NP1 Nursing Board Exam June 2008 Answer
Key 'Foundation of Professional Nursing
Practice'
100 Nursing Board Exam test questions of June
2008 Nurse Licensure Examination (NLE)
Nursing Practice 1 – Foundation of Professional
Nursing Practice
Fundamentals of Nursing
PART 1 Board Exam test questions 1 - 50
June 2008
Situation – Accurate computation prior to drug
administration is a basic skill all nurses must
have.
1. Rudolf is diagnosed with amoebiasis and is to
received Metronidazole (Flagyl) tablets 1.5 gm
daily in 3 divided doses for 7 consecutive days.
Which of the following is the correct dose of the
drug that the client will received per oral
administration?
A. 1,000 mg tid
B. 500 mg tid
C. 1,500 mg tid
D. 50 mg tid
2. Rhona, a 2 year old female was prescribed to
receive 62.5 mg suspension three times a day.
The available dose is 125 mg/ml. which of the
following should Nurse Paolo prepare for each
oral dose?
A. 0.5 ml
B. 1.5 ml
C. 2.5 ml
D. 10 ml
3. The physician ordered Potassium Chloride
(KCL) in D5W 1 liter to be infused in 24 hours
for Mrs. Gomez. Since Potassium Chloride is a
high risk drug, Nurse Robert used an
intravenous pump. Which of the following
should Nurse Robert do to safely administer this
drug?
A. Check the pump setting every 2 hours
B. Teach the client how the infusion pump
operates
C. Have another nurse check the infusion pump
setting
D. Set the alarm of the pump loud enough to be
heard
4. Baby Liza, 3 months old, with a congenital
heart deformity, has an order from her physician:
“give 3.00 cc of Lanoxin today for 1 dose only”.
Which of the following is the most appropriate
action by the nurse?
A. Clarify order with the attending physician
B. Discuss the order with the pediatric heart
specialist in the unit
C. Administer Lanoxin intravenously as it is the
usual route of administration
D. Refer to the medication administration record
for previous administration of Lanoxin
5. When Nurse Norma was about to administer
the medications of client Lennie, the relative of
Lennie told the nurse that they buy her
medicines and showed the container of
medications of the client. Which of the
following is the most appropriate action by the
nurse?
A. Hold the nurse administration of the client’s
medication and refer to the head nurse
B. Put aside the medications she prepared and
instead administer the client’s
medications
C. Tell the client that she will inform the
physician about this
D. Bring the medications of the client to the
nurse’s station and prepare accordingly
Situation – You are a newly hired nurse in a
tertiary hospital. You have finished your
orientation program recently and you are
beginning to assimilate the culture of the
profession.
6. Using Benner’s stages of nursing expertise,
you are a beginning nurse practitioner. You will
rank yourself as a/an:
A. competent nurse
B. novice nurse
C. proficient nurse
D. advanced beginner
7. Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different
from the other levels in nursing expertise in the
context of having:
A. the ability to organize and plan activities
B. having attained an advanced level of
education
C. a holistic understanding and perception of the
client
D. intuitive and analytic ability in new situations
8. As you become socialized into the nursing
“culture” you become a patient advocate.
Advocacy is explained by the following
EXCEPT:
A. respecting a person’s right to be autonomous
B. demonstrating loyalty to the institution’s
rights
C. shared respect, trust and collaboration in
meeting health needs
D. protecting and supporting another person’s
rights
9. Modern day nursing has led to the led
development of the expanded role of the nurse
as seen in the function of a:
A. Clinical nurse specialist
B. Critical care nurse
C. community health nurse
D. staff nurse
10. You join a continuing education program to
help you:
A. Earn credits for license renewal
B. Get in touch with colleagues in nursing
C. Enhance your basic knowledge
D. Update your knowledge and skills related to
field of interest
Situation – Mr. Jose’s chart is the permanent
legal recording of all information that relates to
his health care management. As such, the entries
in the chart must have accurate data.
11. Mr. Jose’s chart contains all information
about his health care. The functions of records
include all except:
A. means of communication that health team
members use to communicate their
contributions to the client’s health care
B. the client’s record also shows a document of
how much health care agencies will
be reimbursed for their services
C. educational resource for student of nursing
and medicine
D. recording of actions in advance to save time
12. An advantage of automated or computerized
client care system is:
A. The nursing diagnoses for a client’s data can
be accurately determined
B. Cost of confinement will be reduced
C. Information concerning the client can b easily
updated
D. The number of people to take care of the
client will be reduced
13. Information in the patient’s chart is
inadmissible in court as evidence when:
A. The client’s family refuses to have it used
B. The client objects to its use
C. The handwriting is not legible
D. It has too many abbreviations that are
“unofficial”
14. Nursing audit aims to:
A. provide research data to hospital personnel
B. study client’s illness and treatment regimen
closely
C. compare actual nursing done to established
standards
D. provide information to health-care providers
15. A telephone order is given for a client in
your ward. What is your most appropriate
action?
A. Copy the order on to the chart and sign the
physician’s name as close to his
original signature as possible
B. Repeat the order back to the physician, copy
onto the order sheet and
indicate that it is a telephone order
C. Write the order in the client’s chart and have
the head nurse co-sign it
D. Tell the physician that you can not take the
order but you will call the nurse
supervisor
Situation – Errors while providing nursing care
to patients must be avoided and minimized at all
time. Effective management of available
resources enables the nurse to provide safe,
quality patient care.
16. In the hospital where you work, increased
incidence of medication error was identified as
the number one problem in the unit. During the
brainstorming session of the nursing service
department, probable causes were identified.
Which of the following is process related?
A. interruptions
B. use of unofficial abbreviations
C. lack of knowledge
D. failure to identify client
17. Miscommunication of drug orders was
identified as a probable cause of medication
errors. Which of the following is safe
medication practice related to this?
A. Maintain medication in its unit dose package
until point of actual administration
B. Note both generic and brand name of the
medication in the Medication
Administration Method
C. Only officially approved abbreviations maybe
used in prescription orders
D. Encourage clients to ask question about their
medications.
18. The hospital has an ongoing quality
assurance program. Which of the following
indicates implementation of process standards?
A. The nurses check client’s identification band
before giving medications
B. The nurse reports adverse reaction to drugs
C. Average waiting time for medication
administration is measured
D. The unit has well ventilated medication room
19. Which of the following actions indicate that
Nurse Jerome is performing outcome evaluation
of quality care?
A. Interviews nurses for comments regarding
staffing
B. Measures waiting time for client’s per nurse’s
call
C. Checks equipment for its calibration schedule
D. Determines whether nurses perform skin
assessment every shift
20. An order for a client was given and the nurse
in charge of the client reports that she has no
experience of doing the procedure before. Which
of the following is the most appropriate action of
the nurse supervisor?
A. Assign another nurse to perform the
procedure
B. Ask the nurse to find way to learn the
procedure
C. Tell the nurse to read the procedure manual
D. Do the procedure with the nurse
Situation – Oral care is an important part of
hygienic practices and promoting client
comfort.
21. An elderly client, 84 years old, is
unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals
excessive dryness and presence of sores. Which
of the following is BEST to use for oral care?
A. lemon glycerine
B. hydrogen peroxide
C. Mineral oil
D. Normal saline solution
22. When performing oral care to an
unconscious client, which of the following is a
special consideration to prevent aspiration of
fluids into the lungs?
A. Put the client on a sidelying position with
head of bed lowered
B. Keep the client dry by placing towel under
the chin
C. Wash hands and observe appropriate infection
control
D. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and
an orderly progression
23. The advantages of oral care for a client
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth
B. reduces need to use commercial mouthwash
which irritate the buccal
mucosa
C. improves client’s appearance and self-
confidence
D. improves appetite and taste of food
24. A possible problem while providing oral care
to unconscious clients is the risk of fluid
aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by:
A. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs
soaked with mouthwash to avoid
rinsing the buccal cavity
B. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips,
tongue and gums with dry cotton swabs
C. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton
washcloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue,
lips and ums
D. suctioning as needed while cleaning the
buccal cavity
25. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is
mouth breathing most of the time. This causes
dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral
hygiene is recommended for the client and in
addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by
using:
A. salt solution
B. water
C. petroleum jelly
D. mentholated ointment
Situation - Mr. Martin, 71 years old was
suddenly rushed to the hospital because of
severe chest pain. On admission, he was
diagnosed to have acute myocardial infarction
and was placed in the ICU.
26. While in the ICU, he executes the document
tat list the medical treatment he chooses to
refuse in case his condition becomes severe to a
point that he will be unable to make decisions
for himself. This document is:
A. living will
B. informed consent
C. last will and testament
D. power of attorney
27. After one day, the patient’s condition
worsened and feeling hopeless. He requested the
nurse to remove the oxygen. The nurse should:
A. follow the patient because it is his right to die
gracefully
B. follow the patient as it is his right to
determine the medical regimen he needs
C. refuse the patient and encourage him
to verbalize hid feelings
D. refuse the patient since euthanasia is
not accepted in the Philippines
28. Euthanasia is an ethical dilemma which
confronts nurses in the ICU because:
A. the choices involved do not appear to
be clearly right or wrong
B. a clients legal right co-exist with the
nurse’s professional obligation
C. decisions has to be made based on
societal norms.
D. decisions has to be mad quickly, often
under stressful conditions

29. A nurse who supports a patient and family’s
need to make decisions that is right for them is
practicing which of the following ethical
principles?
A. Autonomy
B. confidentiality
C. privacy
D. truthfulness
30. Mr. Martin felt better after 5 days but
recognizing the severity of his illness, he
executes a document authorizing the wife to
transact any form of business in his behalf in
addition to all decisions relative to his
confinement his document is referred to as:
A. power f attorney
B. living will
C. informed consent
D. medical records
Situation - Miss Castro was recently appointed
chief nurse of a 50-bed government hospital in
Valenzuela. On her first day of duty, she tried to
remember the elements of administration she
learned from her basic nursing education.
31. One of the first things Ms. Castro did was to
engage her until in objective writing,
formulating goals and philosophy of nursing
service. Which activities are MOST
appropriately described to which elements of
administration?
A. planning
B. controlling
C. directing
d. organizing
32. In recognizing the Department of Nursing,
she comes up with the organizational structure
defining the role and function of the different
nursing positions and line-up the position with
qualified people. This is included in which
element of administration:
A. monitoring
B. evaluation
C. organizing
D. planning
33. After one month, she and her management
committee assess the regulatory measures taken
and correct whatever discrepancies are found.
This is part of which element of administration:
A. monitoring
B. organizing
C. evaluation
D. planning
34. Revaluation and administrative process is
BEST described as:
A. a continuing process of seeing that
performance meets goals and targets
B. obtaining commitment of members to
do better
C. informing personnel how well and
how much improvement has been made
D. follow-up of activities that have been
studied
35. In all of the various administrative functions,
which of the following management skill is
demanded efficiently and effectively of Ms.
Castro?
38. The nurse should NOT leave medication at
1. Decision making the bedside because:
skills 2. Forecasting skills
a. the bedside table is not sterile
3. Auditing
skills 4. b. it is convenient for the nurse
Communications skills c. the nurse will not be able to accurately
document that the patient actually took the
medication
A. 2 & 3
d. the patient may forget to take it.
B. 1 & 4
C. 1 & 2
39. Non-pharmacologic pain management
D. 2 & 4 includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. relaxation
techniques
Situation - Health is wealth specifically in this
time of the century. The nurse is trained to b.
promote well being of the people. massage
c. use of herbal medicines
36. How does a nurse promote one’s well being? d. body movement
A. periodic travels for rest and recreation
B. faithful and observance of healthy 40. When assessing a client’s blood pressure, the
simple lifestyle nurse finds it necessary to recheck the reading.
How many seconds after deflating the cuff
C. run away from polluted, stressful
should the nurse wait before rechecking the
areas pressure?
D. avoid sleepless, over fatigue nights
a.
10

