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Physics

1) _________ is when light bends entering water and results in the objects appearing _______?
a) Absorption / 33% bigger
b) Refraction / 33% bigger
c) Reflection / 25% bigger
d) Visual Reversal / 25% smaller

2) If a balloon with a volume of 9 litres on the surface is taken down to 24 metres of sea water,
what will its new volume be?
a) 2.05 litres
b) 2.65 litres
c) 3.75 litres
d) 3.5 litres

3) An air filled balloon at a depth of 40 metres is released. What will the density be upon
reaching the surface?
a) 1/4
b) 1/5
c) 1/6
d) Remain unchanged

4) What is the gauge pressure at 34 meters of sea water?


a) 3.3 ata
b) 3.4 ata
c) 4.3 ata
d) 4.4 ata

5) How much air must be pumped from the surface to fill a non-flexible container, with a
volume of 25 litres, lying on the bottom of a lake at 29 meters?
a) 25 litres
b) 97.5 litres
c) 95.3 litres
d) 100 litres

6) If an object is positively buoyant in salt water, what will happen if it is placed in fresh water?
a) It will sink slowly
b) It will float
c) It will sink quickly
d) The answer cannot be determined

IDC Theory Exam G


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7) If you raise the pressure of a gas in contact with a liquid ____.


a) Bubbles will form
b) The liquid can hold more gas than before
c) The liquid can hold less gas than before
d) Nothing will happen

8) A SCUBA tank with 0.4% carbon monoxide is taken down to 35 metres of sea water.
Breathing from it at that depth would have the same effect as breathing what % carbon
monoxide on the surface?
a) 1%
b) 1.8%
c) 18%
d) 8%

9) If a tank is filled with an ambient temperature of 29˚C and then placed in a cool room, what
will happen to the air in the tank?
a) The pressure will increase
b) The pressure will decrease
c) There will be no change
d) You will need to re-fill the tank

10) You are planning to recover a 450kg anchor from the bottom of a fresh water lake. It lies in
22 metres and displaces 225 litres of water. How much litres of water you need to displace
using a lifting device to bring it to the surface?
a) 225 litres
b) 231.5 litres
c) 275 litres
d) 215 litres

11) If we go to altitude after a dive, the chances of DCS are increased because:
a) The partial pressure of nitrogen is greater than at sea level
b) The ambient pressure is less than at sea level
c) There is more nitrogen at altitude
d) The chances of DCS are not increased

12) In a Nitrox mix of 35% oxygen, what is the partial pressure in 27 metres of sea water?
a) 1.3 ata
b) 0.95 ata
c) 1.4 ata
d) 1.6 ata

IDC Theory Exam G


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Physiology

1) Carotid Sinus reflex is __________, primarily caused by _________.


a) Equalisation of the sinuses / the inability to equalise other air spaces
b) Slowing of the heart / wearing tight fitting hood or wetsuit constricting blood flow
through the carotid arteries
c) Lung squeeze / descending too fast
d) Slowing of the heart / exhaling too much while descending

2) Divers are advised not to hyperventilate excessively when doing breath hold diving to avoid:
a) Thoracic squeeze
b) Carbon monoxide poisoning
c) Hypercapnia
d) Shallow water blackout

3) Factors that will predispose a diver to DCS include:


a) Age
b) Dehydration
c) Carbon Dioxide excess
d) All of the above

4) Oxygen is administered to divers suspected of having decompression illness to:


a) Lower alveolar nitrogen levels to accelerate elimination from tissues
b) Lower blood oxygen levels
c) Act as a placebo to keep the patient reassured
d) All of the above

5) After a dive, even though divers do not display any DCI signs & symptoms, tiny nitrogen
bubbles, referred to as ____________ are present in the tissues.
a) Invisible
b) Micro bubbles
c) Silent bubbles
d) Impurity of air supply

6) The primary difference with DCS and lung over expansion injuries is:
a) DCS is not life threatening
b) DCS is immediate after surfacing whereas lung over expansion injuries have a
delayed effect
c) Lung over expansion injuries affect immediately after surfacing where as DCS is
generally delayed
d) Lung expansion injuries do not require 100% oxygen as a treatment

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7) As recreational divers, why do we not dive with 100% oxygen in our tanks?
a) It is very expensive and difficult to obtain
b) We run a much greater risk of DCS
c) At depths in excess of 6m, 100% O2 is potentially toxic
d) We run a greater risk of shallow water blackout

8) The most serious form of lung over expansion injury is ___________ because air bubbles
enter the__________.
a) Pneumothorax / chest cavity
b) Air Embolism / arterial circulation
c) Mediastinal emphysema / base of the neck
d) Squeeze / joints

9) An over forceful Valsalva manoeuvre may result in ___________.


a) A fractured ossicle
b) A herniated eardrum
c) A round window rupture
d) A sinus squeeze

10) A diver who complains of dizziness and headaches immediately after surfacing from a dive
and has cherry red lips and nail beds is most likely to be suffering from__________.
a) Oxygen toxicity
b) Hypocapnia
c) Carbon monoxide poisoning
d) A.G.E.

