% 0 **(£ 12,602.74) (£1,89,041.10) (£2,01,643.84)
30-06-2016 182 4.25+0.5=4.75% 0 0 (£2,36,202.19) (£2,36,202.19)
Total 1096 (£16,00,654.25)
181
* (7.5% - 7%) × £ 10 m × = £ 24,794.52 (Payoff from Cap)
365
184
**(4% - 3.75%) × £ 10 m × = £ 12,602.74 (Payoff from Floor)
365
£ 16,00,654.23
Int. Cost per day = = £ 1460.45 Per Day
1, 096 days
(int. Cost p.a. = £ 1460.45 × 365 Days = £ 533064.59)
£ 5,33,064.59
Annual % = × 100 = 5.33 %
£ 10 m
...................................................................... 79 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
I. WHAT IS A PORTFOLIO
Collection of assets is called a portfolio. There are various asset categories with can be
included in a portfolio.
-Equity/stocks
-Fixed income securities. Eg; Bond/Debentures
-Commodities
-Bullion
-Foreign Currencies
-Real Estate
-Derivatives
Risk/ Variance =
∑ (x - x)2 = σx 2
n
...................................................................... 80 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
• Ex- Ante Data / Future Data
Expected Return = ∑ Px
Risk = Variance = ∑ P(x - x) 2 Where, P = Probability
COVxy =
∑ (x - x) (y - y) [Used for ex-post data]
n
COVxy = ∑P (x - x̅) (y - y) [Used for ex-ante data]
COVxy
rxy =
σx × σy
Where, COVxy = Covariance between x and y.
rxy = Coefficient of correlation between x and y.
1. The historical data of return of two securities over the past ten years are given.
Calculate the covariance and the correlation coefficient of the two securities:
Years 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Security 1(%) 12 8 7 14 16 15 18 20 16 22
Security 2(%) 20 22 24 18 15 20 24 25 22 20
Ans. Its Ex-post data
x y (x - x ) (x - x)2 (y - y) (y - y)2 (x - x) (y - y)
12 20 -2.80 7.84 -1 1 2.80
8 22 -6.80 46.24 +1 1 -6.80
7 24 -7.80 60.84 +3 9 -23.40
14 18 -0.80 0.64 -3 9 2.40
16 15 1.20 1.44 -6 36 -7.20
15 20 0.20 0.04 -1 1 -0.20
18 24 3.20 10.24 3 9 9.60
20 25 5.20 27.04 4 16 20.80
16 22 1.20 1.44 1 1 1.20
22 20 7.2 51.84 -1 1 -7.2
148 210 207.6%2 84%2 -8%2
...................................................................... 81 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
x̅ =
∑x =
148
=14.8%
n 10
y =
∑y =
210
= 21%
n 10
(x - x) 2 207.6% 2
σ× = = = 4.56%
n 10
(y - y) 2 84% 2
σy = = = 2.89%
n 10
COVxy =
∑ (x - x)(y - y) =
-8% 2
= -0.8%2
n 10
COVxy -0.8% 2
rxy = = = 0.061
σx σy 4.56% × 2.89%
(y - y) P (y - y)2 p(x - x ) (y - y)
-4.8 9.216 -25.92
-0.8 0.192 0.36
7.2 15.552 -35.64
2
24.96% -61.2%2
x̅ =∑P× = 26.5%
y = ∑Py = 20.8%
...................................................................... 82 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
3. Mr. Shyam Bachhan has constructed two portfolios, the details of which are given
below:
Portfolio - 1
Securities Weights Return S.D. Correlation Matrix
ICICI Infosys
ICICI 0.3 18% 10% 1.00 0.75
Infosys 0.7 23% 16% 0.75 1.00
Portfolio - 2
Securities Weights Return S.D. Correlation Matrix
ICICI Infosys HLL
ICICI 0.3 18% 10% 1.0 0.75 0.86
Infosys 0.4 23% 16% 0.75 1.00 0.68
HLL 0.3 16% 12% 0.86 0.68 1.00
You are required to:
a. Calculate the risk and return on portfolio 1 & 2.
b. Construct a portfolio out of the portfolios 1 & 2 in order to generate a return of
20.50%. Find out the SD of such a portfolio.