37. The nurse can be involved with health

promotion as a significant person in helping the b. 30
family:
c. 45
d. 60

A. become a better family

B. prevent disease
C. control their symptoms
D. modify health promotive behaviors
Situation – The use of massage and meditation
to help decrease stress and pain have
been strongly recommended based on
documented testimonials.
41. Martha wants to do a study on this topic:
“Effects of massage and meditation on stress
and pain”. The type of research that best suits
this topic is:
A. Applied research
B. Qualitative research
C. Basic research
D. Quantitative research
42. The type of research design that does not
manipulate independent variable is:
A. Experimental design
B. Quasi-experimental design
C. Non-experimental design
D. Quantitative design
43. This research topic has the potential to
contribute to nursing because it seeks to
A. include new modalities of care
B. resolve a clinical problem
C. clarify an ambiguous modality of care
D. enhance client care
44. Martha does review of related literature for
the purpose of
A. determine statistical treatment of data
research
B. gathering data about what is already known
or unknown about the
problem
C. to identify if problem can be replicated
D. answering the research question
45. Client’s rights should be protected when
doing research using human subjects. Martha
identifies these rights as follows EXCEPT:
A. right of self-determination
B. right to compensation
C. right of privacy
D. right not to be harmed
Situation – Richard has a nursing diagnosis of
ineffective airway clearance related to
excessive secretions and is at risk for infection
because of retained secretions. Part of Nurse
Mario’s nursing care plan is to loosen and
remove excessive secretions in the airway.
46. Mario listens to Richard’s bilateral sounds
and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of
the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the
anterior and posterior apical segments of the
lungs when Mario does percussion would be:
A. Client lying on his back then flat on his
abdomen on Trendelenburg position
B. Client seated upright in bed or on a chair then
leaning forward in sitting
position then flat on his back and on his
abdomen
C. Client lying flat on his back and then flat on
his abdomen
D. Client lying on his right then left side on
Trendelenburg position
47. When documenting outcome of Richard’s
treatment Mario should include the following in
his recording EXCEPT:
A. Color, amount and consistency of sputum
B. Character of breath sounds and respiratory
rate before and after procedure
C. Amount of fluid intake of client before and
after the procedure
D. Significant changes in vital signs
48. When assessing Richard for chest percussion
or chest vibration and postural drainage, Mario
would focus on the following EXCEPT:
A. Amount of food and fluid taken during the
last meal before treatment
B. Respiratory rate, breath sounds and location
of congestion
C. Teaching the client’s relatives to perform the
procedure
D. Doctor’s order regarding position restrictions
and client’s tolerance for lying flat
49. Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage
and percussion. Which of the following is a
special consideration when doing the procedure?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute
B. Client can tolerate sitting and lying positions
C. Client has no signs of infection
D. Time of last food and fluid intake of the client
50. The purpose of chest percussion and
vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The
difference between the procedures is:
A. Percussion uses only one hand while
vibration uses both hands
B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the
chest with cupped palms
while vibration gently shakes secretion loose on
the exhalation cycle
C. In both percussion and vibration the hands are
on top of each other and hand
action is in tune with client’s breath rhythm
D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen
secretions while vibration shakes the
secretions along with the inhalation of air.
PART 2 Board Exam test questions 51 - 100
Situation – A 61 year old man, Mr. Regalado, is
admitted to the private ward for
observation after complaints of severe chest
pain. You are assigned to take care of the
client.
51. When doing an initial assessment, the best
way for you to identify the client’s priority
problem is to:
A. Interview the client for chief complaints and
other symptoms
B. Talk to the relatives to gather data about
history of illness
C. Do auscultation to check for chest congestion
D. Do a physical examination while asking the
client relevant questions
52. Upon establishing Mr. Regalado’s nursing
needs, the next nursing approach would be to:
A. Introduce the client to the ward staff to put
the client and family at ease
B. Give client and relatives a brief tour of the
physical set up the unit
C. Take his vital signs for a baseline assessment
D. Establish priority needs and implement
appropriate interventions
53. Mr. Regalado says he has “trouble going to
sleep”. In order to plan your nursing
intervention you will:
A. Observe his sleeping patterns in the next few
days
B. Ask him what he means by this statement
C. Check his physical environment to decrease
noise level
D. Take his blood pressure before sleeping and
upon waking up
54. Mr. Regalado’s lower extremities are
swollen and shiny. He has pitting pedal edema.
When taking care of Mr. Regalado, which of the
following interventions would be the most
appropriate immediate nursing approach?
A. Moisturize lower extremities to prevent skin
irritation
B. Measure fluid intake and output to decrease
edema
C. Elevate lower extremities for postural
drainage
D. Provide the client a list of food low in sodium
55. Mr. Regalado will be discharged from your
unit within the hour. Nursing actions when
preparing a client for discharge include all
EXCEPT:
A. Making a final physical assessment before
client leaves the hospital
B. Giving instructions about his medication
regimen
C. Walking the client to the hospital exit to
ensure his safety
D. Proper recording of pertinent data
Situation – Using Maslow’s need theory,
Airway, Breathing and Circulation are the
physiological needs vital to life. The nurse’s
knowledge and ability to identify and
immediately intervene to meet these needs is
important to save lives.
56. Which of these clients has a problem with
the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the
tissues:
A. Carol with tumor in the brain
B. Theresa with anemia
C. Sonnyboy with a fracture in the femur
D. Brigitte with diarrhea
57. You noted from the lab exams in the chart of
M. Santos that he has reduced oxygen in the
blood. This condition is called:
A. Cyanosis
B. Hypoxia
C. Hypoxemia
D. Anemia
58. You will do nasopharyngeal suctioning on
Mr. Abad. Your guide for the length of
insertion of the tubing for an adult would be:
A. tip of the nose to the base of the neck
B. the distance from the tip of the nose to the
middle of the neck
C. the distance from the tip of the nose to the tip
of the ear lobe
D. eight to ten inches
59. While doing nasopharyngeal suctioning on
Mr. Abad, the nurse can avoid trauma to the area
by:
A. Apply suction for at least 20-30 seconds each
time to ensure that all secretions
are removed
B. Using gloves to prevent introduction of
pathogens to the respiratory system
C. Applying no suction while inserting the
catheter
D. Rotating catheter as it is inserter with gentle
suction
60. Nurse Suzie is administering 12:00 PM
medication in Ward 4. Two patients have to
receive Lanoxin. What should Nurse Suzie do
when one of the clients does NOT have a
readable identification band?
A. Ask the client if she is Mrs. Santos
B. Ask the client his name
C. Ask the room mate if the client is Mrs. Santos
D. Compare the ID band with the bed tag
Situation – During the NUTRITION
EDUCATION class discussion a 58 year old
man, Mr. Bruno, shows increased interest.
61. Mr. Bruno asks what the “normal” allowable
salt intake is. Your best response to Mr.
Bruno is:
A. 1 tsp of salt/day with iodine and sprinkle of
MSG
B. 5 gms per day or 1 tsp of table salt/day
C. 1 tbsp of salt/day with some patis and toyo
D. 1 tsp of salt/day but no patis and toyo
62. Your instructions to reduce or limit salt
intake include all the following EXCEPT:
A. eat natural food with little or no salt added
B. limit use of table salt and use condiments
instead
C. use herbs and spices
D. limit intake of preserved or processed food
63. Teaching strategies and approaches when
giving nutrition education is influenced by
age, sex and immediate concerns of the group.
Your presentation for a group of young
mothers would be best if you focus on:
A. diets limited in salt and fat
B. harmful effects of drugs and alcohol intake
C. commercial preparation of dishes
D. cooking demonstration and meal planning
64. Cancer cure is dependent on
A. use of alternative methods of healing
B. watching out for warning signs of cancer
C. proficiency in doing breast self-examination
D. early detection and prompt treatment
65. The role of the health worker in health
education is to
A. report incidence of non-communicable
diseases to community health center
B. educate as many people about warning signs
of non-communicable
diseases
C. focus on smoking cessation projects
D. monitor clients with hypertension
Situation – As you begin to work in the hospital
where you are on probation, you are
tasked to take care of a few patients. The clients
have varied needs and you are expected to
provide care for them.
66. An ambulatory client. Mr. Zosimo, is being
prepared for bed. Which of the following
nursing actions promote safety for the client?
A. Turning off the lights to promote rest and
sleep
B. Instructing the client about the use of call
system
C. Raising the side rails
D. Placing the bed in high position
67. Mikka, a 25 year old female client, is
admitted with right lower quadrant abdominal
pain. The physician diagnosed the client with
acute appendicitis and an emergency
appendectomy was performed. Twelve hours
following surgery, the patient complained of
pain. Which of the following is the most
appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A. Impaired mobility related to pain secondary
to an abdominal incision
B. Impaired movements related to pain due to
surgery
C. Impaired mobility related to surgery
D. Severe pain related to surgery
68. You are preparing a plan of care for a client
who is experiencing pain related to incisional
swelling following laminectomy. Which of the
following should be included in the nursing care
plan?
A. Encourage the client to log roll when turning
B. Encourage the client to do self-care
C. Instruct the client to do deep breathing
exercises
D. Ambulate the client in ward premises every
twenty minutes
69. Mr. Lozano, 50 year old executive, is
recovering from severe myocardial infarction.
For the past 3 days, Mr. Lozano’s hygiene and
grooming needs have been met by the nursing
staff. Which of the following activities should be
implemented to achieve the goal of
independence for Mr. Lozano?
A. Involving family members in meeting client’s
personal needs
B. Meeting his needs till he is ready to perform
self-care
C. Preparing a day to day activity list to be
followed by client
D. Involving Mr. Lozano in his care
70. Mr. Ernest Lopez is terminally ill and he
choose to be at home with his family. What
nursing action are best initiated to prepare the
family of Mr. Lopez?
A. Talk with the family members about the
advantage of staying in the hospital for
proper care
B. Provide support to the family members by
teaching ways to care for their
loved one
C. Convince the client to stay in the hospital for
professional care
D. Tell the client to be with his family
Situation – Myrna, a researcher, proposes a
study on the relationship between health
values and the health promotion activities of
staff nurses in a selected college
of nursing.
71. In both quantitative and qualitative research,
the used of a frame of reference is required.
Which of the following items serves as the
purpose of a framework?
A. Incorporates theories into nursing’s body of
knowledge
B. Organizes the development of study and links
the findings to nursing’s body
of knowledge
C. Provides logical structure of the research
findings
D. Identifies concepts and relationships between
concepts
72. Myrna need to review relevant literature and
studies. The following processes are undertaken
in reviewing literature EXCEPT:
A. locating and identifying resources
B. reading and recording notes
C. clarifying a research topic
D. using the library
73. The primary purpose for reviewing literature
is to:
A. organize materials related to the problem of
interest
B. generate broad background and
understanding of information related to the
research problem of interest
C. select topics related to the problem of interest
D. gather current knowledge of the problem of
interest
74. In formulating the research hypotheses,
researcher Myrna should state the research
question as:
A. What is the response of the staff nurses to the
health values?
B. How is variable “health value” perceived in a
population?
C. Is there a significant relationship between
health values and health
promotion activities of the staff nurses?
D. How do health values affect health promotion
activities of the staff nurses?
75. The proposed study shows the relationship
between the variables. Which of the following is
the independent variable?
A. Staff nurses in a selected college of nursing
B. Health values
C. Health promotion activities
D. Relationship between health values and
health promotion activities
Situation – While working in a tertiary hospital,
you are assigned to the medical ward.
76. Your client, Mr. Diaz, is concerned that he
can not pay his hospital bills and professional
fees. You refer him to a:
A. Nurse supervisor
B. Social worker
C. bookkeeping department
D. physician
77. Mr. Magno has lung cancer and is going
through chemotherapy. He is referred by the
oncology nurse to a self-help group of clients
with cancer to:
A. receive emotional support
B. to be a part of a research study
C. provide financial assistance
D. assist with chemotherapy
78. A diabetic hypertensive client, Mrs. Linao,
needs a change in diet to improve her health
status. She should be referred to a:
A. nutritionist
B. dietitian
C. physician
D. medical pathologist
79. When collaborating with other health team
members, the best description of Nurse Rita’s
role is:
A. encourages the client’s involvement in his
care
B. shares and implements orders of the health
team to ensure quality care
C. she listens to the individual views of the team
members
D. helps client set goals of care and discharge
80. Nurse Rita is successful in collaborating
with health team members about the care of Mr.
Linao. This is because she has the following
competencies:
A. Communication, trust, and decision making
B. Conflict management, trust, negotiation
C. Negotiation, decision making
D. Mutual respect, negotiation and trust
Situation – The practice of nursing goes with
responsibilities and accountability whether you
work in a hospital or in the community setting
you main objective is to
provide safe nursing to your clients?
81. To provide safe, quality nursing care to
various clients in any setting, the most important
tool of the nurse is:
A. critical thinking to decide appropriate nursing
actions
B. understanding of various nursing diagnoses
C. observation skills for data collection
D. possession of in scientific knowledge about
client needs
82. You ensure the appropriateness and safety of
your nursing interventions while caring for
various client groups by:
A. creating plans of care for particular clientele
B. identifying the correct nursing diagnoses for
clients
C. making a thorough assessment of client needs
and problems
D. using standards of nursing care as your
criteria for evaluation
83. The effectiveness of your nursing care plan
for your clients is determined by
A. the number of nursing procedures performed
to comfort the client
B. the amount of medications administered to
the client as ordered
C. the number of times the client calls the nurse
D. the outcome of nursing interventions based
on plan of care
84. You are assigned to Mrs. Amado, age 49,
who was admitted for possible surgey. She
complained of recurrent pain at the right upper
quadrant of the abdomen 1-2 hours after
ingestion of fatty food. She also had frequent
bouts of dizziness, blood pressure of 170/100,
hot flashes. Which of the above symptoms
would be an objective cue?
A. Blood pressure measurement of 170/100
B. Complaint of hot flashes
C. Report of pain after ingestion of fatty food
D. Complaint of frequent bouts of dizziness
85. While talking with Mrs. Amado, it is most
important for the nurse to:
A. schedule the laboratory exams ordered for her
B. do an assessment of the client to determine
priority needs
C. tell the client that your shift ends after eight
hours
D. have the client sign an informed consent
Situation - Eileen, 45 years old is admitted to the
hospital with a diagnosis of renal calculi. She is
experiencing severe flank pain, nauseated and
with a temperature of 39 0C.
86. Given the above assessment data, the most
immediate goal of the nurse would be which of
the following?
A. Prevent urinary complication
B. maintains fluid and electrolytes
C. Alleviate pain
D. Alleviating nausea
87. After IVP a renal stone was confirmed, a left
nephrectomy was done. Her post operative order
includes “daily urine specimen to be sent to the
laboratory” . Eileen has a foley catheter attached
to a urinary drainage system. How will you
collect the urine specimen?
A. remove urine from drainage tube with sterile
needle and syringe and empty urine from the
syringe into the specimen container
B. empty a sample urine from the
collecting bag into the specimen container
C. disconnect the drainage tube from the
indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from
catheter int the specimen container.
D. disconnect the drainage the from the
collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from
the catheter into the specimen container.
88. Where would the nurse tape Eileen’s 91. Mr. Felipe, 36 years old is to be given 2700
indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral ml of D5LR to infuse for 18 hours starting at 8
irritation? am. At what rate should the IV fluid be flowing
hourly?
A. to the patient’s inner
thigh A. 100 ml per hour
B. to the patient’s lower thigh B. 210 ml per hour
C. to the patient’ C. 150 ml per hour
D. to the patient lower abdomen D. 190 ml per hour

89. Which of the following menu is appropriate 92. Mr. Atienza is to receive 150 ml/hour of D%
for one with low sodium diet? W IV infusion for 12 hours for a total of
A. instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea 1800ml. He is also losing gastric fluid which
must be replaced every two hours. Between 8
B. ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits
am and 10 am, Mr. Atienza has lost 250 ml of
and vegetables
gastric fluid. How much fluid should he
C. white chicken sandwich, vegetable
receive at 11 am?
salad and tea
A. 350 ml/hour
D. canned soup, potato salad, and diet
soda B. 275 ml/hour
C. 400 ml/hour
90. How will you prevent ascending infection to D. 200 ml/hour
Eileen who has an indwelling catheter?
A. see to it that the drainage tubing
93. You are to apply a transdermal patch of
touches the level of the urine
nitoglycerin to your client. The following are
B. change he catheter every eight hours
important guidelines to observe EXCEPT:
C. see to it that the drainage tubing does
A. Apply to hairless clean area of the skin not
not touch the level of the urine
subject to much wrinkling
D. clean catheter may be used since
B. Patches may be applied to distal part of the
urethral meatus is not a sterile area
extremities like forearm
C. Change application and site regularly to
Situation – You are assigned to take care of 10 prevent irritation of the skin
patients during the morning shift. The
D. Wear gloves to avoid any medication on your
endorsement includes the IV infusion and hand
medications for these clients.

94. You will be applying eye drops to Miss

Romualdez. After checking all the necessary
information and cleaning the affected eyelid and D. primary prevention
eyelashes, you administer the ophthalmic drops
by instilling the eye drops:
97. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates
A. directly onto the cornea
aspects of the clients care to the nurse-aide
B. pressing the lacrimal duct
who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra
C. into the outer third of the lower conjunctival
sac A. makes the assignment to teach the staff
member
D. from the inner canthus going towards the side
of the eye B. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but
not the accountability for
those tasks
95. When applying eye ointment, the following
C. does not have to supervise or evaluate the
guidelines apply EXCEPT:
aide
A. squeeze about 2 cm of ointment and gently
D. most know how to perform task delegated
close but not squeeze the eye
B. apply the ointment from the inner canthus
going outward of the affected eye 98. Connie, the new nurse, appears tired and
sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six
C. discard the first bead of the eye ointment
weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse
before application because the
supervisor should
tube is likely to expel more than desired amount
A. empathize with the nurse and listen to her
of ointment
B. tell her to take the day off
D. hold the tube above the conjunctival sac, do
not let tip touch the conjunctiva C. discuss how she is adjusting to her new job
D. ask about her family life
Situation – The staff nurse supervisor requests
all the staff nurses to “brainstorm” and
99. Process of formal negotiations of working
learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on self- conditions between a group of registered
administration of insulin. She wants to ensure
that there are nurses available daily to do health nurses and employer is
education classes. A. grievance
B. arbitration
96. The plan of the nurse supervisor is an C. collective bargaining
example of
D. strike
A. in service education process
B. efficient management of human resources
100. You are attending a certification on
C. increasing human resources cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered
and
required by the hospital employing you. This is 1. A 1 degree Farenheit rise in basal body
temperature
A. professional course towards credits
2. Cervical mucus becomes copious and
B. inservice education
clear
C. advance training 3. One pound increase in weight
D. continuing education 4. Mitteischmerz
A. 1,2,4 B. 1,2,3 C.
NP2 Nursing Board Exam November 2008 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4
Answer Key 'Community Health Nursing and
Care of Mother and Child'
3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her
100 Nursing Board Exam test questions of
basal temperature everyday, which of the
November 2008 Nurse Licensure Examination
following instructions is incorrect?
(NLE)
Nursing Practice II – Community Health A. If coitus has occured, this should be reflected
Nursing and Care of Mother and Child in the chart
Community Health Nursing / O.B. (Obstetric)
B. It is best to have coitus on the evening
PART 1 Board Exam test questions 1 - 50 following a drop in BBT to become pregnant
C. Temperature should be taken immediately
after waking and before getting put of bed
D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase
Situation 1: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who
has been married for 6 moths. She consults you
for guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle 4. She reports an increase in BBT on December
and her desire to get pregnant. 16. Which hormone brings about this change in
her BBT?

