Psychology Themes and Variations Canadian 4th Edition Weiten Test Bank

Psychology Themes and Variations
Canadian 4th Edition Weiten Test Bank

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

1. What is the term for the needs, wants, interests, and desires that lead people to behave in particular ways?
a. deficiencies
b. ideals
c. motives
d. incentives
ANSWER: c
2. Which of the following is a simple definition of motivation?

a. Motivation is a precursor to dominance.
b. Motivation involves goal-directed behaviour.
c. Motivation includes all voluntary behaviour.
d. Motivation requires intentional behaviour.
ANSWER: b
3. What state is referred to as homeostasis?

a. psychological stability
b. psychological instability
c. physiological instability
d. physiological stability
ANSWER: d
4. Rory is hungry and decides to go to the kitchen to make some toast. What is the state that precedes the trip to
the kitchen, according to a motivation theorist?
a. goal
b. drive
c. homeostasis
d. deprivation
ANSWER: b
5. What is a drive?
a. internal state of equilibrium that is nonmotivating
b. internal state of tension that is nonmotivating
c. internal state of equilibrium that is motivating
d. internal state of tension that is motivating
ANSWER: d
6. What is the foremost motivation for all organisms, according to drive theorists?
a. Maintain homeostasis.
b. Ensure their own survival and the survival of their species.
c. Achieve self-actualization.
d. Experience as much pleasant stimulation as possible.
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ANSWER: a
7. Food-deprived rats will learn a new response if given artificially sweetened water as a reward. Thus, the
sweet-tasting water is motivating even though no actual hunger reduction takes place. For which of the
following theories of motivation is this evidence problematic?
a. sociobiological
b. instinct
c. incentive
d. drive
ANSWER: d
8. Rita has just finished a large meal at her favourite restaurant. Although she is quite full, when the waiter
brings the dessert tray, she orders a piece of cheesecake. Which of the following does NOT explain Rita’s
behaviour?
a. pull theories
b. drive theory
c. expectancy-value theory
d. incentive theories
ANSWER: b
9. Patrick ate a large breakfast. When he arrived for his 8:00 a.m. class, the student next to him offered Patrick a
large raisin muffin. Even though Patrick was still quite full from breakfast, he ate the muffin that he was
offered. Which of the following theories of motivation best explains Patrick’s behaviour in this instance?
a. instinctive
b. drive
c. incentive
d. self-awareness
ANSWER: c
10. What is the term for an external goal that has the capacity to motivate behaviour?
a. drive
b. incentive
c. expectancy
d. homeostatic mechanism
ANSWER: b
11. Which of the following pairs of terms characterizes drive theories and incentive theories of motivation,
respectively?
a. sociobiological; sociological
b. push; pull
c. external; internal
d. constrained; unconstrained

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ANSWER: b
12. Expectancy-value models of motivation suggest that a person’s actions result from a balance between which
of the following factors?
a. person’s perception of the goal and of reality
b. strength of the person’s drive and size of the reward
c. size of the reward and effort demanded
d. chance of succeeding and value of the incentive
ANSWER: d
13. Psychologists who take an evolutionary view argue that natural selection favours behaviours that maximize
which of the following?
a. acquisition of territory
b. self-actualization
c. reproductive success
d. material wealth
ANSWER: c
14. What motive is associated with the need to associate with others and maintain social bonds?
a. sociological
b. affiliation
c. psychosocial
d. competence
ANSWER: b
15. Dr. King is studying the effects of gender on motivation to achieve in competitive sports. Her hypothesis is
that males should have a greater motivation to win in sports with physical contact because males are genetically
predisposed to seek dominance and status using physical prowess, whereas females should have a lower
motivation in contact sports, because females seek dominance in other ways. Which of the following
motivational theories is guiding Dr. King’s research?
a. drive
b. cognitive
c. organizational
d. evolutionary
ANSWER: d
16. Which of the following statements regarding human motives is LEAST accurate?
a. Humans have a larger number of social needs than biological needs.
b. Most biological motives reflect survival needs.
c. Everyone shares the same set of social needs.
d. The strength of social needs varies from person to person.
ANSWER: c
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17. How many biological needs are identified within most motivation theories, according to K. B. Madsen?
a. fewer than 5
b. 10 to 15
c. 25 to 30
d. more than 40
ANSWER: b
18. What do the following have in common: achievement, autonomy, play, and dominance?
a. They are all social needs.
b. They are all biological needs.
c. They are all drives.
d. They are all social-based biological motives.
ANSWER: a
19. Which of the following should we expect when we compare people’s various needs, according to motivation
theorists?
a. Males and females have quite different biological needs.
b. People are highly varied in both social and biological needs.
c. Children and adults are quite similar in both biological and social needs.
d. People are more similar in biological than in social needs.
ANSWER: d
20. Imogene grew up in a small town in northern England; Kunde grew up in a large city in West Africa. What
should you expect about their various needs?
a. They have the same biological needs, but different social needs.
b. They have the same social needs, but different biological needs.
c. They have the same biological and social needs.
d. They have different biological and social needs.
ANSWER: a
21. What did Cannon and Washburn propose as the cause of hunger?
a. lack of food
b. stomach contractions
c. changes in leptin levels
d. low blood sugar
ANSWER: b
22. Which brain structure has been associated with the brain’s “on and off switches” for hunger?
a. thalamus
b. parietal lobe
c. hypothalamus

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d. prefrontal cortex
ANSWER: c
23. Which piece of evidence led to a rejection of Cannon’s hypothesis that stomach contractions cause hunger?
a. People experience hunger even when their stomachs have been surgically removed.
b. People experience stomach contractions when they are sleeping.
c. People experience hunger in dreams.
d. People experience hunger in response to external rather than internal cues.
ANSWER: a
24. Which area of the brain has neurons that are sensitive to hunger signals, as well as neurons that are sensitive
to satiety signals?
a. brainstem
b. hippocampus
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus
ANSWER: d
25. A laboratory rat has had part of its hypothalamus destroyed by lesioning. The rat doesn’t seem to know
when to stop eating and has ballooned to several times its normal size. In this case, which area of the
hypothalamus would you expect to be damaged?
a. lateral
b. ventromedial
c. magnocellular
d. parvocellular
ANSWER: b
26. Which of the following represents current thinking about the role of various areas of the hypothalamus for
the regulation of hunger?
a. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural circuit, but that
circuit originates in the cortex.
b. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural circuit, but the
paraventricular nucleus may play a larger role.
c. The lateral hypothalamus is the off-switch, and the ventromedial hypothalamus is the on-switch.
d. The lateral hypothalamus is the on-switch, and the ventromedial hypothalamus is the off-switch.
ANSWER: b
27. When contemporary researchers think about the role of the brain for the regulation of hunger, what tends to
be their focus?
a. anatomical centres
b. overall size of the brain
c. neural circuits