...................................................................... 83 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Ans.
a. RP1 = WA RA + WB RB
= 0.3 × 18 + 0.7 × 23 = 21.5%
σP1 = W 2 Aσ 2 A + W 2 Bσ 2 + 2 × WA × WB × rAB × σA × σB
W 2 Aσ 2 A + W 2 Bσ 2 B + W 2Cσ 2C + 2 × WA × WB × rAB × σ A × σ B
σP2 =
+ 2 × WA × WC × rAC × σ A × σ c + 2 × WB × WC × rBC × σB × σ C
P1 P2
52% 48%
A B A B C
30% 70% 30% 40% 30%
In portfolio 3,
Computation of weights of securities A,B, C in 𝑃𝑃3
WA = 52% × 30% + 48% × 30% = 30%
WB = 52% × 70% + 48% × 40% = 55.6%
...................................................................... 84 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
WC = 52% × 0% + 48% × 30% = 14.4%
...................................................................... 85 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
b. 50% of P and 50% of Q
RP = 0.5 × 15 + 0.5 × 10
= 12.50%
σP = 0.5 × 30 + 0.5 × 20
= 25%
Benefit of Diversification
1. σp = WAσA+WBσB
...................................................................... 86 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
Ans. a. A minimum risk portfolio is given by,
σ 2 B - COVAB
WA =
σ 2 A + σ 2 B - × 2COVAB
144 - (-60)
=
196 + 144 - 2 × (-60)
204
=
460
= 0.44
∴WA = 0.44
WB = 1 - 0.44 = 0.56
b. σP = WA · σA + WBσB
= 0.44 × 196 + 0.56 × 144
= 12.88%
σp = W σ A · σ 2 A + W 2 B · σ 2 B + 2 · WA · WB · COVAB
S.D
c. Coefficient of variation =
MEAN
σP
=
RP
σP = 7.32%
RP = 0.44 × 20 + 0.56 × 14 = 16.64
7.32
∴ Coefficient of variation = = 0.44
16.64
⇒ Benefit of Diversification:
This computation means the maximum risk possible is 12.88% and minimum risks
possible is 7.32% (since the weights are as per minimum risk) with given data, it is
possible to bring 𝜎𝜎𝑃𝑃 down by max of 5.56%.
i. Discussion on
Efficient Frontier and selection of Optimal Portfolio
Capital allocation Line (CAL)
Capital Market Line (CML)
Security Market Line (SML)
Characteristic Line (CL)
...................................................................... 87 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
6. The following table provides the historical returns on the Sensex and the stock of
Infosys for the last 5 years –
Period Return on Sensex Return on Infosys
1 12% 16%
2 8% 6%
3 15% 20%
4 25% 35%
5 30% 50%
Find out the characteristic line for the stock and interpret its coefficient.
Ans. Sensex and stock → ∴ Sharpe’s theory
Year Sensex (X) Return(Y)
1 12 16
2 8 6
3 15 20
4 25 35
5 30 50
90 127
CL given by,
Re = α + βX
COVXY
β =
σ2X
α = y - βx = 25.4 – 1.86 × 18 = -8.08%
COVXY = ∑ (x - x) (y - y) =
125.8% 2
= 1.86
n 67.6% 2
σ x 2
=
∑ (x - x)2 = 67.6%2
n
x =
∑x =
90
= 18%
n 5
y =
∑ y = 127 = 25.4%
n 5
Year X Y (x - x) (x - x)2 (y - y) (x - x) (y - y)
1 12 16 -6 36 -9.4 56.4
2 8 6 -10 100 -19.4 194
3 15 20 -3 9 -5.4 16.2
4 25 35 +7 49 9.6 67.2
5 30 50 +12 144 24.6 295.2
2
6 338% 629.3%2
...................................................................... 88 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
• Computation Of Portfolio Beta
Beta of portfolio will always be a weighted average, where weights are proportionate to
amount invested in a particular category of stocks.
βp =
∑ Wiβi
∑ Wi
8. Given the risk free rate is 10% and the expected return on the market portfolio is
15%. The following are the expected returns for five stocks with their betas:
Stock Expected return (%) Expected beta
A 19 1.5
B 15 0.9
C 17 1.25
D 24.5 0.75
E 25 1.40
Based on this expectation, find out the stocks that are overvalued and
undervalued?
Ans. Rf = 10%, Rm = 15%
...................................................................... 89 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
Stock E(r) Rf + (Rm - Rf)β
A 19 10 + 5(1.5) = 17.5
B 15 10 + 5(0.9) = 14.5
C 17 10 + 5(1.25) = 16.25
D 24.5 10 + 5(0.75) = 13.75
E 25 10 + 5(1.40) = 17
Hence, all the stocks are undervalued because Expected Return > CAPM Return.