1. She wants to know the length of her menstrual A. Estrogen

cycle. Her periodic menstrual period is October B. Progesterone
22 to 26. Her LMB is November 21. Which of
the following number of days will be your C. Gonadootrophine
correct response?
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
A. 29
B. 28
5. The following month, Mariah suspects she is
C. 30 pregnant. Her urine is positive for Human
Chorionic Gonadotrophin. Which structure
D. 31 produce HCG?
A. Pituitary Gland
2. You advised her to observe and record the B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo
signs of Ovulation. Which of the following signs
will she likely note down? C. Uterine deciduas
D. Ovarian follicles
Situation 2: Mariah came back and she is now
pregnant.
6. At 5 moths gestation, which of the following
fetal development would probably be expected:
A. Fetal development are felt by Mariah
B. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body
C. Viable if delivered within this period
D. Braxton hicks contractions are observed
7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah.
Now at 5 month gestation, what level of the
abdomen can be the fundic height be palpated?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the
xiphoid process
C. Midpoint between the Symphysis pubis the
umbilicus
D. Umbilicus
8. She worries about her small breast, thinking
that she probably will incapable to breastfeed
her baby. Which of the following responses of
the nurse is correct?
A. “The size of your breast will not affect your
lactation.”
B. “You can switch to bottle feeding.”
C. “You can try to have exercise to increase the
size of your breast.”
D. “Manual expression of milk is possible.”
9. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk
regularly. She claims that she does not want to
gain too much weight during her pregnancy.
Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a
priority?
A. Potential self-esteem disturbance related to
physiologic changes in pregnancy
B. Ineffective individual coping related to
physiologic changes in pregnancy
C. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy
D. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional
requirements pregnancies related to lack of
information sources.
10. Which of the following interventions will
likely ensure compliance of Mariah?
A. Incorporate her food preferences that are
adequately nutritious in her meal plan.
B. Consistently counsel toward optimum
nutritional intake
C. Respect her right to reject dietary information
if she chooses
D. Information of the adverse effects of
inadequate nutrition to her fetus
Situation 3: Susan is a patient in the clinic where
you work. She is inquiring about pregnancy.
11. Susan tells you she is worried because she
develops breast later than most of her friends.
Breast development is termed as:
A. Adrenarche
B. Mamarche
C. Thelarche
D. Menarche
12. Kevin, Susan’s husband tells you that he is
considering vasectomy. After the birth of their
new child. Vasectomy involves the incision of
which organ?
A. The testes
B. The vas deferens
C. The epididymis
D. The scrotum
13. On examination, Susan has been found of
having a cystocele. A cystocele is:
A. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold.
B. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina
C. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina
D. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal
wall.
14. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34
days. She told you she had a coitus on days 8, 10
and 20 of her menstrual cycle. Which is the day
on which she is most likely to conceive?
A. 8th day
B. 10th day
C. Day 15
D. Day 20
15. While taking with Susan, 2 new patients
arrived and they are covered with large towels
and the nurse noticed that there are many
cameraman and news people outside of the
OPD. Upon assessment the nurse noticed that
both of them are still nude and the male client’s
penis is still inside the female client’s vagina and
the male client said that “I can’t pull it.”
Vaginismus was your first impression. You know
that the psychological cause of Vaginismus is
related to:
A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply
that it stimulates vaginal closure
B. The penis was too large that’s why the vagina
triggered it’s defense to attempt to close
C. The vagina do not want to be penetrated
D. It is due to learning patterns of the female
client where she views sex as bad or sinful.
Situation 4: Overpopulation is one problem in
the Philippines that case economic drain. Most
Filipinos are against in legalizing abortion. As a
nurse, Mastery of contraception is needed to
contribute to the society and economic growth.
16. Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells you
she wants to use fertility awareness method of
contraception. How will she determine her
fertile days?
A. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has
an elevated temperature
B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus
is thin colour, clear and watery.
C. She should monitor her emotions fro sudden
anger or crying
D. She should assess whether her breast feel
sensitive to cool air.
17. Dana chooses to use COC as her family
planning method, what is the danger sign of
COC you would ask her to report?
A. A stuffy or runny nose
B. Arthritis like symptoms
C. Slight weight gain
D. Migraine headache

18. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and
she asks how long will these implants be
effective. Your best answer is:
A. One month
B. Twelve month
C. Five years
D. 10 years
19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which of
the following is true with regards to female
condoms?
A. The hormone the condom releases might
cause mild weight gain.
B. She should insert the condom before any
penile penetration
C. She should coat the condom with spermecide
before use
D. Female condoms unlike male condoms are
reusable.
20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What
makes her a good candidate for GIFT?
A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized
ova can be implanted on them.
B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to
rule out RH incompatibity.
C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be
injected through the cervix into it.
D. Her husband is taking sildenafil, so all
sperms will be motile.
Situation 5 – Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning
and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently
attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS
AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following
conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs
of this particular population group.
21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal
ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the
best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian
tubes can kill sperm
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the
cervical entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because
the fallopian tubes are
blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is
no where for them to go.
22. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing
for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
A. a woman has no uterus
B. a woman has no children
C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1
year
D. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months
23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as
having endometriosis. This condition interferes
with fertility because:
A. endometrial implants can block the fallopian
tubes
B. the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and
swollen
C. the ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen
D. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased
FSH levels
24. Lilia is scheduled to have a
hysterosalphingogram. Which of the following
instructions would you give her regarding this
procedure?
A. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months
after the procedure
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any
tumors present
C. Many women experience mild bleeding as an
after effect
D. She may feel some cramping when the dye is
inserted
25. Lilia’s cousin on the other hand, knowing
nurse Lorena’s specialization asks what artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be
your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena?
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into
the uterus or cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally
into each ovary
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test
tubal patency
27. Administration of analgesics to the older
persons require careful patient assessment
because older people:
A. Are more sensitive drugs
B. Have increased hepatic, renal, and
gastrointestinal function
C. Have increased sensory perception
D. Mobilize drugs more rapidly
28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for
urinary incontinence because:
A. Increased glomerular filtration
B. Diuretic use
C. Decreased bladder capacity
D.
29. Which of the following is the MOST
COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?
A. Decreased breath sounds with crackles
B. Fever

D. The husband’s sperm is administered C. Pain

intravenously weekly
D. Change in the mental status

Situation 6: You are assigned to take care of a

30. Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma
group of patients across the lifespan.
patient:
A. Circulation, airway, breathing
26. Pain in the elder persons require careful
B. Disability(Neurologic), airway, breathing
assessment because they:
C. Airway, Breathing, Disability(Neurologic),
A. Experienced reduce sensory perception
D. Airway, breathing, Circulation
B. Have increased sensory perception
C. Are expected to experience chronic pain
31. Preschoolers are able to see things from
D. Have decreased pain threshold
which of the following perspectives?
A. Their peers
B. Their own and their caregivers
C. Their own and their mother’s
D. Only their own
32. In conflict management, the win-win
approach occurs when:
A. There are two conflicts and the parties agree
to each one
B. Each party gives in on 50% of the
disagreement making the conflict
C. Both parties involved are committed in
solving the conflict
D. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal
system mandates parties win.
33. According to the social-International
perspective of child abuse and neglect, four
factors place the family members at risk for
abuse, these risk factors are the family members
at risk for abuse. These risk factors are the
family itself, the caregiver, the child and:
A. The presence of a family crisis
B. Genetics
C. The national emphasis on sex
D. Chronic poverty
34. Which of the following signs and symptoms
would you most likely find when assessing an
infant with Arnold-Chari malformation?
A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of
sensation in the legs, and restlessness
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent
gag reflex and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and an
arching of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting
35. A parent calls you and frantically reports that
her child has gotten into her famous ferrous
sulfate pills and ingested a number of these pills.
Her child is now vomiting, has bloody diarrhea
and is complaining of abdominal pain. You will
tell the mother to:
A. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and
get the child to the emergency room
B. Relax because these symptoms will pass and
the child will be fine
C. Administer syrup of pecac
D. Call the poison control center
36. A client says she heard from a friend that you
stop having periods once you are on the “pill.”
The most appropriate response would be:
A. “The pill prevents the uterus from making
such endometrial lining, that is why period may
often be scant or skipped occasionally.”
B. “If your friend has missed her period, she
should stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy
test.”
C. “The pill should cause a normal menstrual
period every month. It sounds like your friend
has not been taking the pills properly.”
D. Missed period can be very dangerous and
may lead to the formation of precancerous
cells.”
37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and
infants during their hospital stay notice which of
the following symptoms as a primary
manifestation of Hirschprung’s disorder?
A. A fine rash over the trunk
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24
hours after birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over
the first 24 hours to 46 hours after birth.
D. High grade fever.
38. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just
been diagnosed as having a partial placenta
previa. She is able and has minimal spotting and
is being sent home. Which of these instructions
to the client may indicate a need for further
teaching?
A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Avoid intercourse for three days
C. Call if contractions occur.
D. Stay on left side as much as possible when
lying down.
39. A woman has been rushed to the hospital
with ruptured membrane. Which of the
following should the nurse check first?
A. Check for the presence of infarction.
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Check the maternal heart rate
D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid
40. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a
plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication
were to be prescribed and it were to go on the
stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the
caregivers to:
A. Avoid covering the area of the topical
medication with the diaper
B. Avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C. Put the diaper on as usual
D. Apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside
of the diaper
41. Which of the following factors is most
important in determining the success of
relationships used in delivering nursing care?
A. Type of illness of the client
B. Transference and counter Transference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants
42. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from
automobile accident. Why are lacerations of
lower extremities potentially more serious
among pregnant women than other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses
due to gonadotropic hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration
clean because of her fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these
will not heal until after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine
pressure on leg veins
43. In working with the caregivers of a client
with an cute or chronic illness, the nurse would:
A. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a
return demonstration just before discharge
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent
gag reflex and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and arching
of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting
44. Which of the following roles BEST
exemplifies the expanded role of the nurse?
A. Circulating nurse in surgery
B. Medication nurse
C. Obstretical nurse
D. Pediatric nurse practitioner
45. According to De Rosa and Kochura’s (2006)
article entitled “Implement Culturally Health
Care in your workplace,” cultures have different
patterns of verbal and nonverbal
communication. Which difference does NOT
necessarily belong?
A. Personal behaviour
B. Eye contact
C. Subject Matter
D. Conversational style
46. You are the nurse assigned to work with a
child with acute glomerulonephritis. By
following the prescribed treatment regimen, the
child experiences a remission. You are now
checking to make sure the child does not have a
relapse. Which finding most lead you to the
conclusion that a relapse is happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat,
changing complete blood count (CBC) with
differential count
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+
proteinuria or more for 3 days or the child found
to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the
urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine
output and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees
F) flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on
voiding and cloudy urine.
47. The nurse is working with an adolescent who
complains of being lonely and having a lack of
fulfilment in her life. This adolescent shies away
from intimate relationships at times yet at other
times she appears promiscuous. The nurse will
likely work with this adolescent in which of the
areas?
A. Isolation
B. Loneliness
C. Lack of fulfilment
D. Identity
48. The use of interpersonal decision making
psychomotor skills and application of
knowledge expected in the role of a licensed
health care professional in the context of public
health welfare and safety as an example of?
A. Delegation
B. Supervision
C. Responsibility
D. Competence
49. The painful phenomenon known as back
labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what
position?
A. Brow position
B. Right occipito-Anterior Position
C. Breech position
D. Left occipito-Posterior Position
50. Focus methodology stands for?
A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and
Solution
B. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous, Utilize,
Substantiate
C. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand,
Substantiate
D. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous (process),
Understand, Solution
PART 2 Board Exam test questions 51 - 100
Situation 7: The infant and child mortality rate
in the low to middle income countries is ten
times higher than industrialized countries. In
response to this the WHO and UNICEF
launched protocol Integrated Management of
Childhood Illness to reduce the morbidity and
mortality against childhood illnesses.
51. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs in
the yellow row in the IMCCI char, we can
classify the patient as:
A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
52. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days. There is
no blood in the stool, he is irritable, his eyes are
sunken, the nurse offers fluid to Celeste and he
drinks eagerly. When the nurse pinched the
abdomen it goes back slowly. How will you
classify Celeste’s Illness?
A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
53. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for
14 days but has no sign of dehydration is
classified as?
A. Persistent diarrhea
B. Severe dysentery
C. Dysentery
D. Severe Persistent diarrhea
54. The child with no dehydration needs home
treatment. Which of the following is not
included in the rules for home treatment in this
case?
A. Forced fluids
B. When to return
C. Give Vitamin A supplement
D. Feeding more
55. Fever as used in IMCI includes:
A. Axillary temperature of 37.5 or higher
B. Rectal temperature of 38 or higher
C. Feeling hot to touch
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
Situation: Prevention of Dengue is an important
nursing responsibility and controlling it’s spread
is priority once outbreak has been observed.
56. An important role of the community health
nurse in the prevention and control of Dengue
H-fever includes:
A. Advising the elimination of vectors by
keeping water containers covered
B. Conducting strong health education
drives/campaign directed toward proper garbage
disposal
C. Explaining to the individuals, families,
groups and community the nature of the disease
and its causation.
D. Practicing residual spraying with insectesides
57. Community health nurses should be alert in
observing a Dengue suspect. The following is
NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever
suspects?
A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and
vomiting
B. Increasing hematocrit count
C. Cough of 30 days
D. Persistent headache
58. The community health nurses primary
concern in the immediate control of
hemmorrhage among patients with dengue is:
A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. Providing warmth through light weight
covers
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs
leading to shock
D. Keeping the patient at rest.
59. Which of these signs may NOT be
REGARDED as a truly positive signs indicative
of Dengue H-fever?
A. Prolonged Bleeding Time
B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1
cm square
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count
60. Which of the following is the most important
treatment of patients with Dengue H-fever?
A. Give aspirin for fever
B. Replacement of body fluids
C. Avoid unnecessary movement
D. Ice cap over abdomen in case of melena
Situation 9: Health education and Health
Promotion is an important part of nursing
responsibility in the community. Immunization
is a form of health promotion that aims at
preventingthe common childhood illnesses.
61. In correcting misconception and myths about
certain diseases and their management, the
health worker should first:
A. Identify the myths and misconceptions
prevailing in the community
B. Identify the source of these myths and
misconceptions
C. Explain how and why these myths came
about
D. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to
correct them.
62. How many percent of measles are prevented
by immunization at 9 months age?
A. 80 %
B. 90%
C. 99 %
D. 95 %
63. After TT3 vaccination a mother is said to be
protected to tetanus by around?
A. 80 %
B. 85 %
C. 99 %
D. 90 %
64. If ever convulsion occurs after administering
DPT, what should nurse best suggest to the
mother?
A. Do not continue DPT vaccination anymore
B. Advise mother to come back aster 1 week
C. Give DT instead of DPT
D. Give pertussis of the DPT and remove DT
65. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one
month intervals:
A. DPT, BCG, TT
B. DPT, TT, OPV
C. OPV, Hep. B, DPT
D. Measles, OPV, DPT
Situation 10: With the increasing documented
cases of CANCER the best alternative to
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION.
The following conditions apply.
66. Which among the following is the primary
focus of prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
67. In the prevention and control of cancer,
which of the following activity is the most
important function of the community health
nurse?
A. Conduct community assemblies
B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with
symptoms of cancer
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as
parameters in our process of detection; control
and treatment modalities.
D. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition.
68. Who among the following are recipients of
the secondary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early case detection
B. Those under supportive care
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those under going treatment
69. Who among the following are recipients of
the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early treatment
B. Those under supportive care
C. Those under early detection
D. Those scheduled for surgery
70. In Community Health Nursing, despite the
availability and use of many equipment and
devices to facilitate the job of the community
health nurse, the nurse should be prepared to
apply is a scientific approach. This approach
ensures quality of care even at the community
setting. This nursing parlance is nothing less
than the:
A. Nursing diagnosis
B. Nursing protocol
C. Nursing research
D. Nursing process
Situation 11 – Two children were brought to
you. One with chest indrawing and the other
had diarrhea. The following questions apply:
71. Using Integrated Management and
Childhood Illness (IMCI) approach, how would
you classify the 1st child?
A. Brochopneumonia
B. No pneumonia: cough or cold
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Pneumonia
72. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast
breathing using IMCI parameters he has:
A. 40 breaths per minute or more
B. 50 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute or more
D. 60 breaths per minute
73. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days.
There is no blood in the stool. She is irritable
and her eyes are sunken. The nurse offered
fluids and the child drinks eagerly. How would
you classify Nina’s illness?
A. Some dehydration
B. Dysentery
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
74. Nina’s treatment should include the
following EXCEPT:
A. Reassess the child and classify him for
dehydration
B. For infants under 6 months old who are not
breastfed, give 100-200 ml clean water as well
during this period.
C. Give in the health center the recommended
amount of ORS for 4 hours.
D. Do not give any other foods to the child for
home treatment
75. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old
weighed 18 kgs and her temperature registered
at 37 degrees C. Her mother says she developed
cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general danger
signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest
indrawing, no stridor. How would you classify
Nina’s manifestation.
A. No pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
76. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5.5 kgs
and it is her initial visit. Her mother says that
Carol is not eating well and unable to breastfeed,
he has no vomiting, has no convulsion and not
abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her
temperature is 38.9 deg C. Using the integrated
management of childhood illness or IMCI
strategy, if you were the nurse in charge of
Carol, how will you classify her illness?
A. a child at a general danger
sign
B. very severe febrile
disease
C. severe pneumonia
D. severe malnutrition
77. Why are small for gestational age newborns
at risk for difficulty maintaining body
temperature?
A. their skin is more susceptible to conduction
of cold
B. they are preterm so are born relatively small
in size
C. they do not have as many fat stored as other
infants
D. they are more active than usual so they throw
off comes
78. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to augment
labor. What are the first symptoms of water
intoxication to observe for during this
procedure?
A. headache and
vomiting
B. a swollen tender tongue
C. a high choking voice
D. abdominal bleeding and pain
79. Which of the following treatment should
NOT be considered if the child has severe
dengue hemorrhagic fever?
A. use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose
or gums
B. give ORS if there is skin Petechiae, persistent
vomiting, and positive tourniquet test
C. give aspirin
D. prevent low blood sugar
80. In assessing the patient’s condition using the
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
approach strategy, the first thing that a nurse
should do is to:
A. ask what are the child’s
problem
B. check the patient’s level of
consciousness
C. check for the four main symptoms
D. check for the general danger signs
81. A child with diarrhea is observed for the
following EXCEPT:
A. how long the child has
diarrhea
B. skin
Petechiae
C. presence of blood in the stool
D. signs of dehydration
82. The child with no dehydration needs home
treatment. Which of the following is NOT
included in the care for home management at
this case?
A. give drugs every 4
hours
B. continue feeding the child
C. give the child more fluids
D. inform when to return to the health center
83. Ms. Jordan, RN, believes that a patient
should be treated as individual. This ethical
principle that the patient referred to:
A.
beneficence
B.
nonmaleficence
C. respect for person
D. autonomy
84. When patients cannot make decisions for
themselves, the nurse advocate relies on the
ethical principle of:
A. justice and
beneficence
B. fidelity and nonmaleficence
C. beneficence and nonmaleficence
D. fidelity and justice
85. Being a community health nurse, you have
the responsibility of participating in protecting
the health of people. Consider this situation:
Vendors selling bread with their bare hands.
They receive money with these hands. You do
not see them washing their hands. What should
you say/do?
A. “Miss, may I get the bread myself because
you have not washed your hands”
B. All of these
C. “Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/
bread tong”
D. “Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands
first before getting the bread”
Situation 12: The following questions refer to
common clinical encounters experienced by an
entry level nurse.
86. A female client asks the nurse about the use
of cervical cap. Which statement is correct
regarding the use of the cervical cap?
A. It may affect Pap smear results
B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician
C. It does not require the use of spermicide
D. It must be removed within 24 hours
87. The major components of the
communication process are?
A. Verbal, written, and nonverbal
B. Speaker, Listener and reply
C. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
D. Message, sender, channel, Receiver and
Feedback
88. The extent of burns in children are normally
assessed and expressed in terms of:
A. The amount of body surface that is unburned
B. Percentages of total body surface area
(TBSA)
C. How deep the deepest burns are
D. The severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn
scale
89. The school nurse notices a child who is
wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is
always hungry; has no lunch money; and is
always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his
tiredness, he talks of playing outside until
midnight. The nurse will suspect that this child
is:
A. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence 93. You are assigned in a private room of Mike.
(IQ) Which procedure should be of outmost
importance:
B. An orphan
A. Alcohol wash
C. A victim of child neglect
B. Universal precaution
D. The victim of poverty
C. Washing isolation
D. Gloving technique
90. Which of the following indicates the type(s)
of acute renal failure?
A. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without 94. What primary health teaching would you
clotting, and non hemorrhagic with and without give to Mike?
clotting
A. Daily exercise
B. One type: Acute
B. Prevent infection
C. Three types: Prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal
C. Reversal Isolation
D. Two types: Acute and subacute
D. Proper nutrition