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d. amount of electrical activity in the hindbrain
ANSWER: c
28. What does an organism experience if you experimentally decrease its blood glucose levels?
a. increase in general arousal
b. decrease in hunger
c. decrease in general arousal
d. increase in hunger
ANSWER: d
29. What does an organism experience if you experimentally increase its blood glucose levels?
a. decrease in general arousal
b. decrease in hunger
c. increase in general arousal
d. increase in hunger
ANSWER: b
30. When Giselle was in the hospital recently, she received glucose continuously through an intravenous line.
What would Giselle have begun to experience as her blood glucose levels started to rise?
a. satiation
b. agitation
c. decreased autonomic arousal
d. thirst
ANSWER: a
31. In which of the following brain regions would you expect to find neurons that are sensitive to changes in
blood glucose?
a. parahippocampal gyrus
b. medial temporal lobe
c. arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
d. prefrontal cortex
ANSWER: c
32. What is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger, according to glucostatic theory?
a. levels of glucose in the blood
b. levels of cholecystokinin in the bloodstream
c. numbers of lipids in the liver
d. numbers of metabolites in the pancreas
ANSWER: a
33. Which of the following statements regarding the role of insulin in hunger is LEAST accurate?
a. Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas.
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b. Insulin is secreted primarily when the stomach is full.
c. Increased insulin secretion causes increased hunger.
d. Insulin must be present for cells to utilize glucose.
ANSWER: b
34. What should you expect if laboratory rats have artificially reduced levels of insulin, based on the interaction
between glucose levels and insulin levels in the body?
a. They will stop eating and lose weight.
b. They will show an increase in activity in the ventromedial hypothalamus.
c. They will stop eating, but still gain weight.
d. They will tend to overeat and gain weight.
ANSWER: a
35. Which of the following states are you in if you are currently secreting both insulin and ghrelin?
a. hunger
b. thirst
c. anxiety
d. sexual arousal
ANSWER: a
36. How do ghrelin and CCK influence hunger?

a. Ghrelin and CCK both suppress hunger.
b. Ghrelin suppresses hunger, and CCK stimulates hunger.
c. Ghrelin stimulates hunger, and CCK suppresses hunger.
d. Ghrelin and CCK both stimulate hunger.
ANSWER: c
37. Which of the following statements best reflects the current view regarding the role of leptin in hunger
regulation?
a. Leptin levels apparently regulate the hunger centres located in the stomach.
b. An excessive amount of leptin in the brain has been associated with obesity in rats.
c. When leptin levels are high, hunger tends to be reduced.
d. The presence of leptin in the bloodstream tends to increase feelings of hunger.
ANSWER: c
38. Where in the brain does information about the body’s levels of leptin, CCK, insulin, and ghrelin converge?
a. olfactory lobe
b. prefrontal cortex
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus
ANSWER: d

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39. Which of the following manipulations could help you with a goal to reduce the amount of food that you eat
at a meal?
a. Serve only one type of food.
b. Place foods on the table in larger bowls than usual.
c. Serve better tasting food.
d. Eat in the presence of a lot of other people.
ANSWER: a
40. According to bin theory, under which of the following conditions would someone be most likely to eat the
most popcorn?
a. when popcorn is served in individual portions
b. when popcorn is served in a very large bowl, and people help themselves
c. when popcorn is served in conjunction with a wide range of other foods
d. when a woman is eating popcorn on a date with an attractive man
ANSWER: a
41. According to the principle of sensory-specific satiety, under which of the following conditions would
someone be most likely to overeat?
a. when soup and crackers are served in individual portions
b. when popcorn is served in a very large bowl, and people help themselves
c. when a variety of foods are served on a buffet table
d. when people are distracted by conversation or other activities
ANSWER: a
42. Which of the following manipulations would you employ if you wanted to use the phenomenon of sensory-
specific satiety to alter your food intake?
a. Change the colour of your dining room.
b. Alter the variety of foods served at each meal.
c. Change the size of the bowls you eat from.
d. Alter the times of day that you eat.
ANSWER: b
43. Which of the following would NOT be considered an environmental factor in the regulation of hunger?
a. hormonal fluctuations
b. stress
c. food-related cues
d. learned preferences and habits
ANSWER: a
44. How does the presence of others affect eating, according to Herman and Polivy’s inhibitory norm model?
a. It always inhibits the rate of eating, unless the others are family members.
b. It increases the rate of disordered eating in vulnerable individuals.
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c. It always enhances the rate of eating.
d. It generally inhibits eating, but in some situations may increase eating behaviour.
ANSWER: d
45. When Harvey was a child, the only time he ate turnips was when he was at his grandmother’s house for
Christmas dinner. Now, as an adult, Harvey loves the taste of turnips because he associates them with Christmas
at his grandmother’s house. Which of the following best explains Harvey’s preference for the taste of turnips in
this example?
a. operant conditioning
b. observational learning
c. classical conditioning
d. homeostatic conditioning
ANSWER: c
46. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the roles of genetic predispositions and learning for
flavour preferences?
a. At birth, we have a preference for only high-fat foods; other preferences are learned.
b. Flavour preferences are innate and change across the life span only due to maturation.
c. Flavour preferences are entirely learned and dependent upon degree of exposure.
d. Some flavour preferences are innate, but learning modifies our preferences.
ANSWER: d
47. What has happened to the rate of obesity in Canada since 1981?
a. It has dropped to 15 percent below the American rate.
b. It has remained constant.
c. It has doubled.
d. It has increased by 15 percent over the American rate.
ANSWER: c
48. Which of the following is a measure of weight that controls for variations in height?
a. reaction range
b. obesity quotient
c. set point
d. body mass index
ANSWER: d
49. Increases in the rate of obesity in modern industrialized societies may have an evolutionary basis. What is
the specific evolutionary hypothesis about body weight?
a. We have genes for obesity.
b. We evolved to have a metabolism that speeds up dramatically whenever we gain weight.
c. Being obese increases your reproductive capacity.
d. It was adaptive to overeat and store fat to survive environments where food was scarce.
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ANSWER: d
50. How should obesity be understood according to evolutionary theorists?

a. It is associated with genetic flaws that will be selected against in future generations.
b. It is the result of adaptations to conserve energy, which are not needed in an environment with
constant access to food.
c. It is a result of selection for heavier and heavier bodies over time.
d. It is a modern disorder that results from a series of mutations in the genes associated with hunger
control.
ANSWER: b
51. What have researchers found about adoptees during adoption studies designed to examine the role of genetic
disposition in obesity?
a. They were halfway between the two sets of parents in weight.
b. They were more like their adoptive parents in weight.
c. They were more like their biological parents in weight.
d. They did not resemble either set of parents in weight.
ANSWER: c
52. What is suggested by the fact that the correlation in weight between identical twins reared apart is higher
than that between fraternal twins reared together?
a. Weight is influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors.
b. Weight is influenced more by environmental factors than by genetics.
c. Weight is affected equally by genetics and environmental factors.
d. Weight is not affected by either genetics or environmental factors.
ANSWER: a
53. Which of the following groups of Canadians seems to have the lowest levels of exercise?
a. children in the top income brackets
b. urban individuals with low income
c. rural adults
d. women who are stay-at-home parents
ANSWER: b
54. What does the set point for body weight refer to?
a. the lowest possible weight at which the person can survive
b. a person’s current weight
c. the highest weight the person can attain by unrestricted eating
d. a person’s natural point of stability in body weight
ANSWER: d
55. Which of the following types of cues would have the greatest effect on someone who is obese, compared to
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someone who is of normal weight, according to Herman and Polivy’s revised externality hypothesis?
a. the appearance of a piece of pie
b. internal feelings of hunger
c. social norms about food consumption
d. the presence of other people
ANSWER: a
56. According to the externality hypothesis of hunger, which of the following cues is an internal cue?
a. stomach contractions
b. self-esteem
c. the odour of cooking food
d. recipes
ANSWER: a
57. What does the body monitor, according to set-point theory?

a. level of glucose in the bloodstream
b. level of fat stores
c. activity of the hypothalamus
d. basal metabolic rate
ANSWER: b
58. What does set-point theory suggest about set point and weight change?
a. Those with a low set point will have the hardest time losing weight.
b. Those with a high set point will often lose any weight they gain.
c. Those with a low set point will often regain any weight they lose.
d. Those with a high set point will often regain any weight they lose.
ANSWER: d
59. What does set point depend on, according to theorists?

