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Series SI.No.

:
Code: 4 PAPER CODE : TNTET-2 / MODEL PAPER 2022
Mù£ˆ ªî£°ŠH½œ÷ ð‚èƒèO¡ â‡E‚¬è /
No. of Pages in Question Booklet : 84
1. «î˜¾ ⇠/ Roll No :
(«î˜¾ ÜÂñF Y†®™ àœ÷¶ As in Hall ticket /) 2 2 T E
2. OMR M¬ìˆî£œ ⇠M‡íŠðî£ó«ó GóŠð «õ‡´‹
OMR Answer Sheet No. (To be filled in by the candidate)

*** 3. M‡íŠðî£óK¡ ªðò˜ / Candidate’s Name *** 4. M‡íŠðî£óK¡ ¬èªò£Šð‹ / Candidate’s Signature

*** M‡íŠð ð®õˆF™ GóŠH»œ÷ð® / As given in Application Form /


è‡è£EŠð£÷K¡ ¬èªò£Šð‹ / Invigilator’s Signature

Þ‰î Mù£ˆî£O™ 150 ð™M¬ì õ¬è Mù£‚èœ àœ÷ù. Þ‰î Mù£ˆ ªî£°Šð£ù¶ H¡õ¼‹ 4 ð°Fè¬÷ ªè£‡ì¶. ð°F &
I, II, III ÝAò¬õ 嚪õ£¡Á‹ 30-&30 Mù£‚èœ ªè£‡´œ÷ù. ñŸÁ‹ HK¾ IV 60 Mù£‚è¬÷ ªè£‡´œ÷¶. M‡íŠðî£ó˜
ܬùˆ¶ ð°FèÀ‚°‹ M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹. 嚪õ£¼ Mù£MŸ° å¼ ñFŠªð‡. îõø£ù M¬ìèÀ‚° ñFŠªð‡
°¬ø‚èŠðì ñ£†ì£¶.
There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following Four Parts: Part -I, II &
III of 30-30 questions each and part - IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all parts. Eacha question is of one mark. There is no
negative marketing for wrong answer.
«î˜¾ˆî£œ °Pf´ : TNTET-2
ªñ£ˆî Mù£‚èœ : 150 ÜÂñF‚èŠð†ì è£ô Ü÷¾ : 90 GIìƒèœ ªñ£ˆî ñFŠªð‡èœ : 150
Mù£‚èO¡ Mù£ â‡èœ ð‚è â‡èœ
ð°F àœ÷ì‚è‹ Þ¼‰¶ õ¬ó
â‡E‚¬è Þ¼‰¶ õ¬ó
I °ö‰¬î «ñ‹ð£´ ñŸÁ‹ èŸHˆî™ 30 1 30 3 12
II ªñ£N & I (å«ó å¼ ªñ£N ñ†´‹) 30 31 60
W«ö îóŠð†´œ÷ ªñ£NèO™ Þ¼‰¶
M‡íŠðˆ¬î ̘ˆF ªêŒ»‹ «ð£¶
M‡íŠðî£óó£™ «î˜¾ ªêŒòŠðì «õ‡´‹.
îI› 30 31 60 13 16
ªî½ƒ° 30 31 60 17 20
ñ¬ôò£÷‹ 30 31 60 21 26
è¡ùì‹ 30 31 60 27 30
༶ 30 31 60 31 34
III ªñ£N & I I English / ݃Aô‹ 30 61 90 35 40
IV (HK¾ A) & èEî ÜPMò™ 60 91 150 41 60
(èEî‹, ÞòŸHò™, «õFJò™,
î£õóMò™, MôƒAò™) (èEî‹
ñŸÁ‹ ÜPMò™ ÝCKò˜èÀ‚°
Ü™ô¶
(HK¾ B) & êÍè ÜPMò™ 60 91 150 61 80
(êÍè ÜPMò™ ÝCKò˜)
°PŠ¹ : ð°F IV ™ M‡íŠðî£ó˜ M‡íŠðˆ¬î ̘ˆF ªêŒ»‹ «ð£¶ «î˜‰ªî´ˆîõ£«ø ð°F IV (HK¾ A)
Ü™ô¶ ð°F IV (HK¾ B)‚° M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹. «ñŸÃPò ܆ìõ¬íJ¡ ݃Aô õ®õˆFŸ°
ð‚è‹ 2 ä 𣘂è.
ÞÁFŠ ð‚èñ£ù ð‚è‹ â‡ 48&™ îóŠð†´œ÷ ݃Aô ñŸÁ‹ îI› õN °PŠ¹è¬÷ ð®‚辋.

D1 201 [ Turn over


TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 2

PAPER CODE : TNTET-2


Total question : 150 Time Period : 90 minutes Maximum Marks : 150
No. of Question Nos. Page Nos.
Part Contents From To
Questons From To
I Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30
II Language I (Only One Language) 30 31 60
As selected by the candidate as medium of
instruction in the Application form from the
Language given below:
Tamil 30 31 60
Telugu 30 31 60
Malayalam 30 31 60
Kannada 30 31 60
Urdu 30 31 60
III Language II - English 30 61 90
IV (Section A) Mathematics & Science 60 91 150
(Maths, Physics, Chemistry,
Botony, Zoology)
For Mathematics and
Science Teacher)
OR
(Section B) & Social Science 60 91 150
(For Social Science Teacher)
Note: In part IV, its is compulsary to attempt the question of part IV (Section A) or Part IV (Section B) as selected subject in
Application Form.

Read the instructions in English & Tamil at Page No. 48, Last page of this booklet.

201
3 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

ð°F &I

PART&I
°ö‰¬î «ñ‹ð£´ ñŸÁ‹ èŸHˆî™
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
There are 30 questions in all in this part. All questions are compulsary
ÞŠð°FJ™ 30 Mù£‚èœ àœ÷ù. ܬùˆ¶ Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹.

1. eˆFø¡ ñŸÁ‹ àì™ áùºŸø °ö‰¬îèÀ‚° ÜO‚°‹ è™M


(Ü) º¬øò£ù è™M (Ý) º¬øê£ó£ è™M
(Þ) CøŠ¹‚ è™M (ß) °ö‰¬î‚ è™M
The type of education given to gifted and handicapped children is called
(a) formal education (b) non formal education
(c) special education (d) child education

2. ïìñ£´‹ ðœO â‹ 輈î¬î‚ ÃPòõ˜


(Ü) C«ì£ (Ý) Þò£¡ Lvì˜
(Þ) ªñ‚ªì£ù£™† (ß) â†è˜ «ì™
The concept of mobile schools was put forth by
(a) Cidoe (b) Ian Lister
(c) Mc Donald (d) Edgar Dale

3. âIL â¡ø ¹ˆîèˆF¡ ÝCKò˜


(Ü) Ï«ú£ (Ý) 犫ó£ªð™
(Þ) ñKò£ ñ£‡®«ê£K (ß) ªðvì«ô£C
The book ‘Emile’ was written by
(a) Rousseau (b) Froebel
(c) Maria Montessori (d) Pestalozzi

4. W›‚è‡ìõŸÁœ ⶠ15 õò¶ ñ£íõ˜è¬÷ I辋 õL¬ñò£è á‚°M‚è‚ Ã®ò¶ Ý°‹?


(Ü) ÝCKò˜èœ, ªðK«ò£˜èO¡ ܃Wè£ó‹
(Ý) êñõò¶ êè ñ£íõ˜èO¡ ܃Wè£ó‹
(Þ) õê¾ Ü™ô¶ F†´õ¶
(ß) õ°Š¹ «ïó º®¾‚° Hø° ðœOJ™ GÁˆF ¬õˆî™
Which of the following is most likely to motivate 15 year old boys strongly?
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 4

(a) Teacher and adult-approval (b) Peer approval


(c) Scolding (d) After School detention

5. ®.®.Þ.ݘ.® (DTERT)J¡ MKõ£‚è‹


(Ü) èŸHˆî™ è™M, ÝŒ¾ ñŸÁ‹ ðJŸC ÜO‚°‹ G˜õ£è ܽõôè‹
(Ý) ÝCKò˜ è™M, Ý󣌄C, ðJŸC‚è£ù G˜õ£è ܽõôè‹
(Þ) ªî£¬ôÉó‚ è™M, è™MJò™ Ý󣌄C ñŸÁ‹ ðJŸC
(ß) ªî£¬ôÉó ÝCKò˜‚è£ù è™M ñŸÁ‹ Ý󣌄C ðJŸC
DTERT is expanded as
(a) Directorate of Teaching, Education, Research and Training
(b) Directorate of Teacher Education, Research and Training
(c) Distance Teaching, Educational Research and Training
(d) Distance Teacher Education and Research and Training

6. õ÷˜„C ɇìŠð´õ¶
(Ü) ÝÀ¬ñò£™ (Ý) ï숬îò£™
(Þ) ºF˜„C ªðÁîô£™ (ß) ñù‚°¬øò£™
Development is influenced by
(a) personality (b) behaviour
(c) maturity (d) conflict

7. ¸‡G¬ô‚ èŸHˆî™ â¡ð¶ â¬îŠ ªð£¼ˆî¶


(Ü) ð£ìŠªð£¼œ (Ý) Fø¬ñ
(Þ) «î¬õ (ß) «ïó‹
Microteaching is
(a) Content based (b) Skill based
(c) need based (d) time based

8. ñ£v«ô£M¡ «î¬õèœ ð®G¬ôèÀœ ºî™ð® ............... Ý°‹


(Ü) ð£¶è£Š¹ˆ «î¬õèœ (Ý) Ü®Šð¬ìˆ «î¬õèœ
(Þ) î¡ º¿¬ñ ªðÁ‹ «î¬õèœ (ß) î¡ ñFŠ¹ˆ «î¬õèœ
In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the first level of functioning is
(a) Safety Needs (b) Basic Needs
(c) Self-actualization (d) Self-esteem
5 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

9. ¸‡íP¾ ߬õ‚ èí‚A´õîŸè£ù ňFó‹


(Ü) ñù õò¶ x 100 (Ý) ñù õò¶ x è£ô õò¶
è£ô õò¶ è£ô õò¶ 100
(Þ) è£ô õò¶ x 100 (ß) è£ô õò¶ x 100 - 5
ñù õò¶ ñù õò¶
The formal of calculate intelligence quotient (IQ) is

Mental age Mental age


(a) ×100 (b) × Chronological Age
Chronological Age 100
Chronological Age Chronological Age
(c) ×100 (d) ×100 − 5
Mental Age Mental Age

10. «ó£˜û£‚ ¬ñˆîì «ê£î¬ùJ™ â‰î º¬ø ðò¡ð´ˆîŠð´Aø¶


(Ü) ¹ø«ï£‚° ꣘¹ º¬ø (Ý) ¹ø«îŸÁ ¸‡ º¬ø
(Þ) Üè à혾 ꣘¹ º¬ø (ß) îó Ü÷¾«è£™ º¬ø
Rorschach’s ink blot test is a/an
(a) objective method (b) projective method
(c) subjective method (d) rating scale method

11. ê‹ñ˜ U™ °ö‰¬î õ÷˜ŠH™ å¼ bMó ܵ°º¬ø â‹ ¹ˆî般î â¿Fòõ˜


(Ü) c™ (Ý) Üè£R
(Þ) ªñ‚Iô¡ (ß) ó£ªð˜† æõù
The book Summerhill : A Radical Approach in Child Rearing was written by
a. Neil b. Agazzi
c. Macmillan d. Robert Owen

12. ªêò™ð´ Ý‚è G¬ô¾ÁˆîL™, É‡ì™ - ¶ôƒèL¡ Þ¬ì«òò£ù ªî£ì˜¹ W›è‡ìõŸP¡


õN«ò ªêò™ð´Aø¶
(Ü) Ýòˆî MF (Ý) ðJŸC MF
(Þ) M¬÷¾ MF (ß) ÜN‰¶ «ð£î™ MF
In operant conditioning, association between stimulus response is on the basis of
a. law of readiness b. law of exercise
c. law of effect d. law of extinction
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 6

13. ‘߫裪ê¡P‚’ â‹ èóˆ¶ H¡õ¼õùõŸÁœ å¡P¬ù‚ °P‚Aø¶?


(Ü) ñò‚ 輈¶ (Ý) ²ò õ÷˜„C
(Þ) ²ò ðJŸC (ß) î¡ù‹H‚¬è
The term ‘egocentric’ refers to
a. Self - centred b. Self - development
c. Self practice d. Self - confidence

14. SSA â¬î‚ °P‚Aø¶


(Ü) ê˜õ C‚û£ ÜHò£¡ (Ý) vñ£™ v«è™ Ý‚®M†¯v
(Þ) ªêè¡ìK vÙ ܈î£K†® (ß) ÞõŸP™ ⶾI™¬ô
SSA stands for
a. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan b. Small Scale Activities
c. Secondary School Authority d. None of these

15. õò¶ õ‰«î£˜ è™M‚è£ù ê˜õ«îê‚ êðJ¬ù ܬñˆîõ˜


(Ü) ÏH A† (Ý) «è£H Ýù‰ˆ
(Þ) ꣘†ì˜v (ß) ®†ñv
The International Council for Adult Education was founded by
a. Roby Kidd b. Gob Anand
c. Charters d. titmus

16. ï¡ù숬î¬ò ñ£í£‚èK¬ì«ò à¼õ£‚°«õ£˜


(Ü) êºî£ò‹ (Ý) êÍè‹
(Þ) ªðŸ«ø£˜èœ (ß) ï‡ð˜èœ
Good behavious of the students is shaped by the
a. community b. Society
c. parents d. friends

17. ¸‡G¬ô‚ èŸHˆî™ â¡Â‹ ªê£Ÿªø£ì¬ó ÜPºè‹ ªêŒîõ˜ ò£˜?