Situation 13: Mike 16 y/o has been diagnose to

95. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect
have AIDS, he worked as entertainer in a cruise
health worker dealing with the AIDS patients,
ship:
which among these must be done as priority?
A. Boil used syringed and needles
91. Which method of transmission is common to
B. Use gloves when handling specimen
contract AIDS:
A. Syringe and needles C. Label personal belonging
D. Avoid accidental wound
B. Body fluids
C. Sexual contact
Situation 14: Michelle is a 6 year old
D. Transfusion
preschooler. She was reported by her sister to
have measles but she was at home because of
fever, upper respiratory problem and white
92. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the
sports in her mouth.
following:
A. Fungus
96. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the
B. Bacteria
rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior
C. Retrovirus to eruption. As a nurse, your physical
examination must determine complication
D. Parasites especially:
A. Otitis media
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
D. Membranous laryngitis
97. To render comfort measure is one of the
priorities, which includes care of the skin, eyes,
ears, mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your
antiseptic is in some form of which one below?
A. Water
B. Sulfur
C. Alkaline
D. Salt
98. As a public health nurse, you teach mother
and family members the prevention of
complication of measles. Which of the following
should be closely watched?
A. Temperature fails to drop
B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva
C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx
D. Ulcerative stomatitis
99. Source of infection of measles is secretion of
nose and throat of infection person. Filterable of
measles is transmitted by:
A. Water supply
B. Droplet
C. Food ingestion
D. Sexual contact
100. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure
to an infection person. Nursing responsibility for
rehabilitation of patient includes the provision
of:
A. Terminal disinfection
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Immunization
D. Comfort measures
NP3 Nursing Board Exam November 2008
Answer Key 'Nursing Care of Client with
Physiological and Psychosocial Alteration'
100 Nursing Board Exam test questions of
November 2008 Nurse Licensure Examination
(NLE)
Nursing Practice III – Nursing Care of Client
with Physiological and Psychosocial Alteration
Medical and Surgical Nursing / Psychology
PART 1 Board Exam test questions 1 - 50
Situation 1: Leo lives in the squatter area. He
goes to nearby school. He helps his mother
gather molasses after school. One day, he was
absent because of fever, malaise, anorexia and
abdominal discomfort.
1. Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have
hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the
infection agent taken?
A. Fecal oral
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Sexual contact
2. Which of the following is concurrent
disinfection in the case of Leo?
A. In
B. Sanitary disposal of feces, urine and blood
C. Quarantine of the sick individual
D.
 A. Hypothesis
3. Which of the following must be emphasized B. Data
during mother’s class to Leo’s mother?
C. Variable
A. Administration of immunoglobulin to
families D. Concept

B. Thorough hand washing before and after

eating and toileting 7. Which of the following usually refers to the
C. Use of attenuated vaccines independent variables in doing research?
A. Result
D. Boiling of food especially meat
B. Cause

4. Disaster control should be undertaken when C. Output

there are 3 or more hepatitis A cases. Which of D. Effect
these measures is a priority?
A. Eliminate fecal contamination from foods
8. The recipients of experimental treatment is an
B. Mass vaccination of uninfected individuals experimental design or the individuals to be
observed in a non experimental design are
C. Health promotion and education to families
and communities about the disease it’s cause and called;
transmission. A. Setting
D. Mass administration of immunoglobulin B. Subjects
C. Treatment
5. What is the average incubation period of D. Sample
Hepatitis A?
A. 30 days
9. The device or techniques an investigator
B. 60 days employs to collect data is called?
C. 50 days A. Sample
D. 14 days B. Instrument
C. Hypothesis
Situation 2: As a nurse researcher you must have D. Concept
a very good understanding of the common terms
of concept used in research.
10. The use of another persons ideas or wordings
giving appropriate credit results from inaccurate
6. The information that an investigator collects attribution of materials to its sources. Which of
from the subjects or participants in a research the following is referred to when another
study is usually called: persons idea is inappropriate credited as one’s
own?
A. Plagiarism C. Advice patient to sit perfectly still during
needle insertion until it has been withdrawn
B. Quotation
from the chest
C. Assumption
D. Apply pressure over the puncture site as
D. Paraphrase soon as the needle is withdrawn

Situation 3: Mrs. Pichay is admitted to your 14. To prevent leakage of fluid in the thoracic
ward. The MD ordered “Prepare for cavity, how will you position the client after
thoracentesis this pm to remove excess air from thoracentesis?
the pleural cavity.” A. Place flat in bed
B. Turn on the unaffected side
11. Which of the following nursing
C. Turn on the affected side
responsibilities is essential in Mrs. Pichay who
will undergo thoracentesis? D. On bed rest
A. Support and reassure client during the
procedure
15. Chest x-ray was ordered after thoracentesis.
B. Ensure that informed consent has been When your client asks what is the reason for
signed another chest x-ray, you will explain:
C. Determine if client has allergic reaction A. to rule out pneumothorax
to local anesthesia
B. to rule out any possible perforation
D. Ascertain if chest x-rays and other tests
C. to decongest
have been prescribed and completed
D. to rule out any foreign body

12. Mrs. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is

assigned by the nurse to which of the following Situation 4: A computer analyst, Mr. Ricardo J.
positions? Santos, 25 was brought to the hospital for
diagnostic workup after he had experienced
A. Trendelenburg position
seizure in his office.
B. Supine position
C. Dorsal Recumbent position
16.Just as nurse was entering the room, the
D. Orthopneic position patient who was sitting on his chair begins to
have a seizure. Which of the following must the
nurse do first?
13. During thoracentesis, which of the following A. Ease the patient to the floor
nursing intervention will be most crucial?
B. Lift the patient and put him on the bed
A. Place patient in a quiet and cool room
C. Insert a padded tongue depressor between his
B. Maintain strict aseptic technique jaws
D. Restrain patient’s body movement
17. Mr. Santos is scheduled for CT SCAN for
the next day, noon time. Which of the following
is the correct preparation as instructed by the
nurse?
A. Shampoo hair thoroughly to remove oil and
dirt
B. No special preparation is needed. Instruct the
patient to keep his head still and stead.
C. Give a cleansing enema and give until 8 AM
D. Shave scalp and securely attach electrodes to
it
18. Mr. Santos is placed on seizure precaution.
Which of the following would be
contraindicated?
A. Obtain his oral temperature
B. Encourage to perform his own personal
hygiene
C. Allow him to wear his own clothing
D. Encourage him to be out of bed.
19. Usually, how does the patient behave after
his seizure has subsided?
A. Most comfortable walking and moving about.
B. Becomes restless and agitated.
C. Sleeps for a period of time
D. Say he is thirsty and hungry.
20. Before, during and after seizure. The nurse
knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in
what position?
A. Low fowler’s
B. Modified trendelenburg
C. Side Lying
D. Supine
Situation 5: Mrs. Damian an immediate post op
cholecystectomy and choledocholithotomy
patient, complained of severe pain at the wound
site.
21. Choledocholithotomy is:
A. The removal of the gallbladder
B. The removal of the stones in the gallbladder
C. The removal of the stones in the common bile
duct
D. The removal of the stones in the kidney
22. The simplest pain relieving technique is:
A. Distraction
B. Taking aspirin
C. Deep breathing exercise
D. Positioning
23. Which of the following statement on pain is
true?
A. Culture and pain are not associated
B. Pain accomplished acute illness
C. Patient’s reaction to pain varies
D. Pain produces the same reaction such as
groaning and moaning
24. In a pain assessment, which of the following
condition is a more reliable indicator?
A. Pain rating scale of 1 – 10
B. Facial expression and gestures
C. Physiological responses
D. Patients description of the pain sensation
25. When a client complains of pain, your initial
response is:
A. Record the description of pain
B. Verbally acknowledge the pain
C. Refer the complaint to the doctor
D. Change to a more comfortable position
Situation 6: You are assigned at the surgical
ward and clients have been complaining of post
pain at varying degrees. Pain as you know is
very subjective.
26. A one-day post operative abdominal surgery
client has been complaining of severe throbbing
abdominal pain described as 9 in 1 – 10 pain
rating. Your assessment reveals bowel sounds on
all quadrants and the dressing is dry and intact.
What nursing intervention would you take?
A. Medicate client as prescribed
B. Encourage client to do-imagery
C. Encourage deep breathing exercise
D. Call surgeon stat
27. Pentoxidone 5 mg IV every 8 hours was
prescribed for post abdominal pain, which will
be your priority nursing action?
A. Check abdominal dressing for possible
swelling
B. Explain the proper use of PCA to alleviate
anxiety
C. Avoid overdosing to prevent
dependence/tolerance
D. Monitor VS, more importantly RR
28. The client complained of abdominal
distention and pain. Your nursing intervention
that can alleviate pain is:
A. Instruct client to go to sleep and relax
B. Advice the client to close the lips and avoid
deep breathing and talking
C. Offer hot and clear soup
D. Turn to sides frequently and avoid too much
talking
29. Surgical pain might be minimized b which
nursing action in the O.R.
A. Skill of surgical team and lesser manipulation
B. Appropriate preparation for the scheduled
procedure
C. Use of modern technology in closing the
wound
D. Proper positioning and draping of client.
30. Inadequate anesthesia is said to be one of the
common cause of pain both in intra and post-op
patients. If general anesthesia is desired, it will
involve loss of consciousness. Which of the
following are the 2 general types of GA?
A. Epidural and Spinal
B. Subarachnoid block and intravenous
C. Inhalation and Regional
D. Intravenous and inhalation
Situation 7: Nurse’s attitudes toward the pain
influence the way they perceive and interact
with clients in pain.
31. Nurses should be aware of that older adults
are at risk of underrated pain. Nursing
assessment and management of pain should
address the following beliefs EXCEPT:
A. Older patients seldom tend to report pain
than the younger ones
B. Pain is a sign of weakness
C. Older patients do not believe in analgesics,
they are tolerant.
D. Complaining of pain will lead to being
labelled a bad patient
32. Nurses should understand that when a client
responds favourably to a placebo, it is known as
the placebo effect. Placebos do not indicate
whether or not a client has:
A. Conscience
B. Real pain
C. Disease
D. Drug tolerance
33. You are the nurse in the pain clinic where
you have client who has difficulty specify the
location of pain. How can you assist such client?
A. The pain is vague
B. By charting-it hurts all over
C. Identifying the absence and presence of pain
D. Ask the client to point to the painful are by
just one finger.
34. What symptom more distressing than pain,
should the nurse monitor when giving opioids
especially among elderly clients who are in
pain?
A. Forgetfulness
B. Constipation
C. Drowsiness
D. Allergic reactions like pruritus
35. Physical dependence occurs in anyone who
takes opiods over a period of time. What do you
tell a mother of a ‘dependent’ when asked for
advice?
A. Start another drug and slowly lessen the
opioid dosage
B. Indulge in recreational outdoor activities
C. Isolate opioid dependent to a restful resort
D. Instruct slow tapering of the drug dosage and
alleviate physical withdrawal symptoms.
Situation 8: The nurse is performing health
education activities for Janevi Segovia, a 30
years old Dentist with Insulin dependent
diabetes Mellitus.
36. Janevi is preparing a mixed dose of insulin.
The nurse is satisfied with her performance
when she:
A. Draw insulin from the vial of clear insulin
first
B. Draw insulin from the vial of the intermediate
acting insulin first
C. Fill both syringes with the prescribed insulin
dosage then shake the bottle vigorously
D. Withdraw the intermediate acting insulin first
before withdrawing the short acting insulin first.