a. bone structure
b. number of fat cells
c. activity level
d. current body weight
ANSWER: b
60. Juan has been obese for most of his life, maintaining a very high body weight that did not seem to fluctuate
much over time. Juan changed his diet and dramatically increased his exercise level, and subsequently lost a lot
of weight. Over the next few years, Juan maintained his new, lower body weight. Which of the following
theories best accounts for this type of example?
a. lipostatic theory
b. set-point theory
c. glucostatic theory
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d. settling-point theory
ANSWER: d
61. When does weight remain stable according to settling-point theory?

a. when the individual is healthy
b. when the individual gradually increases food intake across the life span
c. when the individual gradually decreases food intake across the life span
d. when there are no durable changes in any of the factors that influence it
ANSWER: d
62. Which of the following views is most optimistic in terms of the likelihood that someone could make and
maintain a significant change in body weight?
a. set-point theory
b. settling-point theory
c. externality hypothesis
d. bin heuristic
ANSWER: b
63. Which of the following concepts best explains the behaviour of a person who believes she has cheated on a
diet, and then proceeds to go on an eating binge because they’ve already blown the diet anyway?
a. genetic predisposition
b. reaction range
c. set point
d. dietary restraint
ANSWER: d
64. What is the relationship between dietary restraint and overeating?

a. People tend to see themselves as being either restrained or not, and this self-concept drives a great
deal of their food-related choices.
b. Some people have a genetic predisposition toward restraint, while others have a predisposition
toward overeating.
c. Those who tend to be restrained eaters have a paradoxical tendency to overeat due to their all-or-
nothing mentality.
d. Individuals who tend to overeat have a more difficult time learning the behavioural strategies
associated with dietary restraint.
ANSWER: c
65. Eating disorders affect approximately what percentage of Canadian women in their lifetime?
a. 1 percent
b. 3 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 13 percent
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ANSWER: b
66. Which of the following pieces of evidence supports the notion that people with eating disorders have a
distorted body image?
a. Eating disorders are more common among women than among men.
b. Eating disorders are more common among those with low self-esteem.
c. While 40 percent of Grade 10 girls think that they are fat, only 15 percent are objectively overweight.
d. Self-report data about food consumption is often inconsistent with body weight.
ANSWER: c
67. Approximately what percentage of 15- to 17-year-olds report engaging in sexual intercourse, according to
recent surveys and reports by government agencies?
a. 10 percent
b. 30 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 70 percent
ANSWER: b
68. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual response?
a. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm
b. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
c. plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
d. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
ANSWER: d
69. During which two phases of the human sexual response do heart rate, respiration rate, and blood pressure
increase sharply?
a. plateau and orgasm
b. excitement and orgasm
c. excitement and plateau
d. orgasm and resolution
ANSWER: b
70. Justus is reading an erotic story in a men’s magazine when he finds his respiration rate and heart rate
increasing. He is also experiencing penile erection. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is Justus
experiencing?
a. erecting
b. excitement
c. resolution
d. plateau
ANSWER: b

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71. Irene is listening to an audiobook of a romance novel while she is on her daily walk. Although she is not
walking especially fast, she finds that as she listens to one of the love scenes in the novel, her respiration rate
and heart rate increase. She is also experiencing vaginal moistness. Which phase is Irene experiencing based on
the phases described by Masters and Johnson?
a. plateau
b. excitement
c. resolution
d. orgasmic
ANSWER: b
72. What causes penile erection in males and the swelling of the clitoris in females?
a. engorgement of blood vessels
b. vasodilation
c. muscular tension
d. increased blood pressure
ANSWER: a
73. Sean and his wife have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. His level of arousal is still
increasing, and he has begun to secrete some seminal fluid from the tip of his penis. Which of Masters and
Johnson’s phases is he experiencing?
a. orgasmic
b. plateau
c. resolution
d. excitement
ANSWER: b
74. Alayna and her husband have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. Her level of arousal is still
increasing, and she can feel some tightening in her vagina. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is she
experiencing?
a. resolution
b. orgasmic
c. plateau
d. excitement
ANSWER: c
75. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular contractions pulsate
through the pelvic area?
a. phallic
b. resolution
c. orgasmic
d. excitement
ANSWER: c

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76. Talia and her husband are having sex when Talia suddenly experiences a series of muscular contractions
throughout her pelvis. Which of the following is true based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson?
a. Talia will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.
b. It will be at least 20 minutes before Talia can become sexually aroused again.
c. Talia’s muscular contractions will prevent her from experiencing the orgasm phase.
d. Talia may experience another orgasm without going through a refractory period.
ANSWER: d
77. Which of the following statements regarding the human sexual response is LEAST accurate?
a. It is normal for sexual arousal to vary during lengthy foreplay.
b. Men are more likely than women to engage in intercourse without an orgasm.
c. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for males and females.
d. Women are far more likely than men to be multiorgasmic.
ANSWER: b
78. Which of the following generalizations was NOT supported by Masters and Johnson’s human sexuality
research?
a. Men are more apt to be multiorgasmic than women are.
b. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women.
c. Women are more apt than men to have intercourse without orgasm.
d. Sexual difficulties are most typically caused by psychological factors.
ANSWER: a
79. Which of the following questions would likely lead to the largest sex difference in responses?
a. Do you have an orgasm every time you have sex?
b. Have you ever experienced an orgasm?
c. Have you ever been sexually aroused without having an orgasm?
d. Did you experience an orgasm in your most recent sexual encounter?
ANSWER: a
80. Scott just experienced an orgasm. For about an hour, he cannot achieve another orgasm. Which phase of the
sexual response cycle is Scott in?
a. orgasmic
b. plateau
c. resolution
d. latency
ANSWER: c
81. Peter and his partner are having sex when Peter’s blood pressure increases sharply, and he experiences a
series of muscular contractions throughout his pelvis. Which of the following is likely based on research
conducted by Masters and Johnson?
a. Peter’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in his partner.
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b. Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time following his orgasm.
c. Peter is likely to experience several more orgasms before he enters a refractory period.
d. Peter will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.
ANSWER: b
82. Annette was experiencing a high level of sexual excitement as her partner kissed and caressed her. However,
the phone rang and interrupted them. Her heart rate and respiration rate are slowly returning to normal, but she
feels a sense of frustration. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is Annette experiencing?
a. post-orgasmic
b. plateau
c. resolution
d. refractory
ANSWER: c
83. Jarrod experienced an orgasm just over 30 minutes ago. He is still largely unresponsive to sexual
stimulation. Which of Masters and Johnson’s phases is Jarrod experiencing?
a. post-orgasmic
b. excitement
c. resolution
d. plateau
ANSWER: c
84. Which of the following best describes the refractory period?

a. the time between orgasms in multiorgasmic women
b. a time following female orgasm during which females are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
c. the time between initiation of intercourse and orgasm
d. a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to further stimulation
ANSWER: d
85. Which of the following researchers proposed parental investment theory?