(Ü) ®.®.Fõ£K (Ý) ã.» F¬õ† Ýô¡
(Þ) A÷£ê˜ (ß) Þõ˜èÀœ âõ¼I™¬ô
Who has introduced the term “Micro – Teaching”?
a. D.D. Tiwari b. A.W. Dwight Allen
c. Glaser d. None of them
7 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

18. W›è£µ‹ G¬ùõ£Ÿø™ õ¬èèO™ â‰î å¡Á Cø‰î‹?


(Ü) °ÁAò è£ô‹ (Ý) c‡ìè£ô‹
(Þ) ñùŠð£ì‹ (ß) ªêò™ G¬ùõ£Ÿø™
Which one of the following types of memory is efficient?
a. Short-term b. Long-term
c. Rote d. Active

19. Þò‚è‹, ÜHïò‹, «ð„² ñ£Ÿø‹, °Mò‹, 輈¶ ñ£Ÿø‹, GÁˆî‹ â¡Â‹ ÃÁè¬÷ ªè£‡ì
Fø¡
(Ü) É‡ì™ ñ£Á𣴠(Ý) Mù£ˆFø¡
(Þ) M÷‚°î™ (ß) õ½×†´î™
The components, movements, gestures, change in speech pattern, focus, interaction, pausing are the
compo nents of
a. stimulus variation b. questioning
c. explaining d. reinforcement

20. å«ó Üô°‚è£ù «ê£î¬ù¬ò Þ¼º¬ø ï숶õ¶


(Ü) «î˜¾ - ñÁ«î˜¾ (Ý) Þ¬í õ®õ‹
(Þ) ªõ†´ ÃÁ (ß) îó õ®õ‹
The test conducted in two times of same units is
a. test-retest b. Parallel form
c. Split-half d. Norm form

21. õò¶‚è£ù îó‹ âîÂì¡ ªî£ì˜¹¬ìò¶?


(Ü) õ°ŠHŸè£ù îó‹ (Ý) è£ô õK¬ê õò¶
(Þ) îó‹ (ß) êó£êK õò¶
Age norm is related to
a. grade norm b. chronological age
c. norm d. average age

22. ðòù÷¬õ‚ ªè£œ¬è pragmatism â¡ø ªê£™


(Ü) Pragma â¡ø A«ó‚è ªê£™LL¼‰¶ õ‰î¶
(Ý) Pragmatic â¡ø A«ó‚è ªê£™LL¼‰¶ õ‰î¶
(Þ) Pragmatia â¡ø A«ó‚è ªê£™LL¼‰¶ õ‰î¶
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 8

(ß) Matism â¡ø A«ó‚è ªê£™LL¼‰¶ õ‰î¶


The term ‘Pragmatism’ has been derived from
a. Greek term ‘pragma’ b. Greek term ‘pragmatic’
c. Greek term ‘pragmatia’ d. the term ‘matism

23. è™MJ™ Iè Ü®Šð¬ì ºèõ£‡¬ñ


(Ü) ðœO (Ý) i´
(Þ) êÍè‹ (ß) ñ£Gô‹
The most fundamental agency of education is
a. School b. Home
c. Community d. State

24. A÷£ê˜ ªè£´ˆî èŸH‚°‹ ñ£FKJ¡ ªðò˜


(Ü) Ýó‹ð èŸHˆî™ (Ý) Ü®Šð¬ì èŸHˆî™
(Þ) ¶õ‚è èŸHˆî™ (ß) Þó‡ì£õ¶ èŸHˆî™
The name of the teaching model given by Glaser is
a. Fundamental Teaching b. Basic Teaching
c. Primary Teaching d. Secondary Teaching

25. ªð£¶õ£è âîÂì¡ «ï˜è£í™ ªî£ì˜¹ ªè£‡´œ÷¶?


(Ü) «õ¬ô‚° «î˜‰ªî´ˆî™ (Ý) ÜP¾¬ó ðè˜î™
(Þ) ÝÀ¬ñ¬ò èEˆî™ (ß) Þ¬õ ܬùˆ¶‹
Interview is generally associated with
a. Job selection b. Counseling
c. Assessment of personality d. all of these

26. 輈¶ ܬñˆîL¡ Í¡Á ÃÁè÷£ù ªêò™ð´G¬ô, à¼õè G¬ô, °Pf†´ G¬ô
ܬñˆîõ˜
(Ü) ñ£v«ô£ (Ý) LM¡
(Þ) ¹Ïí˜ (ß) ܲªð™
The three parts ‘Enactive, Iconic, Symoblic of concept formation are formed by
a. Maslow b. Lwein
c. Burner d. Ausubel
9 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

27. ói‰Fó î£Ã˜ è™MJ¡ °P‚«è£œ âù ï‹Hò¶?


(Ü) õ£›‚¬è à‡¬ñ (Ý) ù º¿¬ñò£è àí˜î™
(Þ) 輈¶‚ ªè£œ¬è (ß) Þ‰¶ñî‚ ªè£œ¬è
The aim of educational believed by Rabindranath Tagore is
a. Realization b. Self-realization
c. Idealism d. Hinduism

28. à÷MòL™ ï£†ì‹ â¡ð¶ å¼õK¡


A. ñùŠð£¡¬ñ¬ò‚ °P‚Aø¶.
B. àœ÷£˜‰î Fø¬ù‚ °P‚Aø¶ (Fø¡ + M¼Šð‹)
C. å¼ ¶¬øJ™ Fø¬ùŠ ªðŸÁ M†ì¬î‚ °P‚Aø¶.
D. FøùŸø M¼Šðˆ¬î ñ†´‹ °P‚Aø¶.
Aptitude in psychology ....
A implies attitude
B. indicates potential skills
C. indicates the abilities achieved in a field
D. indicates the desire without skill

29. ð™ï£†´„ «ê£î¬ùJ™ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ ¶¬í / àœ «ê£î¬ùèO¡ â‡E‚¬è ....


A. 6 B. 8
C. 5 D. 4.
The number of subtests provided in Differential Aptitude test is
A. 6 B. 8
C. 5 D. 5

30. à÷Šð°Šð£Œ¾‚ ªè£œ¬è¬ò ïñ‚° ÜOˆîõ˜


(Ü) C‚ñ‡† H󣌴 (Ý) õ£†ê¡
(Þ) ô£êóv (ß) âK‚ú¡
Psychoanalysis theory was put forth by
a. Sigmund Freud b. Watson
c. Lazarus d. Erickson

D2
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 10

ð°F &II
îI›
ÞŠð°FJ™ 30 Mù£‚èœ àœ÷ù. ܬùˆ¶ Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹.

31. ‘õœ¬÷’ & Þ„ªê£™L¡ ªð£¼œ


Ü. õ¬÷ò™ Ý. õ÷‹
Þ). àô‚¬èŠð£†´ ß)õ¬÷ò‚èó‹

32. ð†®ò™ I ä ð†®ò™ II àì¡ ªð£¼ˆF êKò£ù M¬ì¬òŠ ªð£¼ˆ¶è:


ð†®ò™ I ð†®ò™ II
Ü). ºîô£°ªðò˜ 1. ®ê‹ð˜ ̈î¶
Ý). Þìõ£° ªðò˜ 2. ªõŸP¬ô ï†ì£¡
Þ). è£ôõ£° ªðò˜ 3. ñ™L¬è Å®ù£¡
ß). C¬ùò£°ªðò˜ 4. ̇®Š ðœO
à). °íõ£° ªðò˜ 5. ªõœ¬÷ Ü®ˆî£¡
A B C D E
Ü 3 4 1 2 5
Ý. 3 4 1 5 2
Þ. 4 3 1 2 5
ß). 4 3 5 2 1

33. ªð£¼ˆ¶è:
Ü. ð£èîƒèœ 1. ªê£™½ðõ¡
Ý.. ²«îê£Hñ£ù‹ 2. «è†ðõ¡
Þ. ²ð£û£Hñ£ù‹ 3. HK¾èœ
ß.. ªê£Ÿø£¡ 4. ´Š ðŸÁ
à.«è†ì£¡ 5. ªñ£NŠ ðŸÁ
A B C D E
Ü 3 4 5 1 2
Ý.. 3 4 5 2 1
Þ. 3 4 2 1 5
ß. 4 3 5 1 2

34. ‘ðNõ£¬ù’ -\ ªðò˜ªê£™L¡ õ¬èòPè :


(Ü) ªî£NŸªðò˜ (Ý) ð‡¹Šªðò˜
(Þ) ªð£¼†ªðò˜ (ß) M¬ùò£ô¬í»‹ ªðò˜
11 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

35. õ£‚Aòƒè¬÷ èõQ:


ßÁ (A): â.è£. “ ¹ˆîè‹ ªè£‡´ õ¼A«ø¡” â¡Á ðõ£Q, è£òˆKJì‹ ÃPù£œ
è£óí‹ (R): å¼õ˜ ÃPò¬î ÜŠð®«ò ÃÁõ¶ «ñŸ«è£œ °Pf´ Þì‹ ªðÁ‹ ñ,
º¡Q¬ôŠ ªðò˜èœ Þ싪ðÁ‹ â¡ð¶ «ï˜‚ßÁ Ý°‹
(Ü) ÞõŸÁœ (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´‹ êK. «ñ½‹ (R) â¡ð¶ (A)MŸ° êKò£ù M÷‚èñ™ô
(Ý) ÞõŸÁœ (A) îõÁ. Ýù£™ (R) êK
(Þ) ÞõŸÁœ (A) êK. Ýù£™ (R) îõÁ
(ß) ÞõŸÁœ (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´‹ êK, «ñ½‹ (R) â¡ð¶ (A) MŸ° êKò£ù M÷‚è‹

36. Ý´ ºîô£ù ð¡Qó‡´ Þó£Cè¬÷»‹ õ¬ó‰î ªêŒF¬òŠ ðŸP ÃÁ‹ Ë™ â¶?


(Ü). î†êíCˆFó‹ Ý. ªï´ï™õ£¬ì
(Þ). ªî£™è£ŠHò‹ ß. CôŠðFè£ó‹

37. êKò£ù Þ¬í¬ò 裡è


1. îI› Íõ£Jó‹ & F¼õ£Œ ªñ£N
2. å¡«ø °ô‹ å¼õ«ù «îõ¡ & F¼Íô˜
3. ꣰‰îô‹ & ñ¬øñ¬ôò®èœ
4. °øõ…C ï£ìè‹ «î£¡Pò¶ & ð™ôõ˜ è£ô‹
(Ü). 1, 2 ñ†´‹ êK Ý. 3, 4 ñ†´‹ êK
(Þ). 2, 3 ñ†´‹ êK ß. ܬùˆ¶‹ êK

38. W›‚è‡ìõŸ¬ø‚ 裇è.


ßÁ (A) : °Á‰ªî£¬è«ò ºîL™ ªî£°‚èŠð†ì ªî£¬è Ë™.
è£óí‹ (R) : I°Fò£è «ñŸ«è£œ 裆ìŠð†ì ºî™ Ë™ °Á‰ªî£¬è«ò Ý°‹
ÞõŸP™,
(Ü) (A ) ñŸÁ‹ (R ) Þó‡´‹ êK; «ñ½‹ (R) â¡ð¶ (A )-MŸ° êKò£ù M÷‚è‹
(Ý) (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´‹ îõÁ
(Þ) (A) êK; Ýù£™ (R) îõÁ
(ß) (A) îõÁ; Ýù£™, (R) êK

39. ‘õ‡¬ñ¬ò àJK™ ¬õˆ«î¡’ Þšõ®J™ ‘õ‡¬ñ’ â‹ ªê£™L¡ ªð£¼œ.



(Ü) õL¬ñ (Ý) ªè£¬ìˆî¡¬ñ
(Þ) õ÷¬ñ (ß) bó£Šð¬è

40. Þó£üï£èˆF¡ ªñ£ˆî c÷‹ Ü®èO™.


(Ü) 10 (Ý) 12
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 12

(Þ) 15 (ß) 18

41. ªð£¼‰î£ Þ¬í¬ò‚ è‡ìPè :


(Ü) Ë™ \- õ¬ó
(Ý)  \- õ탰
(Þ) è¬÷ \- ðP
(ß)  \- AN

42. ªê£™¬ô»‹ ªð£¼¬÷»‹ ÜP‰¶ ªð£¼ˆ¶è :


1. ï£õ£Œ Ü. ñ‚èœ Þù‹
2. «è‡¬ñ Ý. èŠð™
3. ñ¡ð¬î Þ. Cƒè‹
4. ÜKñ£ ß. 
°Pf´èœ :
1 2 3 4
1. Þ ß Ý Ü
2. Ü Þ ß Ý
3. Ý Þ Ü ß
4. Ý ß Ü Þ

43. ñó¹ õ¿ Þ™ô£î ªî£ì¬ó «î˜è :


(Ü) æMò‹ õ¬ó‰î£œ (Ý) æMò‹ â¿Fù£œ
(Þ) æMò‹ ÌCù£œ (ß) æMò‹ ªêŒî£œ

44. “ñA›” Þî¡ M¬ùºŸÁ :


(Ü) ñAö (Ý) àõ‰¶
(Þ) ñA›‰î£¡ (ß) ñA›î™

45. “àœ÷ƒ¬è ªï™L‚ èQ «ð£ô” - Þš¾õ¬ñò£™ M÷‚èŠ ªðÁ‹ ªð£¼¬÷ ÜPè.


(Ü) ô£˜ ÃÁ‹ õ£˜ˆ¬îèœ (Ý) ªîœ÷ˆ ªîOõ£èˆ ªîKî™
(Þ) î¡ ¬è«ò àî¾î™ (ß) CPòù ªêŒî™

46. îI›ªñ£N Üöè£ù CˆFó «õ¬ôŠ ð£ì¬ñ‰î ªõœOˆî†´; F¼‚°øœ ÜF™


¬õ‚èŠð†ì îƒè ÝŠHœ - â¡Á ÃPòõ˜.
(Ü) T.».«ð£Š (Ý) 裙´ªõ™
(Þ) Aªó÷™ (ß) «ê£‹vA
13 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

47.  è‡ì ð£óî‹ & 1964 Ý‹ ݇´ î£ñ¬óˆF¼ M¼¶ (ðˆñÿ) ªðŸø ªð‡ñE
Ü. ¬õ.º.«è£¬î ï£òA Ü‹ñ£œ Ý. Ü‹¹üˆî‹ñ£œ
Þ. Ü…ê¬ô Ü‹ñ£œ ß. Ü‹ñ£‚臵 Ü‹ñ£œ

48. Ý‡èœ M¬÷ò£ì£î M¬÷ò£†´ â¶?