37. Janevi complains of nausea, vomiting,
diaphoresis and headache. Which of the
following nursing intervention are you going to
carry first?
A. Withhold the client’s next insulin injection
B. Test the client’s blood glucose level
C. Administer Tylenol as ordered
D. Offer fruit juice, gelatine and chicken
bouillon
38. Janevi administered regular insulin at 7 A.M.
and the nurse should instruct Jane to avoid
exercising at around:
A. 9 to 11 A.M.
B. After 8 hours
C. Between 8 A.M. to 9 A.M.
D. In the afternoon, after taking lunch.
39. Janevi was brought at the emergency room
after four month because she fainted in her
clinic. The nurse should monitor which of the
following test to evaluate the overall therapeutic
compliance of a diabetic patient?
A. Glycosylated Hemoglobin
B. Fasting blood glucose
C. Ketone levels
D. Uirne glucose level
40. Upon the assessment of HbA1C of Mrs.
Segovia. The nurse has been informed of a 9 %
HbA1C result. In this case, she will teach the
patient to:
A. Avoid infection
B. Take adequate food and nutrition
C. Prevent and recognize hypoglycaemia
D. Prevent and recognize hypoglycaemia
41. The nurse is teaching plan of care for Jane
with regards to proper foot care. Which of the
following should be included in the plan?
A. Soak feet in hot water
B. Avoid using mild soap on the feet
C. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet but not
between the toes
D. Always have a podiatrist to cut your toe nails;
never cut them yourself
42. Another patient was brought to the
emergency room in an unresponsive state and a
diagnosis of hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar
nonketotic syndrome is made. The nurse
immediately prepare to initiate which of the
following anticipated physician’s order?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. 100 units of insulin
C. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
D. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
43. Jane eventually developed DKA and is being
treated in the emergency room. Which finding
would the nurse expect to note as confirming
this diagnosis?
A. Comatose state
B. Decreased urine output
C. Increased respiration and increase in pH
D. Elevated blood glucose level and plasma
bicarbonate level
44. The nurse teaches Jane to know the B. Decreased alveolar surfaced area
difference between hypoglycaemia and
C. Decreased anterior-posterior chest diameter
ketoacidosis. Jane demonstrates understanding
of the teaching by stating that glucose will be D. Hyperventilation
taken of which of the following symptoms
develops?
A. 47. The older patient is at higher risk for
incontinence because of:
B. Shakiness
A. dilated urethra
C. Blurred vision
B. increased glomerular filtration rate
D. Foul breath odor
C. diuretic use
D. decreased bladder capacity
45. Jane has been scheduled to have a FBS taken
in the morning. The nurse tells Jane to eat or
drink after midnight. Prior to taking the blood 48. Merle, age 86, is complaining of dizziness
specimen, the nurse noticed that Jane is holding when she stands up. This may
a bottle of distilled water. The nurse asked Jane
if she drink any, and she said yes. Which of the indicate:
following is the best nursing action?
A. dementia
A. Administer syrup of ipecac to remove the
B. a visual problem
distilled water from the stomach.
C. functional decline
B. Suction the stomach content using NGT prior
to specimen collection D. drug toxicity
C. Advice to physician to reschedule to
diagnostic examination next day
49. Cardiac ischemia in an older patient usually
D. Continue as usual and have the FBS analysis produces:
performed and specimen be taken.
A. ST-T wave changes
B. Very high creatinine kinase level
Situation 9: Elderly clients usually produce
unusual signs when it comes to different C. Chest pain radiating to the left arm
diseases. The ageing process is a complicated D. Acute confusion
process and the nurse should understand that it is
an inevitable fact and she must be prepared to
care for the growing elderly population.
50. The most dependable sign of infection in the
older patient is:

46. Hypoxia may occur in the older patients A. change in mental status
because of which of the following
B. fever
physiologic changes associated with aging.
C. pain
A. Ineffective airway clearance
D. decreased breath sounds with crackles
PART 2 Board Exam test questions 51 - 100
Situation 10 – In the OR, there are safety
protocols that should be followed. The OR
nurseshould be well versed with all these to
safeguard the safety and quality of patient
delivery outcome.
51. Which of the following should be given
highest priority when receiving patient in the
OR?
A. Assess level of consciousness
B. Verify patient identification and informed
consent
C. Assess vital signs
D. Check for jewelry, gown, manicure, and
dentures
52. Surgeries like I and D (incision and
drainage) and debridement are relatively short
procedures but considered ‘dirty cases’. When
are these procedures best scheduled?
A. Last case
B. In between cases
C. According to availability of anaesthesiologist
D. According to the surgeon’s preference
53. OR nurses should be aware that maintaining
the client’s safety is the overall goal of nursing
care during the intraoperative phase. As the
circulating nurse, you make certain that
throughout the procedure…
A. the surgeon greets his client before induction
of anesthesia
B. the surgeon and anesthesiologist are in
tandem
C. strap made of strong non-abrasive materials
are fastened securely
around the joints of the knees and ankles and
around the 2 hands around
an arm board.
D. Client is monitored throughout the surgery by
the assistant anaesthesiologist
54. Another nursing check that should not be
missed before the induction of general
anesthesia is:
A. check for presence underwear
B. check for presence dentures
C. check patient’s ID
D. check baseline vital signs
55. Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect
postoperative respiratory function. If your client
smokes 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past
10 years, you will anticipate increased risk
for:
A. perioperative anxiety and stress
B. delayed coagulation time
C. delayed wound healing
D. postoperative respiratory function
Situation 11: Sterilization is the process of
removing ALL living microorganism. To be free
of ALL living microorganism is sterility.
56. There are 3 general types of sterilization use
in the hospital which one is not included?
A. Steam sterilization
B. Chemical sterilization
C.
D. Sterilization by boiling
57. Autoclave or steam steam under pressure is
the most common method of sterilization in the
hospital. The nurse knows that the temperature
and time is set to the optimum level to destroy
not only the microorganism, but also the spores.
Which of the following is the ideal setting of the
autoclave machine?
A. 10,000 degree Celsius for 1 hour
B. 5,000 degree Celsius for 30 minutes
C. 37 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
D. 121 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
58. It is important that before a nurse prepares
the material to be sterilized, A chemical
indicator strip should be placed above the
package, preferably, Muslin sheet. What is the
color of the striped produced after autoclaving?
A. Black
B. Blue
C. Gray
D. Purple
59. Chemical indicators communicate that:
A. The items are sterile
B. That the items had undergone sterilization
process but not necessarily sterile
C. The items are disinfected
D. That the items had undergone disinfection
process but not necessarily disinfected
60. If a nurse will sterilize a heat and moisture
labile instruments, it is according to AORN
recommendation to use which of the following
method of sterilization?
A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. Autoclaving
C. Flash sterilizer
D. Alcohol immersion
Situation 12 – Nurses hold a variety of roles
when providing care to a perioperative patient.
61. Which of the following role would be the
responsibility of the scrub nurse?
A. Assess the readiness of the client prior to
surgery
B. Ensure that the airway is adequate
C. Account for the number of sponges, needles,
supplies, used during the surgical procedure.
D. Evaluate the type of anesthesia appropriate
for the surgical client
62. As a perioperative nurse, how can you best
meet the safety need of the client after
administering preoperative narcotic?
A. Put side rails up and ask the client not to get
out of bed
B. Send the client to OR with the family
C. Allow client to get up to go to the comfort
room
D. Obtain consent form
63. It is the responsibility of the pre-op nurse to
do skin prep for patients undergoing\ surgery. If
hair at the operative site is not shaved, what
should be done to make suturing easy and lessen
chance of incision infection?
A. Draped
B. Pulled
C. Clipped
D. Shampooed
64. It is also the nurse’s function to determine
when infection is developing in the surgical
incision. The perioperative nurse should observe
for what signs of impending infection?
A. Localized heat and redness
B. Serosanguinous exudates and skin blanching
C. Separation of the incision
D. Blood clots and scar tissue are visible
65. Which of the following nursing interventions
is done when examining the incision wound and
changing the dressing?
A. Observe the dressing and type and odor of
drainage if any
B. Get patient’s consent
C. Wash hands
D. Request the client to expose the incision
wound
Situation 13: The preoperative nurse
collaborates with the client significant others,
and healthcare providers.
66. To control environmental hazards in the OR,
the nurse collaborates with the following
departments EXCEPT:
A. Biomedical division
B. Chaplancy services
C. Infection control committee
D. Pathology department
67. An air crash occurred near the hospital
leading to a surge of trauma patient. One of the
last patients will need surgical amputation but
there are no sterile surgical equipments. In this
case, which of the following will the nurse
expect?
A. Equipments needed for surgery need not be
sterilized if this is an emergency necessitating
life saving measures
B. Forwarding the trauma client to the nearest
hospital that has available sterile equipment is
appropriate
C. The nurse will need to sterilize the item
before using it to the client using the regular
sterilization setting at 121 degree Celsius in 15
minutes.
D. In such cases, flash sterilizer will be use at
132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes.
68. Tess, the PACU nurse discovered that
Malou, who weights 110 lbs prior to surgery, is
in severe pain 8 hours after cholecystectomy.
Upon checking the chart, Malou found out that
she has an order of Demerol 100 mg I.M. prn for
pain. Tess should verify the order with:
A. Nurse supervisor
B. Anesthesiologist
C. Surgeon
D. Intern on duty

69. Rosie, 57, who is diabetic is for debridement
if incision wound. When the circulating nurse
checked the present IV fluid, she found out that
there is no insulin incorporated as ordered. What
should the circulating nurse do?
A. Double check the doctor’s order and call the
attending MD
B. Communicate with the ward nurse to verify if
insulin was incorporated or not
C. Communicate with the client to verify if
insulin was incorporated
D. Incorporate insulin as ordered
70. The documentation of all nursing activities
performed is legally and professionally vital.
Which of the following should NOT be included
in the patients chart?
A. Presence of prosthetic devices such as
dentures, artificial limbs hearing aid, etc.
B. Baseline physical, emotional, and
psychosocial data
C. Arguments between nurses and residents
regarding treatment
D. Observed untoward signs and symptoms and
interventions including contaminant intervening
factors.
Situation 14 – Team efforts is best demonstrated
in the OR.
71. If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling
surgical cases, what important information do
you need to ask the surgeon?
A. Who is your internist
B. Who is your assistant and anesthesiologist,
and what is your preferred
time and type of surgery?
C. Who are your anesthesiologist, internist, and
assistant
D. Who is your anesthesiologist
72. In the OR, the nursing tandem for every
surgery is:
A. Instrument technician and circulating nurse
B. Nurse anesthetist, nurse assistant, and
instrument technician
C. Scrub nurse and nurse anesthetist
D. Scrub and circulating nurses
73. While team effort is needed in the OR for
efficient and quality patient care delivery, we
should limit the number of people in the room
for infection control. Who comprise this team?
A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse,
radiologist, orderly
B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating
nurse, anesthesiologist
C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist,
scrub nurse, pathologist
D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist,
intern, scrub nurse
74. Who usually act as an important part of the
OR personnel by getting the wheelchair or
stretcher, and pushing/pulling them towards the
operating room?
A. Orderly/clerk
B. Nurse Supervisor
C. Circulating Nurse
D. Anesthesiologist
75. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a
failure in:
A. Electricity
B. Inadequate supply
C. Leg work
D. Communication
Situation 15: Basic knowledge on Intravenous
solutions is necessary for care of clients with
problems with fluids and electrolytes.
76. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash
presents to the emergency department with
severe internal bleeding. The client is severely
hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse
anticipates which of the following intravenous
solutions will most likely be prescribed to
increase intravascular volume, replace
immediate blood loss and increase blood
pressure?
A. 0.45 % sodium chloride
B. Normal saline solution
C. o.33% sodium chloride
D. Lactated ringer’s solution
77. The physician orders the nurse to prepare an
isotonic solution. Which of the following IV
solution would the nurse expect the intern to
prescribe?
A. 5 % dextrose in water
B. 10 % dextrose in water
C. 0.45 % sodium chloride
D. 0.5 % dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
78. The nurse is making initial rounds on the
nursing unit to assess the condition or assigned
clients. The nurse notes that the client’s IV site is
cool, pale and swollen and the solution is not
infusing. The nurse concludes that which of the
following complications has been experienced
by the client?
A. Infection
B. Phlebitis
C. Infiltration
D. Thrombophlebitis
79. A nurse reviews the client’s electrolytes
laboratory report and notes that the potassium
level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following
would the nurse note on the lectrocardiogram as
a result of the laboratory value?
A. U waves
B.
C. Elevated T waves
D. Elevated ST segment
80. One patient has a runaway IV of 50 %
dextrose. To prevent temporary excess of insulin
or transient hyperinsulin reaction what solution
you prepare in anticipation of the doctor’s order?
A. Any IV solution available to KVO
B. Isotonic solution
C. Hypertonic solution
D. Hypotonic solution
81. An informed consent is required for:
A. Closed reduction of a fracture
B. Insertion of intravenous catheter
C. Irrigation of the external ear canal
D. Urethral catheterization
82. Which of the following is not true with
regards to the informed consent?
A. It should describe different treatment
alternatives
B. It should contain a thorough and detailed
explanation of the procedure to be done
C. It should describe the client’s diagnosis
D. It should given an explanation of the client’s
prognosis
83. You know that the hallmark of nursing
accountability is the:
A. Accurate documentation and reporting
B. Admitting your mistakes
C. Filing an incidence report
D. Reporting a medication error
84. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of
clients. On review of the client’s medical records
the nurse determines that which client is at risk
for excess fluid volume?
A. The client taking diuretics
B. The client with renal failure
C. The client with an ileostomy
D. The client who requires gastrointestinal
suctioning
85. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of
clients. On review of the client’s medical
records, the nurse determines that which client is
at risk for deficient fluid volume?
A. A client with colostomy
B. A client with congestive heart failure
C. A client with decreased kidney function
D. A client receiving frequent wound irrigation
Situation 16: As a perioperative nurse, you are
aware of the correct processing methods for
preparing instruments and other devices for
patient use to prevent infection.
86. As an OR nurse, what are your foremost
considerations for selecting chemical agents for
disinfection?
A. Material compatibility and efficiency
B. Odor and availability/
C. Cost and duration of disinfection process
D. Duration of disinfection and efficiency
87. Before you used disinfected instrument it is
essential that you:
A. Rinse with tap water followed by alcohol
B. Wipe the instrument with sterile water
C. Dry the instrument thoroughly
D. Rinse with sterile water
88. You have a critical heat labile instrument to
sterilize and are considering to use high level of
disinfectant. What should you do?
A. Cover the soaking vessel to contain the
vapour
B. Double the amount of high level of
disinfectant
C. Test the potency of the high level of
disinfectant
D. Prolong the exposure time according to
manufacturer’s direction
89. To achieve sterilization using disinfectants,
which of the following is used?
A. Low level disinfectants immersion in 24
hours
B. Intermediate level disinfectants immersion in
12 hours
C. High level disinfectants immersion in 1 hour
D. High level disinfectants immersion in 10
hours
90. Bronchoscope, Thermometer, Endoscope,
ET tube, Cytoscope are all BEST sterilized using
which of the following?
A. Autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius in 15
minutes
B. Flash sterilizer at 132 degree Celsius in 3
minutes
C. Ethylene Oxide gas aeration for 20 hours
D. 2% Glutaraldehyde immersion for 10 hours
Situation 17: The OR is divided in three zones to
control traffic flow and contamination.
91. What OR attires are worn in the restricted
area?
A. Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap
B. Head cap scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
C. Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit
D. Cap, Mask, gloves, shoes
92. Nursing intervention for a patient on low
dose IV insulin therapy includes the following
EXCEPT:
A. Elevation of serum ketones to monitor ketosis
B. Vital signs including BP
C. Estimate serum potassium
D. Elevation of blood glucose levels
93. The doctor ordered to incorporate 1000 “u”
insulin to the remaining on going IV. The
strength is 500/ml. How much should you
incorporate into the IV solution?
A. 10 ml
B. 2 ml
C. 0.5 ml
D. 5 ml
94. Multiple vial-dose-insulin when in use
should be:
A. Kept at room temperature
B. Kept in the refrigerator
C. Kept in narcotic cabinet
D. Store in the freezer
95. Insulin using insulin syringe are given using
how many degrees of needle insertion?
A. 45
B. 180
C. 90
D. 15
Situation 18: Maintenance of sterility is an
important function a nurse should perform in
any OR setting.
96. Which of the following is true with regards
to sterility?
A. Sterility is time related items are not
considered sterile after a period of 30 days of
being not in use.
B. for 9 months sterile items are considered
sterile as long as they are covered with sterile
muslin cover and stored in a dust proof covers.
C. Sterility is event related, not time related.
D. For 3 weeks, items double covered with
muslin are considered sterile as long as they
have undergone the sterilization process
97. 2 organizations endorsed that sterility are
affected by factors other that the time itself,
these are:
A. The PNA and the PRC
B. AORN and JCAHO
C. ORNAP and MCNAP
D. MMDA and DILG
98. All of these factors affect the sterility of the
OR equipments, these are the following except:
A. The material used for packaging
B. The handling of the materials as well as its
transport
C. Storage
D. The chemical or process used in sterilizing
the material
99. When you say sterile, it means:
A. The material is clean.
B. The material as well as the equipments are
sterilized and had undergone a rigorous
sterilization process
C. There is a black stripe on the paper indicator
D. The material has no microorganism nor
spores present that might cause an infection
100. In using liquid sterilizer versus autoclave
machine, which of the following is true?
A. Autoclave is better in sterilizing OR supplies
verus liquid sterilizer
B. They are both capable of sterilizing the
equipments, however, it is necessary to soak
supplies in the liquid sterilizer for a longer
period of time.
C. Sharps are sterilized using autoclave and not
cidex.
D. If liquid sterilizer sterilization process is
used, rinsing it before using is not necessary.
NP4 Nursing Board Exam November 2008
Answer Key 'Nursing Care of Client with
Physiological and Psychosocial Alteration'
100 Nursing Board Exam test questions of
November 2008 Nurse Licensure Examination
(NLE)
Nursing Practice IV – Nursing Care of Client
with Physiological and Psychosocial Alteration
Medical and Surgical Nursing / Psychology
PART 1 Board Exam test questions 1 - 50
Nov. 08 NP4
Situation 1: After abdominal surgery, the
circulating and scrub nurses have critical
responsibility about sponge and instrument
count.
1. Counting is performed thrice: During the
preincision phase, the operative phase and
closing phase. Who counts the sponges, needles A. Anaesthesiologist
and instruments?
B. Surgeon
A. The scrub nurse only
C. OR nurse supervisor
B. The circulating nurse only
D. Circulating nurse
C. The surgeon and the assistant surgeon
D. The scrub nurse and circulating nurse.
5. Which of the following are 2 interventions of
the surgical team when an instrument was
confirmed missing?
2. The layer of the abdomen is divided into 5.
Arrange the following from the first layer going A. MRI and Incidence report
to the deepest layer:
B. CT Scan, MRI, Incidence Report
1. Fascia
C. X-ray, and Incidence Report
2. Muscle
D. CT scan and Incidence Report
3. Peritoneum
4. Subcutaneous/Fat
Situation 2: An entry level nurse should be able
5. Skin to apply theoretical knowledge in the
performance of the basic nursing skills.

A. 5,4,3,2,1
6. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter and
B. 5,4,2,1,3 she is suspected of having urinary infection.
C. 5,4,1,3,2, How should you collect a urine specimen for
culture and sensitivity?
D. 5,4,1,2,3
A. Clamp tubing for 60 minutes and insert a
sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to
3. When is the first sponge instrument count aspirate urine.
reported? B. Drain urine from the drainage bag into the
A. Before closing the subcutaneous layer sterile container

B. Before peritoneum is closed C. Disconnect the tubing from the urinary

C. Before closing the skin
D. Before the fascia is sutured
catheter and let urine floe into a sterile container
D. Wipe the self sealing aspirations port with
antiseptic solution and insert a sterile needle into
the self sealing self-sealing port.

4. Like any nursing intervention, counts should

be documented. To whom does the scrub nurse 7. To obtain specimen for sputum culture and
report any discrepancy of counts so that sensitivity, which of the following instruction is
immediate and appropriate action is instituted? best?
A. Upon waking up, cough deeply and
expectorate into container
B. Cough after pursed lip breathing
C. Save sputum for two days in covered
container
D. After respiratory treatment, expectorate into a
container
8. The best time for collecting the sputum
specimen for culture:
A. Before retiring at night
B. Upon waking up in the morning
C. Anytime of the day.
D. Before meal
9. When suctioning the endotracheal tube, the
nurse should:
A. Explain procedure to patient: Insert catheter
gently applying suction. Withdrawn using
twisting motion.
B. Insert catheter until resistance is met; then
withdraw slightly, applying suction
intermittently as catheter is withdrawn.
C. Hyperoxygenate client insert catheter using
back and forth motion
D. Insert suction, catheter four inches into the
tube, suction 30 seconds using twirling motion
as catheter is withdrawn.
10. The purpose of NGT IMMEDIATELY after
operation is:
A. For feeding or gavage
B. For gastric decompression
C. For lavage, or the cleansing of the stomach
content
D. For the rapid return of peristalsis
Situation 3 – Mr. Santos, 50, is to undergo
cytoscopy due to multiple problems like scantly
urination, hematuria, and dysuria.
11. You are the nurse in charge of Mr. Santos.
When asked what are the organs to be examined
during cystoscopy, you will enumerate as
follows:
A. Urethra, Kidney, Bladder
B. Urethra, Bladder wall, trigone, urethral
opening
C. Bladder wall, uterine wall and urethral
opening
D. Urethral opening, urethral opening bladder.
12. You are the nurse in charge of Mr. Santos.
When asked what are the organs to be examined
during cystoscopy in:
A. Supine
B. Lithotomy
C. Semi-fowler
D. Trendelenburg
13. After cystoscopy, Mr. Santos asked you to
explain why there is no incision of any kind.
What do you yell him?
A. Cystoscopy is direct visualization and
examination by urologist
B. Cystoscopy is done by x-ray visualization of
the urinary tact
C. Cystoscopy is done by using lasers on the
urinary tract
D. Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure of the A. Allow continuous monitoring of the fluid
unrinary output status
tract
B. Provide continuous flushing of clots and
debris from the bladder
C. Allow for proper exchange of electrolytes
14. Within 24-48 hours post cystoscopy, it is
D. Ensure accurate monitoring of intake and
normal to observe one of the following:
output
A. Pink-tinged urine
B. Distended bladder
18. Mang Felix informs you that he feels some
C. Signs of infection discomfort on the hypogastric area and he has to
void. What will be your most appropriate
D. Prolonged hematuria
action?
15. Leg cramps are NOT uncommon post
A. Remove his catheter then allow him to void
cystoscopy. Nursing intervention includes:
his own
A. Bed rest
B. Irrigate his catheter
B. Warm moist soak
C. Tell him “Go ahead and void. You have an
C. Early ambulation indwelling catheter”

D. Hot sitz bath D. Assess color and rate of outflow, if there is a

change refer to urologist for possible irrigation

Situation 4 – Mang Felix, a 79 year old man who

is brought to the Surgical Unit from PACU after
a transurethral resection. You are assigned to
receive him. You noted that he has a 3-way
indwelling catheter for continuous fast dip
bladder irrigation which is connected to a
straight drainage.
16. Immediately after surgery, what would you
expect his urine to be?
A. Light yellow
B. Amber
C. Bright red
D. Pinkish to red
17. The purpose of the continuous bladders
irrigation is to:
19. You decided to check on Mang Felix’s IV
fluid infusion. You noted in flow rate, pallor and
coldness around the insertion site. What is your
assessment finding?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue
C. Pyrogenic reaction
D. Air embolism
20. Knowing that proper documentation of
assessment findings and interventions share
important responsibilities of the nurse during
first post operative days, which of the following
is the LEAST relevant to document in the case
of Mang Felix?
A. Chest pain and vital signs
B. Intravenous infusion rate A. DOH
C. Amount, color and consistency of bladder B. MMDA
irrigation drainage
C. NBI
D. Activities of daily living started
D. BFAD

Situation 5: Melamine contamination in milk has

brought world wide crisis both in the milk
production sector as well as the health and
economy. Being aware of the current events is
one quality that a nurse should possess to prove
that nursing is a dynamic profession that will
adapt depending on the patient’s needs.
24. Infants are the most vulnerable to melamine
poisoning. Which of the following is NOT a sign
of melamine poisoning?
A. Irritability, Back ache, Urolithiasis
B. High blood pressure, fever
C. Anuria, Oliguria or Hematuria

21. Melamine is a synthetic resin used for D. Fever, Irritability and a large output of diluted
whiteboards, hard plastics and jewellery box urine
covers due to its fire retardant properties. Milk
and food manufacturers add melamine in order
to: 25. What kind of renal failure from melamine
poisoning cause?
A. It has a bacteriostatic property leading to
increase food and milk life as a way of A. Chronic Pre-renal
preserving the foods.
B. Acute, Postrenal
B. Gives a glazy and more edible look on foods
C. Chronic, Intrarenal
C. Make milks more tasty and creamy
D. Acute, Prerenal
D. Create an illusion of a high protein content on
their products
Situation: Leukemia is the most common type of
childhood cancer. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is
22. Most of the milks contaminated by the cause of almost 1/3 of all cancer that occurs
melamine came from which country? in children under age 15.

A. India
B. China 26. The survival rate for Acute Lymphoid
Leukemia is approximately:
C. Philippines
A. 25 %
D. Korea
B. 40 %
C. 75 %
23. Which government agency is responsible for
testing the melamine content of foods and food D. 95 %
products?
27. Whrereas acute nonlymphoid leukaemia has
survival rate of:
A. 25 %
B. 40 %
C. 75 %
D. 95 %
28. The three main consequence of leukaemia
that cause the most danger is:
A. Neutropenia causing infection, anemia
causing impaired oxygenationand
thrombocytopenia leading to bleeding
tendencies.
B. Central nervous system infiltration, anemia
causing impaired oxygenationand
thrombocytopenia leading to bleeding
tendencies.
C. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fractures
D. Invasion by the leukemic cells to the bone
causing severe bone pain
29. Gold standard in the diagnosis of leukaemia
is by which of the following?
A. Blood culture and sensitivity
B. Bone marrow biopsy
C. Blood biopsy
30. Adriamycin, Vincristine, Prednisone and L
asparaginase are given to the client for long term
therapy. One common side effect, especially of
adriamycin is alopecia. The child asks: “ Will I
get my hair back once again?” The nurse
respond is by saying:
A. “Don’t be silly, of course you will get your
hair back.”
B. “We are not sure, let’s hope it’ll grow.”
C. “This side effect is usually permanent, but I
will get the doctor to discuss it for you.”
D. “Your hair will regrow in 3 -6 months but of
different color, usually darker and of different
texture.”
Situation: Breast cancer is the 2nd most common
type of cancer after lung cancer and 99% of
which, occurs in woman. Survival rate is 98% if
this is detected early and treated promptly.
Carmen is a 53 year old patient in the high risk
group for breast cancer was recently diagnosed
with Breast Cancer.
31. All of the following are factors that said to
contribute to the development of breast cancer
EXCEPT:
A. Prolonged exposure to estrogen such as an
early menarche or late menopause, nulliparity
and children after age 30.
B. Genetics
C. Increasing age
D. Prolonged intake of Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
32. Protective factors for the development of
breast cancer includes which of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Exercise
B. Prophylactic Tamoxifen
C. Breast Feeding
D. Alcohol intake
33. A patient diagnosed with breast cancer has
been offered the treatment choices of breast
conservation surgery with radiation or a
modified radical mastectomy. When questioned
by the patient about these options, the nurse
informs the patients that the lumpectomy with
radiation.
A. Reduces the fear and anxiety that accompany
the diagnosis and treatment of cancer
B. Has about the same 10 years survival rate as
the modified radical mastectomy
C. Provides shorter treatment period with a
fewer long term complications
D. Preserves the normal appearance and
sensitivity of the breast
34. Carmen, is asking the nurse the most
appropriate time of the month to do her self-
examination of the breast. The MOST
appropriate reply by the nurse would be:
A. the 26th day of menstrual cycle
B. 7 – 8 days after conclusion of the menstrual
period
C. During her menstruation
D. the same day each month
35. Carmen being treated with radiation therapy.
What should be included in the plan of care to
minimize skin damage from the radiation
therapy?
A. Cover the areas with thick clothing materials
B. Apply a heating pad to the site
C. Wash skin with water after therapy
D. Avoid applying creams and powder to the
area.
36. Based on the DOH and World Health
Organization (WHO) guidelines, the mainstay
for early detection method for breast cancer that
is recommended for developing countries is:
A. a monthly breast self examination (BSE) and
an annual health worker breast examination
(HWBE)
B. an annual hormone receptor assay
C. an annual mammogram
D. a physician conduct a breast clinical
examination every 2 years
37. The purpose of performing the breast self
examination (BSE) regularly is to discover:
A. fibrocystic
masses
B. cancerous
lumps
C. areas of thickness or fullness
D. changes from previous BSE
38. If you are to instruct a postmenopausal
woman about BSE, when would you tell her to
do BSE:
A. on the same day of each
month
B. right after the menstrual
period
C. on the first day of her menstruation
D. on the last day of her menstruation
39. During breast self-examination, the purpose
of standing in front of the mirror it to observe
the breast for:
A. thickening of the
tissue
B.
axillary
C. lumps in the breast tissue
D. change in size and contour
40. When preparing to examine the left breast in
a reclining position, the purpose of placing a
small folded towel under the client’s left
shoulder is to:
A. bring the breast closer to the examiner’s right
hand
B. tense the pectoral muscle
C. balance the breast tissue more evenly on the
chest wall
D. facilitate lateral positioning of the breast
Situation – Radiation therapy is another
modality of cancer management. With emphasis
on multidisciplinary management you have
important responsibilities as a nurse
41. Albert is receiving external radiation therapy
and he complains of fatigue and malaise. Which
of the following nursing interventions would be
most helpful for Albert?
A. Tell him that sometimes these feelings can be
psychogenic
B. Refer him to the physician
C. Reassures him that these feelings are normal
D. Help him plan his activities
42. Immediately following the radiation
teletherapy, Albert is:
A. Considered radioactive fro 24hours
B. Given a complete bath
C. Placed on isolation for 6 hours
D. Free from Radiation
43. Albert is admitted with a radiation induced
thrombocytopenia. As a nurse you should
observe the following symptoms:
A. Petechiae, ecchymosis, epistaxis
B. Weakness, easy fatigability, pallor
C. Headache, dizziness, blurred vision
D. Severe sore throat, bacteremia, hepatomegaly
44. What nursing diagnosis should be the
highest priority?
A. Knowledge deficit regarding
thrombocytopenia precautions
B. Activity intolerance
C. Impaired tissue integrity
D. Ineffective tissue perfusion, peripheral,
cerebral, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, renal
45. What intervention should you include in
your care plan?
A. Inspect his skin for petechiae, bruising, GI
bleeding regularly
B. Place Albert on strict isolation precaution
C. Provide rest in between activities
D. Administer antipyretics if his temperature
exceeds 38 C
Situation: Burn is cause by transfer of heat
source to the body. It can be thermal, electrical
radiation or chemical.
46. A burn characterized by pale, white
appearance, charred or with exposed and
painlessness:
A. Superficial partial thickness burn
B. Deep partial thickness burn
C. Full thickness burn
D. Deep full thickness burn
47. Which of the following BEST describes
superficial partial thickness burn or first degrees
burn?
A. Structures beneath the skin and damage
B. Dermis is partially damaged
C. Epidermis and dermis are both damaged
D. Epidermis is damaged
48. A burn that is said to be “WEEPING” is
classified as:
A. Superficial partial thickness burn
B. Deep partial thickness burn
C. Full thickness burn
D. Deep full thickness burn
49. During the Acute Phase of the burn injury,
which of the following is a priority?
A. Wound healing
B. Reconstructive surgery
C. Emotional support
D. Fluid resuscitation
50. While in the emergent phase, the nurse
knows that the priority is to:
A. Prevent infection
B. Control pain
C. Prevent deformities and contractures
D. Return the hemodynamic stability via fluid
resuscitation
PART 2 Board Exam test questions 51 - 100
51. The MOST effective method of delivering
pain medication during the emergent phase is:
A. intramuscularly
B. subcutaneously
C. orally
D. intravenously
52. When a client accidentally splashes
chemicals to his eyes. The initial priority care of
the following the chemical burns is to:
A. irrigate with normal saline for 1 to 15
minutes
B. transport to a physician immediately
C. irrigate with water for 15 minutes or longer
D. cover the eyes with a sterile gauze
53. Which of the following can be fatal
complication of upper airway burns?
A. stress ulcers
B. hemorrhage
C. shock
D. laryngeal spasm and swelling
54. When a client will rush towards you and he
has burning clothes on, it is your priority to do
which of the following first?
A. log roll on the grass/ground
B. slap the flames with his hands
C. Try to remove the burning clothes
D. Splash the client with 1 bucket of cool water
55. Once the flames are extinguished, it is most
important:
A. cover client with warm blanket
B. Give him sips of water
C. Calculate the extent of this burns
D. Assess the Sergio’s breathing
56. During the first 24 hours after thermal injury,
you should assess Sergio for:
A. hypokalemia and hypernatremia
B. hypokalemia and hyponatremia
C. hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
D. hyperkalemia and hypernatremia
57. A client who sustained deep partial thickness
and full thickness burns of the face, whole
anterior chest and both upper extremities two
days ago begins to exhibit extreme restlessness .
You recognize that this most likely indicates that
the client is developing:
A. Cerebral hypoxia
B. Hypervolemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Renal failure
58. A 165 lbs trauma client was rushed to the
emergency room with full thickness burns on the
whole face, right and left arm, and at the anterior
chest sparing the abdominal area. He also has
superficial partial thickness burn at the posterior
trunk and at the half upper portion of the left leg.
He the emergent phase of burns using the
parkland’s formula, you know that during the
first 8 hours of burn the amount of fluid will be
given is:
A. 5, 400ml
B. 10,500 ml
C. 9,450 ml
D. 6,750 ml
59. The doctor incorporated insulin on the
client’s fluid during the emergent phase. The
nurse knows that insulin is given because:
A. Clients with burn also develops Metabolic
Acidosis
B. Clients with burn also develops
hyperglycemia
C. Insulin is needed for additional energy and
glucose burning after the stressful incidence to
hasten wound healing, regain of consciousness
and rapid return of hemodynamic stability.
D. For hyperkalemia
60. The IV fluid of choice for burn as well as
dehydration is:
A. 0.45% NaCl
B. NSS
C. Sterile water
D. D5LR
Situation: ENTEROSTOMAL THERAPY is
now considered a specialty in nursing. You are
participating in the OSTOMY CARE CLASS.
61. You plan to teach Fermin how to irrigate the
colostomy when:
A. The perineal wound heals And Fermin can sit
comfortably on the commode
B. Fermin can lie on the side comfortably, about
the 3rd postoperative day
C. The abdominal incision is closed and
contamination is no longer a danger
D. The stools starts to become formed, around
the 7th postoperative day
62. When preparing to teach Fermin how to
irrigate colostomy, you should plan to do the
procedure:
A. When Fermin would have normal bowel
movement
B. At least 2 hours before visiting hours
C. Prior to breakfast and morning care
D. After Fermin accepts alteration in body
image
63. When observing a return demonstration of a
colostomy irrigation, you know that more
teaching is required if Fermin:
A. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to
inserting into the stoma
B. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom
door cloth hook during fluid
insertion
C. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after only
500 ml of fluid has been instilled
D. Clamps of the flow of fluid when felling
uncomfortable
64. You are aware that teaching about colostomy
care is understood when Fermin states, “I will
contact my physician and report:
A. If I have any difficulty inserting the irrigating
tub into the stoma.”
B. If I noticed a loss of sensation to touch in the
stoma tissue.”
C. The expulsion of flatus while the irrigating
fluid is running out.”
D. When mucus is passed from the stoma
between the irrigations.”
65. You would know after teaching Fermin that
dietary instruction for him is effective when he
states, “It is important that I eat:
A. Soft food that are easily digested and
absorbed by my large intestines.”
B. Bland food so that my intestines do not
become irritated.”
C. Food low in fiber so that there is less stool.”
D. Everything that I ate before the operation,
while avoiding foods that
cause gas.”
Situation: Based on studies of nurses working in
special units like the intensive care unit and
coronary care unit it is important for nurses to
gather as much information to be able to address
their needs for nursing care.
66. Critically ill patient frequently complain
about which of the following when hospitalized?
A. Hospital report
B. Lack of blankets
C. Lack of privacy
D. Inadequate nursing staff
67. Who of the following is at greatest risk of 71. His diagnosis was hyperthyroidism, the
developing sensory problem? following are expected symptoms except:
A. Female patient A. Anorexia
B. Adolescent B. Palpitation
C. Transplant patient C. Fine tremors of the hand
D. Unresponsive patient D. Hyper alertness

68. Which of the following factors may inhibit 72. He has to take drugs to treat
learning in critically ill patients? hyperthyroidism, which of the following will
you not expect that the doctor will prescribe?
A. Gender
A. Colace (Docusate)
B. Medication
B. Cytomel (Llothyronine)
C. Educational level
C. Tapazole (
D. Previous knowledge of illness
D. (Levothyroxine)

69. Which of the following statements does not

apply to critically ill patients? 73. The nurse knows that Tapazole has which of
the following side effect that will warrant
A. Majority need extensive rehabilitation immediate withholding of the medication?
B. All have been hospitalized previously A. Death
C. Are physically unstable
B. Sore throat
D. Most have chronic illness.
C. Hyperthermia
D. Thrombocytosis
70. Families of critically ill patients desire which
of the following needs to be met first by the
nurse? 74. You asked questions as soon as she regained
consciousness from thyroidectomy primarily to
A. Provision of comfortable space assess the evidence of:
B. Emotional support A. Thyroid storm
C. Updated information on the client’s status
B. Mediastinal shift
D. Spiritual counselling
C. Damage to the laryngeal nerve
D. Hypocalcemia tetany
Situatuon: Johnny, sought consultation to
the hospital before
75. Should you check for haemorrhage, you will:
A. Slip your hand under the nape of her neck 79. Which of the following is a side effect of
lugol’s solution?
B. Check for hypotension
A. Hypokalemia
C. Apply neck collar to prevent haemorrhage
B. Nystagmus
D. Observe the dressing if is soaked with blood
C. Enlargement of the Thyroid gland
D. Excessive salivation
76. Basal Metabolic rate is assessed on Johnny
to determine his metabolic rate. In assessing the
BMR using the standard procedure, you need to
80. In administering Lugol’s solution, the
tell Johnny that:
precautionary measure should include:
A. Obstructing his vision
A. Administer with glass only
B. Restraining his upper and lower extremities
B. Dilute with juice and administer with a straw
C. Obstructing his hearing
C. Administer it with milk and drink it
D. Obstructing his nostril with a clamp
D. Follow it with milk of magnesia

77. The BMR is based on the measurement that:

A. Rate of respiration under different condition
of activities and rest
B. Amount of oxygen consumption under resting
condition over a measured period of time
C. Amount of oxygen consumption under
stressed condition over a measured period of
time
D. Ratio of respiration to pulse rate over a
measured period of time
78. Her physician ordered lugol’s solution in
order to:
A. Decrease the vascularity and size of the
thyroid gland
B. Decrease the size of the thyroid gland only
C. Increase the vascularity and size of the
thyroid gland
D. Increase the size of the thyroid gland only
Situation: Pharmacological treatment was not
effective for Johnny’s hyperthyroidism and now
he is scheduled for Thyroidectomy.
81. Instruments in the surgical suite for surgery
is classified as either CRITICAL, SEMI
CRITICAL and NON CRITICAL. If the
instrument are introduced directly into the blood
stream or into any normally sterile cavity or area
of the body it is classified as:
A. Critical
B. Semi critical
C. Non critical
D. Ultra critical
82. Instruments that do not touch the patient or
have contact only to the intact skin is classified
as:
A. Critical
B. Semi critical B. Apply gentle pressure against the incision
when swallowing
C. Non critical
C. Cough and deep breathe every hours
D. Ultra critical
D. Support head with the hands when changing
position
83. If an instrument is classified as Semi Critical
an acceptable method of making the instrument
ready for surgery is through: Situation – Andrea is admitted to the ER
following an assault where she was hit on the
A. Sterilization face and head. She was brought to the ER by a
B. Decontamination police woman. Emergency measures were
stated.
C. Disinfection
D. Cleaning
96. Andrea’s respiration is described as waxing
and waning. You know that this rhythm of
84. While critical items and should be: respiration is defined as:

A. Clean A. Biot’s

B. Decontaminated B. Kussmaul’s

C. Sterilized C. Cheyne Stokes

D. Disinfected D. Eupnca

85. As a nurse, you know that intact skin as an
effective barrier to most microorganisms.
Therefore, items that come in contact with the
intact skin or mucous membranes should be:
A. Disinfected
B. Sterile
C. Clean
D. Alcoholized
86. You are caring for Johnny who is scheduled
to undergo total thyroidectomy because of a
diagnosis of thyroid cancer. Prior to total
thyroidectomy, you should instruct Johnny to:
A. Perform range and motion exercise on the
head or neck
97. What do you call the triad of sign and
symptoms seen in a client with increasing ICP?
A. Virchow’s Triad
B. The Chinese triad
C. Cusching’s Triad
D. Charcot’s Triad
98. Which of the following is true with the
Cushing’s Triad seen in head injuries?
A. Narrowing of Pulse Pressure, Cheyne strokes
respiration, Tachycardia
B. Widening Pulse pressure, Irregular
respiration, Bradycardia
C. Hypertension, Kussmaul’s respiration,
Tachycardia
D. Hypotension, Irregular respiration,
Bradycardia
99. In a client with a Cheyne stokes respiration,
which of the following is the most appropriate
nursing diagnosis?
A. Ineffective airway clearance
B. Ineffective breathing pattern
C. Impaired gas exchange
D. Activity Intolerance
100. You know the apnea is seen in client’s with
cheyne stoke respiration, APNEA is defined as:
A. Inability to breath in a supine position so the
patient sits up in bed to breathe.
B. The patient is dead, the breathing stops
C. There is an absence of breathing for a period
of time usually 15 seconds or more
D. A period of hypercapnea and hypoxia
due to cessation of respiratory effort inspite of
normal respiratory functioning
NP5 Nursing Board Exam November Answer
Key 'Nursing Care of Client with Physiological
and Psychosocial Alteration'
100 Nursing Board Exam test questions of
November 2008 Nurse Licensure Examination
(NLE)
Nursing Practice V – Nursing Care of Client
with Physiological and Psychosocial Alteration
Medical and Surgical Nursing / Psychology
PART 1 Board Exam test questions 1 - 50
Nov. ’08 NP 5
Situation 1: Understanding different models of
care is a necessary part of the nurse patient
relationship.
1. The focus of this therapy is to have a positive
environmental manipulation, physical and social
to effect a positive change.
A. Milieu
B. Psychotherapy
C. Behaviour
D. Group
2. The client asks the nurse about the Milieu
therapy. The nurse responds knowing that the
primary focus of milieu therapy can be best
described by which of the following?
A. A form of behaviour modification therapy
B. A cognitive approach of changing the
behaviour
C. A living learning or working environment
D. A behavioural approach to changing
behaviour
3. A nurse is caring to client with phobia who is
being treated for the condition. The client is
introduced to short periods of exposure to the
phobia object while in relaxed state. The nurse
understands that this form of behaviour
modification can be best described as:
A. Systematic desensitization
B. Aversion therapy
C. Self-control therapy
D. Operant conditioning
4. A client with major depression is considering
cognitive therapy. The client say to the nurse,
“how does this treatment works?” The nurse
responds by telling the client that:
A. “This type of treatment helps you examine
how your thoughts and feelings contribute to
your difficulties”
B. “This type of treatment helps you examine
how your past life has contributed to your
problems.”
C. “This type of treatment helps you confront
your fears by exposing you to the feared objects
abruptly.”
D. “This type of treatment will help you relax
and develop new coping skills.”
5. A client state, “I get down on myself when I
make mistake.” Using Cognitive therapy
approach, the nurse should:
A. Teach the client relaxation exercise to
diminish stress
B. Provide the client with Mastery experience to
boost self esteem
C. Explore the client’s past experiences that
causes the illness
D. Help client modify the belief that anything
less than perfect is horrible.
6. The most advantageous therapy for a
preschool age child with a history of physical
and sexual abuse would be:
A. Play
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Group
D. Family
7. An 18 year old client is admitted with the
diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. A cognitive
behavioural approach is used as part of her
treatment plan. The nurse understands that the
purpose of this approach is to:
A. Help the client identify and examine
dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs.
B. Emphasize social interaction with clients who
withdraw
C. Provide a supportive environment and a
therapeutic community
D. Examine intrapsychic conflicts and past
events in life
8. The nurse is preparing to provide
reminiscence activity for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients will the nurse
select for this group?
A. A client who experiences profound
depression with moderate cognitive impairment
B. A catatonic, immobile with moderate
cognitive impairment
C. An undifferentiated schizophrenic client with
moderate cognitive impairment
D. A client with mild depression who exhibits
who demonstrates normal cognition
9. Which intervention would be typical of a
nurse using cognitive-behavioral approach to a
client experiencing stress disorders?
A. Use of unconditional positive regard
B. Classical conditioning
C. Analysis of free association
D. Examination of negative thought patterns
10. Which of the following therapies has been 14. Which of these nursing actions belong to the
strongly advocated for the treatment of post secondary level of preventive intervention?
traumatic stress disorders?
A. Providing mental health consultation to
A. ECT health care providers
B. Group Therapy B. Providing emergency psychiatric services
C. Hypnotherapy C. Being politically active in relation to mental
health issues
D. Psychoanalysis
D. Providing mental health education to
members of the community
11. The nurse knows that in group therapy, the
maximum number of members to include is:
15. When the nurse identifies a client who has
A. 4
attempted to commit suicide the nurse should:
B. 8
A. call a priest
C. 10 B. Counsel the client
D. 16 C. refer the client to psychiatrist
D. refer the matter to the police
12. The nurse is providing information to a
client with the use of disulfiram (antabuse) for
the treatment of alcohol abuse. The nurse Situation 2: Rose seeks psychiatric consultation
understands that this form of therapy works on because of intense fear of flying in an airplane
what principle? which has greatly affected her chances of
success in her job.
A. Negative Reinforcement
B. Aversion Therapy
16. The most common defense mechanism used
C. Operant Conditioning
by phobic client is:
D. Gestalt therapy
A. Supression
B. Rationalization
13. A biological or medical approach in treating C. Denial
psychiatric patient is:
D. Displacement
A. Million therapy
B. Somatic therapy
17. The goal of the therapy in phobia is:
C. Behavioral therapy
A. Change her lifestyle
D. Psychotherapy
B. Ignore reaction producing situation
C. Change her reaction towards anxiety
D. Eliminate fear producing situation B. Suppression
C. Rationalization
18. The therapy most effective for clients with D. Projection
phobia is:
A. Hypnotherapy
22. When Mang Jose says to you: “The voices
B. Group therapy are telling me bad things again!” The best
response is:
C. Cognitive therapy
A. “Whose voices are those?”
D. Behavior therapy
B. “I doubt what the voices are telling you.”
C. “I do not hear the voice you say you hear.”
19. The fear and anxiety related to phobia is said
to be abruptly decreased when the patient D. “Are you sure you hear these voices?”
exposed to what is feared through:
A. Guided imagery
23. A relevant nursing diagnosis for clients with
B. Systematic desensitization auditory hallucination is:
C. Flooding A. Sensory perceptual alteration
D. Hypotherapy B. Altered thought process
C. Impaired social interaction
20. Based on the presence of symptom. The D. Impaired verbal communications
appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
A. Self esteem disturbance
24. During mealtime, Jose refused to eat telling
B. Activity intolerance that the food was poisoned. The nurse considers
the following except:
C. Impaired adjustment
A. Ignore his remark
D. Ineffective individual
coping B. Offer him food in his own container
C. Show him how irrational his thinking is
D. Respect his refusal to eat.
Situation 3: Mang Jose, 39 year old farmer,
unmarried, had been confined in the National
center for mental health for three years with a 25. When communicating with Jose. The nurse
diagnosis of schizophrenia. considers the following except:
A. Be Warm and enthusiastic
21. The most common defense mechanism used B. Refrain from touching Jose
by a paranoid client is:
A. Displacement
C. Do not argue regarding his hallucination and
delusion
D. Use simple, clear language
Situation 4: Gringo seeks psychiatric counselling
for his ritualistic bahavior of counting his money
as many as 10 times before leaving home.
26. An initial appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
A. Impaired social interaction
B. Ineffective individual coping
C. Impaired Adjustment
D. Anxiety Moderate
27. Obsessive compulsive disorder is BEST
described by:
A. Uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or
ritual repeatedly:
B. Persistent thoughts
C. Recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts
alternating with a behaviour.
D. Pathological persistence of unwilled thought,
feeling or impulse
28. The defense mechanism used by persons
with obsessive compulsive disorder is undoing
and it is best described in one of the following
statements:
A. Unacceptable feeling or behaviour are kept
out of awareness by developing the opposite
behaviour or emotion.
B. Consciously unacceptable instinctual drives
are diverted into personally and socially
acceptable channels
C. Something unacceptable already done is
symbolically acted in reverse.
D. Transfer of emotions associated with a
particular person, object or situation to another
less threatening person, object or situation.
29. TO be more effective, the nurse who cares
for persons with obsessive compulsive disorder
must possess one of the following qualities:
A. Compassion
B. Consistency
C. Patience
D. Friendliness
30. Person with OCD usually manifest:
A. Fear
B. Apathy
C. Suspiciousness
D. Anxiety
Situation 3: The patient who is depressed will
undergo electroconvulsive therapy.
31. Studies on biological depression support
electroconvulsive therapy as a mode of
treatment. The rationale is:
A. ECT produces massive brain damage which
destroys the specific area containing memories
related to the events surrounding the
development of psychotic condition
B. The treatment serves as a symbolic
punishment for the client who feels guilty and
worthless
C. ECT relieves depression psychologically by
increasing the norepinephrine level
D. ECT is seen as a life-threatening experience C. next of kin or guardian
and depressed patients mobilize all their bodily
D. chief nurse
defenses
to deal with this attack.
35. After ECT, the nurse should do this action
before giving the client fluids, food or
32. The preparation of a patient for ECT ideally medication:
is MOST similar to preparation for a patient for:
A. assess the gag
A. electroencephalogram reflex

B. X- B. assess the
ray sensorium

C. general anesthesia C. next of kin or guardian

D. electrocardiogram D. check O2 Sat with a pulse oximeter

33. Which of the following is a possible side Situation 6: Mrs. Ethel Agustin 50 y/o, teacher is
effect which you will discuss with the patient? affected with myasthenia gravis
A. hemorrhage within the
brain
36. Looking at Mrs. Agustin, your assessment
would include the ff except:
B. robot-like body
stiffness A. Nystagmus

C. encephalitis B. Difficulty of hearing

D. confusion, disorientation and short term C. Weakness of the levator palpebrae

memory loss D. Weakness of the ocular muscle

34. Informed consent is necessary for the 37. In an effort to combat complications which
treatment for involuntary clients. When this might occur relatives should be taught:
cannot be obtained, permission may be taken
from the: A. Checking cardiac rate

A. social B. Taking blood pressure reading

worker C. Techniques of oxygen inhalation
D. Administration of oxygen inhalation
B.
doctor
38. The drug of choice for her condition is:
A. Prostigmine
B. Morphine
C. Codeine
D. Prednisone
39. As her nurse, you have be cautious about
administration of medication, if she is
undermedicated this can cause:
A. Emotional crisis
B. Cholinergic crisis
C. Menopausal crisis
D. Myasthenia crisis
40. If you are extra careful and by chance you
give over medication, this would lead to:
A. Cholinergic crisis
B. Menopausal crisis
C. Emotional crisis
D. Myasthenia crisis
Situation 7: Rosanna 20 y/0 unmarried patient
believes that the toilet for the female patient in
contaminated with AIDS virus and refuses to use
it unless she flushes it three times and wipes the
seat same number of times with antiseptic
solution.
41. The fear of using “contaminated” toilet seat
can be attributed to Rosanna’s inability to:
A. Adjust to a strange environment
B. Express her anxiety
C. Develop the sense of trust in other person
D. Control unacceptable impulses or feelings
42. Assessment data upon admission help the
nurse to identify this appropriate nursing
diagnosis
A. Ineffective denial
B. Impaired adjustment
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Impaired social interaction
43. An effective nursing intervention to help
Rosana is:
A. Convincing her to use the toilet after the
nurse has used it first.
B. Explaining to her that AIDS cannot be
transmitted by using the toilet
C. Allowing her to flush and clear the toilet seat
until she can manage her anxiety
D. Explaining to her how AIDS is transmitted.
44. The goal for treatment for Rosana must be
directed toward helping her to:
A. Walk freely about her past experience
B. Develop trusting relationship with other
C. Gain insight that her behaviour is due to
feeling of anxiety
D. Accept the environment unconditionally
45. Psychotherapy which is prescribed for
Rosana is described as:
A. Establishing an environment adapted to an
individual patient needs
B. Sustained interaction between the therapist
and client to help her develop more functional
behaviour
C. Using dramatic techniques to portray
interpersonal conflicts
D. Biologic treatment for mental disorder
Situation 8: Dennis 40 y/o married man, an
electrical engineer was admitted with the
diagnosis of paranoid disorders. He has became
suspicious and distrustful 2 months before
admission. Upon admission, he kept on saying,
“my wife has been planning to kill me.”
46. A paranoid individual who ca not accept the
guilt demonstrate one of the following defense
mechanism:
A. Denial
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Displacement
47. One morning, Dennis was seen tilting his
head as if he was listening to someone. An
appropriate nursing intervention would be:
A. Tell him to socialize with other patient to
diverts his attention
B. Involve him in group activities
C. Address him by name to ask if he is hearing
voices again
D. Request for an order of antipsychotic
medicine
48. When he says, “these voices are telling me
my wife is going to kill me.” A therapeutic
communication of the nurse is which one of the
following:
A. “I do not hear the voices you say you hear.”
B. “Are you really sure you heard those voices?”
C. “I do not think you heard those voices?”
D. “Whose voices are those?”
49. The nurse confirms that Dennis is
manifesting auditory hallucination. The
appropriate nursing diagnosis she identifies is:
A. Sensory perceptual alteration
B. Self esteem disturbance
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Defensive coping
50. Most appropriate nursing intervention for a
client with suspicious behaviour is one of the
following:
A. Talk to the client constantly to reinforce
reality
B. Involve him in competitive activities
C. Use of Non Judgemental and Consistent
approach
D. Project cheerfulness in interacting with the
patient
PART 2 Board Exam test questions 51 - 100
Situation 9: Clients with Bipolar disorder
receives a very high nursing attention due to the
increasing rate of suicide related to illness.
51. The nurse is assigned to care for a recently
admitted client who has attempted suicide.
What should the nurse do?
A. Search the client’s belongings and room
carefully for items that could be used to attempt
suicide.
B. Express trust that the client won’t cause self-
harm while in the facility.
C. Respect the client’s privacy by not searching
any belongings
D. Remind all staff members to check on the
client frequently
52. In planning activities for the depressed
client, especially during the early stages of
hospitalization, which of the following plan is
best?
A. Provide an activity that is quiet and solitary
to avoid increased fatigue such as working on a
puzzle and reading a book.
B. Plan nothing until the client asks to
participate in the milieu
C. Offer the client a menu of daily activities and
ask the client to participate in all of them
D. Provide a structured daily program of
activities and encourage the client to participate
53. A client with a diagnosis of major
depression, recurrent with psychotic features is
admitted to the mental health unit. To create a
safe environment for the client, the nurse most
importantly devises a plan of care that deals
specifically with the clients:
A. Disturbed thought process
B. Self Care Deficit
C. Imbalanced Nutrition
D. Deficient Knowledge
54. The client is taking a Tricyclic anti
depressant. Which of the following is an
example of TCA?
A. Paxil
B. Zoloft
C. Nardil
D. Pamelor
55. A client visits the physician’s office to seek
treatment for depression, feeling of
hopelessness, poor appetite, insomnia, fatigue,
low self-esteem, poor concentration, and
difficulty making decisions. The client states
that these symptoms began at least 2 years ago.
Based on this report, the nurse suspects:
A. cyclothymic disorder
B. Major depression
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Dysthymic disorder
56. The nurse is planning activities for a client
who has bipolar disorder, which aggressive
social behaviour. Which of the following
activities would be most appropriate for this
client?
A. Ping Pong
B. Linen Delivery
C. Chess
D. Basketball
57. The nurse assesses a client with admitted
diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder mania.
The symptom
presented by the client that requires the nurse’s
immediate intervention is the client’s:
A. Outlandish behaviour and inappropriate dress
B. Grandiose delusion of being a royal
descendant of King Arthur
C. Nonstop physical activity and poor nutritional
intake
D. Constant incessant talking that includes
sexual topic and teasing.
58. A nurse is conducting a group therapy
session and during the session. A client with
mania consistently talks and dominates the
group. The behaviour is disrupting the group
interaction. The nurse would initially:
A. Ask the client to leave the group session.
B. Tell the client that she will not be allowed to
attend any more group sessions.
C. Tell the client that she needs to allow other
client in a group time to talk.
D. Ask another nurse to escort the client out of
the group session.
59. A professional artist is admitted to the
psychiatric unit for treatment of bipolar disorder.
During the last 2 weeks, the client has created
154 paintings, slept only 2 to 3 hours every 2
days, and lost 18 lb. (8.2 kg). Based on
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what should the
nurse provide this client with first?
A. The opportunity to explore family dynamics
B. Help with re-establishing a normal sleep
pattern.
C. Experiences that build self-esteem.
D. Art materials and equipment.
60. The physician orders lithium carbonate
(Lithonate) for a client who’s in the manic phase
of bipolar disorder. During lithium therapy, the
nurse should watch for which adverse reactions?
A. Anxiety, restlessness, and sleep disturbance
B. Nausea, diarrhea, tremor, and lethargy
C. Constipation, lethargy, and ataxia
D. Weakness, tremor, and urine retention
Situation 10 – Annie has a morbid fear of
heights. She asks the nurse what desensitization
therapy is:
61. The accurate information of the nurse the
goal of desensitization is:
A. To help the clients relax and progressively
work up a list of anxiety provoking situations
through imagery
B. To provide corrective emotional experiences
through a one-to-one intensive relationship
C. To help clients in a group therapy setting to
take on specific roles and reenact in front of an
audience, situations in which interpersonal
conflict is involved.
D. To help clients cope with their problems by
learning behaviors that we are more functional
and be better equipped to face reality and make
decisions.
62. It is essential in desensitization for the
patient to:
A. Have a rapport with therapist
B. Use deep breathing or another relaxation
technique
C. Assess one’s self for the need of anxiolytic
drug
D. Work through unresolved unconsciousness
conflicts
63. In this level of anxiety, cognitive capacity
diminishes. Focus becomes limited and client
experiences turned vision. Physical signs of
anxiety become more pronounced.
 A. Severe anxiety C. For financial gains
B. Panic D. To improve nursing care
C. Mild anxiety
D. Moderate anxiety 67. Each nurse participants was asked to identify
a problem. After the identification of the
research problem, which of the following should
64. Anti-anxiety medication should be used with be done?
extreme caution because long term use can lead A. Methodology
to.
B. Review of related literature
A. Parkinsonian like syndrome
C. Acknowledgement
B. Hypertensive crisis
D. Formulate hypothesis
C. Hepatic failure
D. Risk of addiction
68. Which of the following communicate the
results of the research to the readers. They
65. The nursing management of anxiety related facilitate the description of the data.
with post traumatic stress disorder includes all of
A. Hypothesis
the following EXCEPT:
B. Statistics
A. Encourage participation in recreation or
sport activities C. Research Problem
B. Reassurance client’s safety while touching D. Tables and Graphs
client
C. Speak in calm soothing voice
69. In Quantitative date, which of the following
D. Remain with the client while fear level is is described as the distance in the scoring unites
high of the variable from the highest to the lower?
A. Frequency
SITUATION 11: You are fortunate to be chosen B. Mean
as part of the research team in the hospital. A
review of the following IMPORTANT nursing C. Median
concepts was made. D. Range

66. As a professional, a nurse can do research for
varied reason except:
A. Professional advancement through research
participation
B. To validate results of new nursing modalities
70. This expresses the variability of the data in
reference to the mean. It provides as with a
numerical estimate of how far, on the average
the separate observation are from the mean:
A. Mode
B. Standard deviation
C. Median A. 80
D. Frequency B. 82
C. 90
Situation 12: Survey and Statistics are important D. 85.5.
part of research that is necessary to explain the
characteristics of the population.
75. In the value 80, 80, 10, 10, 25, 65, 100, 200:
What is the median?
71. According to the WHO statistics on the
A. 71.25
Homeless population around the world. Which
of the following groups of people in the world B. 22.5
disproportionately represents the homeless
population? C. 10 and 25

A. Hispanics D. 72.5

B. Asians
C. African Americans 76. Draw Lots, Lottery, Table of random
numbers or a sampling that ensures that each
D. Caucasians element of the population has an equal and
independent chance of being chosen is called:
A. Cluster
72. All but one of the following is not a measure
of Central Tendency? B. Simple
A. Mode C. Stratified
B. Variance D. Systematic
C. Standard Deviation
D. Range 77. An investigator wants to determine some of
the problems that are experienced by diabetic
clients when using an Insulin pump. The
73. In the value: 87, 85, 88, 92, 90: What is the investigation went into a clinic where he
mean? personally knows several diabetic clients having
problem with insulin pump. The type of
A. 88.2 sampling done by the investigator is called:
B. 88.4
A. Probability
C. 87
B. Purposive
D. 90
C. Snowball
D. Incidental
74. In the value: 80, 80, 80, 82, 82, 90, 90,100.
What is the mode?
78. If the researcher implemented a new
structured counselling program with a
randomized group of subject and a routine
counselling program with another randomized
group of subject, the research is utilizing which
design?
A. Quasi experimental
B. Experimental
C. Comparative
D. Methodological
79. Which of the following is not rue about a
Pure Experimental Research?
A. There is a control group
B. There is an experimental group
C. Selection of subjects in the control group is
randomized
D. There is a careful selection of subjects in the
experimental group
80. The researcher implemented a medication
regimen using a new type of combination of
drugs to manic patients while another group of
manic patient receives the routine drugs. The
researcher however hand picked the
experimental group for they are the clients with
multiple episodes of bipolar disorder. The
researcher utilized which research design?
A. Quasi-experimental
B. Pure experimental
C. Phenomenological
D. Longitudinal
Situation 13: As a nurse you are expected to
participate in initiating or participating in the
conduct of research students to improve nursing
practice. You to be updated on the latest trends
and issues affected the profession and the best
practices arrived at by the profession.
81. You are interested to study the effects of
medication and relaxation on the pain
experienced by the cancer patients. What type of
variable is pain?
A. Dependent
B. Correlational
C. Independent
D. Demographic
82. You would like to compare the support
system of patient with chronic illness to those
with acute illness. How will you best state your
problem?
A. A descriptive study to compare the support
system of patients with chronic illness and those
with acute illness in terms of demographic data
and knowledge
B. The effects of the types of support system of
patients with chronic illness and those with acute
illness
C. A comparative analysis of the support system
of patients with chronic illness and those with
acute illness
D. A study to compare the support system of
patients with chronic illness and those with acute
illness.
E. What are the differences of the support
system being received by patient with chronic
illness and patients with acute illness?
83. You would like to compare the support
system of patients with chronic illness to those
with acute illness. Considering that the
hypothesis was: “Clients with chronic illness
have lesser support system than clients with
acute illness.” What type of research is this?
A. Descriptive
B. Experimental
C. Correlational, Non experimental
D. Quasi Experimental
84. In any research study where individual
persons are involved, it is important that an
informed consent of the study is obtained. The
following are essential information about the
consent that you should disclose to the
prospective subject except:
A. Consent to incomplete
B. Description of benefits, risks and discomforts
C. Explaining of procedure
D. Assurance of anonymity and confidentiality
85. In the hypothesis: “The utilization of
technology in teaching improves the retention
and attention of the nursing students.” Which is
the dependent variable?
A. Utilization of technology
B. Improvement in the retention and attention
C. Nursing students
D. Teaching
Situation 14: You are actively practicing nurse
who has just finished your graduate studies. You
learned the value of research and would like to
utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the
application of research to the nursing service.
The following questions apply to research.
86.Which type of research inquiry investigates
the issue of human complexity (e.g.
understanding the human expertise)?
A. logical
position
B. natural
inquiry
C. positivism
D. quantitative research
87. Which of the following studies is based on
quantitative research?
A. A study examining the bereavement express
in spouse or clients with terminal cancer
B. A study exploring the factors influencing
weight control behaviour
C. A study measuring the effects of sleep
deprivation on patients healing
D. A study examining client’s feeling before,
during and after bone marrow aspiration.
88. Which of the following studies is based on
the qualitative research?
A. A study examining client’s reaction to stress
after open heart surgery
B. A study measuring nutrition and weight
loss/gain in clients with cancer
C. A study examining oxygen levels after
endotracheal suctioning
D. A study measuring differences in blood
pressure before, during and after procedure
89. An 85 year old client in a nursing home tells
a nurse, “ I signed the papers of that research
study because the doctor was so insistent and I high cholesterol food to Anton in the next 10
want him to continue taking care for me. “Which years. You will use:
client right is being violated?
A. Comparative
A. Right of self determination
B. Correlational
B. Right to privacy and confidentiality
C. Historical
C. Right to self disclosure
D. Longitudinal
D. Right not to be harmed

93. Community A was selected randomly as well

90. A supposition or system of ideas that is as community B, nurse Edna conducted teaching
proposed to explain a given phenomenon best to Community A and assess if community A will
defines: have a better status than community B. This is
an example of:
A. Paradigm
A. Comparative
B. Concept
B. Correlational
C. A theory
C. Experimental
D. A conceptual framework
D. Qualitative

Situation 15: Mastery of research design

determination is essential in passing the NLE. 94. Ana researched on the development of a new
way to measure intelligence by creating a 100
item questionnaire that will assess the cognitive
91. Ana wants to know if the of time she will skills of an individual. The design best suited for
study for the board examination is proportional this study is:
to her board rating. During the June 2008 board
A. Historical
examination. She studied for 6 months and
gained 60%. On the next board exam, she B. Methodological
studied for 6 months again for a total of 1 year
C. Survey
and gained 74%. On t third board exam, She
studied for 6 months for a total of 1 and a half D. Case study
year and gained 82%. The research she used is:
A. Comparative
95. Gen is conducting a research study on how
B. Correlational mark, an AIDS client lives his life. A design
suited for this is:
C. Experimental
D. Qualitative A. Historical
B. Case Study
C. Phenomenological
92. Anton was always eating high fat diet. You
want to determine if what will be the effect of D. Ethnographic
 A. Historical
96. Marco is to perform a study about how B. Case Study
nurses perform surgical asepsis during World
C. Phenomenological
War II. A design for this study is:
A. Historical D. Ethnographic

B. Case Study
100. Diana is to conduct a study about the
C. Phenomenological
relationship of The number of family members
D. Ethnographic in the household and the electricity bill. Which
of the following is best research design suited
for this study?
97. Tonyo conducts sampling at barangay 412.
1. Descriptive
He collected 100 random individuals and
determine who is their favourite comedian actor. 2. Exploratory
50% said Dolphy, 20% said Vic Sotto, while
3. Explanatory
some answered Joey de Leon, Allan K, Michael
V. Tonyo conducted what type of researched 4. Correlational
study?
5. Comparative
A. Methodological
6. Experimental
B. Case Study
C. Non experimental
A. 1, 4 B. 2, 5 C.
D. Survey 3,6 D. 1,
5 E. 2, 4

98. June visited a tribe located somewhere in

China, it is called the Shin Jea tribe. She studied
the way of life, tradition and the societal
structure of these people. Jane will best use
which research design?
A. Historical
B. Case Study
C. Phenomenological
D. Ethnographic

99. Anjoe researched on TB. Its transmission,

Causative agent and factors, treatment, sign and
symptoms as well as medication and all other in
depth information about tuberculosis. This study
is best suited for which research design?