a. Robert Trivers
b. Walter Cannon
c. David Buss
d. Stanley Schachter
ANSWER: a
86. Which theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in the way of
time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the next generation?
a. inclusive fitness theory
b. drive theory
c. parental investment theory
d. homeostatic theory
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ANSWER: c
87. Imagine that scientists have just discovered a new species in which the males put their lives at risk to have
offspring, and the females do very little. Which sex should be more likely to be promiscuous, according to
parental investment theory, and why?
a. males, because of the greater risk associated with reproduction
b. females, because of the effects of estrogen
c. males, because of the effects of testosterone
d. females, because of the lesser risk associated with reproduction
ANSWER: d
88. Imagine that scientists have just discovered a new species in which the females are highly promiscuous and
the males are very picky about their sexual partners. Which of the following should you predict about this
species, according to parental investment theory?
a. The females of the species are not successful at reproduction, because their offspring are not taken
care of.
b. The males of the species have very high sex drives.
c. The males of the species do not help raise the offspring.
d. The females of the species provide less care to the offspring than do the males.
ANSWER: d
89. When a woman describes her ideal mate, which of the following traits will have a lower priority compared
to when a man describes his ideal mate?
a. intelligence
b. ambition
c. physical attractiveness
d. social status
ANSWER: c
90. Which of the following is the evolutionary hypothesis tested by Buss and his colleagues in a cross-cultural
study of mating preferences?
a. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same for females but differ for males
from culture to culture.
b. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will differ from males to females.
c. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same from culture to culture.
d. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be basically the same for males but differ for
females from culture to culture.
ANSWER: c
91. Which of the following characteristics in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by women than
by men, according to the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37 cultures?
a. youthfulness
b. status
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c. kindness
d. physical attractiveness
ANSWER: b
92. Which of the following characteristics in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by men than by
women, according to the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37 cultures?
a. youthfulness
b. financial prospects
c. status
d. kindness
ANSWER: a
93. The results from the Featured Study on women’s ratings of male attractiveness suggested that women pick
up on cues that are relevant to reproductive success. Which of the following is associated with women finding
men attractive for a long-term relationship?
a. high levels of salivary testosterone
b. high levels of parental interest
c. high ratings of masculinity
d. high ratings of income potential
ANSWER: b
94. Which of the following was associated with males whom women found most attractive for short-term sexual
relationships, in the Featured Study on women’s ratings of male attractiveness?
a. high ratings of parental interest
b. high levels of testosterone
c. high ratings of promiscuity
d. high levels of cortisol
ANSWER: b
95. Which of the following effects has NOT been supported by research?
a. Viewing erotic materials is correlated with having a higher number of lifetime sex partners.
b. Viewing erotic materials elevates the likelihood of overt sexual activity for a few hours immediately
after the exposure.
c. Viewing erotic materials changes one’s attitudes to be more liberal about sexual practices.
d. Viewing erotic materials tends to cause sex crimes.
ANSWER: d
96. Dudley enjoys watching sexually explicit films, especially films that include some violence and aggression.
What might you predict about Dudley’s behaviour after viewing these types of films, based on the results from
research studies in this area?
a. Dudley will be more likely to seek out bisexual relationships.
b. Dudley is less likely to find the women that he meets sexually attractive.

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c. Dudley will find the idea of sexual assault more offensive.
d. Dudley will be somewhat more aggressive toward women.
ANSWER: d
97. About what proportion of women surveyed on 32 American college campuses by Koss, Gidycz, and
Wisniewski reported having been victimized by date rape?
a. 2 in 3
b. 1 in 2
c. 1 in 7
d. 1 in 15
ANSWER: c
98. What approximate percentage of reported rapes is committed by someone who is known by the victim?
a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 90 percent
ANSWER: d
99. What term describes a person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the other sex?
a. homosexual
b. bisexual
c. monogamous
d. heterosexual
ANSWER: d
100. What term describes a person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of either sex?
a. bisexual
b. homosexual
c. heterosexual
d. asexual
ANSWER: a
101. Which of the following terms is most likely to be used by a homosexual woman to describe her sexual
orientation?
a. bisexual
b. lesbian
c. straight
d. gay
ANSWER: b
102. What did Alfred Kinsey suggest about homosexuality and heterosexuality?
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a. They are orientations that are a function of genetics.
b. They are end points on a continuum.
c. They are value judgments and should be of little concern to scientists.
d. They are orientations based on early learning.
ANSWER: b
103. What proportion of the population could reasonably be characterized as homosexual, according to recent
studies?
a. between 12 and 15 percent
b. less than 1 percent
c. just over 18 percent
d. approximately 5 to 8 percent
ANSWER: d
104. Which of the following approaches to explaining the origins of homosexuality has received the most
empirical support?
a. classical conditioning
b. biological
c. psychoanalytic
d. operant conditioning
ANSWER: b
105. Which of the following statements regarding sexual orientation has NOT been supported by empirical
evidence?
a. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been paired with sexual
arousal.
b. There is a greater concordance for sexual orientation between identical twins than between other
siblings.
c. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to abnormally high levels
of androgens.
d. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and heterosexual men.
ANSWER: a
106. Which of the following experiences during prenatal development has been associated with the development
of sexual orientation?
a. hormonal secretions
b. severe physical trauma
c. neural abnormalities
d. loss of oxygen
ANSWER: a
107. Which of the following individuals is most likely to report that sexual orientation changed or emerged in
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adulthood?
a. a homosexual woman
b. a heterosexual woman
c. a homosexual man
d. a heterosexual man
ANSWER: a
108. Which motive leads you to feel bad when your friends get together without you?
a. dominance
b. achievement
c. affiliation
d. ostracism
ANSWER: c
109. What is the evolutionary benefit of the affiliation motive?

a. It makes us more fertile.
b. It allows us to have the protection and resources of a group.
c. It allows us to take control of others and take their resources.
d. It makes us more competitive.
ANSWER: b
110. What is the brain’s reaction to ostracism?

a. increased activity in regions associated with pain
b. decreased activity in regions associated with sexual thoughts
c. increased activity in regions associated with higher cognitive processing
d. decreased activity in regions associated with neuroticism
ANSWER: a
111. What type of motive is associated with the need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet
high standards of excellence?
a. competence motive
b. intellect motive
c. power motive
d. achievement motive
ANSWER: d
112. Max has the need to master difficult challenges, to outperform others, and to meet high standards for
excellence. According to researchers such as McClelland, Max most likely has which of the following?
a. low achievement motivation
b. high fear of failure
c. high achievement motivation

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d. high affiliation needs
ANSWER: c
113. Which of the following needs is NOT generally considered a component of the achievement motive?
a. outperforming others
b. being admired by others
c. desiring to excel
d. meeting high standards of excellence
ANSWER: b
114. Maria is pursuing a highly competitive career, and she works very hard and persistently at her tasks. What
does Maria’s behaviour reflect?
a. high power need
b. high affiliation needs
c. high achievement motivation
d. external locus of control
ANSWER: c
115. Which of the following psychologists is most closely identified with research on the achievement motive?
a. David Buss
b. Henry Murray
c. David McClelland
d. Walter Cannon
ANSWER: c
116. What is assessed by the Thematic Apperception Test?

a. crystallized intelligence
b. aptitude
c. arousal level
d. motives
ANSWER: d
117. What type of test is the Thematic Apperception Test?

a. aptitude test
b. achievement test
c. projective test
d. criterion-based test
ANSWER: c
118. Which test has been used a great deal to measure affiliation and achievement needs?
a. Thematic Apperception Test
b. Rorschach Ink Blot Test
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c. Kinsey Scale
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test
ANSWER: a
119. Royce is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) card. In his story, Royce
focuses on the character’s anxiety as she prepares a speech that will be presented in front of her classmates. He
indicates that the character has spent a great deal of time worrying whether the speech may alienate some of her
friends. Which of the following does Royce’s response to this TAT card suggest that he most likely has?
a. low need for achievement
b. high need for achievement
c. low need for affiliation
d. high need for affiliation
ANSWER: d
120. Breana is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test card. In her story, Breana
focuses on the fact that the character is daydreaming about being away from all the pressures of work and
family, and spending quiet time in an isolated location. Which of the following does Breana’s answer suggest
that she most likely has?
ANSWER: c
121. Alisha is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test card. In her story, Alisha
focuses on the individual’s lack of persistence when undertaking projects, and she also describes how the
individual prefers situations that have little competition. Which of the following does Alisha’s answer suggest
that she most likely has?
a. low need for affiliation
b. high need for affiliation
c. low need for achievement
d. high need for achievement
ANSWER: b
122. Austin is telling a story about a character on a Thematic Apperception Test card. In his story, Austin
focuses on the character’s desire to succeed, and he describes how unhappy the person will be if she does not
succeed in reaching her goal. Which of the following does Austin’s answer suggest that he most likely has?
ANSWER: b