(Ü) ð‹ðó‹ (Ý) A†®Š¹œ
(Þ) õ†ì£´î™ (ß) «è£™

49. ݘèL àô舶 ñ‚è† ªè™ô£‹ - âù ªî£ìƒ°‹ Ë™.


(Ü) ªðKò¹ó£í‹ (Ý) è‹ðó£ñ£òí‹
(Þ) F¼‚°øœ (ß) º¶ªñ£N‚装C

50. ÝŸÁ ªõœ÷‹ ÷õóˆ «î£ŸÁ«î °P ñ¬ôò£÷ I¡ù™ ßöI¡ù™ Åö I¡Â«î


ÞšõKèœ Þ싪ðÁ‹ Ë™ â¶?
(Ü)«îõ£ó‹ (Ý)°Ÿø£ô‚ °øõ…C
(Þ)º‚ÃìŸðœÀ (ß) Hœ¬÷ˆîI›

51. “õœÀõ¬óŠ 𮈫 & âšõ¬è Ý°ªðò˜ ªðò˜ «î˜è


Ü. ªê£™ô£°ªðò˜ Ý. è¼ˆî£ Ý°ªðò˜
Þ è£Kò Ý°ªðò˜ ß. î£Qò£° ªðò˜

52. ªð£¼ˆ¶è:
1. «ê£Á a. F¡
2. ðö‹ b. ͆´
3. «è£ô‹ c. à‡
4. b d. Þ´
°Pf´èœ
a b c d
Ü 3 1 4 2
Ý. 2 4 3 1
Þ. 2 1 4 3
ß. 3 4 2 1

53. “A¼wí¡ ð®ˆî£¡” -&&&&& ð®ˆî£¡ â¡ø ªê£™ âšõ¬è„ ªê£™ ꣘‰î¶ «î˜è:
Ü.àK„ªê£™ Ý.. Þ¬ì„ ªê£™
Þ. ªðò˜„ ªê£™ ß.. M¬ù„ ªê£™
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 14

54. “«õô¡” ðœO‚°„ ªê¡ø£¡ & âšõ¬èˆ ªî£ì˜ «î˜è:


Ü. ÜòŸÃŸÁˆ ªî£ì˜ Ý. àì¡ð£†´ˆ ªî£ì˜
Þ âF˜ñ¬øˆ ªî£ì˜ ß. «ï˜‚ßÁˆ ªî£ì˜

55. “Þø‰î£˜ Þø‰î£˜ ܬùò˜ Cùˆ¬îˆ


¶ø‰î£˜ ¶ø‰î£˜ ¶¬í”& âšõ¬è ªð£¼œ«è£œ «î˜è
Ü. ܬ÷ñP𣊹Š ªð£¼œ«è£œ Ý.. H¬êŠ ªð£¼œ«è£œ
Þ Ü®ñPñ£ŸÁŠ ªð£¼œ«è£œ ß.. ªè£‡´Ã†´Š ªð£¼œ«è£œ

56. ë£ùŠð„C¬ô âù õœ÷ô£˜ «ð£ŸÁõ¶


Ü. ɶõ¬÷ Ý. Wö£ªï™L
Þ. °Š¬ð«ñQ ß. ¶÷C

57. A†A‰¬î ñ¡ù¡ õ£LJ¡ ñè¡


(Ü) Þô‚°õ¡ (Ý) ÅKò ï£ó£òí¡

(Þ) ܃èî¡ (ß) êì£Î

58. åOŠðì‹ â´‚°‹ º¬ø «î£¡Pò ݇´


Ü. 1850 Ý. 1830
Þ. 1930 ß. 1880

59. ßÁèO™ îõø£ù¬îˆ «î˜è


1. ªñŒè‡ì£¡ ¹ˆîè ꣬ô«ò£´ ªî£ì˜¹¬ìòõ˜ & è£ñó£ê˜
2. 1937 Ý‹ ݇´ 裃Aóv è†CJ¡ î¬ôõó£è è£ñó£ê˜ «î˜‰ªî´‚èŠð†ì£˜
3. ü¨¬ô 15&‹ ÷ è™M õ÷˜„C ï£÷£è è£ñó£ê˜ Hø‰î ÷ ªè£‡ì£´A«ø£‹
4. è£ñó£ê¼‚° ï´õíóè ð£óî óˆù£ M¼¶ ÜOˆ¶ CøŠHˆF¼‚Aø¶.
Ü. 1, 3 ñ†´‹ (Ý. 2 ñ†´‹
Þ2, 3, 4 ñ†´‹ (ß. 4 ñ†´‹

60. îIN™ «î£¡Pò ºî™ à¬óï¬ì Ë™ â¶?



(Ü)CôŠðFè£ó‹ (Ý)ªî£¡Û™ M÷‚è‹
(Þ)Þ¬øòù£˜ è÷Mò™ à¬ó (ß)è‹ðó£ñ£òí‹
15 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

PART&III
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in this part. All the questions are compulsory.

61. SENTENCE PATTERN


Identify the pattern of the following sentence
Where is my pen?
(a) A V S (b) S V A
(c) S V O (d) S V C.

62.. What is the synonym for ‘Dulcet’


(a) Sweet (b) Dull
(c) Hard (d) Sour

63. Choose the appropriate preposition to complete the sentence.


He ate ...... rice at noon.
(a) a (b) the
(c) no article (d)an

64. What is the antonym for ‘Delete’


(a) Submit (b) Conserve
(c) Edit (d) Insert

65. Choose the best alternative that expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold.
To be in name only
(a) To live with joy without popularity (b) A powerful person
(c) In theory only (d) To be held in high esteem

66. Fill in the blank with most appropriate article:


He saw ....... aeroplane in the sky.
(a) a (b) an
(c) the

65. Choose the right question tag:


The audience were spell-bound, ........?
(a) were they (b) weren’t they
(c) are they
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 16

66. Find out the mis spelt word:


a) opportunity b) openion
c) obliged d) obediently

67. Choose the correct verb form to complete the sentence.


Mathematics ......... a difficult subject.
(a) are (b) were
(c) is (d) was

68. Identify the adjective:


The ……………… railway station is ten miles
from here.
a) Nearest b) Next
c) Further d) All of above

69. ‘Water’ is useful for health.


a) Material Noun b) Proper Noun
c) Common Noun d) Abstract Noun

70. Identify the correct COMPOUND sentence form:


Besides being a fool, he is a rogue
a. He is not only a fool but also a rogue b. He is fool and rogue
c. Being a fool, he is a rogue d. Although he is fool, he is a rogue

71. Give the correct PUNCTUATION


balus suitcase got lost
a. Balus suitcase got lost b. Balu’s suitcase got lost
c. Balu’s suitcase got lost! d. none of the above

72. Fill in the blanks with the correct Pronoun:


The girl _____ came in a red frock is my friend
a. who b. whose
c. whom d. which

73. They enjoyed meeting old friends


A. Adjective B. Adverb
C. Noun D. Verb
17 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

74. We will self-destruct if there is no


A. Adjective B. Adverb
C. Preposition D. Conjunction

75. It embodies all that we feel.


A. Adjective B. verb
C. Preposition D. Conjunction

Choose the appropriate tag for the sentence given below:


76. India is a land of diversity .................?
A. Isn’t it B. Isn’t he
C. Isn’t she D. wasn’t it

77. “............. means the level and style of a piece of writing or speech that is usually appropriate
to the situation of field that is used in”
A. Register B. Jargon
C. Cliche D. Dialect

78. What is the word found by taking the fifth letter of the third word, the sixth letter of the second word,
the fifth letter of the third, the fourth letter of the fourth word the second letter of the third word and
second letter of the fifth word give a collective noun.
PRACTICE ATTITUDE ACROBAT ACKNOWLEDGE CHURCH
(a) BUNCH (b) CROWD
(c) TROOP (d) FLOCK

79. Pair reading in the Active Learning Method (ALM) is to encourage the students ______
(a) to share and learn (b) to test others knowledge
(c) to find fault with each other (d) none of the three

80. Walking is good for health. The underlined word is a _______


(a) verb (b) adjective
(c) Gerund (d) infinitive

81. Do not board or alight a ............... train


A. fast B. speed
C. moving D. standing

D 3
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 18

82. ................. lands are turned into factories and industries.


A. Agricultural B. Seri cultural
C. horticultural D. Epicultural

83. My ears are listening to ............... whispers of the wind.


A. harsh B. heavy
C.soft D. swift

84. She called the 108 .............. Ambulance


A. emergency B. lethargic
C. intimacy D. urgency

85. I saw the accident with my ............ eyes


A. borrowed B. own
C. one D. shared

86. I met my friend ............. morning.


A. this B. today
C. next D.last

87. ................ boy must take his turn


A. All B. Those
C. Each D. These

88. Long ago in the forest, there lived a pride of lions with ........ cubs.
A. several B. few
C. little D. tiny

89. The telephone is .............


A. died B. dead
C. death D. dying

90. Gandhiji ............ on 2nd October.


A. will be born B. is born
C. was born D. were born
19 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

ð°F & IV

PART - IV

HK¾ & A

SECTION - A

èí‚° ñŸÁ‹ ÜPMò™

MATHEMATICS & SCIENCE


91. Ý™ð£ èF˜èœ â¡ðù
A) «ï˜ I¡Û†ì‰ Aò ¶èœèœ B) âF˜ I¡Û†ì‰ Aò ¶èœèœ
C) I¡Û†ìñŸø ¶èœèœ D) I¡è£‰î èF˜i„²èœ
Alpha rays are
(a) positively charged particles (b) negatively charged particles
(c) chargeless particles (d) electromagnetic radiators

92. ¹«ó£†ì£Q¡ I¡Û†ì‹


A) «ï˜I¡ ²¬ñ B) âF˜I¡²¬ñ
C) I¡²¬î ÜŸø¶ D) ÞõŸÁœ ⶾI™¬ô
Proton carries
(a) a positive charge (b) a negative charge
(c) no charge (d) none of these

93. å¼ ªð£¼œ ¹Mf˜Š¹ M¬êJL¼‰¶ M´ð†´„ ªê™ô Ü îóŠðì «õ‡®ò e„CÁ
F¬ê«õè‹
A) 8.2 e†ì˜/Mù£® B) 11.2 e†ì˜/Mù£®
C) 8.2 A«ô£ e†ì˜/Mù£® D) 11.2 A«ô£ e†ì˜/Mù£®
If a body is to escape from the earth’s gravitational force, it must be given a minimum velocity of
(a) 8.2 metre/sec (b) 11.2 metre/sec
(c) 8.2 kilometre/sec (d) 11.2 kilometre/sec

94. ð†®ò™ I ñŸÁ‹ ð†®ò™ II ÝAòõŸ¬ø êKò£èŠ ªð£¼ˆF W«ö ªè£´ˆF¼‚°‹


ªî£°ŠH¬ùŠ ðò¡ð´ˆF M¬ì¬òˆ «î˜‰ªî´ˆ¶ ⿶è.
ð†®ò™ (1) ð†®ò™ (2)
a) «ó®ò‹ 1. 󣇆ü¡
b) X èF˜ 2. ܪô‚ú£‡ì˜ Hª÷Iƒ
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 20

c) ªðQCL¡ 3. ä¡v®¡
d) K«ô®M® ªè£œ¬è 4. «ñì‹ AÎK
°Pf´èœ:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 2 4 1
Match List-I with List-II correctly and select your correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List-II
A) Radium 1) Roentgen
B) X-ray 2) Alexander Fleming
C) Penicillin 3) Einstein
D) Theory of Relativity 4) Madam Curie
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 2 4 1

95. ªóçHKT«ó†ìK™ àœ÷ ªî˜«ñ£v«ì†®¡ «õ¬ô


A) ªóçHKT«ó†ì¬ó Å죂°î™
B) î†ð ªõŠðG¬ô¬ò Y󣂰î™
C) ªóçHKT«ó†ì¬ó ¶õ‚°î™
D) ªóçHKT«ó†ì¬ó GÁˆ¶î™
The function of the thermostat in a refrigerator is
A) to heat up the refrigerator
B) to regulate the temperature
C) to start the refrigerator
D) to stop the refrigerator

96. ªõœOJ¡ Gø‹ ï£÷¬ìM™ 輊ð£è ñ£ÁAø¶. Þ‰G蛾 裟P™ ............ Þ¼Šð¬î ²†®
裆´Aø¶.
21 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

(Ü) qLò‹ (Ý) 裘𡠬ì Ý‚¬ú´


(Þ) 裘𡠫ñ£ù£‚¬ú´ (ß) ¬ý†óü¡ Ꙭð´
When silver tarnishes in air it turns black. This indicates that there is ________in air.
(a) helium (b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbon monoxide (d) hydrogen sulphide

97. ð°F á´¼¾‹ Fø¡ ªè£‡ì êš×´ å¡P¡ õN«ò è¬óŠð£¡ ªê™½î™
(Ý) Móõ™ (Ý) êš×´ ðóõ™
(Þ) ð£Aò™ (ß) ðóŠ¹ Þ¿M¬ê
The passage of a solvent through a semipermeable membrane is
(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis
(c) Viscosity (d) Surface tension

98. «óò£¡ â¡ð¶


(Ü) ÞòŸ¬è óŠð˜ (Ý) ªêòŸ¬è ð†´
(Þ) ÞòŸ¬è ð†´ (ß) ªêòŸ¬è óŠð˜
Rayon is
(a) natural rubber (b) artificial silt
(c) natural silk (d) artificial rubber

99. H¡õ¼õùõŸP™ â¶ à‡¬ñ?


(Ü) ªîK‰î â™ô£ îQñƒèÀ‹ ÞòŸ¬èJ™ Þ¼‚A¡øù.
(Ý) îQñƒèœ Fì Ü™ô¶ Fóõ Ü™ô¶ õ£»G¬ôJ™ Þ¼‚èô£‹.
(Þ) â™ô£ îQñƒèÀ‹ å¡«ø£´ å¡Á M¬ù¹KA¡øù.
(ß) â™ô£ «ê˜ñƒèO½‹ 裘ð¡ Þ¼‚Aø¶.
Which is true of the following?
(a) All known elements are present in nature
(b) Elements can be solids or liquids or gases
(c) All elements react with one another
(d) All compounds contain carbon

100. °õ£˜†v â¡ð¶


(Ü) «ê£®ò‹ CL«è† (Ý) ܽIù£
(Þ) 裙Cò‹ CL«è† (ß) CLè£
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 22

Quarts is
(a) sodium silicate (b) Alumina
(c) calcium silicate (d) Silica\

101. ð²ƒèEèˆF™ ¬îô‚裌´ êšM™ è£íŠð´‹ åO„«ê˜‚¬è Üô°èO¡ ªðò˜


(Ü) çHó† (Ý) Aó£ù£
(Þ) °õ£¡†ì«ê£‹ (ß) v†«ó£ñ£
The photosynthetic units present in the thylakoid membrance of chloroplast are called
(a) Fret (b) Grana
(c) Quantosome (d) Stroma

102. ªñ‡ìL¡ Þ¼ ð‡¹ èôŠH¡ ¹øˆ «î£Ÿø MAî‹


(Ü) 1:1:1:1 (Ý) 9:3:3:1
(Þ) 9:7 (ß) 12:3:1
The phenotypic ratio of Mendel’s dihybrid cross is
(a) 1:1:1:1 (b) 9:3:3:1
(c) 9:7 (d) 12:3:1

103. ªï™ õò™èO™ ðò¡ð´‹ àJ˜ àó‹ Þ‰î ªìK«ì£¬ð† î£õó‹ Ý°‹.
(Ü) ªêô£Tªï™ô£ (Ý) ¬êèv
(Þ) ªìKv (ß) Ü«ê£ô£
Pteridophyte used as a biological fertilizer in rice fields is
(a) Selaginella (b) Cycas
(c) pteris (d) Azolla

104. Þ‰î Ì„C‚ªè£™L, àí¾ êƒALJ™ MvõÏðñ£°î½‚° Cø‰î â´ˆ¶‚裆´. ܶ


â‰î Ì„C‚ªè£™L?
(Ü) L‡«ì¡ (Ý) ªð¡«ê£¬ðg¡
(Þ) DDT (ß) ªì†ó£ ¬ê‚AO¡
This is an excellent example of pesticide biomagnification in the food chain. What is that pesticide?
(a) Lindane (b) Benzopyrene
(c) DDT (d) Tetra cycline
23 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

105. W›‚裇ðùõŸÁœ, ⶠêKò£èŠ ªð£¼ˆîŠð†´œ÷¶?


(Ü) ê‚CQ‚ ÜIô‹ -- A¬÷«è£ªü¡
(Ý) ÞÂL¡ -- AªóŠ ²öŸC
(Þ) ÜI«ù£ ÜIôƒèœ - -G¡¬ýê®K¡ «ê£î¬ù
(ß) ܬñ«ôv - -¬ð†®¡
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Succinic acid - Glycogen
(b) Inulin - Krebs cycle
(c) Amino acids - Ninhydrin test
(d) Amylase - Phytin

106. WWF â¡ð¶ âî¬ìò ²¼‚è‹


(Ü) «õ˜™† ¬õ´ 繫÷£ó£ (Ý) «õ˜™† ¬õ´ çð£ù£
(Þ) «õ˜™´ ¬õ´ çð£ªóv† (ß) «õ˜™† ¬õ´ çð‡´
What is the expansion of WWF?
(a) World Wide Flora (b) World Wide Fauna
(c) World Wide Forests (d) World Wide Fund

107. bMóñ£ù Í„² «è£÷£ÁèÀ‹, ¸¬ófó™ «ï£ŒèÀ‹, Ýv¶ñ£ ñŸÁ‹ ¹ŸÁ«ï£Œ Þ¬õ
âîù£™ à‡ì£A¡øù?
(Ü) c˜ ñ£²ð´ˆ¶ð¬õèœ (Ý) Gô ñ£²ð´ˆ¶ð¬õèœ
(Þ) 裟Á ñ£²ð´ˆ¶ð¬õèœ (ß) èF˜i„² ñ£²ð´ˆ¶ð¬õèœ
What causes acute, chronic respiratory diseases, lung infection, asthma and cancer?
(a) Water pollutants (b) Land pollutants
(c) Air Pollutants (d) Radioactive pollutants

108. Þó‡´ Ü¬øè¬÷‚ ªè£‡ì ªõ‡®KAœ âF™ àœ÷¶?


(Ü) ºî¬ô (Ý) 𣋹
(Þ) Þ¼õ£›M (ß) e¡
Double chambered ventricle is present in
(a) Crocodile (b) Snake
(c) Amphibia (d) Fish
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 24

109. Þó‡´ ¸¬ófó™èÀ‚°‹ Þ¬ì«ò àœ÷ Þ¬ìªõOò£ù¶


(Ü) àîóMî£ù‹ (Ý) e®ò£v®ù‹
(Þ) ªðK裘®ò‹ (ß) ªðKv«ì£Qò‹
Space between two lungs is known as
(a) Diaphragm (b) Mediastenum
(c) Pericaridium (d) Peristonium

110. ‘CõŠ¹ ê£ò‹’ â‰î Ì„CJ¡ àòLL¼‰¶ HKˆªî´‚èŠð´Aø¶?


(Ü) ªð‡ Üó‚°Š Ì„C (Ý) ݇ ð†´ŠÌ„C
(Þ) ªð‡ ð†´ŠÌ„C (ß) ªð‡ °÷M
‘Red dye’ is extracted from the body of
(a) female lac insects (b) male silk moth
(c) female silk moth (d) female wasps

111. °«÷£«ó£H™L™ àœ÷ à«ô£è ÜòQ


(Ü) Þ¼‹¹ (Ý) 裙Cò‹
(Þ) ªñ‚mCò‹ (ß) Tƒ‚
Metal ion present in chlorophyll is
(a) Iron (b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium (d) Zinc

112. Ì…¬êè¬÷ õ¬èŠð´ˆFòõ˜


(Ü) W.M. v죡L (Ý) è£vªð˜ê¡
(Þ) æì‹ (ß) ܪô‚«ê£«ð£ôv
Fungi are classified by
(a) W.M. Stanley (b) Caspersson
(c) Odum (d) Alexopoulos

113. A¬÷«è£LRv â¡ðî¡ ñÁªðò˜


(Ü) õ£˜ªð˜‚-®‚è¡v ð£¬î (Ý) Þâ‹H ð£¬î
(Þ) «ïó® Ý‚Rèóí ð£¬î (ß) ªý„ âñ¢ H ð£¬î
Glycolysis is also known as
(a) Warburg-Dickens pathway (b) EMP-pathway
(c) Direct oxidation pathway (d) HMP pathway
25 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

114. W›‚è‡ìõŸP™ ⶠ®.â¡.ã.M™ Þ™¬ô?


(Ü) Ü®¬ù¡ (Ý) »ó£C™
(Þ) °õ£¬ù¡ (ß) ¬ê†«ì£C¡
Which of the following is not present in DNA?
(a) Adenine (b) Uracil
(c) Guanine (d) Cytosine

115. º†¬ìèœ ï™ô ¹óîƒèœ ªè£‡ì¶. Üõ˜èœ îƒè¬÷ 𣂯Kò£‚èOL¼‰¶ 裈¶‚


ªè£œ÷ Þ‰î ªï£F¬ò»‹ ªè£‡´œ÷¶
(Ü) ¹«ó£†®«òv ªï£F (Ý) ªê™½«ô£v ªï£F
(Þ) ¬ô«ê£«ê£‹ ªï£F (ß) ¬ô«ðv ªï£F
Eggs are important source of good proteins. They also possess important enzyme ……. Which can
protect them from bacterial attack during spoilage.
(a) Protease (b) Cellulase
(c) Lysozyme (d) Lipase

116. æ˜ Þù‚ ÆìˆF™ àœ÷ ܬùˆ¶ p¡èÀ‹ .............. âù ܬö‚èŠð´Aø¶.


(Ü) p¡ õƒA (Ý) p«ù£‹
(Þ) p¡ Æ´ (ß) p¡ H¬íŠ¹
The sum total of genes in a population is known as
(a) Gene bank (b) Genome
(c) Gene pool (d) Gene linkage

117. Iè àòóñ£ù ñó õ¬èèœ è£íŠð´‹ î£õóŠ HK¾


A) ªìK«ì£¬ð†´èœ B) ñ£«ù£è£†´èœ
C) T‹«ù£vªð˜‹èœ D) ¬ì裆´èœ
The tallest tree occurs in
(a) pteridopytes (b) monocots
(c) gymnosperms (d) dicots

118. 𣂯Kò£‚èO¡ õ÷˜ áìèˆF™ ðò¡ð´ˆîŠð´õ¶ â¶?


A) Ü«ò£®¡ B) Üè˜ - Ü裘
C) ꘂè¬ó D) Ý™èý£™
Which of the following is used for culture medium of bacterial growth?
(a) Iodine (b) Agar - agar
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 26

(c) Sugar (d) Alcohol


119. Ü裘 Ü裘 âFL¼‰¶ îò£K‚èŠð´Aø¶?
A) ªüL®ò‹ B) ô£I«ùKò£
C) â‚«ì£è£˜ðv D) I΂èv
Agar – agar is obtained from
(a) gelidium (b) laminaria
(c) ectocarpus (d) fucus

120. ꘂè¬ó è¬óêLL¼‰¶ åJ¡ (MQè˜) à‡ì£‚°‹ 𣂯Kò£


A) âvªêK„Cò£ B) ÜR«ì£«ð‚ì˜
C) ÜR†«ì£«ð‚ì˜ ÜC†® D) ¬ó«ú£Hò‹
Which bacteria produce vinegar in sugar solutions?
A) escherichia B) acetobacter
C) acetobacter aceti D) rhizobium

1
121. 16% õ†® iîˆF™ 3 ݇´èO™ 2,080 õ†®ò£èˆ  Üê™ ªî£¬è¬ò‚
裇è. 4

(Ü) 4500 (Ý) 4000


(Þ) 5000 (ß) 5500
1
Find the principal that earns 2,080 as S.I. in 3 years at 16% p.a.
4
(A) 4500 (B) 4000
(C) 5000 (D) 5500

122. Þ¼ â‡èO¡ eŠªð¼. ªð£.õ. 2 ñŸÁ‹ e„CÁ ªð£.ñ. 298 â¡è. å¼ â‡ 4 âQ™
ñŸªø£¼ ⇠â¡ù?
(Ü) 12 (Ý) 18
(Þ) 14 (ß) 15
The G.C.D. and L.C.M of two numbers are 2and 28 respectively,One number is 4.Find the other
number.
(A) 12 (B) 18
(C) 14 (D) 15

123. å¼ ñA¿‰¶ 45 GIìƒèO™ 60 A.e. èì‚A¡ø¶. Ü«î «õèˆF™ ªê™½‹ ªð£¿¶, å¼


ñE «ïóˆF™ ܶ âšõ÷¾ Éó‹ èì‚°‹?
(Ü) 80 A.e. (Ý) 75 A.e.
27 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

(Þ) 84 A.e. (ß) 85 A.e.


A car travels 60 km in 45 minutes. At the same rate, how many kilo metres will it travel in one hour?
(A) 80 km (B) 75 km
(C) 84 km (D) 85 km

124. ñ£î õ¼ñ£ù‹ 20,000 ªðÁ‹ ïð˜ å¼õ˜ 嚪õ£¼ ñ£îº‹ 3,000 ä êIŠ¹ ªêŒA¡ø£˜
âQ™, Üõ¼¬ìò ñ£î„ «êIŠ¹„ êîiî‹ ............
(Ü) 15% (Ý) 5%
(Þ) 10% (ß) 20%
A man saves  3,000 per month from his total salary of  20,000. The percentage of his savings is
_______ .
(A) 15% (B) 5%
(C) 10% (D) 20%

125. å¼ è®è£ó‹ ñE‚° 6 ªï£®èœ iî‹ î£ñîñ£è Þòƒ°Aø¶. 裬ô 5 ñE‚° êKò£ù
«ïóˆF™ ¬õ‚èŠð†ì è®è£ó‹ ñ£¬ô 3.00 ñE‚° 裆´‹ «ïóˆ¬î‚ 裇è.
(Ü) 2:59:59 (Ý) 2:59:00
(Þ) 2:58:59 (ß) 2:58:00
A clock is slow by 6 seconds. per hour. If it was adjusted to correct time at 5.a.m. find the time the
clock will show at 3.00.p.m.
(A) 2:59:59 (B) 2:59:00
(C) 2:58:59 (D) 2:58:00

126. A:B = 4 : 6, B : C = 18 : 5, âQ™ A : B : C J¡ MAîˆ¬î‚ è£‡è.


(Ü) 4:18:5 (Ý) 12:18:5
(Þ) 4:10:20 (ß) 4:6:5
If A : B = 4 : 6, B : C = 18 : 5, find the ratio of A : B : C.
(A) 4:18:5 (B) 12:18:5
(C) 4:10:20 (D) 4:6:5

127. å¼ °O˜ê£îùŠ ªð†®J¡ M¬ô  16,800. Þó…Cˆ Þ¬î 0% õ†®ˆ F†ìˆF™ õ£ƒè
M¼‹¹A¡ø£˜. 3 ñ£î º¡ îõ¬íè¬÷»‹ î¼A¡ø£˜. GÁõù‹ 3% ï¬ìº¬ø„ ªêô¾
â´ˆ¶‚ ªè£œA¡ø¶ âQ™, 24 ñ£îƒèÀ‚° Üõ˜ ªê½ˆî «õ‡®ò ñ£îˆ îõ¬í¬ò‚
è£í¾‹. Üõ˜ ªê½ˆî «õ‡®ò ªñ£ˆîˆ ªî£¬è¬ò»‹ è£í¾‹.
(Ü) ñ£îˆ îõ¬í =750, ªñ£ˆîˆ ªî£¬è =  19404
(Ý) ñ£îˆ îõ¬í =600, ªñ£ˆîˆ ªî£¬è =  18404
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 28

(Þ) ñ£îˆ îõ¬í =700, ªñ£ˆîˆ ªî£¬è =  18404


(ß) ñ£îˆ îõ¬í =  700, ªñ£ˆîˆ ªî£¬è =  19,404
The cost price of a refrigerator is  16,800. Ranjith wants to buy the refrigerator at 0% finance
scheme paying 3 E.M.I. in advance. A processing fee of 3% is also collected from Ranjith.
Find the E.M.I. and the total amount paid by him for a period of 24 months.
(A)  E.M.I. = 700. Total Amount =19404
(B)  E.M.I. = 600, Total Amount =18404
(C)  E.M.I. = 700, Total Amount =18404
(D) E.M.I. =  700, Total Amount =  19,404

128. å¼ ªð£¼O¡ MŸø M¬ô 240, îœÀð® 28 âQ™, °Pˆî M¬ô ........... .
(Ü) 212 (Ý) 268
(Þ) 228 (ß) 258
If the S.P. of an article is  240 and the discount given on it is  28, then the M.P. is _______.
(A)  212 (B)  268
(C)  228 (D)  258

129. Þô£ð Ü™ô¶ ï†ì êîiî‹ âŠªð£¿¶‹ .................. «ñ™ èí‚AìŠð´‹.