11) Nitrogen Narcosis is thought to occur due to ____________.


a) The mammalian dive reflex
b) Disrupted nerve impulses in the brain due to nitrogen dissolved in nerve cells
c) The body’s response to partial pressure of oxygen
d) The volume of our lungs and arterial output

12) What increases the risk of lung over expansion injury?


a) Smoking before a dive
b) Holding breath and ascending
c) Choking on a dislodged mouthpiece whilst diving
d) All of the above

IDC Theory Exam G


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Recreational Dive Planner

1) When diving at altitude, which is defined as _______, you must _______.


a) Above 3ooo metres above sea level / Use special tables & procedures
b) Above 300 metres above sea level / Use special tables & procedures
c) Above 300 metres above sea level / wait 24 hours before diving
d) Above 150 metres above sea level / always dive with a buddy

2) The current flying after diving guidelines state that for a single dive, a wait of _____ is
sufficient and for multiple dives on multiple days, a wait of _________ is advised.
a) 12 hours / at least 24 hours
b) 24 hours / 12 hours
c) 12 hours / greater than 18 hours
d) 18 hours / 12 hours

3) The US Navy tables use a ________ to control repetitive diving to accommodate _____ dives,
whereas the RDP uses a ________ because recreational dives are _______ dives.
a) 60 minute half time, staged decompression / 120 minute half time, no stop
b) 60 minute half time, no stop / 120 minute half time, air
c) 120 minute half time, staged decompression / 60 minute halftime, no stop
d) 120 minute half time, no stop / 60 minute half time, no stop

4) The RDP and Wheel are based on ____ theoretical tissue compartments
a) 5
b) 6
c) 12
d) 14

5) If a diver misses a Emergency Decompression stop after a deep dive he should:


a) Re-enter the water and do it as originally planned
b) Re-enter the water and do an extended safety stop for a minimum of 15 minutes
c) Upon surfacing the diver must remain out of the water for 6 hours before the next
dive, rest and monitor for DCS
d) Remain out of the water for 24 hours, rest, monitor for DCS and breathe pure oxygen

(Please use the RDP for the following questions)


6) What is the minimum surface interval required between a dive to 21 metres for 33 minutes,
followed by a dive to 15 metres for 42 minutes?
a) 37 minutes
b) 41 minutes
c) 29 minutes
d) 45 minutes

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7) What is the surfacing pressure group after a dive to 19 metres for 40 minutes, a 55 minute
surface interval and a subsequent dive to 14 metres for 30 minutes?
a) M
b) N
c) Q
d) L

8) A diver is completes a dive for 45 minutes at 17 metres and remains out of the water for 1
hour. If he wants a dive time of 37 minutes, what is the maximum depth he can go to?
a) 14 metres
b) 16 metres
c) 18 metres
d) 20 metres

(Please use the eRDPml to answer the following questions)


9) A diver does a multi level dive at 31 metres for 11 minutes, 20 metres for 14 minutes and 12
meters for 54 minutes. What is his pressure group upon surfacing?
a) V
b) W
c) X
d) Y

10) What is the NDL for a dive to 20 metres?


a) 35 minutes
b) 39 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 51 minutes

11) A diver completes two dives in a day. 1st dive is 22 metres for 33 minutes, surface interval of
1 hour 14 minutes and 2nd dive is 15 metres for 35 minutes. What is his surfacing pressure
group?
a) Q
b) R
c) S
d) T

12) What is the minimum surface interval between a dive to 23 meters for 28 minutes and a 2nd
dive to 16 meters for 53 minutes?
a) 1 hour
b) 1 hour 5 minutes
c) 1 hour 8 minutes
d) 1 hour 25 minutes

IDC Theory Exam G


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Skills and Environment

1) The correct action for a diver suspected of suffering from DCS is:
a) Re-enter the water and attempt to recompress
b) Lie down, administer 100% Oxygen and call EMS
c) Inform the boat captain
d) Radio for a helicopter

2) A Discover Local Diving experience is designed to:


a) Provide an orientation for a new dive site
b) Prepare a student for the next level of education
c) Act as a skills refresher
d) Be classroom focussed