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123. Which of the following characteristics is NOT likely to be found in individuals high in achievement
motivation?
a. tendency to select the hardest tasks
b. tendency to delay gratification
c. future orientation
d. persistence
ANSWER: a
124. Stefan is an individual who has a high need for achievement. His boss has three jobs that need to be
completed: one job is easy, one job is moderately difficult, and one job is extremely difficult. Which of the
following should you expect Stefan to do if he is allowed to choose which of the three jobs he will undertake for
his boss?
a. Ask his boss to make the choice, to avoid a potentially negative evaluation.
b. Choose the moderately difficult job.
c. Choose the easy job, to maximize his chance for success.
d. Maximize the task difficulty by selecting the hardest job.
ANSWER: b
125. Which of the following characteristics is NOT expected from a person high in achievement motivation?
a. tendency to choose tasks of intermediate difficulty
b. tendency to seek immediate gratification
c. greater persistence on tasks
d. tendency to choose competitive occupations
ANSWER: b
126. Which of the following statements regarding the need for achievement is the most accurate?
a. Achievement motive is generally determined by situational factors.
b. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality.
c. There is a strong genetic component in the need for achievement.
d. The need for achievement is highly variable in a given person throughout his or her lifetime.
ANSWER: b
127. Noor is an individual who has a high need for achievement. She is trying to decide which one of four
possible courses to take. The first is supposed to be easy, with an “A” practically guaranteed for very little
effort. The second is supposed to be moderately difficult, but with effort an “A” is possible. The third is
supposed to be a “killer” course with little chance of earning a grade higher than a “B.” The fourth is a seminar-
style course with no grades assigned. What should you expect Noor to choose?
a. the moderately difficult course that requires effort for a high grade
b. the course that has no assigned grades
c. the easy course, which practically guarantees a high grade
d. the “killer” course to maximize her level of task difficulty
ANSWER: a

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128. Lauren and Tran both spend six hours per week studying for their botany course. Lauren is concerned that
if she doesn’t study, she will fail the course; Tran is concerned that if he doesn’t study, he won’t earn the
highest grade in the class. Which of the following is likely true?
a. Both students are motivated by a need for achievement.
b. Tran is motivated by a fear of failure, and Lauren is motivated by a need for achievement.
c. Lauren is motivated by a fear of failure, and Tran is motivated by a need for achievement.
d. Both students are motivated by a fear of failure.
ANSWER: c
129. Given a high level of achievement motivation, which type of task should maximize one’s sense of
accomplishment?
a. any task that is completed
b. intermediate difficulty task
c. very easy task
d. very difficult task
ANSWER: b
130. When does the pursuit of achievement increase, according to Atkinson’s expectancy-value model?
a. as the probability of success increases and the incentive value of success decreases
b. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both increase
c. as the probability of success decreases and the incentive value of success increases
d. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both decrease
ANSWER: b
131. Travis has been doing quite well in his political science course, and he has just started working on his final
paper for that class. His professor announces that the top paper will earn a prize of a $200 gift card for the
bookstore? Which of the following has changed in this achievement situation?
a. Travis’s achievement motivation
b. probability of success
c. incentive value of success
d. relative task difficulty
ANSWER: b
132. Boris has a high need for achievement, and he is currently enrolled in a philosophy course that is required
for his major. The professor has never been known to give a student a grade higher than a B and has mentioned
that fact in class. What will Boris likely do under these conditions?
a. He will drop the course and switch to a different major.
b. He will exert the maximum effort he can because he has a high need for achievement.
c. He will not exert his maximum effort because the course has a low incentive value for him.
d. He will not exert his maximum effort because he has a low expectation of success.
ANSWER: d

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133. What are the three components of emotion?
a. behavioural, physiological, social
b. social, situational, cognitive
c. cognitive, situational, physiological
d. cognitive, behavioural, physiological
ANSWER: d
134. Which of the following do psychologists generally rely on in studying the cognitive components of
emotions?
a. heart rate
b. subjects’ verbal reports
c. galvanic skin response
d. scores on projective tests
ANSWER: b
135. Which component of an emotion refers to the subjective conscious experience of that emotion?
a. cognitive
b. behavioural
c. physiological
d. affective
ANSWER: a
136. Paolo is about to give a speech in front of a roomful of strangers. As he steps up to the podium, he feels
anxious and nervous. What does this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Paolo’s emotional experience
b. cognitive component in Paolo’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Paolo’s emotional experience
d. physiological component in Paolo’s emotional experience
ANSWER: b
137. Janie is listening to several of her friends describe the miserable conditions they saw when they were in
Bosnia as part of the peacekeeping force. As she listens to the stories of starvation and ruin, Janie feels
overwhelmed by sadness. What does this example illustrate?
a. physiological component in Janie’s emotional experience
b. cognitive component in Janie’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Janie’s emotional experience
d. behavioural component in Janie’s emotional experience
ANSWER: b
138. Imagine that you’ve just won the lottery and are thrilled to have millions of dollars at your disposal. Which
of the following would likely be true if you actually did win the lottery, based on evidence about affective
forecasting?
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a. You would actually be happier than you can possibly imagine right now.
b. You would actually have very little change in your average emotions from pre-win to post-win.
c. You would likely be quite happy about the win, but then become depressed as a result of
compensatory responses.
d. You would be disappointed, because you had built it up too much in your mind.
ANSWER: b
139. Malcolm is reading a mystery novel, and as the action builds, he finds he is breathing more quickly than
usual, and he feels like his stomach is tied in knots. What does this example illustrate?
a. cognitive component in Malcolm’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Malcolm’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Malcolm’s emotional experience
d. behavioural component in Malcolm’s emotional experience
ANSWER: b
140. Which of the following is associated with most of the measurable physiological arousal associated with
emotion?
a. medulla
b. autonomic nervous system
c. forebrain
d. central nervous system
ANSWER: b
141. As Danica saw the headlights coming directly at her through the fog on the highway, her blood pressure
rose quickly, and she felt her heart start to race. What does this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Danica’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Danica’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Danica’s emotional experience
d. cognitive component in Danica’s emotional experience
ANSWER: b
142. What is the galvanic skin response used for?

a. general measure of autonomic arousal
b. measure of the subjective experience of emotion
c. index of honesty
d. measure of conscious emotion
ANSWER: a
143. What is the name for a device that measures autonomic arousal by recording heart rate, respiration rate, and
blood pressure?
a. electromyocardiograph
b. galvanic response meter
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c. electroencephalograph
d. polygraph
ANSWER: d
144. Which of the following statements about polygraphs is most accurate?

a. Polygraphs can detect lying with almost 100 percent accuracy.
b. Polygraphs can detect positive emotional states with a high degree of accuracy and negative
emotional states with a low degree of accuracy.
c. Polygraphs can detect emotionality that accompanies lying some of the time, but with a high error
rate.
d. Polygraphs cannot detect emotionality at all.
ANSWER: c
145. Victoria is extremely upset because she has been falsely accused of stealing money from her employer. Her
lawyer has suggested that Victoria take a polygraph test to prove her innocence. Victoria asks for your opinion.
What should you tell her based on the research into the accuracy of polygraphs?
a. They sometimes wrongly indicate that innocent people are guilty, but are highly accurate in detecting
guilt.
b. They measure only overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether people are lying.
c. They are extremely accurate, and if Victoria is truly innocent, she will pass with no problem.
d. They sometimes wrongly indicate that guilty people are innocent, but are highly accurate in detecting
innocence.
ANSWER: b
146. Which of the following plays a particularly central role in conditioned fear?
a. ventromedial hypothalamus
b. amygdala
c. pineal gland
d. thalamus
ANSWER: b
147. Which emotion is most closely associated with the amygdala?

a. surprise
b. fear
c. sadness
d. happiness
ANSWER: b
148. Karen is about to be attacked by a snarling dog. The sensory information about this event arrives at her
thalamus. What happens next in her brain?
a. Information is sent on a fast pathway to the amygdala and a slow pathway to the cortex.
b. Information is sent to the visual and auditory cortex for rapid perception of the stimuli.