(Ü) Üì‚èM¬ôJ¡ (Ý) MŸð¬ù M¬ôJ¡
(Þ) Þô£ðˆF¡ (ß) ï†ìˆF¡
Gain or loss percent is always calculated on
(A) cost price (B) selling price
(C) gain (D) loss

130. b˜‚è: 5y + 9 = 24
(Ü) y= 5 (Ý) y = 2
(Þ) y = 3 (ß) y = 4
Solve: 5y + 9 = 24
(A) y = 5 (B) y = 2
(C) y = 3 (D) y = 4

131. å¼ õ¼ìˆFŸ° º¡¹, å¼õK¡ õò¶ Üõ¼¬ìò ñèQ¡ õò¬îŠ«ð£™ 8 ñ샰.


𣶠Üõ¼¬ìò õò¶, ñèQ¡ õòF¡ õ˜‚èˆFŸ°„ êñ‹ âQ™, Üõ˜èÀ¬ìò
ð£¬îò õò¬î‚ 裇è.
(Ü)îJ¡ õò¶ =42,ñèQ¡ õò¶ = 8
29 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

(Ý) îJ¡ õò¶ =48,ñèQ¡ õò¶ = 8


(Þ) îJ¡ õò¶ = 49, ñèQ¡ õò¶ = 7
(ß) îJ¡ õò¶ =50,ñèQ¡ õò¶ = 5
One year ago, a man was 8 times as old as his son. Now his age is equal to the square of his son’s
age. Find their present ages.
(A) man ‘s age 42, son’s age 8 (B) man ‘s age 48, son’s age 8
(C) man ‘s age 49 years, son’s age 7 years (D) man ‘s age 50, son’s age 5

132. Í¡Á ï£íòƒèœ 强¬ø ²‡ìŠð´A¡øù. (i) êKò£è Þó‡´ î¬ôèœ (ii)
°¬ø‰î¶ Þó‡´ î¬ôèœ (iii) ÜFèð†êñ£è Þó‡´ î¬ôèœ A¬ìŠðîŸè£ù
Gè›îè¾èœ 裇è.
(Ü) 1/2,1/4,1/4 (Ý) 3/8,1/2,7/8
(Þ) 1/8,1/4,3/4 (ß) 1/8,1/4,3/8
Three coins are tossed once. Find the probability of getting (i) exactly two heads (ii) atleast two
heads (iii) atmost two heads.
(A) 1/2,1/4,1/4 (B) 3/8,1/2,7/8
(C) 1/8,1/4,3/4 (D) 1/8,1/4,3/8

133. å¼ ê¶óˆF¡ ðóŠð÷¾ 441 ê¶ó e†ì˜èœ âQ™ Ü„ê¶óˆF¡ ð‚èˆF¡ Ü÷¬õ‚
致H®‚辋.
(Ü) 25e (Ý) 23e
(Þ) 21e (ß) 22e

Find the length of the side of a square where area is 441 m2 .


(A) 25m (B) 23m
(C) 21m (D) 22m

134. Þó‡´ F‡ñ ܬó‚«è£÷ƒèO¡ Ýóƒèœ 3 : 5 â¡ø MAîˆF™ àœ÷ù.


Ü‚«è£÷ƒèO¡ õ¬÷ðóŠ¹èO¡ MAî‹ ñŸÁ‹ ªñ£ˆîŠ ¹øŠðóŠ¹èO¡ MAî‹
ÝAòõŸ¬ø‚ 裇è.
(Ü) C1:C2=1:4,T1:T2=1:4 (Ý)C1:C2=2:5,T1:T2=2:5
(Þ) C1:C2=3:5,T1:T2=3:5 (ß) C1:C2=9:25,T1:T2=9:25
Radii of two solid hemispheres are in the ratio 3 : 5. Find the ratio of their curved surface areas and
theratio of their total surface areas.
(A) C1:C2=1:4, T1:T2=1:4 (B) C1:C2=2:5, T1:T2=2:5
(C) C1:C2=3:5, T1:T2=3:5 (D) C1:C2=9:25,T1:T2=9:25
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 30

135. å¼ èù à¼õ‹, ܬó‚«è£÷ˆF¡ e¶ ༬÷ Þ¬í‰î õ®M™ àœ÷¶.


Ü‚èù¾¼õˆF¡ M†ì‹ ñŸÁ‹ ªñ£ˆî àòó‹ º¬ø«ò 21 ªê.e ñŸÁ‹ 25.5 ªê.e
âQ™, Üî¡ èù Ü÷¬õ‚ 裇è.
(Ü) 7628 ªê.e3 (Ý) 7656 ªê.e3
(Þ) 7623 ªê.e3 (ß) 7632 ªê.e3
A solid is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted on a hemisphere. If the diameter and the total height
of the solid are 21 cm, 25.5 cm respectively, then find its volume.
(A) 7628 cm3 (B) 7656 cm3
(C) 7623 cm3 (D) 7632 cm3

136. å¼ èù„ê¶óˆF¡ ªñ£ˆîŠ ¹øŠðóŠ¹ 384 ê.ªê.e âQ™, Üî¡ èùÜ÷¬õ‚ 裇è.
(Ü) 512 è.ªê.e (Ý) 514 è.ªê.e
(Þ) 516 è.ªê.e (ß) 510 è.ªê.e

A cube has a total surface area of 384 sq. cm. Find its volume.
(A) 512 cm (B) 514 cm
(C) 516 cm (D) 510 cm

137. ï¡° è¬ôˆ¶ ¬õ‚èŠð†ì 52 Y†´è¬÷‚ ªè£‡ì Y†´‚ 膮L¼‰¶ êñõ£ŒŠ¹„


«ê£î¬ù º¬øJ™ å¼ Y†´ â´‚èŠð´Aø¶. Ü‰î„ Y†´ H¡õ¼õùõ£è Þ¼‚è
Gèöîè¾è¬÷‚ 裇è.
(i) Þó£ê£ (ii) 輊¹ Þó£ê£
(iii) v«ð´ (iv) ìòñ‡† 10
(Ü) 1/13,1/26,1/4,1/52 (Ý) 1/4,1/52,1/26,1/13
(Þ) 1/26,1/4,1/52,1/13 (ß) 1/4,1/52,1/26,1/13

From a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards, one card is drawn at random. Find the probability of
getting
(i) a king (ii) a black king
(iii) a spade card (iv) a diamond 10.
(A) 1/13,1/26,1/4,1/52 (B) 1/4,1/52,1/26,1/13
(C) 1/26,1/4,1/52,1/13 (D)1/4,1/52,1/26,1/13

1
138. Þ¡ ð°F¬ò MAîŠð´ˆF„ ²¼‚°è.
8−2 5
4+ 6 5+ 2
(Ü) (Ý)
22 22
3+ 4 4 5
(Þ) (ß)
22 22
31 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

1
Simplify by rationalizing the denominator.
8−2 5

4+ 6 5+ 2
(A) (B)
22 22

3+ 4 4+ 5
(C) (D)
22 22

139. 1012 ÷ 1010 ‚° êññ£ù¶


(Ü) 102 (Ý)1
(Þ) 0 (ß) 1010
1012 ÷ 1010 is equal to
(A) 102 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) 1010

140. å¼ ªð¼‚°ˆ ªî£ìK¡ ºî™ àÁŠ¹ 375 ñŸÁ‹ Üî¡ 4Ýõ¶ àÁŠ¹ 192 âQ™,
Üî¡ ªð£¶ MA, ºî™ 14 àÁŠ¹èO¡ ôî¬ô»‹ 裇è.

  4 13    4 14 
(Ü) 2875 1 −    (Ý) 1875 1 −   
  5     5  

 14
   4 14 
(Þ) 2875 1 −  4   (ß)1875 1 −   
  5     5  

The first term of a geometric series is 375 and the fourth term is 192. Find the common ratio and the
sum of the first 14 terms.

  4 13    4 14 
(A) 2875 1 −    (B) 1875 1 −   
  5     5  

  4 14    4 14 
(C) 2875 1 −    (D)1875 1 −   
  5     5  

141. ªî£°FŠ ð‡ð÷¬õ‚°‹, ñ£FKŠ ð‡ð÷¬õ‚°‹ Þ¬ìJ™ àœ÷ ºó‡ð£´ .........


â¡Á ܬö‚èŠð´‹.
(Ü) 0 (Ý) ñ£FK‚ èEŠ¹Š H¬ö
(Þ) 1 (ß) ⶾI™¬ô
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 32

The discrepancy between a parameter and its estimate due to sampling process is known as _______
(A) 0 (B) sampling error
(C) 1 (D) none of these

142. êó£êKJL¼‰¶ Mô‚èƒèO¡ ôî™


(Ü) Ì„Cò‹ (Ý) °¬ø‰îð†ê‹
(Þ) ÜFèð†ê‹ (ß) 1
Sum of the deviations about mean is
a) Zero b) minimum
c) maximum d) one

143. ðˆ¶ ñ£íõ˜èO¡ èEî ñFŠªð‡èœ


56, 48, 58, 60, 54, 76, 84, 92, 82, 98. âQ™,
i„² ñŸÁ‹ Æ´„êó£êK¬ò‚ 裇è.
(Ü) i„²=50;Æ´„êó£êK=72 (Ý) i„²=50;Æ´„êó£êK=70.8
(Þ) i„²=45;Æ´„êó£êK=72 (ß)i„²=45;Æ´„êó£êK=71
The marks in mathematics of 10 students are
56, 48, 58, 60, 54, 76, 84, 92, 82, 98.

Find the range and arithmetic mean


(A) r =50,am = 72 (B) r = 50, am = 70.8
(C) r =45,am = 72 (D)r =45,am = 71

144. 14, 18, 22, 26, 30-¡ Mô‚è õ˜‚è„ êó£êK 32 âQ™, 28, 36, 44, 52, 60-¡ Mô‚è
õ˜‚è„êó£êK
(Ü) 64 (Ý) 128
(Þ) 32 2 (ß) 32
If the variance of 14, 18, 22, 26, 30 is 32, then the variance of 28, 36,44,52,60 is
(A) 64 (B) 128
(C) 32 2 (D) 32

145. 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + K = P, âQ™ 13 + 23 + 33 + ... + K3-¡ ñFŠ¹?


(A) P3 (B) P2
(C) P (D) ⶾI™¬ô
1 + 2 + 3 + ... + K = P, then find the 13 + 23 + 33 + ... + K3 = ?
33 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

(A) P3 (B) P2
(C) P (D) None of these

146. 10 Ý†èœ å¼ «õ¬ô¬ò º®‚è 8 ï£†èœ «î¬õŠð†ì£™ Üš«õ¬ô¬ò 1/2 ï£O™


º®‚è «î¬õò£ù ݆èœ?
(A) 80 (B) 100
(C) 120 (D) 160
If 10 men can finish a job in 8 days, then the number of men required to complete the job in half day is
(A) 80 (B) 100
(C) 120 (D) 160

147. å¼ êƒ«èî ªñ£NJ™ «èó÷£ ñEŠÌ˜ âù¾‹, ñEŠÌ˜ ï£èô£‰¶ âù¾‹, ï£èô£‰¶ åKê£
âù¾‹, åKê£ ð…꣊ âù¾‹ ñ£Gôƒèœ Þšõ£Á ܬö‚èŠð†ì£™ ªè£Uñ£ â‰î ñ£GôˆF¡
î¬ôïè˜?
(A) ï£èô£‰¶ (B) ñEŠÌ˜
(C) åKê£ (D) ð…꣊
In a certain language, Kerala is called Manipur, Manipur is called Nagaland, Nagaland is called Orissa,
Orrissa is called Punjab, Khohima is the capital of __
(A) Nagaland (B) Manipur
(C) Orissa (D) Punjab

148. ꣘ðè£ â‡èœ ⶠޙ¬ô


A)13,17 B) 7, 21
C) 101,201 D) 12,13
Which is not a co-prime Number
A)13,17 B) 7, 21
C) 101,201 D) 12,13

149. 1331,1728,2197,2744 ,__ ?


A) 3375 B) 3735
C) 3325 D)3365

150. ïiù õˆF¡ î / The Father of Modern philosophy


A) Descartes /«ì裘† B) Euclid/΂O†
C) Diophontus/ì«ò£ð£‡ìv D) Aryabatta / ÝKòð†ì£
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 34

ð°F & IV

PART - IV

HK¾ & B

SECTION - B

êÍè ÜPMò™

SOCIAL SCIENCE

ÞŠð°FJ™ 60 Mù£‚èœ àœ÷ù. ܬùˆ¶ Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹.


There are 60 questions in this part. All the questions are compulsory.

91. ÜóH‚ èìL™ àœ÷ Þ‰Fò ÎQò¡ Hó«îê‹


Ü. ܉îñ£¡ G‚«è£ð˜ b¾èœ Ý. Þô†êˆb¾èœ
Þ. 𣇮„«êK ß. º‹¬ð
------------ Union Territory is situated in the Arabian Sea
A) Andaman Nikobar Islands B) Lakshawadeep Islands
C) Pondicherry D) Mumbai
92. Gôˆ«î£ŸøƒèO¡ Ü®Šð¬ìJ™ Þ‰Fò ÞòŸ¬èò¬ñŠ¹......... HK¾è÷£èŠ HK‚èŠð´A¡øù.
Ü. 4 Ý. 5
Þ. 6 ß. 7
India is divided into ---------------- physical division
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

93. ñƒèÀ¼‚°‹, è¡Qò£°ñK‚°‹ ï´«õ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ êñªõO


Ü. ñô𣘠êñªõO Ý. õìÞ‰Fò êñªõO
Þ. õìꘂ裘 ß. ªè£ƒèù£ èìŸè¬ó
----------- Plain lies between mangalore and Kannyakumari
A) Malabar plain B) North Indian Plain
C) Nothern circas D) Konkan coast

94. èOñ‡í£½‹ ªñ¡ð£¬øè÷£½‹ Ýù ªî£ì˜„CòŸø ñ¬ô


Ü. «ó£U™è‡† Ý. Cõ£L‚ ñ¬ô
Þ. Cò£„C¡ ß. ðv«ì£èó£
----------- mountain range is made up of mud and soft rocks
35 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

A) Rohilkhand B) Siwalik range


C) siachin D) Bastogra

95. Þ‰Fò£M½œ÷ àôA¡ ðö¬ñò£ù ñ¬ôˆªî£ì˜


Ü. M‰Fò ñ¬ô Ý. Þñòñ¬ô
Þ. ꣈Ìó£ñ¬ô ß. Ýóõ™Lñ¬ôˆªî£ì˜
------------- is the oldest Mountain range in India
A) Vindhya Mountain B) Himalayas
C) Sathpura D) Aaravalli

96. æ˜ ÞìˆF¡ «ïóˆ¬î‚ èí‚AìŠ ðò¡ð´õ¶


Ü. Ü†ê‚«è£´èœ Ý. b˜‚肫裴èœ
Þ. èìè«ó¬è ß. ñèó«ó¬è
----------------- help us to calculate the time of a place
A) Latitudes B) Longitudes
C) Tropic of Cancer D) Tropic of Capricorn

97. I芪ðKò ñ£Gô‹


Ü. Ü¼í£„êô Hó«îê‹ Ý. Üvú£‹
Þ. «ñè£ôò£ ß. ó£üv
------------ is the biggest state
A) Arunachalpradesh B) Assam
C) Megalaya D) Rajastan

98. Þ‰Fò£¬õ Þ¼ ð°Fè÷£èŠHKŠð¶


Ü. ñèó«ó¬è Ý. ÌñˆFò «ó¬è
Þ. èìè«ó¬è ß. ݘ®‚õ†ì‹
----------- runs across the country and divides it into two
A) Tropic of capricorn B) Equator
C) Tropic of cancer D) Artic circle

99. Þ‰Fò£M™ Iè ÜFè ñ¬ö ªðÁ‹ ð°F


Ü.  ð£¬ôõù‹ Ý. è¡Qò£°ñK
Þ. Üvú£‹ ß. ªñ÷C¡ó£‹
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 36

--------- is receives very heavy rainfall in India


A) Thar Dessert B) Kaniyakumari
C) Assam D) Mowsyndram

100. «è£¬ìð¼õˆF™ Þ‰Fò£M¡ õìAö‚° ð°FJ™ i²‹ àœÙ˜ ¹òL¡ ªðò˜


Ü. Ö Ý. ñ£‰Éó™
Þ. ªõvì˜v ß. ð¼õ裟Á
The Localstroms in the northeastern Parts of India during hot weather season are called
A) Loo B) Mangoshowers
C) norwesters D) monsoon

101. èìŸè¬óŠ ð°FJ™ Gô¾õ¶......... è£ôG¬ô


Ü. è‡ì Ý. êññ£ù
Þ. ßóŠðî ß. ªõŠð‚
The coastal area enjoy --------- climate
A) Continental B) Equable
C) Humid D) Hot

102. «ñŸA‰Fò Þ¬ìÎÁè÷£™ ñ¬öªðÁ‹ Þìƒèœ


Ü. Üôè£ð£ˆ Ý. ð…꣊
Þ. ªê¡¬ù ß. º‹¬ð
The place that gets rain from Western disturbance is
A) Allahabad B) Punjab
C) Chennai D) Mumbai

103. Þ‰Fò£M¡ èìè«ó¬è‚° õì‚A½œ÷ ÞìƒèO™ Gô¾‹ è£ôG¬ô


Ü. ßóŠðî Ý. êññ£ù 裬ôG¬ô
Þ. è‡ì è£ôG¬ô ß. ðQŠªð£N¾
The places to the north of Tropic of cancer expericence ---------- climate
A) Moisture claimate B) Equable climate
C) Continental claimate D) fog

104. õOñ‡ìôˆF¡ àò˜ Ü´‚°èO™ è£íŠð´‹ 裟«ø£†ì‹


Ü. ªü† 裟«ø£†ì‹ Ý. ð¼õñ¬ö ªõ®Š¹
37 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

Þ. ªõvì˜v ß. õìAö‚° ð¼õ‚裟Á


Air currents in the upper layer of the atmosphere is known as----
A) Jet streams B) Monsoon forest
C) Norwesters D) Notheast monsoon

105. è…ê¡ üƒè£ CèóˆF¡ àòó‹


Ü. 8126 e Ý. 8167 e
Þ. 7817 e ß. 8598 e
The height of Kanchan Junga--------------
A) 8126 m B) 8167 m
C) 7817 m D) 8598 m

106. 裆M¡ Ýv®¡ CèóˆF¡ àòó‹


Ü. 8848 e Ý. 8611 e
Þ. 8126 e ß. 8598 e
The height of Godwin Austin-----------
A) 8848 m B) 8611 m
C) 8126 m D) 8598 m

107. è˜ï£ìè£M½œ÷ «ñŸ° ªî£ì˜„C ñ¬ôJ¡ ªðò˜


Ü. 궊¹ GôŠð°F Ý. î‚è£í‹
Þ. êòˆFK ð°F ß. ðv«ì£ó£
The other name of Western Ghats in Karnataka
A) marshy land B) Deccan
C) Sahyatiri D) Bastora

108. 胬è êñªõOJ™ ð°F......... âù ܬö‚èŠð´‹


Ü. ꣃ«ð£ Ý. F裌 ðœ÷ˆî£‚°
Þ. ²‰îóõù‹ ß. ñˆFò àò˜Gôƒèœ
The lower parts of Gangas delta called
A) Tsongpo B) Dhyag Valley
C) Sundaravanam D) Central high lands
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 38

109. ô£ üôŠ¹ô£ èíõ£Œèœ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ Þì‹


Ü. Þñ£„êô Hó«îê‹ Ý. è£we˜
Þ. Üvú£‹ ß. C‚A‹
Nathulla and Jelepla are the imprortant passes in -------- state
A) Himachal pradesh B) Kashmir
C) Assam D) Sikkim

110. SŠAô£ èíõ£Œ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ Þì‹


Ü. ð…꣊ Ý. è£we˜
Þ. Üvú£‹ ß. Þñ£„êô Hó«îê‹
Shipkila is situated in ---------- state
A) Punjab B) Kashmir
C) Assam D) Himachal pradesh

111. Þô†êˆb¾èœ âù ªðòKìŠð†ì ݇´


Ü. 1972 Ý. 1971
Þ. 1974 ß. 1973
Lakshawadeep Islands renamed in the year -----------
A) 1972 B) 1971
C) 1974 D) 1973

112. ꣋ð™ Gø ÜE™èœ êóí£ôò‹ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ ñ£õ†ì‹


Ü. côAK Ý. «è£ò‹¹ˆÉ˜
Þ.M¼¶ïè˜ ß. è¡Qò£°ñK
Ash squirrel sanctuary located in the district
A)Nilgiri B)Coimbatore
C)Virudhunagar D) Kanyakumari

113. êˆFòñƒèô‹ ðø¬õèœ êóí£ôò‹ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ ñ£õ†ì‹


Ü. F‡´‚è™ Ý. ï£èŠð†®ù‹
Þ. ß«ó£´ ß. M¼¶ïè˜
Satyamangalam birds sanctuary located in district
A) Dindugul B) Nagapattnam
C) Erode D) Virudhunagar
39 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

114. º¶ñ¬ô ñŸÁ‹ Í‚°óˆF «îCò Ìƒè£‚èœ Ü¬ñ‰¶œ÷ ñ£õ†ì‹


Ü. ß«ó£´ Ý. côAK
Þ. Cõ胬è ß. ÜKòÖ˜
Mudumalai and mookurithi national park located in the district
A) Erode B)Niligiri
C)Sivagangai D)Ariyalur

115. îI›ï£†®™ ........... ðø¬õèœ êóí£ôò‹ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ù


Ü. 5 Ý. 7
Þ. 12 ß. 10
How many birds sanctuary in Tamilnadu
A) 5 B)7
C)12 D)10

116. CˆFóƒ°® ðø¬õèœ êóí£ôò‹ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ ñ£õ†ì‹


Ü. ÜKòÖ˜ Ý. F¼õ£Ï˜
Þ. 装C¹ó‹ ß. Þó£ñï£î¹ó‹
Chittrankudu birds sanctuary located in the district
A) Ariyalur B) Thiruvarur
C)Kancheepuram D)Ramanathapuram

117. «è£®ò‚è¬ó ðø¬õèœ êóí£ôò‹ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ ñ£õ†ì‹


Ü. F¼õ£Ï˜ Ý. ï£èŠð†®ù‹
Þ. ÜKòÖ˜ ß. ß«ó£´
In which district kodikarai birds sanctuary located
A)Thiruvarur B) Nagapattnam C) Ariyalur D)Erode

118. ÜN»‹ G¬ôJ™ àœ÷ î£õóƒè¬÷ ð£¶è£‚°‹ ¬ñòƒèœ


Ü.«è£ò‹¹ˆÉ˜ Ý. ñ¶¬ó
Þ. «õÖ˜ ß. ܬùˆ¶‹
In which district safety vegetation centre located
A) Coimbatore B)Madurai
C)Vellore D)All the above
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 40

119. ñQî‹ àJ˜ «è£÷º‹ â¡ø F†ì‹ à¼õ£‚èŠð†ì ݇´


Ü. 1976 Ý. 1979
Þ. 1977 ß. 1980
Men and Earth plan created in --------- year
A)1976 B)1979
C)1977 D)1980

120. ⃰ ܬñ‰¶œ÷ Þ¼‹¹ âç° Ý¬ô‚° ܼA«ô«ò Gô‚èK Þ™¬ô?


(Ü) ü£‹ªû†Ì˜ (Ý) ¶˜‚è£Ì˜
(Þ) Hô£Œ (ß) ðˆFó£õF
Local supply of coal is not available to the iron and steel plant at
(a) Jamshedpur (b) Durgapur
(c) Bhilai (d) Bhadravathi

121. îõø£è Þ¬í‚èŠð†´œ÷ Þ¬í¬ò è‡ìPè:


(Ü) «ñ‚ù¬ì† -Þ¼‹¹
(Ý) °Š¬ó† - ªê‹¹
(Þ) ñv«è£¬õ† -ñ£ƒèm²
(ß) 𣂬ú† -ܽIQò‹
Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Magnetite - Iron
(b) Cuprite - Copper
(c) Muscovite - Manganese
(d) Bauxite - Aluminium

122. Þ‰Fò£M™ I芪ðKò Gô â‡ªíŒ ²ˆFèKŠ¹ ݬô Þƒ° àœ÷¶


(Ü) ñ¶ó£ (Ý) ðÏQ
(Þ) Mê£èŠð†®ù‹ (ß) «è£òL
The biggest oil refinery in India is at
(a) Mathura (b) Barauni
(c) Vishakhapatnam (d) Koyali

123 â¡ó£¡ ðõ˜ ¹ó£ªü‚† àœ÷ ñ£Gô‹


(Ü) ݉FóŠHó«îê‹ (Ý) dý£˜
41 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

(Þ) ñˆFòŠHó«îê‹ (ß) ñý£ó£w®ó‹


The Enron power project is in
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra

124. C™õ£ú£ â‰î ÎQò¡ Hó«îêˆF¡ î¬ôïèó‹


(Ü) ܉îñ£¡ & G‚«è£ð˜ (Ý) ô†êˆb¾
(Þ) ó£ & ï£è˜ý«õL (ß) ì£ñ¡ & ¬ìÎ
Silvassa is the capital of the Union Territory of
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Daman and Diu

125. Þ‰Fò£M™ ÜFè â‡E‚¬è à¬ìò ̘iè‚°® ñ‚èœ


(Ü) ê‰î£™èœ (Ý) H™èœ
(Þ) ï£è˜èœ (ß) «î£ì˜èœ
The maximum number of tribal population in India consists of
(a) Santhals (b) Bhils
(c) Nagas (d) Todas

126. ð…ê£H™ ¹Fò ÞóJ™ ªð†® 膴‹ ªî£NŸê£¬ô ܬñ‰¶œ÷ Þì‹


(Ü) ÜI˜îêóv (Ý) ÖFò£ù£
(Þ) 蹘îô£ (ß) üô‰î˜
The new railways coach factory has been set up in Punjab at
(a) Amritsar (b) Ludhiana
(c) Kapurthala (d) Jalandhar

127. Þ‰Fò£M™ Gô‚èK Üè›M™ Þøƒ°õK¬êJ™ àœ÷ ñ£GôƒèO¡ êKò£ù ªî£ì˜„C


(Ü) «ñŸ° õƒè£÷‹, d裘 ñŸÁ‹ ñˆFòŠHó«îê‹
(Ý) d裘, ñˆFòŠHó«îê‹ ñŸÁ‹ «ñŸ° õƒè£÷‹
(Þ) d裘, «ñŸ° õƒè£÷‹ ñŸÁ‹ ñˆFòŠHó«îê‹
(ß) ñˆFòŠHó«îê‹, d裘 ñŸÁ‹ «ñŸ° õƒè£÷‹
The correct sequence in descending order of given states in coal mining in India
(a) West Bengal, Bihar and Madhya Pradesh (b) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal
(c) Bihar, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 42

128. Ýóõ™L ñ¬ôèœ Þó£üvî£Q™ ñ¬ôˆî¬ì ñ¬ö¬ò ãŸð´ˆîM™¬ô è£óí‹


(Ü) ܬõèœ «ð£Fò àòóˆF™ Þ™¬ô
(Ý) ð¼õ‚裟Á Ü¬î ªê¡ø¬ìòM™¬ô
(Þ) ܬõèœ è£ŸÁ i²‹ F¬ê‚° Þ¬íò£è ܬñ‰¶œ÷¶
(ß) ܬõèœ «ð£Fò î£õóƒè¬÷ ªè£‡®¼‚è M™¬ô
Aravallis fail to cause orographic precipitation in Rajasthan, because
(a) they are not sufficiently high (b) the monsoons do not reach them
(c) they lie parallel to the direction of the wind (d) they do not support and vegetation

129. W›‚è‡ìõŸÁœ ⶠêKò£èŠ ªð£¼‰îM™¬ô


(Ü) I° Ü¿ˆî ð£Œô˜ - F¼„Có£ŠðœO
(Ý) ܽIQò ݬô - «ñ†Ç˜
(Þ) î£Ió ༂° ¬ñò‹ - «èˆFK
(ß) U‰¶v «ñ£†ì£˜ - ñ¶¬ó
Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) High pressure boiler plant - Trichirapalli
(b) Alumina plant - Mettur
(c) Copper smelting centre - Khetri
(d) Hindustan motors - Madurai

130. ð†®ò™ I-ä ð†®ò™ II-àì¡ ªð£¼ˆF W«ö ªè£´‚èŠð†´œ÷ °Pf´è¬÷ ªè£‡´
êKò£ù ðF¬ôˆ «î˜‰ªî´
ð†®ò™ (1) ð†®ò™ (2)
(a) ꣘ü¡† è™M F†ì‹ 1. A.H. 1948
(b) ý£˜ì£‚ èI†® 2. A.H. 1835
(c) ªñ‚裫ô ÜP‚¬è 3. A.H. 1944
(d) ó£î£A¼wí¡ èIû¡ 4. A.H. 1929
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(Ü) 2 3 4 1
(Ý) 4 1 2 3
(Þ) 2 1 3 4
(ß) 3 4 2 1
Match List-I correctly with List-II and select your answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A) Sergent plan of Education 1) 1948 A.D.
43 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

B) The Hartog committee 2) 1935 A.D.


C) Macaulay report 3) 1944 A.D.
D) Radha Krishnan Commission 4)1929 A.D.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1

131. W› ªè£´‚èŠð†ìõŸÁœ â¬õ êKò£è ªð£¼ˆîŠð†´œ÷¶?


(Ü) ªñ÷Kò˜èœ - å«ó è™ô£™ Ýù ɇèœ
(Ý) °û£ù˜èœ - °¬è 膮ì è¬ô
(Þ) °Šî˜èœ - 裉î£ó‚è¬ô
(ß) ï£ò‚è˜èœ - Þóîƒèœ
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) The Mauryas - Monolithic pillars
(b) The Kushanas - Cave architecture
(c) The Guptas - Gandhara
(d) The Nayaks - Rathas

132. Þ‰Fò ‘êñò ꣘ðŸø «è£†ð£†¬ì à¼õ£‚Aò î¬ô¬ñ CŸH


(Ü) Þ‰Fó£ 裉F (Ý) 裉F
(Þ) üõý˜ô£™ «ï¼ (ß) î£Ã˜
The chief architect of Indian secularism was
(a) Indhira Gandhi (b) Gandhiji
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Tagore

133. ‘«ïó® ïìõ®‚¬è ’ âù ºvh‹ h‚ °Pˆî¶


(Ü) 2 ªêŠì‹ð˜, 1946 (Ý) 16 Ýèv†, 1946
(Þ) 14 ïõ‹ð˜, 1946 (ß) 23 ®ê‹ð˜, 1946
The day fixed by muslim league as “Direct Action Day” was
(a) 2nd September 1946 (b) 16th August, 1946
(c) 14th November, 1946 (d) 23rd December, 1946
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 44

134. ‘ªê…ꆬìò˜èO¡’ î¬ôõ˜


(Ü) ñ裈ñ£ 裉F (Ý) ♬ô 裉F
(Þ) ²ð£w ê‰Fó «ð£v (ß) ðèˆCƒ
The leader of “Red shirts” was
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Frontier Gandhi
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Bhagat Singh

135. 1878‹ ݇´ ²«îC ªñ£NJ™ ðˆFK¬è ê†ìˆ¬î ªè£‡´ õ‰îõ˜


(Ü) è£Qƒ Hó¹ (Ý) L†ì¡ Hó¹
(Þ) KŠð¡ Hó¹ (ß) è˜ê¡ Hó¹
Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was passed by
(a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Rippon (d) Lord Curzon

136. Þ‰Fò£M¡ º¶ªð¼‹ ñQî˜, â¡Á Ü¡¹ì¡ ܬö‚èŠð´ðõ˜


(Ü) 裉FT (Ý) î£Ã˜
(Þ) î£î£ð£Œ ªï÷«ó£T (ß) Fôè˜
Who affectionately called the “Grand old man of India”?
(a) Gandhiji (b) Tagore
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Tilak

137. 1853 Ý‹ ݇´ Þ‰Fò£M™ ºî™ î‰F è‹H ܬñ‚èŠð†ì¶?


(Ü) º‹ð£Œ ºî™ î£ù£ õ¬ó (Ý) è™èˆî£ ºî™ ÞóEè…ê õ¬ó
(Þ) è™èˆî£ ºî™ Ý‚ó£ õ¬ó (ß) ªê¡¬ù ºî™ Üó‚«è£í‹ õ¬ó
The first telegraph line in India was laid in 1853 from
(a) Mumbai to Thane (b) Kolkata to Raniganj
(c) Kolkata to Agra (d) Chennai to Arakkonam

138. W› ªè£´‚èŠð†ìõŸÁœ, â‰î å¡Á êKò£èŠ ªð£¼ˆîŠð†´œ÷¶?


(Ü) ê£vFK, CKñ£«õ£ åŠð‰î‹ -1964
(Ý) C‹ô£ åŠð‰î‹ -1974
(Þ) î£wè‡ì åŠð‰î‹ -1966
(ß) ð…ê Yô åŠð‰î‹ -1955
45 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

Which one of the following is correctly matched?


(a) Sastri – Sirimavo Act - 1964
(b) Simla pact - 1974
(c) Tashkent Agreement - 1966
(d) Panchaseel Agreement - 1955

139. è£we˜ 1948™ Þ‰Fò å¡Pòˆ«î£´ Þ¬í‚è è£óí‹


(Ü) ñý£ó£ü£ ýKCƒ ð£Avî£Q¡ °î¬ô‚ 致 ðò‰î£˜
(Ý) è£we˜ ñ‚èœ Þ‰Fò«õ£´ «êó M¼‹Hù˜
(Þ) ä.ï£. êƒè‹ ïìˆFò õ£‚ªè´Š¹ Þ‰Fò£¾‚° ê£îèñ£Œ Þ¼‰î¶
(ß) ó£µõ àîM ªêŒî è£we¬ó Þ¬í‚è ªê£™L Þ‰Fò£ ýKCƒ¬è õŸ¹ÁˆFò¶
Kashmir acceded to the Indian Union in 1948, because
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh was afraid by Pakistan attack
(b) The Kashmiri people were willing to join Indian attack
(c) The U.N.O’s pebìiscite was in favour of India
(d)India, persuaded Hari Singh to accede for its military help

140. êKò£è ªð£¼ˆîŠð†ì Þ¬íè¬÷ 致H®‚è.


(Ü) 1853 - Ü‹ð£ô£ - ®™L ïè˜èÀ‚A¬ì«ò óJ™ «ð£‚°õóˆ¶ ¶õ‚è‹
(Ý) 1963 - 𣋫ð - î£ù£MŸA¬ì«ò óJ™ «ð£‚°õóˆ¶ ¶õ‚è‹
(Þ) 1915 - Þ‰Fò ð£¶è£Š¹ ê†ì‹ ÞòŸøŠð†ì¶
(ß) 1904 - õƒè£÷‹ HK‚èŠð´î™
Find the pair that is correctly matched?
(a) 1853 - Railway opened from Ambala to Delhi
(b) 1863 - Railway opened from Mumbai to Thane
(c) 1915 - Defence of India Act was passed
(d) 1904 - First partition of Bengal

141. Þ‰Fò£M™ ð£ó£Àñ¡ø ßó¬õ‚ Æ´ Æ숪î£ì¬ó Æ´‹ àK¬ñ ò£Kì‹ àœ÷¶?
(Ü) Hóîñ ܬñ„ê˜ (Ý) °®òó²ˆ î¬ôõ˜
(Þ) ¶¬í‚ °®òó²ˆ î¬ôõ˜ (ß) Þõ˜èO™ âõ¼Iô˜
Who has the right to convene the joint session of the two houses of Parliament in India?
(a) The Prime Minister (b) The President
(c) The Vice-President (d) None of them
TNTET-2 / Cell: 7550151584 46

142. Þ‰Fò£M™ ÜóCò™ ÜFè£óˆF¡ º‚Aò Ýî£ó‹


(Ü) ñ‚èœ (Ý) ÜóCòô¬ñŠ¹
(Þ) ð£ó£Àñ¡ø‹ (ß) ð£ó£Àñ¡ø‹ ñ£Gô ê†ìñ¡øƒèÀ‹
The chief source of political power in India is
(a) the people (b) the constitution
(c) the parliament (d) the parliament and the state legislatures

143. î¬ô¬ñ ܬñ„ê˜ â¡ðõ˜


(Ü) ÜóC¡ î¬ôõ˜ (Ý) Üóê£ƒèˆ î¬ôõ˜
(Þ) Üó² ñŸÁ‹ Üóꣃè î¬ôõ˜ (ß) Þõ˜èO™ ò£¼‹ Ü™ô
The Prime Minister is the
(a) Head of the state
(b) Head of the Government
(c) Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(d) None of these

144. W›°PŠH†´œ÷ àò˜cF ñ¡øƒèÀœ, ܉îñ£¡ & G«è£ð£˜ b¾èœ â‰î cFñ¡øˆF¡ W›
õ¼‹?
(Ü) ªê¡¬ù àò˜cF ñ¡ø‹ (Ý) «èó÷£ àò˜cF ñ¡ø‹
(Þ) ݉Fó Hó«îê àò˜cF ñ¡ø‹ (ß) è™èˆî£ àò˜cF ñ¡ø‹
Under which High court Andaman & Nicobar Islands come?
(a) Madras High Court (b) Kerala High Court
(c) Andhra Pradesh High Court (d) Calcutta High Court

145. ÜóCòô¬ñŠH™ â‰î MF ü‹º & è£we¼‚° îQ ܉îv¶ õöƒ°Aø¶?


(Ü) 356 (Ý) 360
(Þ) 372 (ß) 370
Which article accords special status to Jammu & Kashmir?
(a) 356 (b) 360
(c) 372 (d) 370

146. Þ‰Fò ÎQò¡ ð°Fè¬÷ G˜õAŠðõ˜


(Ü) °®òó²ˆ î¬ôõ˜ (Ý) Hóîñ ñ‰FK
(Þ) ð£¶è£Š¹ ܬñ„ê˜ (ß) ºîô¬ñ„ê˜
47 Cell: 7550151584 / TNTET-2

The union territories of India are administered by the


(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister (d) Chief Minister

147. Þ‰Fò ÜóCòô¬ñŠH¡ â‰î Ü®Šð¬ì àK¬ñèO™ b‡ì£¬ñ ðŸP ÃøŠð†´œ÷¶?


(Ü) ²î‰FóˆFŸè£ù àK¬ñ (Ý) êñˆ¶õˆFŸè£ù àK¬ñ
(Þ) ²ó‡ì½‚ªèFó£ù àK¬ñ (ß) êñò ²î‰FóˆFŸè£ù àK¬ñ
Untouchability comes under which fundamental rights in the Indian constitution?
(a) Right to freedom (b) Right to equality
(c) Right against exploitation (d) Right to freedom of religion

148. Þ‰Fò ÜóCòô¬ñŠH™ â‰î î¬ôŠH¡ W› Aó£ñ ð…ê£òˆ¶ ܬñŠ¹ îóŠð†´œ÷¶?


(Ü) Ü®Šð¬ì àK¬ñèœ (Ý) °®»K¬ñ
(Þ) Üó² ªïP‚ ªè£œ¬èèœ (ß) Ü®Šð¬ì èì¬ñèœ
Organization of village panchayats are in corporated under which head in the Indian constitution?
(a) Fundamental rights (b) Citizenship
(c) Directive principles of the state (d) Fundamental duties

149. à„êcF ñ¡øˆF¡ cFðF¬ò GòI‚°‹ ÜFè£ó‹ àœ÷õ˜ ò£˜?


(Ü) °®òó²ˆ î¬ôõ˜ (Ý) Hóîñ ñ‰FK
(Þ) ð£ó£Àñ¡ø‹ (ß) ê†ì ܬñ„ê˜
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by
(a) The President (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Parliament (d) The Law Minister

150. Þ‰Fò °®òó²ˆ î¬ôõ˜ ðîM»‹, ¶¬íˆ î¬ôõ˜ ðîM»‹ è£Lò£è Þ¼‚°‹ ªð£¿¶,
°®òó²ˆ î¬ôõ˜ ªð£ÁŠ¬ð ò£˜ õAŠð£˜?
(Ü) ºî¡¬ñ «î˜î™ ܽõô˜ (Ý) Hóîñ ñ‰FK
(Þ) à„êcF ñ¡ø î¬ô¬ñ cFðF (ß) ñ‚è÷¬õ êð£ï£òè˜
Who will act as the President of India when the offices of both the President and the Vice-President
are vacant?
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Chief Justice of India (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
TNTET-2 °PŠ¹èœ / INSTRUCTIONS
(èõùñ£è 𮈶 Üî¡ð® ïì‚辋 / Read carefully and comply)
º‚Aò °PŠ¹èœ / IMPORTANT
1 ð°F II ™ ( ªñ£N 1) M‡íŠðî£ó˜ Þ¬íòˆF™ M‡íŠðˆ¬î ̘ˆF ªêŒò «ï˜‰ªî´ˆî ªñ£N 1 ¡ Mù£‚è¬÷ M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹.
In part II (Language I) a candidate has to attempt the questions of the language which the candidate has selected as language I in the Application Form.
2. OMR M¬ìˆî£O™, Mù£îªî£°Š¹ õK¬ê ⇬í Üèù îóŠð†´œ÷ ÞìˆF™ M‡íŠðî£ó«ó êKò£è GóŠð «õ‡´‹.
The candiate mujst ensure that the Qustion Booklet Series code has been filled correctly at the prescribed places in the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. M‡íŠðî£ó˜ M‡íŠðˆF™ «î˜‰ªî´ˆîõ£Á ð°F & IV ( HK¾ A ) èEî‹ ñŸÁ‹ ÜPMò™ Ü™ô¶ ð°F IV (HK¾& B)êÍèMò™
ð°F‚° M¬ìòO‚è «õ‡´‹. M‡íŠðˆF™ «î˜‰ªî´ˆîõ£Á ªñ£N ñŸÁ‹ ð£ìŠð°F Mù£‚èÀ‚° ã«î‹ å¼ M‡íŠðî£ó˜
M¬ìòO‚è îõPù£™, Þ¶ îõø£è‚ è¼îŠð´‹ «ñ½‹ ÞˆîõPŸ° M‡íŠðî£ó«ó ªð£ÁŠð£õ£˜.
The candiate has to answer that subject in Part - IV ( Section A) Mathematics and Science or part - IV ( Section B ) Social studies as selected by him/ her in the
Application Form. If a candiate answers the questions of the language or subject other than selected in the Application Form, the candiate shall be personally
responsible for it and it would be treated as wrong.
1. °PŠ¹è¬÷ º¿õ¶ñ£è 𮈶M†´, OMR M¬ìˆî£O™ 1 L¼‰¶ 5 ñŸÁ‹ Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH™ õK¬ê â‡, 1 L¼‰¶ 4 õ¬óJô£ù îèõ™è¬÷
èõùñ£è GóŠð¾‹. cƒèœ °PŠ¹èO™ ÃP»œ÷ð® êKò£ù º¬øJ™ îèõ™è¬÷ GóŠH, ÃP»œ÷ð® ¬èªò£Šð‹ Þì£M®™, àƒè÷¶
M¬ìˆî£¬ù ñFŠd´ ªêŒ»‹ «ð£¶ ãŸð´‹ M¬÷¾èÀ‚° cƒè«÷ ªð£ÁŠð£i˜èœ .
Read complete instructions carefully and fill the details from SI. No. 1 to 5 in the OMR Answer Sheet and Sl. No 1 to 4 in the question Booklet. If you fall to fill
the details and sign as instructed correctly, you will be personally responsible for the consequesnces arising during scanning of your Answer Sheet.
2. Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH™ OMR M¬ìˆî£O¡ ⇬í Üèù îóŠð†´œ÷ ÞìˆF™ â¿î «õ‡´‹.
OMR Sheet No. Should be written in the space provided in the Question Booklet.
3. Þ‰î Mù£ˆªî£°Šð£ù¶ Mù£‚è¬÷ ð‚èƒèO™ ªè£‡´œ÷¶. Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¬ù Fø‚°ñ£Á ÜP¾ÁˆîŠð†ì H¡ù«ó M‡íŠðî£ó˜èœ
Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¡ YLìŠð†ì ºˆF¬óè¬÷ˆ Fø‚è «õ‡´‹, Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¡ ð‚èˆFL¼‰¶ õ¬ó Mù£‚èœ Þì‹ ªðŸÁœ÷ùõ£ âù
êK𣘂辋.
The Question Booklet comprises pages having Questions. After being insturcted to open the Booklet. Only then the candidates will open the Question Booklets
seals. Check whether the Booklet contains questions starting from.
4. ܬùˆ¶ Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ ð™M¬ìõ¬è Mù£‚èœ. 嚪õ£¼ Mù£MŸ°‹ å«óªò£¼ êKò£ù M¬ì ñ†´«ñ àœ÷¶. 嚪õ£¼ Mù£MŸ°‹
å«óªò£¼ êKò£ù M¬ì ñ†´«ñ àœ÷¶. 嚪õ£¼ Mù£MŸ°ñ å¼ ñFŠªð‡. îõø£ù M¬ìèÀ‚° ñFŠªð‡èœ °¬ø‚èŠðì ñ£†ì£¶,
All Questions are of MCQ ( Muctiple Choice Questions) type. There is only one correct answer to each question carring one mark. There will be no
negative marking for wrong answers.
5. ܬùˆ¶ ð°îèO™ àœ÷, ªñ£N Mù£‚è¬÷ ªè£‡ì ð°F & II ñŸÁ‹ ð°F & III äˆ îMó, ܬùˆ¶ Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ Þ¼ªñ£NèO™
îóŠð†´œ÷ù,
All questions other than language questions of Parts II and III shall be bilingual.
6. Mù£(‚èœ) &™ îõÁèœ Þ¼ŠH¡, M‡íŠðî£ó˜èœ ÜîŸè£è â‰î î‡ì¬í»‹ ªðø ñ£†ì£˜èœ. âQ‹ «î˜M¡«ð£¶ Þ‰î Mù£(‚èœ)
êK ªêŒòŠðì ñ£†ì£¶.
In any event of any mistake in any question/s, candidates will not be penalized. However no corrections will be made in question/s during the examination.
7. Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH™ ªêŒ¶ 𣘊ðèù îQò£è îóŠð†´œ÷ ÞìˆF«ô«ò ªêŒ¶ ð£˜‚è «õ‡´‹. Þ¬î Mù£ˆ ªî£°ŠHL¼‰¶ AN‚è‚Ã죶.
Ã´î™ î£œèœ â¶¾‹ õöƒèŠðì ñ£†ì£¶.
Rough work if any, may be done in the question Booklet only in the space provided at the end Booklet. Do not tear it off from the question Booklet . No additonal
paper shall be provided.
8. ñ사è ܆ìõ¬í, 裙°«ô†ì˜, Ü÷¾«è£™. ªñ£¬ð™, ªî£¬ô«ðC, «ðü˜, ®T†ì™ °PŠ«ð´ ñŸÁ‹ ≪õ£¼ I¡ùµ ê£îùƒè«÷£
ðò¡ð´ˆ¶õ¶ î¬ì ªêŒòŠð†´œ÷¶. ÞõŸ¬ø ðò¡ð´ˆFù£™ î°F c‚è‹ ªêŒòŠð´i˜èœ.
Use, of Log tables, calculator, Slide rule, Mobile Phone. Pager. Digital diary or any other electronic item/ instrument etc. is not allowed. Their use will result in
disqualification.
9. Mù£ˆªî£°ŠHÂì¡ OMR M¬ìˆî£÷£ù¶ îQò£è õöƒèŠð´‹ .
OMR Answer Sheet will be provided along with Question Booklet separately.
10. Mù£ˆªî£°Šð£ù¶ M‡íŠðî£ó˜èÀ‚° ---- ‚° îóŠð´‹. M‡íŠðî£ó˜èœ Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹ ñŸÁ‹ OMR ---- M¬ìˆî£O™ GóŠð
«õ‡®ò Mðóƒè¬÷ êKò£è GóŠð «õ‡´‹. ---- ‚° c‡ì ñE åL‚°‹. YLìŠð†ì ºˆF¬ó¬ò ---- ‚° c‡ì ñE åLˆî Hø«è
Fø‚è «õ‡´‹. Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¬ù Fø‰î¾ì¡ ã«î‹ ð‚è‹/ Mù£ Þ™ô£ñ™ Þ¼‚Aøî£ Ü™ô¶ ð‚èƒèœ AN‰«î£, êKò£è Ü„² ðF¾
Ýè£ñ«ô£, ð‚èƒèœ F¼‹ð F¼‹ð õ¼Aøî£ âù êK𣘂辋, Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¬ù ñ£ŸP‚ ªè£œ÷ «õ‡´‹. â„êK‚¬è ñE ---- ‚°‹
c‡ì ÞÁF ñE ---- ‚°‹ åL‚°‹.
The Questin Booklet will be issued to the candiate at---- and the candiate must fill all entries in Question Booklet and OMR Answere sheet. There will be long
bell at ---- and the candidate has to open the paper seal of question Booklet only after the long bell at ---- After opening the Question Booklet, ensure that any
page/ question is not missing/ not printed/ torn/ repeated. In case, you find any defect anywhere in the Question Booklet, immediately informthe inviglator and
get it replaced by him. Warning Bell will ring at ---- and the last long bell will ring at ----
11. «î˜¾ ⇠OMR M¬ìˆî£œ â‡, Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹ â‡, «î˜¾ ªêŒî ªñ£N 1& ¡ °Pf´, ªðò˜ ñŸÁ‹ ¬èªò£Šð‹ «ð£¡ø¬õè¬÷ Üèù
Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹ ñŸÁ‹ OMR î£O™ îóŠð†´œ÷ ÞìˆF™ GóŠð «õ‡´‹.
Write your Roll No. OMR Snser Sheeto No.,Question Booklet Series Code., Name and put your Signature. Option mad under Language -I and Option for Subject
in the space provided in the Question Booklet as well as in the OMR Answer Sheet.
12. 嚪õ£¼ Mù£M½‹ A,B,C & D â¡ø °PJìŠð†´œ÷ ° M¬ìèœ îóŠð†´œ÷ù. 嚪õ£¼ Mù£¬õ»‹ èõùñ£è 𮈶, àƒèÀ‚°
êKò£ù¶ âù 輶‹ M¬ìJ¬ù «î˜‰ªî´‚辋. OMR M¬ìˆî£O™ ÜšMù£MŸªèù îóŠð†´œ÷ ÞìˆF™ êKò£ù õ†ìˆ¬î GöL´õî¡
Íô‹ àƒè÷¶ M¬ì¬ò °PŠH쾋. GöL´õèù côGø / 輬ñGø ð‰¶º¬ùŠ «ðù£¬õ ñ†´«ñ ðò¡ð´ˆî «õ‡´‹.
With each question you willl find 4 possible answers marked by the letters A,B,C & D Read each question carefully and find out which answer, according to you
is correct. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate circle completely in the OMR Answer Sheet corresponding to the question. For marking answers
us blue / Black ballpoint pen only.
êKò£ù º¬ø : Correct îõø£ù º¬ø : Correct Correct Correct Correct
Correct method: Wrong method:
13. OMR M¬ìˆî£œ Ýù¶ èEQ Íô‹ ñFŠd´ ªêŒòŠð´‹ ð® õ®õ¬ñ‚èŠð†´œ÷¶. «ñŸÃPò °PŠ¹è¬÷ è¬ìH®‚è£M®™ èEQÍô‹
ñFŠd´ ªêŒõ¶ Þòô£îî£AM´‹. Þîù£™ M‡íŠðî£ó˜èÀ‚° ãŸð´‹ ÞöŠ¹èÀ‚° M‡íŠðî£ó«ó ªð£ÁŠð£õ£˜.
OMR Answer Sheet is desingned for computer evaluation. If you do not follow the instructions give above and shown in the OMR Answer Sheet. It may make
evaluation by computer diifficult. Any resultant loss to the condiate on the above accounts shall be of the candiate only.
14. ÞÁF ñE åLŠð º¡ â‰î å¼ M‡íŠðî£ó¼‹ «î˜¾ ܬø¬ò M†´ ªõO«òø‚Ã죶. «î˜¾ ܬø¬ò M†´„ ªê™½‹ º¡¹
M¬ìˆî£¬÷ ܬø‚ è‡è£EŠð£÷Kì‹ êñ˜ŠH‚è «õ‡´‹. Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¬ù M‡íŠðî£ó«ó â´ˆ¶ ªê™ôô£‹.
No candiate should leave the Examination Hall before the final bell. The OMR Answer Sheet be handed over to the Invigilator beofore leaving the Examination
Hall. The candiate is allowed to take the Question Booklet with him/ her.
15. îõø£è ̘ˆF ªêŒòŠð´‹ / ªêŒòŠðì£ñ™ àœ÷ OMR M¬ìˆî£œèÀ‚° ñFŠªð‡èœ °¬ø‚èŠð´‹.
Marks will be deducted if the OMR is filled up wrongly / unfilled.

C 201

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