3) A diver complaining of numbness, localised swelling and redness of skin is likely to be


suffering from:
a) DCS
b) DCI
c) Aquatic life injury
d) Carbon monoxide poisoning

4) If, whilst diving, you find a 7kg gold ingot in 15 metres of water and you want to retrieve it,
the appropriate action is:
a) Tie it on to your BCD, fully inflate and swim up
b) Remove your BCD and use it as a lift bag
c) Use your buddy to help pick it up
d) Hide it and come back later with a lift bag

5) The community agreement on the correct position for the alternate air source is:
a) Around waist level
b) Within the triangle formed by the corners of your rib cage and your chin
c) Tucked under the weight belt
d) There is no community agreement

6) The correct method of performing a Controlled Emergency Swimming Ascent (CESA) is:
a) Remove weight belt and regulator and try to control ascent rate
b) Swim quickly towards the surface while making an AAAAH sound
c) Keep all equipment in place, look up, reach up and make a slow ascent whilst making
an AAAAH sound continuously
d) Locate and secure your buddies alternate air source and ascend

IDC Theory Exam G


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7) The primary cause of the tides is _________ and waves are caused by _______.
a) Earths rotation / wind
b) Gravitational interaction of the sun and the moon / wind
c) Gravitational interaction of the sun and moon / water temperature
d) Bottom topography / Bottom composition

8) The correct way to check for correct weighting is to:


a) Take a deep breath, deflate BCD and float at chin level
b) Take a normal breath, deflate BCD and float at eye level
c) Take a deep breath, deflate BCD and float at eye level
d) Adjust on the dive as necessary

9) A diver with either arm or both arms waving is______.


a) Tired
b) OK
c) Hungry
d) Distressed

10) The best diving skill you can perfect to avoid damaging the aquatic environment is:
a) Navigation
b) Buoyancy control
c) NITROX
d) Breathing control

11) The most effective tool for natural navigation is:


a) Bottom contours
b) Aquatic life
c) Sound
d) Light & shadows

12) A fully revived, near drowning victim should:


a) Rest and relax at home
b) Seek immediate medical advice
c) Visit a recompression chamber
d) Avoid diving for 18 hours

IDC Theory Exam G


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Equipment

1) A J-Valve consists of _________, where as a K-Valve consists of _________.


a) A simple on, off mechanism / a mechanical reserve
b) A mechanical reserve / a simple on, off mechanism
c) Downstream valves / upstream valves
d) A balanced system / an unbalanced system

2) Upon inhalation, inside the second stage of a regulator.


a) Intermediate pressure from the hose is reduced to ambient pressure
b) A diaphragm flexes opening a downstream valve
c) Air flows as long as the diver continues inhaling
d) All of the above are correct

3) Typically, _________ valves open with the flow of air and _________ valves open against
the flow of air.
a) Upstream / downstream
b) Balanced / unbalanced
c) Downstream / upstream
d) Demand / non demand

4) The _________ is a device to prevent the over pressurisation of SCUBA tanks and is found in
the ________.
a) Manifold nut / tank neck
b) Burst disk / tank valve
c) DIN / Tank stem
d) Burst disk / SPG

5) We are required to conduct a Hydrostatic test of SCUBA tanks every _____ year(s).
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) Varies with local laws and regulations

6) Which of the following does NOT apply when diving with computers?
a) Each diver has their own computer
b) The standard ascent rate is 9 metres per minute
c) You must follow the most conservative computer
d) The same guidelines that apply to dive tables, apply to computer diving

IDC Theory Exam G


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7) The DIN valve _____.


a) Has a threaded opening
b) Is the most widely used by recreational divers
c) Is only used in Ice diving
d) All of the above are correct

8) In modern SCUBA systems, a balanced regulator _________.


a) Provides greater airflow at depth
b) Can meet the needs of two divers on the same regulator
c) Is neither assisted by nor resisted by the pressure in the tank
d) All of the above are correct

9) SCUBA units that provide a flow of fresh air upon inhalation only and pass the excess gases
out into the water are ______ and ______.
a) Demand / open circuit
b) Demand / semi closed circuit
c) Non demand / closed circuit
d) Demand / closed circuit

10) Why is it recommended to avoid the limits of dive tables?


a) Because timing devices can be inaccurate or misread
b) Because depth gauges can be inaccurate or misread
c) Because they have not really been tested to work
d) Both a & b are correct

11) A visual inspection _______.


a) Consists of an interior and exterior check of the cylinder
b) Is done annually
c) Includes checking and lubrication of O-rings
d) All of the above

12) An environmental seal is primarily used _______.


a) On deep dives
b) When diving in water near freezing point
c) When a balanced regulator is not available
d) When the water is not clean

IDC Theory Exam G

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