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c. Information is sent rapidly to the cortex so that the emotional content of the event can be processed.
d. The thalamus immediately inhibits the emotional content of the event so that she can cope with the
event.
ANSWER: a
149. Which of the following brain areas is associated with voluntary control over emotions?
a. limbic system
c. thalamus
d. amygdala
ANSWER: b
150. Which of the following brain areas is active for emotions associated with pain and with difficult choices?
a. cingulate cortex
c. thalamus
d. ventromedial hypothalamus
ANSWER: a
151. Renaud is describing a whitewater rafting trip. As he talks about the raft crashing through rapids, Tiana’s
mouth drops, and she finds she is clutching at the arms of her chair. What does this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Tiana’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Tiana’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Tiana’s emotional experience
d. cognitive component in Tiana’s emotional experience
ANSWER: a
152. Ezra is watching a movie, and as the star of the movie tries to deal with various difficulties, Ezra finds
himself laughing uncontrollably, with tears streaming down his face. What does this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Ezra’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Ezra’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Ezra’s emotional experience
d. cognitive component in Ezra’s emotional experience
ANSWER: a
153. What does the facial feedback hypothesis suggest?

a. The internal state causes the facial expression.
b. A facial expression is simply an external sign of the internal feelings.
c. You can affect how you feel by making a certain facial expression.
d. Other people can identify your emotional state by observing your facial expressions.
ANSWER: c

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154. Which of the following states that the muscles of the face send information to the brain and that
information affects the emotion we feel?
a. James-Lange theory
b. Darwin’s facial expression theory
c. facial feedback hypothesis
d. Schachter’s cognitive theory
ANSWER: c
155. Warrick was posing for his girlfriend while she painted a picture for her art class. She had asked him to
hold his mouth in a frown because she was trying to depict someone who was sad and dejected. Now that he has
finished posing, Warrick finds that he is feeling somewhat unhappy, but he is not really sure why. Which of the
following is this type of reaction consistent with?
a. facial feedback hypothesis
b. common-sense view of emotion
c. James-Lange theory of emotion
d. two-factor theory of emotion
ANSWER: a
156. Diane has been feeling somewhat down for the past few days. Her sister suggests that if Diane smiled a
little more, she might feel better. Which of the following is consistent with that suggestion?
a. common-sense view of emotion
b. James-Lange theory of emotion
c. two-factor theory of emotion
d. facial feedback hypothesis
ANSWER: d
157. Which of the following statements regarding the behavioural expression of emotion is LEAST accurate?
a. The facial expressions that go with the basic emotions seem to be innate.
b. Facial expressions reveal a variety of basic emotions.
c. People are reasonably skilled at deciphering emotions from others’ facial expressions.
d. People who have been blind since birth do not smile and frown as sighted people do.
ANSWER: d
158. Which of the following is NOT an emotion that is easily identified from facial cues in photographs,
according to research by Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen?
a. anger
b. happiness
c. contentment
d. fear
ANSWER: c
159. Which of the following emotional expressions is NOT consistently identified cross-culturally, according to
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research results?
a. sadness
b. suspicion
c. fear
d. happiness
ANSWER: b
160. Which of the following has been found by Ekman, who has conducted a number of studies of facial
expressions associated with emotions?
a. There is a lot of variability in recognition ofanger from culture to culture.
b. There are six fundamental emotions that almost everyone agrees on.
c. There are too many different emotions to identify.
d. There are common expressions for happiness and sadness only.
ANSWER: b
161. What is the term for cultural norms that regulate the appropriate expression of emotions?
a. polygraphs
b. display rules
c. emotional cues
d. cognitions
ANSWER: b
162. Based on cultural differences in display rules, in which of the following countries would you expect
negative emotions like sadness to be suppressed or hidden?
a. Canada
b. Japan
c. France
d. United States
ANSWER: b
163. As Tevin walked into the strange house, the lights went out and he heard a loud growl off to one side. What
should Tevin report, based on the common-sense view of emotions?
a. “This situation makes me tremble and it makes me feel afraid.”
b. “I feel afraid because I am trembling.”
c. “I am trembling because I am afraid.”
d. “My trembling must be fear because this situation is dangerous.”
ANSWER: c
164. According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, which of the following must you perceive in order to
have a conscious experience of emotion?
a. tension in the facial muscles
b. autonomic arousal
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c. others’ emotions
d. skin conductancy
ANSWER: b
165. Which determinants of emotion are central to the James-Lange theory?

a. behavioural
b. cognitive
c. physiological
d. psychological
ANSWER: c
166. Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which of the following explanations best represents
the James-Lange theory?
a. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.”
b. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.”
c. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.”
d. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.”
ANSWER: a
167. Dylan is on a roller coaster that has just reached the top of the first climb and is starting to drop. How
should Dylan describe his experience based on the James-Lange theory of emotions?
a. “My racing heart must mean I’m terrified because everyone else is screaming.”
b. “The sight of the drop makes my heart race, and it makes me feel terrified.”
c. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.”
d. “My heart is racing because I am terrified.”
ANSWER: c
168. Imagine that an individual has taken medication that has suppressed his or her overall level of autonomic
arousal. Which theory would be supported if this person reports less intense emotional experiences?
a. common-sense view of emotion
b. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
c. James-Lange theory of emotion
d. facial feedback hypothesis
ANSWER: c
169. As Erica watched the televised drawing of lottery numbers, she realized she had the winning combination.
Which theory would be supported if her heart starts to race at the same instant that she feels euphoria over
winning the lottery?
a. James-Lange theory of emotion
b. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion
c. Izard’s evolutionary theory of emotion
d. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
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ANSWER: d
170. When does the conscious experience of emotion occur, relative to physiological arousal, according to the
Cannon-Bard theory?
a. only when arousal is absent
b. after physiological arousal
c. at the same time as physiological arousal
d. prior to physiological arousal
ANSWER: c
171. While Walter is out riding, his horse suddenly rears up when a small animal scurries across the path. How
should Walter describe his experience based on the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions?
a. “My heart is racing because I am terrified.”
b. “The rearing of the horse makes my heart race, and it makes me feel terrified.”
c. “My racing heart must mean I’m terrified because this situation is dangerous.”
d. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.”
ANSWER: b
172. Which of the following factors is NOT considered in the common-sense view of emotions, the James-
Lange theory of emotions, or the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions?
a. interaction between physiological responses and conscious experiences
b. expressive reactions
c. physiological responses
d. cognitive interpretations
ANSWER: d
173. Which of the following reflects Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion?

