What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount

of time? Precipitate
What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes? Enzymes
What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical processes? activation energy
What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules? Density
Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants. Physical change
In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the
molecule? Answer : nonpolar
What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds? Reactivity
Fill in the blank: The ______
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer: physical
What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the
opposite sides of the molecule? answer: polar covalent compound
What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms? covalent bond
What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant
Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding.
answer:polar covalent bonding
_____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer. Polar
What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants? Answer :chemical change
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular
compound
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen
atom
19. Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds
20. Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties
21. What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound
22. Covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23. Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer: Intermolecular force
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
answer: malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ______

type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between
the atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound
Short Quiz 8:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun
Answer: ANNUAL MOTION
2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion
Answer: ZODIAC
3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe
Answer: EARTH
4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system
Answer: SUN
5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion
Answer: ROTATION
6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator
Answer: EQUINOX
7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths
Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR
8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes
Answer: GRAVITY
9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth
Answer: REVOLUTION
10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies
Answer: DIURNAL MOTION
Learning Activity 8 (Physics)
Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis
Answer:
Axial precession
Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis
Answer:
diurnal motion
Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model
Answer:
Earth
Motion of the Earth around the sun
Answer:
revolution
Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion
Answer:
rotation
Long Quiz 3:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus.
Answer: SUN
2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun.
Answer: PERIHELION
3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes.
Answer: GRAVITY
4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law.
Answer: ELLIPSE

5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model.

Answer: EARTH
6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths.
Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR
7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer
Answer: SIRIUS
8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its
user’s location.
Answer: ASTROLABE
9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe.
Answer: TYCHONIC
10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe
models.
Anwer: TYCHONIC
11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
Answer: ANNUAL MOTION
12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus.
Answer: CARACOL
13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion?
Answer: ZODIAC
15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator?
Answer: EQUINOX
16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe?
Answer: EARTH
18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy?
Answer: EARTH
19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system?
Answer: SUN
20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler?
Answer: AREA SPEED
21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in
history?
Answer: HALLEY’S COMET
23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis?
Answer: DIURNAL MOTION
24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an
astronomical body’s rotational axis?
Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION
26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered?
Answer: COPERNICAN
27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies?
Answer: DIURNAL MOTION
28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major
axis of its orbit?
Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD

29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit
Answer: FOCAL POINT
30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered?
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
Learning Activity 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location
Answer: ASTROLABE
2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe
Answer: TYCHONIC
3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus
Answer: CARACOL
4. Earth-centered system of the universe
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
5. Sun-centered system of the universe
Answer: COPERNICAN
Short Quiz 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus
Answer: SUN
2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy
Answer: EARTH
3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model
Answer: TYCHONIC
4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler
Answer: AREA SPEED
5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun
Answer: PERIHELION
6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws
Answer: FOCAL POINT
7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history
Answer: HALLEY’S COMET
8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD
9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law
Answer: ELLIPSE
10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer
Answer: SIRIUS
Learning Activity 10:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum
Answer: ACCELERATION
2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body
Answer: ACCELERATION
3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force
Answer: REACTION
4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle
Answer: FORCE
5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion
Answer: INERTIA
Short Quiz 10:PHYSC
Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced
force to the body.
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice?
Answer:
ONE SACK OF RICE
This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are.
Answer:
LAW OF INTERACTION
Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet?
Answer:
CABINET
This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force
that it experiences.
Answer:
LAW OF ACCELERATION
Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an
unbalanced force acts upon it?
Answer:
LAW OF INERTIA
If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the
reaction force?
Answer:
WALL
What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving?
Answer:
INERTIA
What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum?
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat?
Answer:
cats
Learning Activity 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it
Answer: VELOCITY
2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration
Answer: MASS
3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE
4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations
Answer: LAW
5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident
Answer: AXIOM
Short Quiz 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions.
Answer: FORCE
2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the
ground.
Answer: EQUAL

3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases?

Answer: FORCE
4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body.
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations.
Answer: LAW
6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence?
Answer: AXIOM
7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems?
Answer: TRANSFORMED
8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive?
Answer: INCREASES
9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies
increase?
Answer: DECREASES
10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body?
Answer: MASS
Short Quiz 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?:
Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic; Energy
Answer: Momentum
2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum;
Mass; Velocity; Energy
Answer: Velocity
3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass;
Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic
Answer: Mass
4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force;
Inelastic; Mass; Momentum
Answer: Energy
5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum;
Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic
Answer: Momentum
6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force;
Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum
Answer: Energy
7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic;
Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass
Answer: Momentum
8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding:
Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy; Velocity
Answer: Inelastic
9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the
collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force; Energy; Inelastic
Answer: Elastic
10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle?
Answer: BICYCLE
Learning Activity 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies
Answer: INELASTIC
2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide

Answer: ENERGY
3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies
Answer: ENERGY
4. Quantity conserved in any collision
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision
Answer: ELASTIC
Short Quiz 13:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?:
Absorption; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal; Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon;
Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion
Answer: Speed
2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror;
Photon; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed; Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption;
Refraction; Latitudinal
Answer: Energy
3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.:
Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal; Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of
Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse
Answer: Wavelength
4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron; Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion;
Wavelength; Speed
Answer: Photon
5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron;
Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of Refraction; Transverse; Absorption;
Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy
Answer: Index of Refraction
6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon;
Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal;
Index of Refraction; Refraction
Answer: Absorption
7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal;
Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy
Answer: Longitudinal
8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion; Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction;
Energy; Longitudinal
Answer: Mirror
9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction;
Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal
Answer: Transverse
10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction;
Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron; Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed;
Wavelength
Answer: Transverse
--ccto
Learning Activity 13: PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light
Answer: LENS

2. Particle of light that carries its energy

Answer: PHOTON
3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle
Answer: STRAIGHT LINE
4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules
Answer: TRANSVERSE
5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum
Answer: LONGITUDINAL
Learning Activity 14:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow
Answer: DIFFRACTION
2. Deflection of light along its path
Answer: SCATTERING
3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up
Answer: INTERFERENCE
4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors
Answer: DISPERSION
5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you
Answer: CONCAVE
Short Quiz 14:PHYSC
What exists between two charges in space?
Select one:
- Electrostatic force
This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism.
Select one:
-Dispersion
This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object.
Select one:
-Convex
What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays?
Select one:
-Mirage
According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field?
Select one:
- Induced voltage
What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the
speed of an electron at the same time?
Select one:
-Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle?
Select one:
- Electron clouds
What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner?
Select one:
-Concave
What can electric current produce along a wire?
Select one:
- Magnetic field
What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray?
Select one:
- Dispersion
Learning Activity 15:PHYSC

c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating
sparks.: True; False
Answer: False
2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency
signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital converter
Answer: charged-couple device
3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.:
Impedance meter; Communication service monitor
Answer: Communication service monitor
4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction
take place?: in the oscillator; receiving end
Answer: receiving end
5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a
discrete time signal?
Answer: Sampling
Short Quiz 15:PHYSC
Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the
secondary gap that is between points A and B in the image.
Select one:
- True
According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing
wave within the wire.
Select one:
- True
When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean?
Select one:
- Power exceeds 120 percent of the range
What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and")
Answer:
-Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode
In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio
waves.
Select one:
-True
If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the
disturbance is most likely
Select one:
- External to the radio
What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers
with the word "and")
Answer: -Gamma rays AND neutrons
Who discovered radio waves?
Answer:
-Heinrich Hertz
What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and
generates a serial pattern?-48-bit transmitter only
Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil.
Select one:
-True

Short Quiz 16:PHYSC

c-Joshua Ardeza
1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a
definite velocity that is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body
Answer: True
2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence
of a physical aether.: True; False
Answer: True
3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False
Answer: True
4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical
language of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False
Answer: True
5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum
velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much
space is occupied
Answer: How much space is occupied
7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves;
Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle.
Answer: General relativity
9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects.
Answer: Cosmic distance ladder
10. Known as the “dwarf planet”
Answer: Pluto
L.A 16:PHYSC
Vibrations
Select one:
- Can sometimes be sensed
Special relativity is a theory.
Select one:
- True
States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its
acceleration.
Select one:
-Newton's Second Law of Motion
According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall
depends only on its position and initial speed.
Answer:
-Newton's Law of Gravity
Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring
force of the vibrating object is
Select one:
-
-Opposite to and proportional to a displacement
It is the passage of electromagnetic radiation through a medium.
Select one:

Answer: Transmission
This Kepler's law states that the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal
times as it moves along its orbit.
Select one:
Answer: Second law
Which of Newton's laws states that an object either remains at rest or continuous to move at a
constant velocity, unless acted upon by a force?
Select one:
Answer: First law
Galileo looked at the Sun and found out that it had spots.
Answer: True
Mercury and Venus are never more than 200 and 450, respectively, from the Sun. False
The horizontal rows of elements in the periodic table are called PERIODS
The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins? 15M
The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% HELIUM
The Sun is a STAR
The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was named ______________. DEMOCRITUS
About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element? HYDROGEN
The second most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere is OXYGEN
The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called GROUPS
When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced? X-RAYS
In 1869, a major event in the history of chemistry occurred; it was the DEVELOPMENT OF THE PERIODIC TABLE
Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen Because it had the simplest atom
When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a RED GIANT
When the absolute magnitudes, or brightnesses, of stars are plotted against their surface temperatures or colors, we obtain a Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram
What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun? 6000K
Wilhelm Roentgen discovered X-RAYS
The planetary model of the atom is associated with BOHR
The planetary model of the atom is associated with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about “elements”? GREEK
The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with THOMSON
The nuclear model of the atom is associated with RUTHERFORD
Which of these is not a basic idea of Dalton’s atomic theory? There are atoms gained/lost/changed in identity during a chemical reaction.
What is the visible surface of the Sun called? PHOTOSPHERE
Sodium is an example of ELEMENT
Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911? RUTHERFORD
True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold. FALSE
The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest stars were originally ranked as what magnitude? FIRST
In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation? BOYLE
The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 75% HYDROGEN
Who discovered the electron in 1897? THOMSON
The most modern definition of element is a substance in which all the atoms have the same number of protons.
True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound as a whole can be nonpolar. FALSE
He invented the neutron. JAMES CHADWICK
The "billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with DALTON
True or False: When a gas is compressed, its temperature decreases. FALSE
are fixed distances from the nucleus. ENERGY LEVELS
The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these phenomena? LINE SPECTRA
The water solubility of molecular compounds is VARIABLE
The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle. SUNSPOTS
True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmetals. TRUE
The remaining core of a planetary nebula is called a _______________. WHITE DWARF
Aluminum is an example of ELEMENT
This was one of Rutherford's famous experiments where he used a radioactive source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil. GOLD FOIL
EXPERIMENT
True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound as a whole can be nonpolar. FALSE
The planetary model of the atom is associated with BOHR
True or False: Diamond does not melt at all. TRUE
The region where an electron is most likely to be is called an ORBITAL
The majority of stars are small, cool, type-M stars called RED DWARFS
Electrons at the outermost energy level of an atom are called. valence electrons
The ATOMIC MASS of an element is the average mass of all its naturally occurring isotopes.
is a form of carbon that is extremely hard and is one of the few materials that can scratch glass. DIAMOND
What is element 61 called? PROMETHIUM
True or False: The matter in the early universe was not smoothly distributed across space. TRUE
The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% HELIUM
74% of the mass of the Earth's crus is composed of only two elements. What are these? OXYGEN AND SILICON
This consists of fundamental particles called leptons. ELECTRONS
The two types of bright nebulae are emission nebulae and _______________ nebulae. REFLECTION
True or False: Dalton was the first to introduce the idea of the atom. FALSE
The fusion process that explains how hydrogen is fused in hotter stars. CNO CYCLE
The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life cycle. FASTER
True or False: Melting a covalent network solid is accomplished by overcoming the relatively weak intermolecular forces. FALSE
The Sun's energy is generated from the fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form helium nuclei.
True or False: Formaldehyde is a nonpolar compound. FALSE
True or False: Diamond vaporizes to gas at temperatures above 3500 degrees Celsius. TRUE
Thomson referred to negatively charged particles as CORPUSCLES before it became known as electrons.
Who coined the term, "radioactivity"? MARIE CURIE
Matter is DUCTILE if it can be rolled and stretched to long and thin shapes.
True or False: Aluminum is a good conductor of heat. TRUE
True or False: Noble gases almost never react to other substances. TRUE
FLAMMABILITY refers to the ability of matter to burn.
True or False: Sodium can exist by itself. FALSE
AMYLASE is an enzyme found in the mouth and small intestine that helps in the breakdown of starch to sugar.
A CATALYST is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction.
True or False: Platinum has very high density. TRUE
True or False: Salt can conduct electricity in any form. FALSE
True or False: Chemical reactions occur inside living things. TRUE
True or False: Sodium reacts violently with water. TRUE
True or False: The catalyst is a reactant in the chemical reaction it speeds up. FALSE
Catalysts in living things are called ENZYMES
True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles. TRUE
True or False: Silver conducts electricity at minimal circumstances only. FALSE
True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond. FALSE
True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements. FALSE
True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster. TRUE
REACTIVITY is the ability of matter to combine chemically with other substances.
True or False: Density decreases as temperature increases. FALSE
True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding with them. FALSE
True or False: The rate of reaction is faster if the temperature of reactants is higher TRUE
True or False: Substances made of wood are not prone to flammability. FALSE
True or False: Tools made from iron easily rust. TRUE
REACTION RATE refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs.
HARDNESS helps determine how an element might be used.
The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called PRECIPITATE
ACTIVATION energy is the energy needed to start a reaction.
True or False: The Earth's core is is composed of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and about 1% argon. FALSE
The most modern definition of element is a substance in which all the atoms have the same number of protons.
The heaviest elements are created in _______, the fantastic death of supergiant stars. SUPERNOVAE
The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ______________ configurations of the elements. ELECTRON
True or False: High-mass stars eventually evolve into white-dwarves. FALSE
The second most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere is OXYGEN
He defined the word element as a form of matter that could not be split into simpler forms. ROBERT BOYLE
When electrons are not shared equally between two atoms, it is called POLAR COVALENT bonds.
True or False: New stars are born in the Orion nebula. TRUE
Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911? ERNEST RUTHERFORD
True or False: The human body is composed of 65% oxygen & 18% carbon. TRUE

The PERIODIC TABLE puts the elements in order of increasing atomic number, into seven horizontal rows.

is occurring when gas bubbles are released during the reaction. PRODUCTION OF A GAS

refers to the concentration of a substance. DENSITY

refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs. REACTION RATE

Identification: This factor in a reaction rate results from the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules? TEMPERATURE

Identification: Solid formed from the settling of solid particles in a liquid solution. PRECIPITATE

What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms? COVALENT BOND

The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called PRECIPITATE

What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? COVALENT COMPUND

In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? OXYGEN

Identification: What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount of time? PRECIPITATE

Identification: How fast or slow a chemical process takes place. REACTION RATE

What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules? DENSITY

Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. POLAR COVALENT BONDING