...................................................................... 90 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
484 = 392.04 + σ2eA
∴ σ2eA = 91.96%2
σeA = 91.96% 2 = 9.59%
σB 30
b. βB = rBX × = 0.7 × = 2.1
σX 10
∴ σ2eB = σ2B – β2Bσ2X
σ2eB = (30)2 – (2.1)2(10)2
= 459%2
σeB = 459% 2 = 21.42%
σC 25
c. βC = rCX × =1× = 2.5
σX 10
∴ σ2eC = σ2C - β2Cσ2X
σ2eC = (25)2 - (2.5)2(10)2
=0
σeC = 0
• Computation of Covariance between two stocks with the help of Beta of two stocks.
If we know the Beta of two stocks, we can compute the covariance between two stocks
COVAB = β AβBσ 2 X
10. A study by a Mutual fund has revealed the following data in respect of three
securities:
Security δ (%) Correlation with Index, Pm
A 20 0.60
B 18 0.95
C 12 0.75
The standard deviation of market portfolio (SSE Sensex) is observed to be 15%.
i. What is the sensitivity of returns of each stock with respect to the market?
ii. What are the co variances among the various stocks?
iii. What would be the risk of portfolio consisting of all the three stocks equally?
iv. What is the beta of the portfolio consisting of equal investment in each stock?
v. What is the total systematic and unsystematic risk of the portfolio in (iv)?
Ans.
σA 20
a. βA = rAX × = 0.60 × = 0.80
σX 15
σB 18
βB = rBX × = 0.95 × = 1.14
σX 15
σC 12
βC = rCX × = 0.75 × = 0.60
σX 15
...................................................................... 91 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
b. COVAB = βA × βB × σ2X = 0.80 × 1.14 × (15)2 = 205.2%2
COVAC = βA × βc × σ2X = 0.80 × 0.60 × (15)2 = 108%2
COVBC = βB × βc × σ2X = 1.14 × 0.6 × (15)2 = 153.9%2
2
1 1 1
c. σP = 2 2 2
[(20) + (18) + (12) ] + 2 × × [205.2 + 108 + 153.9]
3 3 3
σP = 14.15 %
e. σ2P = β2 Pσ 2 X + σ e2 P
...................................................................... 92 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
200 × 0.5 + 200 × 2 + 100 × 3
→ New βp =
500
= 1.6
New Rp = 6 + (14 - 6)1.6
= 18.8%
` 5,000L ` 6,500L
Βp =
∑ Wiβi = ` 6,500L
= 1.30
∑ Wi ` 5,000L
2. 0.91 = β rf × Wrf + β p × Wp
0.91 = (1 - Wp ) × 0 + 1.30 Wp
∴ Wp = 0.70
Wrf = 0.30
...................................................................... 93 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
∴ Amount of risk free securities to be acquired
= ` 5,000L × 0.30
= ` 1,500L
3.
Stocks Wi Amount to be disposed MPS No of
stocks
A 30% 1,500 × 30% = 450L 500 90,000
B 60% 1,500L × 60% = 900L 750 1,20,000
C 10% 1500L × 10% = 150L 250 60,000
` 1,500L
4. Vp = ` 5,000L
βT = 0.91
βp = 1.30
βF =1
Lot 200
Futures price = ` 8,125
Vp[βT - βP ]
No of lots =
βF × lot × futures price
5000L [0.91 - 1.30]
=
1 × 200 × 8125
= - 120 lots
5. If nifty ↑ by 2%
Cash market gain = ` 5,000 × 1.30 × 2% = ` 1,30L
In future market
Sell = ` 8,125
Buy = 8,125 + 2% = ` 8,287.5
= (8,125 – 8,287.5) × 120 lots × 200
= (` 39L)
∴ 130L - 39L = ` 91L
` 91L
∴ % of portfolio = × 100 = 1.82 %
` 5,000L
% Δ in portfolio
Beta =
% Δ in market
1.82%
= = 0.91
2%
...................................................................... 94 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
B. Arbitrage Pricing Theory By Stephen Ross (APT)
Re = Rf + RP1F1 + RP2F2 + RP3F3 + RP4F4 + ……… + RPnFn
13. Mr. Tamarind intends to invest in equity shares of a company the value of which
depends upon various parameters as mentioned below :
Factor Beta Expected value in % Actual value in %
GNP 1.20 7.70 7.70
Inflation 1.75 5.50 7.00
Interest Rate 1.30 7.75 9.00
Stock market index 1.70 10.00 12.00
If the risk free rate of interest be 9.25%, how much is the return of the share under
Arbitrage Pricing Theory?
Ans. RP = 9.25 + (7.7 - 7.7) × 1.2 + (7 - 5.50) × 1.75 + (9 - 7.75) × 1.30 + (12 - 10) × 1.70
RP = 16.9%
14. The expected return on equity shares in an economy is affected by four factors i.e.
change in GDP growth, change in oil prices, change in monsoon and change in
Book value. Assume the Rf to be 10%. The values of these factors are as follows:
Macro factors Value of Macro factor
Change in GDP 6%
Change in Oil Prices -2%
Change in Monsoon 3%
Change in Book Value 10%
Given the following factor sensitivities of the equity shares of four companies, find the
expected return on equity shares of each company.
Factor Factor Sensitivity
Madhav Keshav Krishna Damodar
Ltd. Ltd. Ltd. Ltd.
Change in GDP 1.50 2.00 0.50 0.20
Change in Oil prices -1.00 -0.05 -0.10 -0.90
Change in Monsoon 0.2 0.5 2.00 1.50
Change in Book Value 0.25 0.50 0.65 0.55
Murari had ` 1,00,000 to invest. He borrowed 100 shares of Damodar Ltd. and sold
these at the rate of ` 500. He invested Rs. 1,50,000 in the equity shares of other three
companies. Find the expected return of the portfolio.
Ans. ReA = 10 + 6 × 1.5 + (-2) - 1 + 3(0.20) + 10 (0.25) = 24%
ReB = 10 + 6 × 2 + (-2) - 0.05 + 3(0.50) + 10 (0.50) = 28.6%
ReC = 10 + 6 × 0.5 + (-2) - 0.10 + 3(2) + 10 (0.65) = 25.7%
ReD = 10 + 6 × 0.20 + (-2) - 0.90 + 3(1.50) + 10 (0.55) = 23%
...................................................................... 95 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
+50,000
WA = = + 0.50
+150,000 - 50,000
+50,000
WB = = + 0.50
+150,000 - 50,000
+50,000
WC = = + 0.50
+150,000 - 50,000
-50,000
WD = = - 0.50
+150,000 - 50,000
Rp = (0.5 × 24.1) + (0.5 × 28.6) + (0.5 × 25.7) + (-0.5 × 23) = 27.7%
You are required to test the weak form of efficient market hypothesis by applying the
run test at 5% and 10% level of significance. Following value can be used: Value of t at
5% is 2.101 at 18 degrees of freedom. Value of t at 10% is 1.734 at 18 degrees of
freedom. Value of t at 5% is 2.086 at 20 degrees of freedom. Value of t at 10% is 1.725
at 20 degrees of freedom.
Ans.
2800 3300 +
2780 - 3450 +
2795 + 3360 -
2830 + 3290 -
2760 - 3360 +
2790 + 3340 -
2880 + 3290 -
...................................................................... 96 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT SFT
2960 + 3240 -
2990 + 3140 -
3200 + 3260 +
No. of runs =8
No. of positive changes = n1 = 11
No. of negative changes = n2 = 8
2n1n 2
µ = +1
n1 + n 2
2 × 11 × 8
µ = +1
11 + 8
µ = 10.26
2n1n 2 (2n1 n 2 - n1 - n 2 )
σ =
(n1 + n 2 ) 2 (n1 + n 2 -1)
2 × 11 × 8[(2 × 11 × 8) - 11 - 8]
σ =
(11 + 8 - 1)
σ = 2.06
df = n1 + n2 – 1 = 11 + 8 – 1 = 18 df
At 5% significance,
Upper limit = µ + t × σ = 10.26 + 2.101 × 2.06 = 14.59
Lower limit = µ - t × σ = 10.26 – 2.101 × 2.06 = 5.93
At 10% significance,
Upper limit = µ + t × σ = 10.26 + 1.734 × 2.06 = 13.83
Lower limit = µ - t × σ = 10.26 – 1.734 × 2.06 = 6.69
Since our runs = 8 lies between the upper and lower limit, both at 5% and 10% significance,
the market is weak form efficient and no one has tried to bias.
5. PORTFOLIO REBALANCING
16. Indira has a fund of Rs. 3 lacs which she wants target to invest in share market
with rebalancing target after every 10 days to start with for a period of one month
from now. The present nifty is 5326. The minimum nifty within a month can at
most be 4793.4. She wants to know she should rebalance the portfolio under the
...................................................................... 97 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
following situations according to the theory of Constant Proportion Portfolio
Insurance policy using 2 as multiplier.
Immediately to start with :
• 10 days later being the first day of rebalancing if Nifty falls to 5122.96
• 10 days further from the above date if the Nifty touches to 5539.04.
For the sake of simplicity, assume that the value of her equity component will
change in tandem with that of nifty and the risk free securities in which she is
going to invest will have no beta.
Ans.
a. Immediately to start with
When Nifty 5326 ⟶ Portfolio = ` 3,00,000
` 3, 00, 000
If Nifty 4793.4 ⟶ Portfolio = × 4793.4 = ` 2,70,000
5,326
Our Floor Value = ` 2,70,000
As Per CPPI, Investment in stocks = (Portfolio – Floor) × Multiplier (m)
= (3,00,000 – 2,70,000) × 2
= ` 60,000
Stock Balance = ` 60,000
Cash Balance = ` 3,00,000 – ` 60,000 = ` 2,40,000
...................................................................... 98 ..............................................................
KHETAN EDUCATION MUTUAL FUNDS
MUTUAL FUNDS
INTRODUCTION:
A Mutual Fund is an organisation in the form of a ‘Trust’ which pools the savings of the
investors to invest in the capital market in a variety of securities. The returns earned on
the investment are distributed among unit holders in proportion of their holding.
...................................................................... 99 ..............................................................
SFM EXPRESS KHETAN EDUCATION
1. A has invested in three Mutual fund schemes as per details below:
MF A MFB MFC
Date of investment 01.12.03 01.01.04 01.03.04
Amount of investment ` 50,000 ` 1,00,000 ` 50,000
Net Asset Value (NAV) at entry date ` 10.50 ` 10.0 `10.0
Dividend received up to 31.03.04 ` 950 ` 1,500 Nil
NAV as on 31.03.04 ` 10.40 ` 10.10 ` 9.80
Required: What is the effective yield on per annum basis in respect of each of the
three schemes to Mr. A up to 31.03.04?
Ans.
A. FOR MF A:
Amount = ` 50,000 NAV0 = ` 10.50
` 50,000
No. of Units = = 4,761.90 Units
` 10.50
Dividend = ` 950
` 950
Dividend/Unit = = ` 0.20/unit
4, 761.90
0.20 + 10.40 - 10.50
Return (4months) = × 100 = 0.95%
10.50
Annual Return = 0.95% × 3 = 2.85% p.a.
Or,
Effective Annual Return = [(1+ 0.95%)3 – 1] × 100 = 2.88% p.a.
B. FOR MF B:
Date of investment = 01.01.04
Maturity = 3 months
Amount invested = ` 1,00,000 NAV0 = ` 10
` 1,00,000
No. of Units = = 10,000 Units
` 10
Dividend = ` 1,500
` 1, 500
Dividend/ Unit = = ` 0.15/Unit
10, 000
0.15 + 10.10 - 10
Return (3months) = × 100 = 2.5%
10
Annual Return = 2.5% × 4 = 10% p.a.
Or,
Effective Annual Return = [(1+ 2.5%)4 – 1] × 100 = 10.38% p.a.
2. Sun Moon Mutual Fund ( approved mutual fund) sponsored open-ended equity
oriented scheme “Chanakya opportunity Fund”. There were three plans – ‘A’ –
Dividend Re-investment Plan, ‘B’- Bonus Plan and ‘C’- Growth plan. At the time
of Initial offer on 1.4.1995, Mr. Anand, Mr. Charu and Mr. Bachhan, three
investors invested ` 1,00,000 each and chose ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘A’ plan respectively.
The history of the fund is as follows:
Net Asset value per unit
Date Dividend % Bonus Plan A Plan B Plan C
28.07.1999 20 -- 30.70 31.40 33.42
31.03.2000 70 5:4 58.4 31.05 70.05
31.10.2003 40 -- 42.18 25.02 56.15
15.03.2004 25 -- 44.45 29.10 64.28
31.03.2004 -- 1:3 42.18 20.05 60.12
24.03.2005 40 1:4 48.10 19.95 72.40
31.07.2005 -- -- 53.75 22.98 82.07
On 31st July all three investors redeemed all the balance units. Calculate the
annual rate of return of each of the investors.
Consider:
a. Long term Capital gain is exempt from Income tax.
b. Short term capital gain is subject to 10% income tax.
c. STT = 0.2% only on sale/ redemption of units.
d. Ignore Education Cess.
4. There are two Mutual Funds viz. D Mutual Fund Ltd. and K Mutual Fund Ltd.
each having close ended equity schemes. NAV as on 31-12-2014 of equity schemes
of D Mutual Fund Ltd. is ` 70.71 (consisting 99% equity and remaining cash
balance) and that of K Mutual Fund Ltd. is 62.50 (consisting 96% equity and
balance in cash). Following is the other information:
Particular Equity Schemes
D Mutual Fund Ltd. K Mutual Fund Ltd.
Sharpe Ratio 2 3.3
Treynor’s Ratio 15 15
Standard deviation 11.25 5
There is no change in portfolios during the next month and annual average cost is
` 3 per unit for the schemes of both the Mutual Funds. If Share Market goes down
by 5% within a month, calculate expected NAV after a month for the schemes of
both the Mutual Funds. For calculation, consider 12 months in a year and ignore
number of days for particular month.
Ans. Mutual Fund Performance
Rp - Rf
Sharpe’s measure :
σP
Rp - Rf
Treynor’s measure :
βP
In order to compute the closing NAV, we need to bifurcate the equity and cash
component so that the equity can be marked to market as equity would fluctuate and
cash would remain constant.
Post ↓ 5% in market
D MF ↓ 5% × 1.5 = 7.5%
Equity value = ` 70 – 7.5% = ` 64.75
NAV Closing
Equity = ` 64.75
+ Cash = ` 0.71
- Expenses = (` 0.25) (` 3.0 ÷ 12)
= ` 65.21
b. For MF K Ltd.
Decomposition of NAV
NAV on 31.12.14: ` 62.50
% Equity = 96%
Equity component = ` 60
Cash component: ` 2.50
Computation of Beta
Rp - Rf
Sharpe Ratio =
σP
Rp - Rf
3.3 =
5
NAV Closing
Equity = ` 56.70
+ Cash = ` 2.50
-Expenses = (` 0.25) (` 3.0 ÷ 12)
= ` 58.95
5. Govind invested ` 1,000 in a mutual fund the entry load of which is 2.25%. He got
50 units. What is the NAV at the time of investment? His investment time horizon
is 6 months. The mutual fund charges exit load of 0.50% if the redemptions is done
on or after the 6 months but on or before 1 year. What is annualized return to the
investor if he gets his investment redeemed on expiry of 6 months assuming that
NAV at that time is ` 25 per unit.
Ans. Amount = ` 1000
Entry load = 2.25%
No. of units = 50 units
` 1, 000
⇒ Cost or buy price = = ` 20
` 50
Buy price = NAV0 (1 + Entry load)
` 20 = NAV0 (1 + 2.25%)
NAV0 = ` 19.56
Closing NAV = ` 25 (given)
Sell price/ exit price = 25 – 0.50% = ` 24.875
Closing amount = 24.875 × 50 units = ` 1,243.75
1,243.75 - 1,000
6m return = × 100 = 24.375% for 6m
1,000
Annual return = 24.375 × 2 = 48.75%
ii. Horizontal Merger : When a merger takes place within the industry in order to
increase the market share, it is called Horizontal Merger.
iii. Conglomerate Merger : When the merger takes place between two unrelated
companies, it is known as Conglomerate Merger.
4. BENEFITS OF MERGER :
i. Savings in cost
ii. Economies of scale
iii. Increase in Market share
iv. Tax Benefits – A loss making but fundamentally strong company can be acquired in
order to reduce the tax bill.
NOTE: If P/E Ratio of Combination is provided, we use the same for computing value of
the Merged firm . If it’s not provided, then P/E Ratio of Acquirer.
VA + VB
iv. Post Merger MPS (Without Synergy) =
N A + N B × ER
VA = Market cap of ‘A’ = MPSA × NA
VB = Market cap of ‘B’ = MPSA × NB
VA + VB + Synergy in earnings
v. Post Merger MPS (with Synergy) =
N A + N B × ER
NOTE: The No. of shares of A (Acquirer), before and after, remains the same.
But the No. of shares of B (Target), before and after, does not remain the same.
∴ Before Merger, it is ‘NB’ but after Merger it is ‘NB × ER’
3. Vishakha Ltd is considering the acquisition of Parthasarthy Ltd. The values of the
two firms as separate entities are ` 11m and ` 5m respectively. The combined
business will result in cash synergy gain ` 0.70m annually for perpetuity. The cost
of capital is 10%. The purchase consideration can be paid either in cash ` 14m or
48% of post merger shares of Vishakha Ltd.
(i) What is the gain from the merger?
(ii) What is the cost of cash offer?
(iii) What is the cost of the stock alternative?
(iv) Which alternative would you recommend?
Ans. VA = ` 11m
VB = ` 5m
Synergy gain p.a. (perpetuity) = ` 0.70m. ; Ke = 10%
` 0.70m D
→ Value of synergy = = ` 7m = 1
10% ke
i. Gain from merger = VAB – VA- VB = ` 7m
4. The share capital of Companies X and Y consist of 75,000 shares of ` 100/- each
and 25,000 shares of ` 100/- each respectively. Company X plans to make an
acquisition of Y Ltd. By exchange of 4 shares for every 5 shares in Y Ltd. The cost
of equity for X, Y and combined entity XY Ltd. are 15%, 16% and 14%
respectively.
• Value in gc:
CF6 CF5 (1 + gc) 19(1.05)
VOF5 = = = = ` 199.5 L
K e - gc K e - gc 15% - 5%
PV of VOF5 @ t =0
199.5
= = `199.5 L × 0.497 = ` 99.1515 L
(1.15)5
∴ Value of X (Vx) = ` 56.071 L+ ` 99.1515 L = ` 155.2225 L
155.2225L
∴ MPSx = = ` 206.96
0.75L
• Value in gc
CF6 CF5 (1 + gc) 8(1.05)
VOF5 = = = = ` 76.36 L
K e - gc K e - gc 16% - 5%
PV of VOF5 @ t = 0
76.36
= = ` 36.35 L
(1.16)5
• Value in gc
CF6 CF5 (1 + gc) 28(1.05)
VOF5 = = = = ` 326.67 L
K e - gc K e - gc 14% - 5%
PV of VOF5 @ = 0
326.67
= = `169.54 L
(1.14)5
∴ Value of X & Y (VXY) = ` 169.54 L + ` 80.582 L = ` 250.12L
` 250.12L
ii. Post Merger MPS =
0.75 + 0.25 × 4.5/5
= ` 256.53
X Y
Wealth before ` 206.96 ` 220.12
Wealth after ` 256.53 ` 256.53 ×
4.5/5
` 49.70 ` 10.86
5. Bank 'R' was established in 2005 and doing banking in India. The bank is facing
DO OR DIE Situation. There are problems of Gross NPA (Non Performing Assets)
at 40% & CAR/CRAR (Capital Adequacy Ratio/ Capital Risk Weight Asset Ratio)
at 4%. The net worth of the bank is not good. Shares are not traded regularly. Last
week, it was traded @ ` 8 per share.
RBI Audit suggested that bank has either to liquidate or to merge with other bank.
Bank 'P' is professionally managed bank with low gross NPA of 5%.It has Net
NPA as 0% and CAR at 16%. Its share is quoted in the market @ ` 128 per share.
The board of directors of bank 'P' has submitted a proposal to RBI for take over
of bank 'R' on the basis of share exchange ratio. The Balance Sheet details of both
the banks are as follows:
It was decided to issue shares at Book Value of Bank 'P' to the shareholders of
Bank 'R'. All assets and liabilities are to be taken over at Book Value.
For the swap ratio, weights assigned to different parameters are as follows:
Gross NPA 30% CAR 20%
Market price 40% Book value 10%
(a) What is the swap ratio based on above weights?
(b) How many shares are to be issued?
(c) Prepare Balance Sheet after merger.
(d) Calculate CAR & Gross NPA % of Bank 'P' after merger.
Ans.
(a) COMPUTATION OF SWAP RATIO
GNPA P 5
Gross NPA = = = 0.125
GNPA R 40
CAR R 4
CAR = = = 0.25
CAR P 16
MPSR 8
Market Price = = = 0.0625
MPSP 128
Total Book value 140 + 70
WN: BVPSR = = = ` 15
No. of shares 14
Rs.140L
No. of shares of R = = 14L
Rs.10
500 + 5500
BVPSP = = ` 120
50
Capital Reserves
= ` (140 – 17.5) L + ` 70 L = ` 192.5 L
Balance sheet
Liability Amt (`) Asset Amt (`)
Paid up capital 517.50 Cash in hand and with RBI 2,900
Reserves and surplus 5,500.00 Balance with other banks 2,000
Capital reserves 192.50 Investments 16,100
Deposits 44,000.00 Advances 30,500
Other liabilities 3,390.00 Other assets 2,100
53,600.00 53,600
Total capital
(d) CAR =
Risk weighted assets
Gross NPA
GNPA =
Advances
6, 210
∴ Combined CAR (After merger) = × 100 = 14.53%
42, 750
2, 750L
∴ Combined GNPA % = × 100 = 9.02%
30,500L
INTRODUCTION:
Eg : Suppose a fund manager holds a portfolio of $ 1,00,000 and he wants to know what
would be the maximum loss in a day and assume by some statistical method, he comes to
know that his 5% VAR for a day = $12,500.
It means:
⟶ We are 95% confident that the losses will not exceed $ 12,500 in a single day.
⟶ There is a 5% chance that portfolio losses will be $ 12,500 or more.
VAR Definition:
a. VAR is the Dollar/ Percentage loss to the portfolio value that will be equalled or
exceeded x% of the time.
b. We can calculate 1%, 5% and 10% VAR and it can be given as VAR(1%), VAR(5%)
and VAR (10%).
c. A VAR (1%) of $15,000 indicates that there is 1% chance that on any given day, the
portfolio could experience a loss of $ 15,000 or more.
VAR CALCULATION
VAR can be computed by three methods:
• Delta Normal Method
• Monte Carlo Simulation
• Historical simulation
NOTE: In our curriculum we are supposed to focus on’ Delta Normal Method’ on the
basis of syllabus provided by ICAI.
VAR Conversion:
Eg: Assume the daily VAR(5%) on dollar basis of a particular asset to be $17,000. Compute
the weekly (5days), Monthly (20days), Semi annual (125 days) and Annual (250 days).
⟶ Weekly VAR = $17,000 × √5
⟶ Monthly VAR = $17,000 × √20
⟶ Semi-Annually VAR = $17,000 × √125
⟶ Annual VAR = $17,000 × √250
1. A Fund is long on 250 shares trading at ` 50 each. Find out 95% daily VAR given
annual volatility = 12% p.a.
Ans. VAR = x × σ × z
X = Amount on which we intend to compute VAR
σ = Standard deviation
z = Corresponding z factor for VAR %
Annual VAR = (` 50 × 250) × 1.65 × 12% = ` 2,475
` 2475
Daily VAR = = ` 156.55
250
Or,
12%
Daily VAR = (` 50 × 250) × 1.65 × = ` 156.75
250
2. Consider the data in the first sum. A person has a long call position on 250 shares.
Given N(d1) = 0.5948 .
Find out 95% daily VAR on call.
Ans. Delta of Call = N(d1)
+
‘Long Call’(C ) on 250 shares = No. of calls × Delta of call
= Long stock position = 250 × 0.5948
= 148.7 Shares or 149 shares approx.
3. A portfolio contains ` 10,000 worth of stocks A and ` 6000 worth of stock B. The
annual Volatilities of stock A and B are 12% and 16% respectively. The coefficient
of correlation is 0.4.
a. Calculate the 95% quarterly VAR for stock A position.
b. Calculate the 95% quarterly VAR for stock B position.
c. Calculate the combined VAR.
Ans.
a. VAR on long stock position for A = x × σ × z
0.12
= ` 10,000 × × 62.5 × 1.65 = ` 990
250
b. VAR on long stock position for B = x × σ × z
0.16
= ` 6,000 × × √62.5 × 1.65 = ` 792.43
250
c. Combined VAR Computation.
σP = W 2 Aσ 2 A + W 2 Bσ 2 B + 2 × WA × WB × rAB × σ A × σ B
4. An Indian firm has $ 20,000 payable after two months. The spot rate is ` 50.00/$.
Annualised volatility = 10%. Dollar Interest Rate of 6% p.a. Find out the 95%
daily VAR.
Ans. Since the sum provides spot for today, whereas payable is standing at the end of 2nd
month, we need to compute 2 months PV for $ 20,000 @ 6% p.a.
1
PV = $ 20,000 × = $ 19,802
2
1 + 0.06 ×
12
10%
∴ VAR = ($ 19,802 × ` 50/$) × × 1.65 = ` 10,333.11
250