a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive interpretation of that
arousal.
b. Emotion occurs when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and to the autonomic
nervous system.
c. Emotions develop because of their adaptive value.
d. Different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions.
ANSWER: a
174. What do we use to distinguish between the experiences of different emotions, according to Schachter’s
two-factor theory of emotion?
a. our interpretation of the situation
b. emotional expression of others
c. type of behaviour involved
d. type of bodily pattern involved
ANSWER: a
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175. What is emphasized in Schachter’s concept of emotion?
a. We can have emotions without bodily arousal.
b. Thoughts precede felt emotion.
c. Different emotions must be based on different patterns of arousal.
d. Both bodily arousal and our thoughts about the situation play a role in emotion.
ANSWER: d
176. “General bodily arousal contributes to emotion, but one’s interpretation of what is happening gives the
specific emotion.” Which of the following theorists is most likely to have made that statement?
a. Ivan Pavlov
b. Stanley Schachter
c. William James
d. Walter Cannon
ANSWER: b
Schachter’s two-factor theory?
a. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.”
b. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.”
c. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.”
d. “My shaking must be due to fear, because my house is on fire.”
ANSWER: d
178. It is Emilie’s ninth birthday, and her parents have just brought out the biggest birthday present she has ever
seen. Her eyes widen and her heart starts to race as she eagerly tears the wrappings off her gift. How would
Schachter describe Emilie’s experience based on the two-factor theory of emotion?
a. “Her pulse is racing because she is happy.”
b. “The huge present makes her pulse race, and it makes her feel happy.”
c. “Her racing pulse means she is happy because she interprets this as an enjoyable situation.”
d. “She feels happy because her pulse is racing.”
ANSWER: c
179. Akbar takes an antihistamine, but he doesn’t realize that the medication will also increase his overall level
of autonomic arousal. Thirty minutes after he has taken the medication, he is introduced to Stella. If Akbar
incorrectly attributes his increased arousal as attraction for Stella, which of the following theories would be
supported by this example?
a. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
b. James-Lange theory of emotion
c. Izard’s evolutionary theory of emotion
d. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion
ANSWER: d

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180. Which theorists agree that autonomic arousal precedes the conscious experience of emotion?
a. James, Lange, and Schachter
b. Maslow, McClelland, and Murray
c. Cannon, Bard, and Atkinson
d. Tomkins, Izard, and Plutchik
ANSWER: a
181. Which of the following reflects evolutionary theories of emotion?

a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive interpretation of that
arousal.
b. Emotions occur when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and to the autonomic
nervous system.
c. Emotions developed because of their adaptive value.
d. Different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions.
ANSWER: c
evolutionary theories of emotion?
a. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.”
b. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.”
c. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.”
d. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.”
ANSWER: a
183. Which of the following is NOT part of the assumptions of evolutionary theories of emotion?
a. Humans have a relatively small number of innate emotions with adaptive value.
b. Emotions evolved after thought did.
c. Emotions originate in subcortical brain structures.
d. Emotions are largely innate.
ANSWER: b
184. How do evolutionary theorists account for the many different emotions that humans are capable of
experiencing?
a. Humans use their advanced cognitive skills to make fine distinctions between emotions.
b. Each emotion is associated with its own distinctive pattern of autonomic arousal.
c. A small number of primary emotions can occur in various combinations and at various intensities.
d. Each and every specific emotion evolved separately.
ANSWER: c
185. Evolutionary theorists propose that there are only a few innate primary emotions. What do they use to
explain the great variety of emotions that people describe?
a. suppressing natural reactions to stimuli
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b. forming new associations to original cues
c. blends of primary emotions and variations in intensity
d. learning new reactions later in life
ANSWER: c
186. When they discovered that their paycheques were going to be late this week, Raj was annoyed, Sylvester
was angry, and Levi was enraged. What would Robert Plutchik suggest about the emotions of the three men?
a. They were each labelling their emotions differently due to differences in experience.
b. They were experiencing different unique primary emotions.
c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion.
d. They were experiencing different unique secondary emotions.
ANSWER: c
187. As the three children approached the house that everyone claimed was haunted, Yvette was apprehensive,
Mackenzie was afraid, and Jayme was terrified. What would Robert Plutchik suggest about the experience of
the three children?
a. They were experiencing different unique primary emotions.
b. They were each labelling their emotions differently due to differences in experience.
c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion.
d. They were experiencing different unique secondary emotions.
ANSWER: c
188. Your text describes a number of approaches for explaining the experience of emotion. Which of the
following is supported by these differences?
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Psychology is empirical.
d. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
ANSWER: d
189. What is typically found when people are asked to rate their happiness?
a. Only those who are relatively healthy consider themselves happy.
b. The vast majority indicate that they are unhappy.
c. About half the respondents indicate that they are happy.
d. A small minority place themselves below the neutral point on the scale.
ANSWER: d
190. Which of the following has research shown is NOT very important in determining one’s happiness?
a. work
b. personality
c. money
d. love and marriage
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ANSWER: c
191. Which of the following best characterizes the correlation between income and subjective feelings of
happiness?
a. positive, but weak
b. positive and strong
c. negative, but weak
d. negligible
ANSWER: a
192. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between parenthood and happiness is most
accurate?
a. The more children people have, the happier they tend to be.
b. People who have children are less happy than people without children.
c. People who have children are happier than people without children.
d. People who have children are neither more, nor less, happy than people without children.
ANSWER: d
193. If Mary is very attractive, what can you predict about her level of happiness?
a. She is likely exactly average in terms of happiness.
b. She is likely happier than average.
c. She is likely less happy than average.
d. She may have any level of happiness.
ANSWER: d
194. What is the correlation between health status and subjective well-being?
a. negligible
b. strongly positive
c. moderately positive
d. negative
ANSWER: c
195. Which would be considered the best predictor of happiness out of the following variables?
a. parenthood
b. intelligence
c. health
d. money
ANSWER: c
196. Which of the following is true when comparing various factors associated with happiness?
a. Income and status play larger roles than do health and social activity.
b. Internal factors are more important than external factors.
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c. Parenthood and culture play larger roles than do work and personality.
d. Physical factors are more important than emotional factors.
ANSWER: b
197. Which of the following statements regarding happiness is LEAST accurate?

a. The quest for happiness is never hopeless.
b. Increases in income generally bring increases in happiness.
c. When it comes to happiness, everything is relative.
d. Objective realities are not as important as subjective feelings.
ANSWER: b
198. Which of the following variables would be considered the best predictor of happiness?
a. intelligence
b. health
c. money
d. personality
ANSWER: d
199. Fernando and Isabelle are both seniors at Central High, and their school’s basketball team just won the
divisional championship. Fernando is used to his team winning a lot, while Isabelle is new to the school and
was not expecting the win. What will Isabelle do compared to Fernando, based on the research on hedonic
adaptation?
a. be less excited by the win, because she wasn’t expecting it
b. be more excited by the win, because it is not a typical experience for her
c. underestimate Central High’s chances for future victories
d. overestimate Central High’s chances for future victories
ANSWER: b
200. Marina and Deven both received a “C” on their last English papers. Marina is accustomed to getting As,
and Deven doesn’t usually get good grades on papers. What should you expect, based on the research on
hedonic adaptation?
a. Both students will be equally disappointed by the grades they received.
b. Marina will be more disappointed by the grade that she received.
c. Deven will be more disappointed by the grade that she received.
d. Neither student will be disappointed by the grades they received, because a “C” is still a passing
grade.
ANSWER: b
201. What is hedonic adaptation?

a. the tendency to discount positive events that you have never experienced
b. the tendency to view positive events relative to a standard that is based on your experience
c. the tendency for natural selection to act on beneficial emotional traits, but not on maladaptive ones
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d. the tendency to seek out pleasurable events
ANSWER: b
202. If someone has just provided a series of reasons why his beliefs are true, what has he provided?
a. arguments
b. attributions
c. pretences
d. premises
ANSWER: d
203. Which of the following is a premise for which no proof of evidence is offered?
a. statement
b. argument
c. assumption
d. attribution
ANSWER: c
204. Complete the following analogy: Premises are to conclusions as _____.

a. a bird is to feathers
b. legs are to a table
c. a USB memory stick is to a computer
d. a pencil is to a pen
ANSWER: b
205. What is a non sequitur?

a. circular argument
b. weak analogy
c. false dichotomy
d. irrelevant reason
ANSWER: d
206. “We need to ban the use of video games for children under the age of 12, because obesity leads to serious
health consequences.” Which fallacy does this example illustrate?
a. non sequitur
b. circular argument
c. weak analogy
d. false dichotomy
ANSWER: a
207. Which of the following is this statement an example of: “We need to control Internet porn because it
currently is unregulated.”
a. irrelevant reasoning
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b. circular reasoning
c. weak analogy
d. false dichotomy
ANSWER: b
208. Which of the following is this statement an example of: “If marijuana is legalized, then the next thing you
know, heroin will be legal.”
a. weak analogy
b. irrelevant reasoning
c. slippery slope
d. circular reasoning
ANSWER: c
209. Which of the following asserts that two concepts or events are similar in some way?
a. dichotomy
b. slippery slope
c. analogy
d. argument
ANSWER: c
210. “Either the government reduces taxes or it demonstrates that it hates entrepreneurs.” Which fallacy does
this example illustrate?
a. false dichotomy
b. weak analogy
c. circular argument
d. slippery slope
ANSWER: a
211. “We can ban video games, or we can hasten the moral decay of modern society.” Which fallacy does this
example illustrate?
a. slippery slope
b. weak analogy
c. false dichotomy
d. circular reasoning
ANSWER: c
Lucy
Lucy is a 10-year-old who has just completed a typical intelligence test. Her overall score places her right at the
average for children her age. She did not score equally well on all components of the test, however. One part of
the test was really problematic for Lucy. When she had to assemble blocks to match a design, she understood
how to do the task but she had real difficulty just manipulating the blocks because her manual dexterity is very
poor and she kept fumbling with the pieces. Lucy got very frustrated with that task. When she realized that her
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frustration was likely going to make her even more likely to make mistakes, she stopped, took a deep breath,
and calmed herself down a bit. When she started back up again she made fewer mistakes. The test administrator
noticed Lucy’s distress and said, “Don’t worry, lots of little girls have trouble with the blocks.” Lucy started
making mistakes again after that.
212. Which theory best accounts for John’s interest in eating at the breakfast meeting?
a. incentive
b. drive
c. settling-point
d. homeostatic
ANSWER: a
213. Which areas of the brain are likely to be active as John experiences fear about his big presentation?
a. lateral hypothalamus
b. right frontal lobe
c. amygdala
d. cerebellum
ANSWER: c
214. Which area of John’s brain would become active as he gains control over his emotions?
a. right hemisphere
c. amygdala
d. mesolimbic dopamine pathway
ANSWER: b
215. When John clenches his fists and then forces himself to chuckle at the “joke,” which component of
emotions is illustrated?
a. behavioural
b. cognitive
c. physiological
d. self-protective
ANSWER: a
216. Which type of logical fallacy was uttered by John’s supervisor?

a. slippery slope
b. false dichotomy
c. weak analogy
d. non sequitur
ANSWER: d
217. Compare and contrast sexual motivation with the basic motives of hunger and thirst. How well do the
concepts of drive and homeostasis contribute to understanding sexual motivation?
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ANSWER: Good answers will include and elaborate upon the following points: All are biologically based,
though hunger and thirst are necessary for individual survival and sex is not (though some
individuals might argue this point). All three seem to conform to the definition of “drive.” But sexual
motivation is not driven by deprivation as much as the other two, so that its satisfaction is not as
easily explained in terms of homeostasis or maintaining equilibrium. Sexual motivation in humans
appears to be more under the influence of incentives than are hunger and thirst. All are influenced by
a complex network of biological and social factors.
218. Suppose you are a university counsellor who wants to develop a program to improve students’ academic
performance. You believe that many students perform poorly because of motivational problems, including
simple lack of motivation as well as being motivated by the wrong things. What are some of the considerations
that should guide the design of your program?
ANSWER: Much of what theory and research have to say about motivation is relevant in designing such a
program. Good answers to this question should include and flesh out several of the following points:
The problem of lack of incentive can be dealt with, in part, by remembering that motivation can be
influenced by incentives. Expectancy-value models can be useful here. It’s important to know that
some motives are biological, some social. One’s level of motivation to perform well in school
depends on social experiences and can thus be manipulated through social experience. It may be
possible to link motivation to perform well in school with other motives that are already stronger,
such as the need for affiliation. Success along these lines will require understanding the nature of
individual differences in levels of these other motives. People with different levels of achievement
motivation respond differently to different levels of challenge. Finally, fear of failure also influences
efforts toward achievement.
219. Some psychologists have suggested that the function of emotions is to motivate the organism. What do you
think this means? Illustrate your points with examples.
ANSWER: It’s hard to think of any explanation for why we have emotions unless it’s to motivate behaviour.
Darwin believed emotions have adaptive value, that is, that they promote individual and species
survival by directing behaviour that is beneficial to the individual or species. This included the notion
that the apparently innate and universal facial expressions that accompany emotions serve as signals
to others and thereby influence their behaviour.
When emotions are experienced, autonomic arousal occurs, probably for the purpose of preparing the
body to respond to whatever stimuli led to the emotion being activated. This also suggests that the
purpose of emotion is to motivate. Schachter’s two-factor theory suggests that environmental cues
influence one’s interpretation of the autonomic arousal being experienced so that particular labels are
applied to emotional experiences. We then behave in accordance with the label. This also implies that
the mechanism of emotion operates for the purpose of guiding behaviour in particular directions.
220. As you’ll learn in Chapter 11, research on temperament shows that from the earliest days of life, infants
differ from each other in things like emotional tone, tempo of activity, and sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
Discuss these findings from the viewpoint of evolutionary theories of emotion.
ANSWER: Answers should reveal students’ understanding that when newborns exhibit characteristics such as
these, this strongly suggests that those characteristics are innate, based on heredity rather than
experience. The evolutionary perspective would state that such innate characteristics probably have
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adaptive value. Good answers should explore the possible adaptive benefits that temperamental
differences might confer.
221. Using an example, describe how the James-Lange theory, the Cannon-Bard theory, and Schachter’s two-
factor theory would explain the experience of an emotion.
ANSWER: Many possible types of examples, including an example of someone being afraid when seeing a
spider:
James-Lange theory would suggest that your heart races and you experience other physiological
arousal, and this physiological arousal causes the experience of fear.
Cannon-Bard theory would suggest that the experience of fear and the physiological arousal are both
caused by seeing the spider. The fear and the heart racing are triggered simultaneously.
Schacter’s two-factor theory would suggest that the physiological arousal is triggered by the sight of
the spider, and because you cognitively appraise the situation as a dangerous one, you interpret your
physiological arousal as fear (whereas you might interpret it as excitement if you saw a puppy instead
of a spider).

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Psychology Themes and Variations

Canadian 4th Edition Weiten Test Bank

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

2. Which of the following is a simple definition of motivation?

3. What state is referred to as homeostasis?

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

36. How do ghrelin and CCK influence hunger?

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

50. How should obesity be understood according to evolutionary theorists?

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

57. What does the body monitor, according to set-point theory?

59. What does set point depend on, according to theorists?

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

61. When does weight remain stable according to settling-point theory?

64. What is the relationship between dietary restraint and overeating?

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

84. Which of the following best describes the refractory period?

85. Which of the following researchers proposed parental investment theory?

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

109. What is the evolutionary benefit of the affiliation motive?

110. What is the brain’s reaction to ostracism?

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

116. What is assessed by the Thematic Apperception Test?

117. What type of test is the Thematic Apperception Test?

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

142. What is the galvanic skin response used for?

Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

144. Which of the following statements about polygraphs is most accurate?

147. Which emotion is most closely associated with the amygdala?

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion

153. What does the facial feedback hypothesis suggest?

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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion