Mock - 4 Question & Explanations 300

ARISE MEDICAL ACADEMY MOCK EXAM 4
MOCK EXAM 4 – FMGE SIMULATOR DECEMBER 2019
Q.1) Drug of choice for Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aures;

a) Daptomycin
b) Linezolid
c) Vancomycin
d) Daltopristine
Ans : C. Vancomycin
DOC of Vancomycin resistant staphylococcus aureus : Daptomycin
DOC of Vancomycin resistant enterococci : Linezolid
DOC of E. fecalis : Ampicillin
DOC of nasal carriers of MRSA – Mupirocin
Streptogramins involves : Daltopristine, Quinopristtine
Side effect of Methicillin : Most common antibiotic implicated in causing interstitial nephritis.
Side effect of Ampicillin : Causes maculopapular rashes
Q.2) Vaccine given post splenectomy gives protection against all diseases. EXCEPT.
a) Pneumoniae
b) Hemophilus influenza
c) Meningitidis
d) Tetanus
Ans : D. Tetanus (Killed vaccine)

***Immunization against encapsulated bacterial pathogens decreases the incidence of post splenectomy sepsis.
*** Immunization should be done on the 14th day post operative day
Conjugative vaccines : Polysaccharide Vaccine
Pneumococcus Pneumococcus
Meningococcus Meningococcus
Hib ( Hemophilus influenza type B) Hib
Typhoid Vi
Recombinant Vaccines :
HBV, Lyme disease, Cholera toxin B, HPV
Q.3) At a birthday party children suffered from diarrhoea within 3 hours after consumption of muffins and
Doughnuts. Which microorganism is responsible for the condition ?
a) Bacillus cereus
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Listeria
d) Botulism
Ans : B. Staphylococcus aureus

Incubation period of staphylococcus aureus is : 1 – 6 hours
***Milk, meat, fish are often contaminated by staphylococcal enterotoxin.
***Staphylococcal enterotoxin is heat stable.
Bacillus cereus :
Caused to chinese food. ( Fried rice)
Incubation period of Diarrheal type : 8 – 16 hours
Incubation period of Emetic type : 1 – 5 hours
Botulism
Infant Botulism also known as Floppy Child syndrome
Regular Batch for FMGE

January – 22nd& 2nd Feb
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Caused due to consumption of Honey.

Listeria :
Caused due to cold stored food (example : cheese)
Shows tumbling motility.
DOC : Ampicillin
Q.4) Which of the following is determining factor for severity of TOF ?

a) Pulmonary stenosis
b) Ventricular septal defect
c) Over – riding of Aorta
d) Right ventricular hypertrophy.
Ans : Pulmonary stenosis

Most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in children is TOF.
Cyanotic spells is seen in severe cyanosis.
Heart failure is not seen in TOF unless complicated with : Anemia or infective endocarditis
Chest X - ray : Boot shaped heart or Coren Sabot appearance
** Cynatotic spells treatment : Propranolol
Q.5) Most common cause of blindness in India ?

a) Vitamin A deficiency
b) Trachoma
c) Refractive errors
d) Cataract
Ans : A. Cataract
Most common cause of preventable blindness in chindren : Vitamin A deficiency.
Most common cause of ocular morbidity : Refractive errors
Most common cause of blindness in India : Cataract.
Most common cause of blindness in world : Cataract
Infection that causes blindness : Trachoma
Q.6) During pregnancy how much folic acid supplementation should be advised?
a) 80mcg/day
b) 120mcg/day
c) 300mcg/day
d) 400mcg/day
Ans : D. 400mcg/day
Folic acid required in children : 80 – 20mcg/day
Folic acid required in adults : 200mcg/day
Folic acid required in pregnancy : 400mcg/day
Folic acid required in lactation : 300mcg/day
Amount of elemental iron and folic acid in iron tablet given in a pregnancy :
100mcg iron + 500mcg Folic acid
Folic acid prevents neural tube defects.
Total iron requirement in whole pregnancy is 1000mcg.
Total calcium required in pregnancy and lactation is 1200mcg
Q.7) How much weight is gained in pregnancy ?

a) 7 – 9kg
b) 9 – 11kg
c) 11 – 13kg
d) 13 – 15kg

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Ans : C. 11 – 13kg
Total weight gain during pregnancy is 12.5kg
Total antenatal visits 12 – 14
According to WHO minimum ANC visits are 4
During pregnancy pH of vagina is acidic
Q.8) As per WHO, how much is the sodium concentration in ORS?

a) 2.6grams
b) 1.5grams
c) 2.9grams
d) 13.5grams
Ans : A. 2.6 grams

Sodium chloride : 2.6 grams Sodium : 75mmol/l
Potassium chloride : 1.5grams Potassium : 20mmol/l
Sodium citrate : 2.9grams Chloride : 65mmol/l
Glucose : 13.5 grams Citrate : 10mmol/l
TOTAL : 20.5 grams Glucose : 75mmol/l
Total : 245mmol/l
WHO should be mixed with 1litre of water.
Usage should be within 24 hours
Q.9) Which type of Anemia is seen in Rheumatoid arthritis ?

a) Normocytic normochromic anemia
b) Microctytic hypochromic anemia
c) Macrocytic hyperchromic anemia
d) Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
Ans : A. Normocytic normochromic anemia

Normocytic anemia Microcytic anemia Macrocytic anemia
Rheumatoid arthritis Iron deficiency (late) Folate deficiency
SLE Thalassemia Liver diseases
Chronic kidney disease Lead poisoning B12 deficiency
Iron deficiency anemia (early) Siderblastic anemia Orotic aciduria
Aplastic anemia Alcoholism
Diamond – Blackfan
anemia
Q.10) Rama a 27 year old female with history of PID, is unable to conceive for past 6 months with
unprotected sex. Next step of management is;
a) Hysterosalpingography
b) Endometrial biopsy
c) Pap smear
d) Chromopertubation
Ans : A. Hysterosalpingography
Most common presentation of genital tuberculosis is infertility.
Tobacco pouch appearance on Hysterosalpingography is seen in genital tuberculosis.
Mode of transport : Hematogenous
Hysterosalpingogram :
A radiopaque dye is injected.
X – ray films, fluroscopy can also assesses uterine and tube contour.
It is performed in early follicular phase

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Chromopertubation :
Also known as diagnostic laparoscopy.
Most definitive and most invasive step
This procedure requires anesthesia.
Q.11) Most common tumor of anterior mediastinum;

a) Thymoma
b) Bronchogenic cyst
c) Neurogenic cyst
d) Pericardiac cyst
Ans : A. Thymoma
Anterior mediastinum Middle mediastinum Posterior mediastinum
Thymoma Esophageal tumor Neurogenic tumors
Thymic carcinoma Parathyroid adenoma Neuroendocrine
Thymolipoma Bronchogenic cyst tumor
Hodgkins lymphoma Tracheal tumors
Germ cell tumor teratoma Pericardiac cyst
Non – Hodgkins lymphoma
Q.12) Most common cancer metastasizing to brain;

a) Lungs
b) Bone
c) Breast
d) Prostrate
Ans : A. Lungs
In world, most common cancer in males is Lung cancer.
In world, most common cancer in females is breast cancer.
In India, most common cancer in males is Lung cancer
In India, Most common cancer in females is breast cancer.
Most common spinal tumor : Metastatic
Q.13) According to WHO, what is the normal sperm concentration

a) 12 million/ml
b) 15million/ml
c) 19 million/ml
d) 23 million/ml
Ans : B. 15 million/ml
Semen analysis according to WHO 2010 guidelines
pH : 7.2 – 7.8
Motility : > 32 % progressive forward
Viability : > 58% or more living
Viscosity : < 3
Sperm concentration : 15M/ml
Volume : 1.5ml
Azoospermia : No sperm in semen
Aspermia : Ejaculation failure.
Asthenozoospermia : decrease in sperm motility
Teratozoospermia : Increase in abnormal forms of sperm
Oligozoospermia : Decrease in sperm number
Necrozoospermia : All sperms are non motile

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Q.14) Which of the following is most potent anti – oxidant

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin K
Ans : B. Vitamin E
Vitamin E :
Least toxic
Vitamin E deficiency causes hemolytic anemia.
Vitamin K :
Deficiency causes haemorrhagic diseases in new born
Menodione is water soluble Vitamin (K3)
Vitamin D3 is most toxic vitamin
In adults, Vitamin D deficiency causes Osteomalacia
In children, Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets
Functions of Vitamin C :
Anti – oxidant
Post translational modification of collagen
Absorption of Iron
Q.15) I/V anesthesia which is used in day care surgery

a) Propofol
b) Etomidate
c) Ketamine
d) Sevoflurane
Ans : A. Propofol
Sevoflurane is a inhalational of choice for induction in children
Isoflurane is a agent of choice for cardiac surgery
Enflurane is contraindicated in epilepsy
Etomidate is a agent of choice for aneurysm surgeries
Ketamine is agent of choice for emergency anaesthesia with full stomach.
Bupivacaine is most cardiotoxic LA.
Bretylium is the drug of choice for bupivacaine induced ventricular tachycardia
Q.16) How much population is covered under a PHC in plain area

a) 3000
b) 5000
c) 30,000
d) 20,000
Ans : C. 30,000
Population covered under PHC at plains : 30,000
Population covered under PHC at hilly areas : 20,000
Population covered by Sub center at plain : 5000
Population covered by sub center at hilly areas : 3000
Population covered by CHC at plain: 1,20,000
Population covered by CHC at hilly areas : 80,000

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Q.17) Evisceration involves removal of all coats EXCEPT

a) Sclera and extra ocular muscles
b) Sclera and uveal tract
c) Sclera and retina.
d) Uveal tract and retina
Ans : A. Sclera and extra ocular muscles

Evisceration : REMOVAL OF MIDDLE AND INNER COATS OF THE EYE.
3mm of frill sclera is left around optic nerve.
Absolute indication of Evisceration : Panopthalmitis
Enucleation is contraindicated in Panopthalmitis: Since there are high chances of infection to spread through optic
nerve sheath
Q.18) Transport media of salmonella

a) Buffered glycerol saline
b) VR medium.
c) Pike’s medium
d) Stuart’s medium
Ans : A. Buffered glycerol saline

Transport medium of Vibrio cholera : Venkatraman Ramakrishnan (VR) medium, Carry Blair, Autoclaved sea water.
Transport medium of Neisseria : Amies, Stuart’s medium.
Transport medium of Streptococcus : Pike’s media
Selective medium for staphylococcus aureus : Ludlam’s medium
Selective medium for Neisseria : Thayer Martin medium
Enriched medium for corny bacterium diptheriae : Loffler’s serum
PALCAM agar used for : Listeria monocytogenes
Q.19) Abductor of hip joint

a) Gluteus maximus
b) Gluteus minimus
c) Semitendinous
d) Semimembranous
Ans : B. Gluteus minimus

Extensors at hip joint : (Limited by ileofemoral ligament)
Gluteus maximus
Biceps femoris long head
Semitendinous
Semimembranous
Abductors at hip joint : (Limited by the tension of pubofemoral ligament)
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia lata
Piriformis
Sartorius
Q.20) Maximum content of vitamin A is found in;

a) Halibut liver oil
b) Safflower oil
c) Groundnut oil
d) Coconut oil

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Ans : A. Halibut liver oil

Halibut liver oil is richest source of vitamin A and D.
Amla (Indian gooseberr) is a richest source of Vitamin C.
Ragi is richest source of calcium.
Liver (Meat) is richest source of vitamin B12.
Soyabean is richest among pulses
Fish is poor source of carbohydrates
Egg is poor source of Vitamin C.
Meat is poor source of calcium.
Milk is poor in Vitamin C and iron
Q.21) Deficiency of which vitamin causes Wernicke Encephalopathy?

a) Thiamine
b) Riboflavin
c) Pantothenic acid
d) Pyridoxine
Ans : A. Thiamine
Thiamine (Vit B1) deficiency causes : Riboflavin (Vit B2) Deficiency
causes :
Wenicke’s Encephalopathy Geographical tongue
Korsokoff’s psychosis Stomatitis
Mapple syrup urine disease Arabiflavinosis
Beri beri
Transketolase
Pantothenic acid (Vit B5) Deficiency causes :

Burning feet syndrome
Pyridoxine (Vit B6) deficiency causes
Homocysteinuria
Sideroblastic anemia.
Precipitated pellagra
Q.22) Enzyme deficient in maple syrup urine disease;

a) Alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase
b) Alpha ketoacid decarboxylase
c) Alpha L – iduronidase deficiency.
d) Iduronate - 2 –sulfatase deficiency
Ans : A. Alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase

Also known as branched chain amino acid
Hurler’s syndrome : Alpha – L iduronidase deficiency
Hunter’s syndrome : Iduronate – 2 – sulfatase deficiency
Metachromatic leukodystrophy - Arylsulfatase A enzyme deficiency
Q.23) Calories required in a lactating women during first six months;

a) 300 kcal/ day
b) 350kcal/day
c) 600kcal/day
d) 700kcal/day

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Ans : C 600kcal/ day

During pregnancy calories required are : +350kcal/day
During first six months of lactation : +600kcal/day
During 6 – 12months of lactation : 520kcal/day
Protein intake during pregnancy : 23g/day
Protein intake during first six months of lactation : +19g/day
Proten intake during 6 – 12 months of lactation : +13g/day
Q.24) Causative agent of dengue;

a) Aedes mosquito
b) Culex mosquito
c) Anopheles mosquito
d) Sand fly
Ans : A. Aedes mosquito

Aedes mosquito :
Breeds in artifical water collection
Wings are unspotted and sits with a hunch back
Causes : Denque, Rift valley fever, Filaria and Chickungunya.
Incubation period : 5 – 6days.
Classical dengue fever also known as break bone fever.
Malaria :
Man is a intermediate host in malaria.
Anopheles mosquito has spotted wings and sits with an angle to surface.
Culex :
Is a nuissance mosquito
Breeds in dirty water collection.
Transmits Japaneseencephalits, Viral arthritis, west nile fever.
Q.25) Which of the following is a hypersensitivity type II reaction?

a) Pernicious anemia
b) Theobald smith phenomena
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Henoch Schonlein purpura.
Ans : A. Pernicious anemia

Type I hypersensitivity : Type II hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis Pemphigus vulgaris
Wheal and flare reaction Good pasteur syndrome
Casoni test Rheumatic fever
Prausnitz Kustner reaction Bullous pemphigus
Schultz Dale phenomena
Theobald smith phenomena
Type III hypersensitivity : Lepra type II reaction
Type IV hypersensitivity :
Lepra reaction I
Contact dermatitis
Frie test
Montenegro test

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Q.26) In India, vision 2020 includes all the diseases EXCEPT

a) Cataract
b) Diabetic nephropathy
c) Onchorceriasis
d) Corneal blindness
Ans : D. Onchoceriasis
Global vision 2020 diseases (5) Indian vision 2020 disease (7)
1. Cataract 1. Cataract
2. Refractive error 2. Refractive error
3. Trachoma 3. Trachoma
4. Childhood blindness 4. Childhood blindness
5. Onchoceriasis 5. Glaucoma
6. Diabetic retinopathy.
7. Corneal blindness
Q.27) All the following are about anemia of chronic diseases EXCEPT;
a) Decrease iron
b) Increase TIBC
c) Increase ferritin
d) Increase hepcidin
Ans : B. Increase TIBC

Anemia of chronic disease is associated with :
Rheumatoid arthritis
Neoplastic disorders
SLE.
Q.28) Acute rejection of graft;

a) Within minutes
b) Weeks to months
c) Months to years
d) None
Ans : B. Weeks to months

Hyperacute rejection : within minutes (Type II hypersensitivity reaction)
Acute rejection : Weeks to months ( Type IV hypersensitivity reaction)
CD8 T cells activated against donor MHCs
Chronic rejection : Months to years (Type II and Type IV hypersensitivity)
CD 4 T cells respond to recipient APC’s presenting donor peptides
Graft Versus host disease : Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Autograft : From self
Isograft ( Syngeneic graft) : From identical twin or clone
Allograft : From non – identical individual species of same species
Xenograft : From different species
Q.29) Vitamin that helps iron absorption;

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K

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Ans : B. Vitamin C
Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy.
Corkscrew hair is seen in Vitamin C deficiency.
Diphyllobothrium latum causes Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Absence of terminal results in Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Vitamin 9 (folate) is important for the synthesis of nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA.
Vitamin A :
Excess Isoretinoin is teratogenic (Cleft palate, Cardiac abnormalities)
Q.30) Most abundant amino acid found in collagen;

a) Glycine
b) Methionine
c) Tyrosine
d) Tryptophan
Ans : A. Glycine
Deficiency of Tyrosinase enzyme causes albinism.
Amino acid responsible for melanin formation : Tyrosine
Amino acid responsible for Melatonin formation : Tryptophan
Q.31) PDH – 5 complex relates to all EXCEPT;

a) Lipoic acid
b) Pyridoxine
c) NAD+
d) FAD+
Ans : B. Pyridoxine
1. Lipoic acid
2. TPP (Thiamine pyrophosphate) (Vitamin B1)
3. CO A : Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5)
4. NAD + : Niacin (Vitamin B3)
5. FAD + : Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
Q.32) Abductor of vocal cord :

a) Cricothyroid muscle
b) Thyroarytenoid muscle
c) Inter arytenoid muscle
d) Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle.
Ans : D. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

Abductor muscle of larynx : Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
Supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve branch of vagus nerve.
Adductor muscles of larynx :
A. Cricothyroid muscle
B. Thyroarytenoid muscle
C. Inter arytenoid muscle
D. Lateral Crioarytenoid
***All these muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve,
EXCEPT CRICOTHYROID WHICH IS SUPPLIED BYY EXTERNAL DIVISION OF SUPERIOR LARYNGEAL NERVE.

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Q.33) Most parasympathetic action is seen by which cranial nerve

a) Occulomotor
b) Vagus
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Facial
Ans : B. Vagus
Cranial nerve with parasympathtic function :
3rd : Occulmotor
7th : Facial
9th : Glossopharyngeal nerve
10th : Vagus nerve
Trochlear nerve has longest intracranial course
Vagus nerve is the longest cranial nerve
Occulomotor nerve most commonly causes anneursym
Abducens nerve most commonly increases intra cranial pressure.
Facial nerve is longest intraosseous.
Trochlear nerve has a dorsal origin.
Q.34) Antidepressant drug which is used for smoking cessation;

a) Bupropion
b) Lithium
c) Benzhexol
d) Thioridazine
Ans : A. Bupropion
Mechanism of action : It inhibits the uptake of NA and DA.
Side effect : High dose precipitates seizures
Lithium :
Prolonged use acts as a mood stabilizer.
Most common adverse affect of lithium is tremor.
Lithium is contraindicated in pregnancy, since it causes Ebstein anomaly.
Benzhexol :
DOC of muscular dystonia : Benzhexol.
Dantrolene is DOC in malignant neuroleptic syndrome.
Q.35) In adult, lumbar puncture is performed safely at which level?

a) L1 – L2
b) L2 – L3
c) L3 – L4
d) L4 – L5
Ans : L3 – L4
In adults spinal cord extents till lower border of L1.
In children spinal cord extents till lower border of L3
In males length of spinal cord is 45cm
In females length of spinal cord is 42cm
Shape of spinal cord : Cylindrical

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Q.36) Which enzyme is inhibited by fluoride?

a) Aconitase
b) Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
c) Succinate dehydrogenase
d) Enolase
Ans : D. Enolase
Fluroacetate inhibits aconitase
Malonate inhibits succinate dehydrogenase
Arsenite inhibits alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Iodoacetate inhibits glyceraldehyde 3phosphate dehydrogenase
Q.37) Nitric oxide is derived from which amino acid;

a) Cysteine
b) Glycine
c) Arginine
d) Creatinine
Ans : C. Arginine
Arginine causes vasodilation.
Cysteine causes renal stones
Glycine is the smallest amino acid
Creatinine is a marker of renal function test.
Methionyl is sulphur containing amino acids
Histidine has a imidazole ring.
Tryptophan has a indole ring.
Q.38) Co – transporter of glucose in intestine;

a) GLUT – 1
b) GLUT – 2
c) SGLT – 1
d) SGLT - 2
Ans : C. SGLT – 1
GLUT 1 and GLUT 3 : Brain, RBC, Placenta
GLUT – 2 : Liver, Beta – cell of pancreas, Kidney.
GLUT - 4 : Skeletal muscles, Adipose tissue, Heart.
GLUT – 5 : Spermatozoa, Testis, Intestine.
GLUT – 7 : Endoplasmic reticulum.
SGLT – 1: Intestine
SGLT – 2 : Kidney (PCT)
Q.39) Narrowest part of larynx in children

a) Glottis
b) Supraglottis
c) Subglottis
d) None of the above

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Ans : C. Subglottis
Larynx cancer is most common cancer in male at 40 - 60years of age.
Most common site of supraglottic cancer is epiglottis.
Most common type of laryngeal cancer is glottic cancer.
“Hot potato voice” is a feature of supraglottic cancer.
In larynx cancer: High tracheostomy starts from 1st ring.
Level of tracheostomy : is 2nd and 3rd tracheal ring
Q.40) Farmers lung is caused by;

a) Silicosis
b) Anthracosis
c) Mouldy hay
d) Byssinosis
Ans : C. Mouldy hay

Byssinosis develops Monday’s chest disease
Byssinosis is type III hypersensitivity.
Hide Porter’s disease is also known as cutaneous anthrax
Wool Sorter’s disease is also known as Pulmonary anthrax
Anthracosis : Inhalation of coal dust.
Baggasosis : Inhalation of sugar dust
Silicosis is also known as Grinder’s disease
Feroginous body are seen in asbestosis
Q.41) Amplifier host in Japanese Encephalitis

a) Cat
b) Monkey
c) Pig
d) Dog
Ans : C. Pig
Definitive host in tapeworm : Man
Vector of Japanese Encephalitis : Culex tritaeniorhynchus
Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) also known as monkey disease.
Amplifier host of KFD is pig.
Amplifier host of Crimean Congo hemorrhagic fever : Cattle.
Cat is the definitive host of toxoplasmosis gondii.
Man is the intermediate host of toxoplasmosis gondii.
Q.42) Insecticide of choice for kala azar;

a) DDT
b) Miltefosine
c) Amphotericin B
d) Azithromycin
Ans : A. DDT
Vector of leishmaniasis : Female phlebotamine sandfly
Incubation period : 10years to 2years.
Oral drug of choice of kala azar : Miltefostine
Treatment of choice for trachoma : Azithromycin

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Q.43) Loss of sensation to the medial half of palmar area, suspects injury of which nerve;
a) Radial nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Axillary nerve
Ans : Ulnar nerve

Structure passing through guyon canal : Ulnar nerve
Pointing index : Median nerve
Nerve related to spiral groove of humerus : Radial nerve
Ape thumb deformity is due to paralysis of median nerve.
Nerve involved in Cubital tunnel syndrome : Ulnar nerve
Q.44) During lactation, main hormone responsible for initiation of milk secretion
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Prolactin
d) Oxytocin
Ans: C. Prolactin
Mammary growth and development : Estrogen and progesterone.
Initiation of milk secretion : Prolactin
Ejection of milk Oxytocin
Maintenance of lactation : Prolactin.
Q.45) Which of the following is not a premalignant condition?

a) Apthous ulcer
b) Leukoplakia
c) Erythroplakia
d) Oral submucous fibrosis
Ans : A. Aphthous ulcer.

Erythroplakia is a red velvetty lesion.
Leukoplakia: White patch cannot be scrapped off.
Erythroplakia is 17 times more dangerous than leukoplakia
Q.46) According to WHO, which of the following is an obesity index?

a) Morphological index
b) Ponderal index
c) Quetlet’s index
d) Corpulence index
Ans :C. Quetlet index

Ponderal index : Height (cm) /cube root of body weight (kg).
Broca index : height in cm – 100
Lorentz formula : Height in cm – 100 (height in cm – 150) /2 (women) or 4 men
Corpulence index - Actual weight / Desiarble weight - should not exceed 1.

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Q.47) Hepatitis that causes chronicity;

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis E
Ans: C. Hepatitis C
Hepatitis spreads through faeco oral route : Hepatitis A and E virus
Hepatitis spreads by blood, vertical and sexual routes : Hepatitis B, C and D.
IgM HBcAb : is a diagnostic of acute HBV infection.
IgG HbcAb : is a diagnostic of chronic HBV infection.
HEV causes fulminant hepatitis in pregnant women
Q.48) Adolescent age according to WHO;

a) 10 – 19 years
b) 10 – 20years
c) 11 – 19 years
d) 11 – 20 years
Ans : A. 10 – 19 years
Early adolescence : 10 – 13years
Mid adolescence : 14 – 16 years
Late adolescence : 17 – 19 years.
Legal age for employment in India : > 14years
Alcohol cannot be sold in India to age below 25years
Q.49) Most common cause of PPH;

a) Fibriod
b) Uterine atony
c) Uterine perforation
d) Infection
Ans : B. Uterine atony

Causes or primary PPH :
Atonic
Traumatic
Retained tissues
Blood coagulopathy
Secondary PPH occurs after 24 hours of delivery.
Third stage PPH : placenta is retained.
B – Lynch suture is applied to the uterus
Q.50) What type of blood is carried by umbilical artery?

a) Deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta.
b) Deoxygenated blood from placenta to fetus.
c) Oxygenated blood from fetus to placenta
d) Oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus

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Ans : A. Deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta

Fetal structure Adult structure
Umbilical vein Ligamentum teres
Ductus venosus Ligamentum venosum
Foramen ovale Fossa ovalis
Umbilical arteries and abdominal Median umbilical ligaments, superior
Ligaments vesicular artery.
Ductus arteriosum Ligamentum arteriosum
Q.51) Most common site affected in Charcoat’s joint

a) Ankle
b) Elbow
c) Hip
d) Metacarpal
Ans : A. ankle
Charcot joint : caused by sensory or autonomic neuropathy.
Bones are weakened enough to fracture, and with continued walking, the foot eventually changes the shape.
Symptoms :
Insensitivity of the foot
Strong pulse
Synovial fluid leaks out of the joint capsule, leading to swelling of the foot and ankle.
Q.52) Couvelaire uterus is seen in which condition

a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Placenta previa
c) Fibriod
d) Uterine cancer
Ans : A. Abruptio placenta

Concealed hemorrhage where there is massive intravasation of blood into myometrium upto serosa.
Placenta previa : Painless, causeless, recurrent bleeding.
Uterus is soft and relaxed.
Abruptio placenta : Painful cause of bleeding.
Uterus is tense and tender,
Placenta percreta, villi penetrate through the myocardium.
Q.53) Testicular artery is a branch of?

a) Abdominal aorta
b) Superior mesenteric artery
c) Inferior mesenteric artery
d) Deep cicumflex iliac artery
Ans : A. Abdominal artery

Lateral branches of abdominal aorta :
Inferior phrenic artery
Renal arteries
Middle suprarenal artery.
Branches of External iliac artery :
Inferior epigastric artery
Deep circumflex iliac artery
Femoral artery

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Testicular artery and ovarian artery :

Branch of Abdominal artery
Q.54) DOC for alzeihmers dementia;

a) Tacrine
b) Doneprizil
c) Rivastigmine
d) Pyridostigmine
Ans : B. Doneprizil
Tacrine causes hepato – toxicity.
Rivastigmine is approved in both :
Alzeihmers and Parkinsonism for dementia.
Pyridostigmine and Neostigmine are used for treating myasthenia gravis.
Ptosis is most common presentation of myasthenia gravis.
Edrophonium is short acting drug.
Indirect acting drug causing miosis : Physostigmine
Q.55) DOC for neurogenic diabetes insipidus;

a) Desmopressin
b) Adrenaline
c) Methylphenidate
d) Tetrabenazine
Ans : A. Desmopressin
Tetrabenazine is DOC for Huntigton chorea.
Demopressin is a DOC for Nocturnal enuresis
Adrenaline is a DOC for anaphylactic shock
Methylphenidate is a DOC for ADHD
Q.56) Nodules seen in Diabetic nephropathy;

a) Kimmelstiel - Wilson lesions
b) Spike and dome apperance
c) “ wire looping” of capillaries
d) “starry sky” granular appearance
Ans : A. Kimmelstiel - Wilson lesions

Spike and dome apperance seen on electron microscope :
In Membranous nephropathy
“ wire looping” of capillaries seen on light microscope :
In Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
“starry sky” granular appearance (lumpy bumpy) seen on immunoflurocence in Acute poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis.
Q.57) Loss of migration of neural crest cells cause

a) Hirschsprungs disease
b) Hamartomas
c) Colon cancer
d) Gardner syndrome

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Ans : A. Hirschsprungs disease

Gardner Syndrome :
Autosomal dominant
Characterized by : osteoma, Sebaceous cyst, supernumerary teeth.
Most common colorectal polyp : Hyperplastic
Most common neoplastic gastric polyp :Tubular
Most common gastric poly : Hyperplastic
Hamartomas most common site : small intestine
Absence of ganglion cells : Hirschsprungs disease
Q.58) Washburn index in female;

a) 75 to 95
b) 85 – 100
c) 91 – 115
d) 115 - 125
Ans : C. 91 – 115 ( WASHBURN INDEX IS ISCHIOPUBIC INDEX)

MALE FEMALE
Obturator foramen Oval Triangular
Subpubic region V shape 70 – 75 U – shape 75 - 90
Q.59) Organ most affected in hypovolemic shock;

a) Kidney
b) Heart
c) Brain
d) Lungs
Ans : A. Kidney
Kidney : loss of salt and fluid leads to hypovolemic shock.
Sodium and water is excreted by the kidney in this condition.
Hypovolemic shock is a life threatening situation, it leads to organ failure.
Causes :
Bleeding
Severe burns
Severe and prolonged diarrhea
Excessive sweating
Excessive vomitting
Q.60) Which of the following is physiological uncoupler?

a) Thermogenin
b) Snare proteins
c) Clathrin
d) Chaperons
Ans : A. Thermogenin
Special proteins for endocytosis :
Clathrin
Megalin
Snare proteins are special proteins for exocytosis.
Folding of proteins : Chaperons
Destructed proteins : Ubiquitin

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Q.61) Miscarriage without the consent of mother, comes under which IPC?
a) 312
b) 313
c) 314
d) 316
Ans: B. 313
Section 312 : Causing miscarriage with consent of mother.
Section 313 : Causing miscarriage without the consent of woman.
Section 314 : Death cause by act done with intent to cause miscarriage ( Death of mother)
Section 316 : Intention to kill mother but the child dies
Q.62) Mc Naughten’s rule is related to;

a) 82 IPC
b) 84 IPC
c) 85 IPC
d) 86 IPC
Ans : B. 84 IPC
82 IPC : a child below 7 years is not a criminal
84 IPC : Criminal responsibility of insane.
85 IPC : criminal responsibility of intoxicated person.
86IPC : Criminal responsibility in voluntary drunkenness
Q.63) In which glycogen disease is muscle cramps seen?

a) Von gierke’s disease
b) Pompe’s disease
c) Mc Ardle’s syndrome
d) Cori’s disease
Ans: C. Mc Ardle’s syndrome

Type I : Von Gierke’s disease – Deficiency of glucose – 6 – phosphatase
Type II : Pompe’s disease – Deficiency of lysosomal alpha(1,4) and alpha (1,6)
glucosidase.
Type III : Cori’s disease – absence of debranching enzyme
Type IV : Anderson’s disease – Absence of branching enzymes
Type V : McArdle’s disease – Absence of muscle phosphorylase
Type VI : Her’s disease – Deficiency of liver phosphorylase
Q.64) High tracheostomy is done in which condition given below?

a) Cancer Larynx
b) Acute Epiglottis
c) Laryngomalacia
d) Dysphonia plica ventricularis
Ans : A. Cancer Larynx
Dysphonia plica ventricularis : Treated by speech therapy.
Laryngomalacia : Self limiting condition (no treatment required)
Acute Epiglottis :
Level of tracheostomy : 2nd and 3rd tracheal ring
High tracheostomy begins from 1st ring.
Emergency tracheostomy : Vertical skin incision.
Elective tracheostomy : Horizontal incision

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Q.65) Rodent ulcer is

a) Basal cell carcinoma.
b) Melanoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Kaposi sarcoma
Ans : A. Basal cell carcinoma

Kaposi sarcoma is associated with HHV – 8 virus.
Marker of melanoma is HMB – 45.
Squamous cell carcinoma arises from prickle cell layer.
Basal cell carcinoma is also called as tear cancer.
Q.66) Barret’s esophagus gives rise to which cancer

a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Both
d) None
Ans : A. Adenocarcinoma
Specialized intestinal metaplasia : Barrett esophagus
Risk factors of squamous cell carcinoma : (upper 2/3rd of esophagus)
Alcohol
Hot liquids
Achalsia
Smoking
Risk factors of adenocarcinoma : (lower 1/3rd of esophagus)
Chronic GERD
Barrett esophagus
Obesity
Smoking
Q.67) Killian’s dehiscence occurs

a) In between 2 inferior constrictors
b) In between 2 superior constrictors
c) Above the inferior constrictor
d) Below the inferior constrictor
Ans : A. In between 2 inferior constrictors

Killian’s dehiscence is also known as Killian’s triangle.
Triangular area in the wall is between the cricopharyngeus and thyropharyngeus (parts of the inferior constrictor)
Q.68) All are the tumor makers of testicular carcinoma.EXCEPT

a) FSH.
b) LDH.
c) AFP
d) Beta - HCG

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Ans : A. FSH
Markers of testicular cancer includes :
Alphafetoprotein (AFP)
Beta - Human chorionic gonadotropin (Beta – HCG)
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Beta – HCG : Choriocarcinoma
Alpha fetoprotein : HCC, yolk sac tumor, Hepatobastoma
PSA : Protrate
Q.69) Histamine is related to which cells?

a) Macrophages
b) Dendritic cells
c) Mast cells
d) Langhans giant cell
Ans : C. Mast cells

Langhans Giant cell are seen in tuberculosis.
Wirthin Finkeldey Giant cells are seen in Measles.
Functions of Histamine :
Itching
Vasodialation
Increase vascular permeability
Bronchospasm
Mast cell stabilizer : Chromoglycate sodium
Q.70) All are examples of Nephrotic syndrome EXCEPT;

a) Minimal change disease
b) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
c) Membranous glomerulonephritis
d) IgA nephropathy
Ans : D. IgA nephropathy

Membranous nephropathy :
On electron microscopy – “ spike and dome “ appearance with subepithelial
deposits.
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis :
On Light microscopy – Segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis.
Minimal change disease :
On electron microscopy : Effacement of foot processes.
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
Ig A nephropathy (Berger disease)
On light microscopy : mesangial proliferation.
NO ASSOCIATION WITH BEURGER DISEASE (THROMBOANGITIS OBLITERANS)
Q.71) Marker of pheochromocytoma;

a) VMA
b) CEA
c) Alkaline phosphatase
d) calcitonin

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Ans : A. VMA Vanillymandelic acid

Calcitonin: Medullary carcinoma
CA 125 : Ovarian cancer
PSA : prostrate cancer
CEA : Colorectal cancer
Q.72) Which route achieves 100% bioavailability?

a) Inhalational
b) Intravenous
c) Oral route
d) Transdermal route
Ans : B. Intravenous
Bioavailability : It is the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in unchanged form.
Potency : Measure of amount of drug required to produce response.
Efficacy :Maximum effect produced by a drug
Q.73) Most common vein used for central vein infusion.

a) Subclavian vein
b) Jugular vein
c) Femoral vein
d) Phrenic vein
Ans A. Subclavian vein

A tunneled Central venous catheter (CVC) is a special type of intravenous line, that is placed into a large vein.
A long thin, flexible tube (catheter) is tunneled and placed in vein.
Complications :
Embolism
Hematoma
Arrhythmia
Catheter malposition
Q.74) Most common symptom of nasopharyngeal carcinoma;

a) Nasal obstruction
b) Bleeding
c) Cervical lymphadenopathy
d) Difficulty in breathing
Ans : C. Cervical lymphadenopathy

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is caused by Ebstein Barr virus.
Most common site : Fossa of Rosen muller.
Most common in Chinese population.
Trotter’s triad is seen in nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Note :
Artery of Epistaxis : Sphenopalatine artery.
Most common area of epistaxis : Little’s area.
Trauma is most common cause of septal peforation.
Parosmia : Without any cause, paranoid sensation of bad smell from oneself

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Q.75) Chronic malnutrition can be assessed by

a) Height for age
b) Weight for height
c) Age for weight
d) Weight for age
Ans : A. Height for age

Best indicator of acute malnutrition :
Decrease in weight / height (WASTING).
Best indicator of chronic malnutrition :
Decrease in height / age (STUNTING)
Low birth weight : ( < 2.5kg) < 2500grams
Very low birth weight : ( < 1.5kg) < 1500grams
Extremely low birth weight : ( < 1kg ) < 1000grams
Q.76) Which of the following organs is not affected in GVHD?

a) Eyes
b) Skin
c) Kidney
d) Intestine
Ans : A. Eyes
Eye can be donated only after death.
Eye must be removed within 4 – 6 hours after death.
Eye can be removed by registered medical practitioner only.
Q.77) AB blood group individual can donate blood to;

a) Blood group A
b) Blood group B
c) Blood group AB
d) Blood group O
Ans : C. Blood group AB

Blood type Donate blood to Receive blood from
A+ A+ , AB+ A+, A- , O+, O-
O+ O+, A+, B+, AB+ O+, O –
B+ B+, AB+ B+, B - , O+, O –
AB+ AB+ EVERYONE
A- A+, A - , AB+, AB - A - ,O –
O- EVERYONE O–
B- B+, B - , AB+, AB - B - ,O –
AB - AB +, AB - AB - , A - ,B - ,O -
Q.78) Lateral cutaneous nerve of arm is a branch of ;

a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Ulnar nerve

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Ans : A. Musculocutaneous nerve

Musculcutaneous nerve :
Nerve root : C5 – C7
Motor functions : muscles in anterior compartment of the arm
Coracobrachialis,
Biceps brachii,
Brachialis
Sensory functions :
Gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm, which innervates the lateral aspect of the forearm
Q.79) Diluent of BCG;

a) Normal saline
b) Distilled water
c) Aluminimum phosphate
d) Aluminium hydroxide
Ans : A. Normal saline

Normal saline : Is reconstituted with normal saline as diluent.
Aluminium phosphate or aluminium hydroxide is used as a adjuvant in DPT vaccine.
In measles vaccine, Distilled water is used as reconstituent.
Q.80) Blood spilled on the ground, is disinfected with

a) Ethylene oxide
b) Formaldehyde
c) 2 % cidex
d) 1% sodium Hypochlorite
Ans : D. 1% sodium Hypochlorite

Ethylene oxide : Used for heart lung machine, suture.
Glutaraldehye : Used for sterilization of cystoscope, bronchoscope, face mask, anesthetic tube.
Formaldehye : Used for fumigation of ward, preserves anatomical specimen.
Isopropyl alcohol : Used for thermometer.
Cresol : Used for sharp instrument.
Pasteurization : Milk.
Filtration : Antibiotic,vaccine.
Ionizing radiation : Catgut, Plastic syringe
Q.81) HCG level in choriocarcinoma.

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) No change
Ans : A. Increased
Choriocarcinoma :
Most common site of metastasis : Lungs
Increase in Beta – HCG.
Hematogenous is most common mode of sread
X – ray chest : Cannon ball appearance
DOC : Methotrexate

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Q.82) DOC for ventricular tachycardia.

a) Esmolol
b) Procainamide
c) Lidocaine
d) Adenosine
Ans : C. Lidocaine
Adenosine is a drug of choice for PSVT.
Esmolol is shortest acting Beta blocker.
Lidocaine is used for Digoxin induced Myocardial infarction.
Ivabradine decreases heart rate.
Q.83) Immunoglobulin increased in chronic diseases;

a) Ig G
b) Ig A
c) Ig M
d) Ig E
Ans : Ig G
Ig G : Highest serum concentration.
Ig A : Provides mucosal immunity.
Ig M : Indicates recent infection
Ig E : Lowest serum concentration.
Q.84) Normal anion gap is maintained in which condition?

a) Lactic acidosis
b) Methanol
c) Renal tubular acidosis
d) Diabetic ketoacidodsis
Ans : C. Renal tubular acidosis

Anion Gap Normal anion gap
Iron tablets Diarrhea
Methanol Acetazolamide
Salicylates Spirinolactone
Lactic acidosis Saline infusion
Propylene glycol Addison disease
Diabetic ketoacidosis Renal tubular acidosis
Uremia
Ethylene glycol
Q.85) In which viral infection Fulminant hepatitis is seen?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis E.

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Ans : D. Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis A and hepatitis E virus : Spread by faeco oral route
Hepatits E causes fulminamt hepatitis in pregnant women
Type Causative agent Incubation period
Hepatitis A Enterovirus 72 15 – 45 days
Hepatitis B Hepadnavirus 45 – 180days
Hepatitis C Flavivirus 15 – 160 days
Hepatitis D Viriods 30 – 180days
Hepatitis E Calcivirus 15 – 60days
Q.86) DOC for chronic gout;

a) NSAIDS
b) Allupurinol
c) Steroids
d) Denosumab
Ans : B. Allupurinol
DOC for acute gout : Indomethacin (NSAIDS)
ASPIRIN IS NOT USED SINCE IT CAUSES HYPERURECEMIA.
FEBUXOSTAT :
is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
Indicated in patients allergic to allupurinol.
Probenecid and sufinpyrazone : competitively inhibits the reabsortion of uric acid in proximal tubules.
***FIRST CHOICE USED IN RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS : METHOTRXATE
Q.87) Diagnosis of Gout is confirmed by which test?

a) Uric acid in urine
b) Anti – Ro
c) Anti nuclear antibodies
d) Anti beta 2 glycoprotein
Ans : A. Uric acid in urine

Over production of uric acid :
Lesch Nyhan syndrome
Von Gierke disease
Tumor lysis syndrome.
SS – A (anti – Ro) : present In Sjogren syndrome.
Anti histone antibodies are findings of Systemic lupus erythrematous.
Anti beta 2 glycoprotein and anticardiolipin are laboratory findings of :
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Q.88) Geographic ulcer is seen in;

a) Fungal ulcer
b) Viral ulcer
c) Bacterial ulcer
d) Acanthamoeba keratitis

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Ans : B. Viral ulcer

Viral ulcer :
Decrease in corneal sensation.
Large amoeboid ulcer.
Bacterial ulcer :
Sterile hypopyon.
Ulcus serpens is due to pneumococcus
Fungal ulcer :
Non – sterile hypopyon.
Satellite lesions
Acanthamoeba keratitis:
Seen in contact lens users.
Very severe pain is a clinical feature of acanthamoeba
Q.89) Causative agent of whipples disease;

a) Helicobacter pylori
b) Bordetella pertusis
c) Tropheryma Whipplei
d) Erysipelothrix rheusiopathie
Ans : C. Tryphorema whipplei

Helicobacter pylori :
Curved gram negative rod.
Associated with adenocarcinoma of stomach
Bordetella pertusis :
Produces whopping cough
DOC : Erythromycin
Tropheryma Whipplei :
Gram positive.
Actinomycete causes Whipple’s disease.
Erysipelothrix rheusiopathie :
Also known as seal finger or whale finger
Gram positive rod.
Causes erysipeloid skin lesion most common on finger.
Q.90) DOC of Trematode;

a) Ivermectin
b) Praziquantel
c) Albendazole
d) Triclabendazole
Ans : B. Praziquantel
DOC for fasciola hepatica : Triclabendazole
DOC for Nematode infestation : Albendazole
River blindness (Onchoceriasis) is treated by ivermectin.
DOC for Chagas disease : Benznidazole.
DOC for Giradia lamblia : Metronidazole
DOC for Cryptosporidium : Paromycin.

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Q.91) Most sensitive finding of iron deficiency anemia;

a) Serum iron
b) Serum ferritin
c) Transferrin
d) % transferrin saturation
Ans. B. Serum ferritin

Causes of iron deficiency anemia :
Chronic bleeding
Malnutrition
Absorption disorders
Laboratory diagnosis :
Iron : decrease
TIBC : Increase
Ferritin : decrease.
Plummer vinson syndrome : iron deficiency anemia + esophageal webs + dysphagia
Q.92) Earliest finding of diabetic retinopathy.

a) Kimmelstein – Wilson disease.
b) Amyloid deposition in mesangium
c) “ wire looping “ of capillaries
d) Microalbuminuria.
Ans : D. Microalbuminuria
Diabetic retinopathy :
Eosinophilic nodular glomerulosclerosis : ( KIMMELSTEIN – WILSON lesions)
Glomerular basement thickening.
Amyloidosis :
On light microscope :
Congo red stain shows apple – green birefringe under polarized light due to amyloid deposition in the mesangium.
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis :
Light microscope : “ wire looping “ in capillaries
Q.93) Action of atropine in a patient with organo phosphate poisoning.

a) Anti – muscarinic
b) Alpha – 1 agonist
c) Alpha – 2 agonist
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Ans: A. Anti – muscarinic

DOC for organo poisoning : Atropine
DOC for carbamate poisoning : Atropine
DOC for mushroom poisoning : Atropine
Alpha – 1 agonist : Phenylephrine, xylometazoline, naphazoline.
Alpha – 2 agonist : Alpha – methyldopa and clonidine.
Q.94) Spontaneous abortion is seen in which genetical condition?

a) Trisomy 13
b) Trisomy 16
c) Trisomy 18
d) Trisomy 21

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Ans : Trisomy 16
Trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome ) :
Severe intellectual disability.
Micropthalmia
Holoprosencephaly.
Death occurs within 1 year of birth.
Trisomy 18 ( Edwards syndrome )
Micrognathia
Rocker bottom feet.
Severe inteelectual disability
Death occurs within 1 year of birth
Trisomy 21 ( Down syndrome )
Most common cause of intellectual disability.
Associated with early – onset Alzeihmer disease.
Q.95) Genotype in Turner syndrome;

a) 45 XO
b) 46XY
c) 46XX
d) 47XXY
Ans : 45XO
Turner syndrome :
Most common cause of primary amenorrhea.
Most common cause of delayed puberty.
Bilateral streak gonads.
Swyers syndrome :
Mutation and microdeletion of SRY gene. (46XY)
Delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia :
Genetic sex : 46XX.
Enzyme deficient : 21 hydroxylase
Klinefelter syndrome
Genotype : 47XXY.
Most common cause of primary testicular failure.
Diagnosis : Decrease testosterone, Increase FSH and LH.
Q.96) Adequate oxygen is seen in which type of hypoxia?

a) Anemic hypoxia
b) Ischemic hypoxia
c) Histotoxic hypoxia
d) Hypoxic hypoxia
Ans : C. Histotoxic hypoxia

Anemic hypoxia : Less formation of oxygenated hemoglobin.
Hypoxic hypoxia : When air contains less amount of oxygen.
Ischemic hypoxia : Hypoxia because of reduced blood supply.
Q.97) Smoking is most common risk factor for which type of emphysema?
a) Centriacinar
b) Panacinar
c) Distal acinar
d) Irregular

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Ans : A. Centriacinar
Centriacinar :
Smoking most common cause.
Effects upper lobe of lung.
Panacinar :
Most common cause is deficiency of alpha anti – trypsin
Most effect base of lung
Distal acinar :
Maximum involvement of alveoli.
Most common effect is upper lobe.
Q.98) How much protein content is present in breast milk?

a) 1.1
b) 2.2
c) 3.2
d) 4.2
Ans : 1.1
Cow’s milk Human milk
Lactose (grams) 4.4 7.4
Proteins (grams) 3.2 1.1
Fat (grams) 4.1 3.4
Calcium (mg) 120 28
Iron (mg) 0.2 0.35
Water (grams) 87 88
Energy (kcal) 67 65
Q.99) Anesthetic agent that causes hepatitis on repeated use;

a) Halothane
b) Ketamine
c) Thiopentone
d) Propofol
Ans : A. Halothane
Halothane :
Causes malignant hyperthermia
Agent of choice in bronchial asthma patients.
Ketamine :
It acts by blocking NMDA receptors of glutamate.
Produces dissociative anaesthesia.
Agent of choice for emergency with full stomach.
Thiopentone :
Ultra short acting barbiturate.
Agent of choice for cerebral protection.
Propofol
Intravenous anesthesia for day care surgery.
It possesses very strong antiemetic and pruritic action.
Q.100) Long standing use of which medicine can cause tremors?

a) Salbutamol
b) Phenytoin
c) Canaglifozin
d) Betamethasone

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Ans : A. Salbutamol
Most potent glucocorticoid : Betamethasone
Least potent glucocorticoid : Cortisone
Canaglifozin : SGLT2 inhibitor that acts by inhibiting reabsorption of glucose in proximal tubules.
Urinary tract infection is most common side – effect.
Phenytoin : Is popular anti - epileptic drug.
Q.101) Healthy volunteers participates in which phase of drug trial?

a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
Ans : A. Phase 1
Phase 1 : Normal human are volunteers.
Phase 2 : Safety and efficacy is tested in this phase.
Phase 3 : Drug tested among the large population, including different genetic people.
Phase 4 : Post marketing surveillance of the drug
Q.102) Which of the following does not cause endometrial cancer?

a) Hypothyroidism.
b) Nulliparity
c) Hormonal replacement therapy.
d) PCOD
Ans : A. Hypothyroidism
Risk factors for cancer endometrium
Tamoxifen
Infertility
Hypertension
Obesity
Diabetes
Adenocarcinoma is most common type of endometrial cancer.
Senile endometritis is most common cause of post – menopausal bleeding
Most common symptom of uterine sarcoma is bleeding
Q.103) Long acting bronchodilator;
a) Salbutamol
b) Formetrol
c) Theophyline
d) Ipratropium bromide
Ans : B. Formetrol
Salbutamol :
DOC in acute attack.
(Fast acting, short duration).
Formetrol :
Drug used for prophylaxis and acute attack.
Long acting : Carmetrol
Formetrol (fast acting)
Salmetrol (slow acting)
Theophylline:
Blocks adenosine receptors.
Inhibits enzyme phosphodiesterase.

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Q.104) 3rd nerve palsy with contra lateral hemiparesis is feature of which disease;
a) Weber syndrome.
b) Werner syndrome.
c) Ramsay hunt syndrome
d) Myasthenia gravis
Ans : A. Weber syndrome

Webers syndrome:
Also known as superior alternating hemiplegia.
Ipsilateral : Oculomotor nerve palsy.
Contralateral : Hemiparesis or hemiplegia.
Werner syndrome :
Unusual accelerated aging (progeria).
Affects both males and females equally.
Ramysay hunt syndrome :
Acute peripheral facial neuropathy.
Myasthenia gravis
Autoimmune disorder
Ptosis, diplopia is seen.
Q.105) Prolactin is inhibited by;

a) Dopamine
b) Adrenaline
c) Serotonin
d) Actylcholine
Ans : A. Dopamine
Prolactin :
Prolactin induces milk secretion after delivery.
Excess prolactin causes :
Inhibition of ovulation.
Lactational amenorrhea
Infertility
In males :
Gynecomastia.
Impotence
Loss of libido
Bromocriptine :
Dopamine agonist.
Bromocriptine inhibits release of prolactin .
Used in hyperprolactinemia.
Q.106) COX – 2 inhibitor;

a) Etoricoxib
b) Clemastine
c) Olopatidine
d) Ketorolac

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Ans : A. Etoricoxib
Etoricoxib :
COX – 2 inhibitor
Longest acting -coxib.
Rofecoxib and Valdevoxib increase risk of myocardial infarction.
Clemastine : Mild sedating first generation antihistamininc
Olopatidine :
Second generation antihistaminic.
Eyedrops used in allergic conjunctivitis.
Ketorolac :
Only NSAID used in Intravenous route.
Q.107) Aerosol drug used in RSV;

a) Ribavarin
b) Ganciclovir
c) Entecavir
d) Foscarnet
Ans : A. Ribavirin
Ganciclovir : DOC for CMV infections
Entecavir : Drug used for chronic HBV infection.
Foscarnet : I.V used for CMV infections
Q.108) Sudden painful loss of vision;

a) CRAO
b) CRVO
c) Retinal detachment
d) Optic neuritis
108) Ans : D. Optic neuritis

Sudden painless loss of vision :
Retinal detachment
Vitreous hemorrhage
Ischemic optic neuropathy
CRAO
CRVO
Sudden painful loss of vision :

Optic neuritis
Acute congestive glaucoma
Acute iridocyclitis
Q.109) A long acting insulin, which does not attain peak concentration in plasma;
a) Glargine
b) Glulisine
c) Aspart
d) Lispro

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Ans : A. Glargine
Long acting insulin (peakless) :
Glargine
Detemir
Degludec.
Short acting : Duration (4 – 6 hours)
Glulisine
Aspart
Lispro
Side – effect of cannagliflozin : Urinary tract infection.
Acarbose is contraindiacted in irritable bowel syndrome
Q.110) Anti – epileptic drug has teratogenic potential;

a) Valproate
b) Carbamazepine
c) Ethosuximide
d) Diazepam
Ans : A. Valproate
Valproate :
In pregnancy causes neural tube defects.
Carbamazepine :
DOC for focal seizures
DOC for trigeminal neuralgia.
Ethosuximide :
Used in absence seizures.
Administered to children less than 3 years of age.
Diazepam :
DOC for febrile seizures, per rectal route.
Q.111) Most common complication after stripping of varicose veins;

a) Ecchymosis
b) Eczema
c) Lipodermatosclerosis
d) Ulceration
Ans : A. Ecchymosis
Eczema and dermatitis :
Occurs due to extravasation and breakdown of RBC’s in lower leg.
Itching is present.
Precipitates varicose ulcers.
Treatment : Zinc oxide cream.
Lipodermatosclerosis :
Indurated wood like feet.
Thickening of subcutaneous tissues.
Inverted champagne bottle leg
Most common venous ulcer occur at medial malleolus.
Soleal vessels / calf is most common site of DVT
Most common site of DVT responsible for pulmonary embolism :
Femoropopliteal vein.
Mickey mouse sign seen in Duplex scan in varicose vein

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Q.112) Pregnancy after how many times is considered as grand parity;

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Ans : D. 5
In India, 1 in 80 pregnancy is twins.
In Nigeria, 1 in 20 pregnancy (Highest)
Lamda or twin peak sign is seen in DICHORIONIC twins
“ T “ sign is seen in MONOCHORIONIC DIAMNIOTIC pregnancy.
Postpartum hemorrhage is most common complication in twins
Q.113) Adulterant that causes epidemic dropsy;

a) Argemone mexicana oil
b) Claviceps fusiformis
c) Crotolaria seeds
d) Kesari dhal
Ans : A. Argemone mexicana oil

Disease Adulterant
Lathyrism Kesari dhal
Epidemic dropsy Argemone mexicana oil
Endemic ascites Crotolaria seeds ( Jhunjhunia)
Aflatoxicosis Aspergillus flavus / Parasiticus
Ergotism Claviceps fusiformis
Q.114) Best community health indicator

a) Neonatal mortality rate
b) Post neonatal mortality rate
c) Infant mortality rate
d) Under 5 mortality rate
Ans : C. Infant mortality rate

Prematurity is most common cause of Under 5 mortality rate
Diarrhea and respiratory infections are most common cause of death in post neonatal rate.
Infant mortality rate is most important indicator of :
Effectiveness of MCH services in general
Health status of community
Level of living.
Maternal mortality ratio is a good indicator of pregnancy wastage.
Q.115) Which drug is contraindicated in corneal ulcer?

a) Steroids
b) Silver sulfadiazine
c) Fluconazole
d) Atropine

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Ans : A. Steroids
Fungal ulcer
Diagnosis : KOH mount or Sabouraud’s agar medium.
Treatment :
0.2 %fluconazole
5% Natamycin
Fungal keratitis : Silver sulfadiazine is used.
Most common cause of corneal ulcer in India is streptococcus pneumoniae.
Most common cause of corneal ulcer in world is staphylococcus aureus.
Q.116) Treatment of choice for ranula;

a) Excision and removal of sublingual gland
b) Sistrunk operation
c) Aspiration
d) Wait and watch
Ans : A. Excision and removal of sublingual gland

Ranula :
It is cyst arising from sublingual salivary gland.
Marsupilisation is indicated in simple ranula.
Plunging ranula is mucus retention cyst of ranula
Sistrunk Operation :
Performed in Thyroglossal cyst.
Q.117) In seat belt injury, which organ gets damaged

a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Mesentery
d) Ear drum perforation
Ans : C. Mesentery
Ear drum perforation is most common clinical sign of blast injury.
Spleen is most common organ injured in blunt injury.
Liver > small intestine is most common organ injured in penetrating injury.
Gastrointestinal tract is most commonly affected in immersion blast.
Q.118) Which consequence can be expected after after pterygium removal

a) No Bleeding
b) Pitted scars
c) Fascicular ulcer
d) White ropy discharge
Ans : A. No Bleeding
Pitted scars :
Herbet pits ( in the limbal area after healing of Herbet follicles) seen in Trachoma.
Pannus is ( corneal Infilteration and extravasation ) seen in Trachoma.
White ropy discharge :
Is seen in Vernal keratoconjunctivitis.
Treatment : Olopatidine (anti – histmamine)

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Q.119) Important treatment in Diabetic ketoacidosis.

a) Normal saline
b) Metformin
c) Pramlintide
d) Mannitol
Ans : Normal saline

Diabetic ketoacidosis :
It is a major complication of type 1 diabetes.
Kussmaul hyperpnea is seen.
Metformin is a first line treatment for type 2 diabetes.
Q.120) Treatment of Keloid;

a) Triamcinolone
b) Carbapenem
c) Diloxanide furoate
d) Hydroxyrea
Ans : A. Traimcinolone
Diloxanide furoate :
DOC for asymptomatic intestinal amoebiasis.
Carbapenem :
Beta lactam antibiotics.
Used to treat enterobacter species.
Hydroxyurea :
Drug used for sickle cell anemia.
Q.121) Shortest acting corticosteroid;

a) Dexamethasone
b) Prednisolone
c) Methylprednisolone
d) Hydrocortisone
Ans : D. Hydrocortisone
Dexamethasone : Long acting
Prednisolone : Intermediate acting.
Methylprednisolone : Intermediate acting
Hydrocortisone : Short acting
Betamethasone : long acting
Q.122) Antibiotic of choice, in a pregnant woman suffering from Cystitis;

a) Amoxicillin
b) Sulfonamides
c) Bacitracin
d) Spiramycin
Ans : D. Amoxcillin
Spiramycin : Treats toxoplasmosis in pregnancy.
Sulfonamides toxicity causes : crystalluria and hematuria.
Bacitracin : causes nephrotoxicity.

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Q.123) Duration of anesthesia depends on which of the following?

a) Weight
b) Height
c) Gender
d) Race
Ans : A. Weight
Sublingual route : Avoids first pass metabolism
Rectal route : Avoids first pass metabolism to 50% extent.
Birth weight of an infant is best indicator of survival of the baby.
Weight is single best measure to assess physical growth
Q.124) Most common part affected in intestinal TB;

a) Sigmoid
b) Iliocecal
c) Rectum
d) Jejunum
Ans : B. Iliocecal
Most common site affected in Hirschsprung’s disease : Rectum > sigmoid
Most common site of Peutz - Jeghers syndrome : Jejunum
Ileum is most common primary site of carcinoid to produce mets
Q.125) Prevalence can be determined by;

a) Cross sectional studies
b) Cohort study
c) Framingham heart study
d) Bias
Ans : A. Cross sectional studies

Prevalence is a proportion.
Cohort study : Incidence is determined by Cohort study.
Framingham heart study : Is a classical example of Cohort study.
Bias is any “ systematic error “ in an epidemiological study.
Q.126) A child presented with OPD with unilateral nasal block and epistaxis. Mostly his condition is due to;
a) Septal perforation
b) Rhinoscleroma
c) Rhinosporidosis
d) Foreign body
Ans : D. Foreign body

Septal perforation :
Most common cause is surgical trauma (iatrogenic).
Syphilis can cause perforation of cartilage as well as bony part.
Rhinoscleroma :
Also known as Hebra Nose
Investigation : Mikulicz cells look like the foam cells
Russell bodies looks like plasma cells.
Rhinosporidosis :
Presents as bleeding nasal polyp.

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Q.127) Receptor activated in hypercapnia;

a) Chemoreceptor
b) Baroreceptor
c) Proprioceptor
d) Thermoreceptor
Ans : A. Chemoreceptor
Central chemoreceptor :
Situated in brain (medulla oblongata)
This is a chemosensitive area.
Mechanism of action :
Carbon dioxide easily cross the blood – brain barrier and blood cerebrospinal fluid barrier.
Carbon dioxide with water form carbonic acid.
Carbonic acid is unstable and dissociates into hygrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.
Hydrogen ions stimulate the central chemoreceptors.
Impulses reach the dorsal respiratory group of neurons resulting in increased ventilation
Peripheral chemoreceptor
Situated in Aortic and carotid region.
Hypoxia is the most potent stimulant of peripheral chemoreceptor.
***LACK OF OXYGEN DOES NOT HAVE SIGNIFICANT EFFECT ON CENTRAL CHEMORECEPTOR
Q.128) Which is not done in papillary thyroid carcinoma in a pregnant female?

a) Surgical excision
b) Radiofrequency ablation
c) Radioactive thyroid ablation
d) Iodine treatment
Ans : C. Radioactive thyroid ablation

Most common route of spread for papillary carcinoma thyroid is lymphatic.
Most common route of spread of follicular carcinoma thyroid is hematogenous.
Investigation of choice for papillary carcinoma thyroid is FNAC.
Q.129) 1st line of defence against viruses and tumor;

a) Natural killer cells
b) Dendritic cells
c) Macrophages
d) B - lymphocytes
Ans : A. Natural killer cells

Molecular marker : CD16 and CD56
Also known as Large granular cells.
Antigen presenting cells :
Dendritic cells
Macrophages
B – lymphocytes
Q.130) Immunoglobulin are classified on the basis of;

a) Heavy chain
b) Light chain
c) Hinge region
d) Serum concentration

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Ans : A. Heavy chain

Light chain :
Types kappa and lambda.
Hinge region :
Rich in proline and cysteine
Ig E responsible for Type 1 hypersensitivity.
Ig D possess highest carbohydrate content.
Ig M indicates recent infection.
Ig M appears in intrauterine life.
Q.131) A patient with HbsAg +, HbeAg +. What is the diagnosis ?

a) Acute infection + infectivity
b) Patient treated
c) Vaccinated
Ans : A. Acute infection + infectivity

Anti – HBs positive : Vaccinated
Anti – HBs positive , Anti – Hbc positive , Anti – Hbe positive or negative : Treated individual
Q.132) Color of N2O cylinder;

a) Orange
b) Brown
c) Blue
d) Blue body with white shoulders
Ans : C. Blue
N2O : Blue
Cycloproprane : Orange
Helium : Brown
CO2 : Grey
Entonox : Blue body with white shoulders
O2 : Black body with white shoulders
Air : Grey body with white shoulders
Q.133) What is quinsy?

a) It is a peritonsillar abcess.
b) Polypoidal degenration of vocal cords.
c) Described as barking of seal
d) Ballooning of saccule or ventricle filled with air or fluid or may be both.
Ans : A. It is a peritonsilar abcess

Polypoidal degenration of vocal cords : Reinke’s oedema
Caused due to smoking and voice abuse
Described as barking of seal : Croup
Caused by parainfluenza type 1
X – ray shows steeple sign
Ballooning of saccule or ventricle filled with air or fluid or may be both :
Laryngocele.
Commonly seen in trumpet players.

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Q.134) Anemia showing low ESR;

a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Sideroblastic anemia
Ans : A. Sickle cell anemia

Sickle cell anemia :
Substitution of glutamic acid with valine.
Causes intravascular and extravascular hemolysis.
“ Crew cut” on skull X – ray
Complication : Salmonella osteomyelitis.
Aplastic crisis due to parvovirus B19.
***Iron deficiency anemia is most common anemia with high ESR.
Q.135) A patient 45 years of age has ocular disturbances, during examination weak pulse are felt in upper
limb, blood pressure 160/90mmHg;
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Aortic arch syndrome
c) PAN
d) Thromboangitis obliterans
Ans : B. Aortic arch syndrome

Also known as Takayasu arteritis or Aoertoarterits
Characterized by granulomatous vasculitis followed by thickening of aortic arch, lumen of vessel is decreased.
Temporal arteritis :
Also known as cranial arteritis.
Clinical feature : Jaw pain and localized headache
Investigation of choice is : Temporal artery biopsy.
Thromboangitis obliterans :
Seen among Heavy cigarette smokers
Treatment : Cessation of smoking
Q.136) Delirium consists of all EXCEPT;

a) Sundowning
b) Lucid interval
c) Clouding of counsciousness.
d) Altered sleep wake cycle
Ans : C. Cloudiness of consciousness

Delirium : there is acute decline in the level of consciousness.
Delirium is most common organic mental disorder.
Associated features :
Flocillations /Carphological involuntary picking or grasping at imaginary objects.
Visual hallucination.
Delirium is more severe in the evening (Sundowning)
Q.137) Chest compression in adult is done at the rate of;

a) 50 -70 per minute
b) 80 – 100 per minute
c) 100 – 120 per minute
d) 130 – 150 per minute

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Ans : C. 100 – 120 per minute

Compression to ventilations ratio :
Single rescuer = 30 :2
Multiple rescuer = 15 : 2
Q.138) A person says, I will go home… home sweet home…. Sweet urine. Which condition describes him best?
a) Circumstantiality
b) Tangentiality
c) Flow of ideas
d) Derailment
Ans : C. Flow of Ideas

Circumstantiality : It is a pattern of speech which progresses with inclusion of lots of unnecessary details and goes
round and round before reaching the final goal.
Tangentiality : the answer of patient is related to the question in a distant way/obliquely and the goal of thought is
never reached.
Derailment : association between two successive thoughts is disturbed
Q.139) When is endometrial biopsy for genital tuberculosis done?

a) Day 23rd of menstrual cycle
b) Just before menstruation
c) As soon as suspected
Ans : B. Just before menstruation

Day 23rd of menstrual cycle : Endometrial biopsy for infertility
Just before menstruation : Endometrial biopsy for Genital tuberculosis
As soon as suspected : Premenstrual
Q.140) A patient feels that she has necrotized intestine. The condition she is suffering from is;
a) Nihilistic delusion
b) Impulsive control disorder
c) Depression
d) Tourette’s syndrome
Ans : A. Nihilsitic delusion

Depression :
Triad of depression involves – Depressed mood + psychomotor retardation slowed down thinking.
Tourette’s syndrome :
It is a form of a tic disorder which there are multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics
Most common morbidity with Tourette’s is ADHD. Another is depression.
Q.141) Defect seen due to failure of closure of cranial neuropore;

a) Rachischisis
b) Anencephaly
c) Spina bifida
d) Hemi - vertebra
Ans : B. Anencephaly
Rachischisis : Anomaly due to no closure of caudal neuropore
Anencephaly : Anomaly due to no closure of cranial neuropore
Spina bifida : Dorsal sclerotome is not fused
Hemi – vertebra : Ventral sclerotome is not fused

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Q.142) Prostaglandin not used in labor induction

a) PGF 2 alpha
b) PGE 2
c) PGE 1
Ans : A. PGF 2 alpha

PG E1 : Tab. Misoprostol
PG E2 : Gel. Dinoprost
PG F2 alpha : Injection Carboprost.
Gold standard agent for cervical ripening : PGE 2 (Gel . Dinoprost)
Gold standard agent for inducing labor : PGE 2
Analogue of prostaglandin used only in PPH : PGF 2 alpha
Q.143) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma causes deafness by;

a) Eustachian tube blockage.
b) VIII nerve involved
c) Epistaxis
d) Recurrent infection
Ans : A. Eustachian tube blockage

Trotter’s triad :
Ipsilateral soft palate palsy : Due to levator palpebrae muscle involved
Conductive hearing loss : Due to eustachian tube involvement.
Facial pain : Involvement of mandibular nerve.
Syndromes seen in nasopharyngial carcinoma :
Vernet syndrome : IX, X, XI nerves involved
Villaret’s syndrome : IX, X, XI, XII nerves involved
Collet – Sicard syndrome : IX, X , XI, XII
Q.144) Most common clinical feature seen in prolactinoma along with galactorrhea;
a) Amennorhea
b) Anosmia
c) Gynecomastia
d) Hirsuitism
Ans : A. Amenorrhea
Prolactinoma is most common pituitary adenoma.
Microsdenoma < 1cm.
Macroadenoma > 1cm.
Tumor lies near optic chiasma causing : Visual disturbances and headache.
Sheehan’s syndrome : Anterior pituitary undergoes necrosis.
75 % destruction of pituitary : Sheehan syndrome
95 % destruction of pituitary : Simmond’s syndrome
Q.145) Sensitive and specific marker for MI;

a) Troponin T and I
b) Creatinie kinase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Aspartate dehydrogenase

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Ans : A. Troponin T and I

Test Approximate peak
Troponin 12 hours
Creatine kinase 10 – 24 hours
Lactate dehydogenase 72 hours (not as specific as troponin)
Myoglobin 2 hours
Glycogen phosphorylase 7 hours
Q.146) All are seen in tumor lysis syndrome EXCEPT;

a) Hypercalcemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Hyperphosphatemia
Ans : A. Hypercalcemia
Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by :
Hyperkalemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperuricemia
Higher levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Q.147) Lucio phenomenon is seen in;

a) LL
b) TT
c) BT
d) All of the above
Ans : A. LL
Lucio phenomenon :
Occurs n multibacillary leprosy, blue hemorrhagic and necrotic ulcerations are present.
Pretty leprosy : Skin of the patient is diffusely infilterated and shiny.
Leonine facies is seen in lepromatous leprosy
Lepra reaction Type 1 : Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Lepra reaction Type 2 : Type III hypersensitvity reaction.
Paucibacillary treatment : Rifampicin + Dapsone for 6 months
Multibacillary treatment : Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazemine = till negative smear or daily till 2 years
Q.148) Deep parotid inflammation is visible at which site?

a) Below left ear
b) Above left ear
c) Temporomandibular joint.
d) On the hardpalate
Ans : A. Below the left ear

Temporomandibular joint : Frey’s syndrome
Injury to the auriculotemporal nerve
Q.149) Test done at sub centre during pregnancy;

a) Hemoglobin
b) Ultrasound
c) External podalic version
d) Amniocentesis

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Ans : A. Hemoglobin
Primary level of health care :
Sub center
Primary Health center
Type A sub center : Facilities for conducting deliveries are NOT PROVIDED.
Type B sub center : Facilities for conducting deliveries are PROVIDED
Q.150) A 2 year girl with irritability, dry mouth and slow skin pinch is admitted to the hospital, what is the
next step of management;
a) Home based fluids
b) ORS
c) Ringer lactate
d) Antibiotics
Ans : C. Ringer lactate

No dehydration (Green)
Sunken eyes absent
Thirst absent.
Skin pinch test is normal
Treatment : Home based fluid
Some dehydration ( Yellow)
Irritable
Sunken eyes present
Thirst increased
Skin pinch test < 25 second
Treatment : ORS
Severe Dehydration (Pink)
Lethargic unconsciousness sunken eyes present
Not able to drink
Skin pinch test > 25 second
Treatment : Ringer Lactate
Q.151) Anconeus muscle is supplied by which nerve;

a) Musculocutaneous nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Axillary nerve
Ans : B. Radial nerve

Musculocutaneous nerve supplies : Biceps brachii muscle, Brachialis muscle
Median nerve supplies : Pronator teres muscle, Pronator quadratus muscle
Axillary nerve supplies : Deltoid muscle , Teres minor muscle
Q.152) Mutation in sonic hedgehog gene defines;

a) Holoprosencephaly
b) Lissencephaly
c) Porencephaly
d) Schizencephaly

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Ans : A. Holoprocencephaly
Holoprcencephaly :
Seen in Patau syndrome.
Lissencephaly :
Absence of sulci and gyri
Procencephaly :
Cyst or cavity in the cerebral hemisphere lined by white matter.
Schizencephaly :
Clefts seen in cerebral hemisphere
Q.153) Tarsal gland is derived from which germ layer?

a) Surface ectoderm
b) Neural crest
c) Mesoderm
d) Neural ectoderm
Ans : A. Surface ectoderm

Surface ectoderm :
Derivatives = Lacrimal gland, Tarsal gland, Lens and Epithelium of all structures EXCEPT ciliary body and iris.
Neural crest :
Derivatives = Corneal endothelium, Stroma of cornea, choroid and ciliary muscles
Neural ectoderm :
Derivatives = Optic nerve, Sphincter and dilator muscles and retinal pigment epithelium
Q.154) Arch from which Reichert’s cartilage is derived.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4 and 6
Ans : B. 2
Arch 1 : Meckel’s cartilage
Arch 2 : Reichert’s cartilage
Arch 3 : Greater cornu of hyoid bone , lower part of body of hyoid bone.
Arch 4 and 6 : Thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid corniculate and cuneiform cartilage.
Q.155) Triangle of auscultation involves all EXCEPT;

a) Medially : Trapezius muscle
b) Laterally : Scapula
c) Below : Latissimus dorsi
d) Inferiorly : Deltoid muscle
Ans : D. Deltoid muscle

Triangle of auscultaion :
Medially : Trapezius muscle
Laterally : Scapula
Below : Latissimus dorsi
Q.156) On which day Zona pellucida disappears?

a) 3rd day after fertilization
b) 4th day after fertilization
c) 5th day after fertilization
d) On the day of fertilization

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Ans : C. 5th day after fertilization

1 day after fertilization : 2 cell stage
3rd day after fertilization : 8 to 16 cell stage
4th day after fertilization : 32 cell stage
5th day after fertilization : Zona pellucida disappears
Function of zona pellucida = PREVENTS IMPLANTATION.
6th, 7th day after fertilization : Implantation occurs
Q.157) Strongest rib;

a) 1st
b) 5th
c) 7th
d) 12th
Ans : A. 1st rib

Widest rib,
Shortest rib
Strongest rib.
True ribs : 1 – 7th ribs
False ribs :8 – 12th
Floating ribs – 11 and 12th.
9th rib is the most oblique rib
Q.158) Contents of foramen Ovale are all EXCEPT;

a) Middle meningeal artery
b) Mandibular nerve
c) Accessory middle meningeal artery
d) Emissary vein
Ans : A. Middle meningeal artery

Contents of Foramen Ovale :
Mandibular nerve
Accessory medial meningeal nerve
Lesser petrosal nerve
Emissary vein.
Contents of Foramen spinosum :
Middle meningeal artery
Emissary vein
Nervi spinosum
Q.159) Epithelium lining of ovary;

a) Stratified squamous non – keratinized epithelium
b) Columnar
c) Columnar ciliated
d) Cuboidal
Ans : D. Cuboidal
Stratified squamous non – keratinized epithelium : Vagina
Columnar : Cervical canal, Uterus
Columnar ciliated : Fallopian tube
Transitional epithelium : Urinary bladder

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Q.160) Lateral to medial organization in femoral region

a) Nerve, artery , vein, lymphatics
b) Vein, artery, nerve, lymphatics
c) Artery, nerve, lymphatics, vein
d) Artery, vein, nerve, lymphatics
Ans : A. Nerve, artery , vein, lymphatics

Femoral triangle contains : Femoral nerve, artery, vein.
It is a triangular depression in upper 1/3 rd of anterior aspect of thigh.
Inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle :
Inferior epigastric vein
Lateral border of rectus abdominis
Inguinal ligament
Q.161) Branching filamentous weakly acid fast;

a) Actinomyces
b) Nocardia
c) Leptospira
d) Treponema
Ans : A. Nocardia
Aerobe
Found in soil
Causes pulmonary infection
Actinomyces :
Anaerobe
Not acid fast
Causes oral or facial abecess
Sphirochetes :
Borrelia
Treponema
Leptospira
Q.162) Transfer of a portion of DNA mediated by a bacteriophage is called as :

a) Transformation
b) Transduction
c) Conjugation
d) Jumping gene
Ans : B. Transduction
Transformation : Process of transfer of free DNA from one bacterium to another.
Conjugation : Transfer of DNA from donor bacterium to recipient bacterium.
Jumping gene
Also known as Transposon
Transfer of DNA within bacterial cells
Q.163) Stain used for Cryptococcus neoformans;

a) Giemsa stain
b) India ink stain
c) Silver stain
d) FTA - ABS

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Ans : B. India ink stain

Giemsa stain : Borrelia, Chlamydia, Rickettsia
Silver stain : Fungi
FTA – ABS : Used for confirming syphilis
Q.164) All are types of dendritic cells EXCEPT

a) Interdigitating
b) Interstitial
c) Langerhans
d) Mesangial cells
Ans : D. Mesangial cells

Mesangial cells are macrophages of kidney.
Dendritic cells :
Interdigitating
Interstitial
Langerhans
Q.165) Most common nosocomial pathogen resistant to disinfection and antiseptic;

a) Pseudomonas
b) Haemophilus influenza
c) Neisseria meningitides
d) Burkholderia mallei
Ans : A. Pseudomonas
Resists wide temperature range 5 degree to 42 degree celsius
Pigmentation is produced in King’s media
Selective media : Cetrimide agar
Grape like fruity odor.
P.Aeruginosa has pyocyanin pigment
Q.166) Disease spread by hard tick;

a) Rocky mountain spotted fever
b) Epidemic typhus
c) Murine typhus
d) Scrub typhus
Ans : A. Rocky mountain spotted fever

Indian tick typhus caused by Rickettsia akari
Epidemic typhus or murine typhus transmitted by louse.
Coxiella burnetti is the causative agent of Q fever
Q.167) Rays used in wood’s lamp;

a) X – rays
b) UV rays
c) Infra red rays
d) Gamma rays
Ans : B. UV rays
Pityriasis versicolor : Golden yellow
All other dermatophytes : No flurorescence
Cornybacterium minussitum : Coral red
Trichophyton schoenleinii : Dull green

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Q.168) Rk39 antigen is used in diagnosis of;

a) Kala azar
b) Tuberculosis
c) Leprosy
d) Diphtheria
Ans. A. Kala azar

Laboratory diagnosis : LD bodies (amastigote form) seen on microscopy
Serological test :
Napier’s aldehyde test
Chopra’s antimony test.
Animal inoculation : Chinese and Golden Hamsters
Q.169) Iron deficiency is commonly caused by;

a) Ancyclostoma duodenale
b) Enteriobius vermicularis
c) Taenia solium
d) All of the above
Ans : A. Ancylostoma duodenale

Ancylostoma duodenale : Iron deficiency anemia
Nectar americanus : Iron deficiency
Babesia : Hemolytic anemia
Plasmodium spp : Autoimmune anemia
Trichuris trichiura : Iron deficiency anemia
Leishmania donovani : Autoimmune hemolytic
Q.170) Inverted fir tree appearance is characteristic of;

a) Bacillus anthracis
b) Hemophilus influenza
c) Brucella
d) Yersinia pestis
Ans : A. Bacillus anthracis

Gram staining : bamboo stick appearance
Solid media with penicillin : string of pearl appearance
Blood – agar : non – hemolytic colony
On nutrient agar plate : medusa head appearance
Gelatin stab : inverted fir tree appearance
Q.171) Define Onanism;

a) It is the deliberate self – stimulation , which effectsexual arousal
b) Opposite clothing
c) Contact with other person to obtain sexual gratification
d) Sexual pleasure by witnessing the act of urination
Ans. A. It is the deliberate self – stimulation , which effectsexual arousal

Opposite clothing : Transvertism or Eonism
Contact with other person to obtain sexual gratification : Frotteurism
Sexual pleasure by witnessing the act of urination : Undinism

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Q.172) Pugilistic attitude is seen in;

a) Drowning
b) Hanging
c) Protein coagulation
d) Electrocoagulation
Ans : C. Protein coagulation

Pugilistic attitude is due to heat stiffening seen after both in AM and PM burns.
Heat stiffening > 65 degree celsius
Curling ulcers are seen in duodenum.
Coagulation of protein albumin of the muscles which causes contraction.
Q.173) Early fusion of the metopic suture is called;

a) Trigonocephaly
b) Scaphalocephaly
c) Posterior plagiocephaly
d) Anterior plagiocephaly
Ans : A. Trigonocephaly
Scaphalocephaly : early fusion of the sagittal suture
Posterior plagiocephaly : early fusion of lamdoid suture
Q.174) Viper snake is :

a) Neurotoxic
b) Vasulotoxic
c) Musculotoxic
Ans : B. Vasculotoxic
Neurotoxic : Cobra
Vasulotoxic : Viper
Musculotoxic : Sea
Ophisthoxemia : means poisoning by snake venom.
Kraits bite : has no swelling and burning at the site of the bite.
In a cobra bite : Symptoms start within 6 to 8 minutes
Q.175) Antidote of strychinine poisoning;

a) Diazepam
b) EDTA
c) Calcium gluconate
d) Copper sulphate
Ans : A. Diazepam
Poisoning Antidote
Oxalic acid Calcium gluconate
Phosphorous Copper sulphate
Bhang /ganja Diazepam
Alcohol Ethyl alcohol
Plumbism EDTA

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Q.176) Drug safe for treatment of hypertension in pregnancy;

a) Clonidine
b) Hydrazaline
c) Methyldopa
d) All of the above
Ans : D. All of the above

Drug safe for treatment of hypertension in pregnancy
Cardioselective ( beta blocker )
Methyl dopa
Clonidine
Dihydropyridines
Hydrazaline
Prazosin
Q.177) Flumazenil is a;
a) Diazepam inverse agonist
b) Diazepam antagonist
c) Opiod antagonist
d) Opiod inverse agonist
Ans : B. Diazepam antagonist

Flumazenil is benzodiazepine antagonist.
It has no role in alcohol dependance
I.V for the treatment of BZD poisoning.
Q.178) When hands are used to compress the neck it is referred as;
a) Throttling
b) Bansdola
c) Mugging
d) Garroting
Ans : A. Throttling
Bansdola : Constriction of neck by bamboo stick
Mugging : Strangulation of neck by the bend of the elbow.
Garroting : Strangulation of neck by the form of a ligature
Burking : Is a form of a homicidal smothering and traumatic asphyxia
Gagging : A form of a asphyxia due to pushing a gag.
Choking : Asphyxia caused by mechanical occlusion of external air passages
Q.179) What type of torture is Falanga?

a) Electrical shock especially over the genitals
b) Repeated slapping on the side of head over ears
c) Forced immersion of head in water contaminated with urine or feces
d) Canes used to beat on the soles
Ans : D. Canes used to beat on the soles

Electrical shock especially over the genitals : Cattle prod
Repeated slapping on the side of head over ears : Telefono
Forced immersion of head in water contaminated with urine or feces : Wet submarine

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Q.180) Rat hole appearance is seen in which range;

a) Contact shot
b) Close range
c) Near range
d) Distant range
Ans : C. Near range

Contact shot :
Stellate or cruciate wound
Muzzle impression present
Close range :
Burns / singeing present
Blackening present
Tattoing : Present
Near range :
Irregular margins : Rat hole appearance
Distant range :
Individual pellet holes
Q.181) IQ range 110 - 119 indicates;

a) Superior
b) Very superior
c) Superior high
d) borderline
Ans : A. Superior (bright )

IQ CLASSIFICATION IQ RANGE
Very superior (extremely bright ) 130 and above
Superior (very bright) 120 – 129
Superior ( bright ) 110 – 119
Average 90 – 119
Low average 80 – 89
Borderline 70 – 79
Extremely low 69 and below
Q.182) Severe depression is seen in;

a) Delusion of persecution
b) Delusion of reference
c) Delusion of infidelity
d) Delusion of guilt
Ans : D. Delusion of guilt

Delusion of persecution : Most common type of delusion
Delusion of reference : patient believes that events happening around him are somehow related to him
Delusion of infidelity : Delusion of affair of one’s spouse “ Othello syndrome “
Q.183) Function of chylomicrons;

a) Carry dietary triacyl glycerol to tissues
b) Carry endogenous triglycerides
c) Delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissues
d) Delivers cholesterol from peripheral tissue to liver

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Ans : A. Carry dietary triacyl glycerol to tissues

Carry endogenous triglycerides : VLDL
Delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissues : LDL
Delivers cholesterol from peripheral tissue to liver : HDL
Q.184) Medium wavelength is seen in:

a) M – cone
b) S – cone
c) L – cone
d) All of the above
Ans : A. M – cone
Green
Deutronopia : Defect in green color
S – cone :
Blue
Tritonopia : Defect in blue color
L – cone :
Protanopia : Decfect in red
Color – blindness is X – linked recessive
Female are carriers
Q.185) Highest conduction system of heart;

a) SA node
b) AV node
c) Purkinjee fibers
d) Atrial pathways
Ans : C. Purkinjee fiber

Tissue Speed (m/s )
SA node 0.05
AV node 0.05
Purkinjee fibers 4
Atrial pathways 1
Q.186) Duration of P wave in a ECG waveform;

a) 0.10
b) 0.08 – 0.10
c) 0.2
d) 0.6 – 1sec
Ans : A. 0.10
QRS complex : Ventricular depolarization : 0.08 – 0.10
T wave : Ventricular depolarization : 0.2
RR interval : Interval between two successive R waves : 0.6 – 1sec
Q.187) Heart sound caused due to rapid filling phase of ventricular diastole;
a) First heart sound
b) Second heart sound
c) Third heart sound
d) Fourth heart sound

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Ans : C. Third heartbeat sound

First heartbeat sound: Closure of AV valves
Second heartbeat sound : Closure of the semilunar valves
Fourth heart sound: Forceful atrial contraction
Q.188) All of the following are true EXCEPT;

a) Rods and cones : 1st order neuron
b) Bipolar cells : 2nd order neuron
c) Ganglion cells : 3rd order neuron
d) Cortex : 4th order neuron
Ans D. Cortex : 4th order neuron
Order of neurons
A. Rods and cones : 1st order neuron
B. Bipolar cells : 2nd order neuron
C. Ganglion cells : 3rd order neuron
D. Lateral Geniculate body : 4th order neuron
E. Cortex : 5th order neuron
Q.189) ACE is secreted by;

a) Cathelicidins
b) NK cells
c) Endothelial cells of pulmonary capillaries
d) Dendritic cells
Ans : C. Endothelial cells of pulmonary capillaries
1. Endothelial cells of pulmonary capillaries secrete the angiotensin - converting enzyme.
2. It converts angiotensin 1 into active angiotensin 2 which plays important role in ECF volume and blood pressure.
A. Cathelicidins :
1. Epithelial cells lining the air passage secrete some innate factors called defensin and cathelicidins.
2. These substances are the antimicrobial peptides, which play an important role in lung’s natural defenses.
B. NK cells
First line defense in specific immunity particularly aganist viruses.
D. Dendritic cells :
1. Plays important role in immunity.
2. Functions at antigen presenting cells
Q.190) Factor inversely proportional to cardiac output

a) Venous return
b) Force of contraction
c) Heart rate
d) Peripheral resistance
Ans : D. Peripheral resistance
1. Cardiac output is inversely proportional to peripheral resistance.
2. Peripheral resistance is the resistance or load against which the heart has to pump.
3. Arterioles are resistance vessels
4. Resistance is offered at arterioles
5. Splanchic region has maximumperipheral resistance.
A. Venous return.
1. Venous return is directly proportional to cardiac output.
2. Venous return depends on :
Respiratory pump
Muscle pump
Gravity

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Q.191) Instrument used to test the angle of anterior chamber;

a) Tonometry
b) Gonioscope
c) Keratometer
d) Pachymeter
Ans : B. Gonioscope
Tonometry : Parameter used to measure intraocular pressure
Gonioscope : Angle of anterior chamber is measured
Keratometer : Corneal curvature is measured
Pachymeter : Corneal thickness is measured
Q.192) Longest acting mydriatic cyloplegics in refraction;

a) A tropine
b) Homatropine
c) Cyclopentolate
d) Tropicamide
Ans : A. Atropine
DRUG DURATION Important points
Atropine 10 – 14 days DOC for children less than 7 years
Homatropine 3 – 4 days Preferred in school going children
Cyclopentolate 12 – 24 hors
Tropicamide 4 – 6 hours Shorstest acting. DOC in adults
Q.193) Deposition site in fleischer ring;

a) Descement’s membrane
b) Epithelium
c) Bowman’s capsule
d) Posterior surface
Ans : B. Epithelium
Condition Pigmented deposited Seen in
Argyrosis Silver nitrate Descement’s membrane
Kay – Fleischer Copper Descement’s membrane
Ring
Arcus senilis Lipoid deposits Substantia propria
Band shaped Calcium Posterior surface
Keratopathy
Q.194) Intermediate storage of corneal grating is;

a) Upto 24 hours
b) Upto 48 hours
c) Upto 2 weeks
d) Upto to 35 weeks
Ans : C. Upto 2 weeks

Short term storage ( upto 48 hours ) in a moist chamber at 4 degree celsius.
Intermediate storage ( upto 2 weeks ) in McCarey – Kaufman (MK) or optisal medium.
Long term storage (upto 35 days ) with organ culture

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Q.195) Colored halos with broken fragments helps in diagnosing

a) Cataract
b) Glaucoma
c) Conjuntivitis
d) Corneal ulcer
Ans : A. Cataract
Conjunctivitis : Colored halos disappear on cleaning the eye.
Glaucoma : Colored halos remain intact, after cleaning eyes.
Cataract : Colored halos break into fragments, even after cleaning of eye
Q.196) Secondary function of superior rectus muscle;

a) Extortion
b) Intortion
c) Elevation
d) Depression
Ans : B. Intortion
Muscle Primary Secondary Tertiary
Inferior rectus Depression Extortion Adduction
Superior rectus Elevation Intortion Adduction
Inferior oblique Extortion Elevation Abduction
Superior oblique Intortion Depression Abduction
Q.197) Nerve supply to Levator palpebrae superioris

a) Facial nerve
b) Abducen nerve
c) Oculomotor nerve
d) Optic nerve
Ans : C. Occulomotor nerve

Muscle Nerve supply
Orbicularis oculi Facial nerve
Levator palpebrae superioris Oculomotor nerve
Muller’s muscle Sympathetic fibers
Q.198) Cataract due to blunt trauma

a) Oil drop
b) Christmas tree
c) Rosete shaped
d) Sunflower
Ans : C. Rosette cataract

Oil drop Cataract is a feature of galactosemia
Christmas tree is a feature of myotonic dystrophy
Rosette shaped is due to blunt trauma
Sunflower cataract is associated with chalcosis

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Q.199) Inward turning of cilia with normal position of lid margin is called as;
a) Trichiasis
b) Districhiasis
c) Symblepharon
d) Blepharophimosis
Ans : A. Trichiasis
Districhiasis : Presence of second row of eyelashes along the opening of meibomian glands.
Symblepharon : Adhesion between the palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva,
Blepharophimosis : decreased exetent of palpebral fissure
Tylosis : Thickening of the lid margin due to hypertrophy is called tylosis
Madarosis : Loss of eye lashes
Q.200) Von – Graefe’s sign;

a) Difficulty in eversion of eye
b) Fullness of eyelid due to swelling
c) Infrequent blinking
d) Lid lag
Ans D. Lid lag

Difficulty in eversion of eye upper eyelid : Gifford’s sign
Fullness of eyelid due to swelling : Enroth’s sign
Infrequent blinking : Stellwag’s sign
Tremors of closed Eyelids : Rosenbach’s sign
Q.201) Second phase in bacterial growth curve is called as;

a) Lag
b) Log
c) Decline
d) Stationary
Ans : B log phase

Lag phase : Bacteria increases in size but does not multiply
Log phase : Bacteria divides maximum
Stationary phase : Sporulation occurs in this phase
Decline phase : Involution forms are seen
Q.202) Bimastoid diameter

a) 7.5cm
b) 8cm
c) 8.5cm
d) 10.1cm
Ans : A. 7.5cm
Biparietal - 9.5cm
Bitemporal – 8cm
Bimastoid - 7.5cm
Supersubparietal – 8.5cm

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Q.203) White infarcts are seen in all EXCEPT;

a) Heart
b) Spleen
c) Kidney
d) Lung
Ans : D. Lung
Red infarcts White infarcts
Venous occlusion : Arterial occlusions in solid organs with
Seen in ovarian torsion end arterial circulation
Lungs and intestine are Heart, spleen and kidney are affected
affected organs
Edema usually present Usually absent
Q.204) Spermatogonial stem cells are;

a) Mono potent cells
b) Oligopotent cells
c) Multipotent cells
d) Totipotent cells
Ans : A. Monopotent cells

Mono potent cells : Spermatogonial stem cells
Oligopotent cells : Neuron stem cells
Multipotent cells : Hematopoietic stem cells
Totipotent cells : Only zygote has this feature
Q.205) Which class of chemokine does Fractalkaline belong?

a) Alpha chemokines
b) Beta chemokines
c) Gamma chemokines
d) CX3C chemokine
Ans : D. CX3C chemokine

Alpha chemokines : Primarily acts on neutrophils eg : IL - 8
Beta chemokines : Attracts all leukocytes EXCEPT, neutrophils
Gamma chemokines : Relatively selective for lymphocytes
CX3C chemokine : Fractalkanine is the member of this class
Q.206) Major role of P – selectin;

a) Rolling
b) Rolling, adhesion to activated endothelium
c) Adhesion, arrest, transmigration
d) Adhesion
Ans : A. Rolling
Rolling performed by P - selectin
Rolling, adhesion to activated endothelium performed by E- selectin
Adhesion, arrest, transmigration ICAM - 1
Adhesion VCAM - 1

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Q.207) Inhibitor of apoptosis;

a) Bcl – 2
b) Bax
c) BAK
d) P - 53
Ans : A. Bcl2
Inhibitors of apoptosis :
Bcl2
Bcl – XL
Promoters of apoptosis :
Bax
BAK
P – 53 activation
Q.208) Type of necrosis seen in brain abscess;

a) Coagulative necrosis
b) Liquefactive necrosis
c) Caseous necrosis
d) Fat necrosis
Ans : B. Liquefactive necrosis

Coagulative necrosis :
Associated with ischemia
Seen in kidney, heart and liver, EXCEPT BRAIN
Liquefactive necrosis :
Seen in brain.
Pancreatitis
Caseous necrosis:
Characteristic Of Tb
Combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis.
Fat necrosis :
Action of lipases on fatty tissues
Q.209) Nuclear condensation defines;

a) Pyknosis
b) Karyorrhexis
c) Karyolysis
Ans : A. Pyknosis
Pyknosis : is nuclear condensation
Karyorrhexis : is fragmentation of the nucleus
Karyolysis : is nuclear dissolution
Nuclear changes :
These are specific microscopic features of irreversible cell injury
Pyknosis
Karyorrhexis
Karyolysis

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Q.210) Most common tumor of heart

a) Rhabdomyosarcoma
b) Myxoma
c) Fibroma
d) Leimyosarcoma
Ans : B. Myxoma
Most common benign cardiac tumor : atrial myxoma
Most common cardiac tumor : Metastasis
Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults : atrial myxoma
Most common primary cardiac tumor in children : rhabdomyosarcoma
Q.211) Sign seen in otosclerosis;

a) Schwartz sign
b) Delta sign
c) Lyre sign
d) Omega sign
Ans : A. Schwartz sign

Schwartz sign seen in otosclerosis
Delta sign seen in lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
Lyre sign seen in chemodectoma
Omega sign seen in laryngomalacia
Q.212) Most common pathogen causing atrophic rhinitis;

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumonia
c) Klebsiella ozaenae
d) Rhinosporidium seeberi
Ans : C. Klebsiella ozaenae
Staphylococcus aureus : Furunculosis of ear
Streptococcus pneumonia : Acut esuppurative otitis media
Klebsiella ozaenae : Atrophic rhinitis
Rhinosporidium seeberi : Rhinosporidiosis
Larvae of chrysomya : Myiasis or maggots
Ludwigs angina : mixed pathogens
Rhinoscleroma : Frisch bacillus
Q.213) All the syndromes cause conductive hearing loss EXCEPT

a) Down’s syndrome
b) Pierre Robin syndrome
c) Van der Hoeve syndrome
d) Pendred syndrome
Ans : D. Pendred syndrome
Syndromes causing CHL
Down’s syndrome
Treacher Collin syndrome
Pierre robin syndrome
Van der hoeve syndrome
Syndrome causing SNHL
Waardenburg’s syndrome
Pendred syndrome
Usher syndrome

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Q.214) Posterior ethmoidal cell;

a) Bulla ethmoidalis
b) Agar nasi
c) Heller cell
d) Onodi cell
Ans : D. Onodi Cell

Bulla ethmoidalis :
It is the largest ethmoidal cell
Agar nasi :
Most anterior ethmoidal cell
Heller cell :
It is present on the floor of orbit
Onodi cell :
Present behind the orbit close to the optic nerve
Q.215) Posterior artery is a branch of

a) Opthalmic artery
b) Facial artery
c) Maxillary artery
d) External carotid artery
Ans : A. Opthalmic artery

Maxillary artery gives branches to :
Sphenopalatine artery
Greater palatine artery
Facial artery gives a branch to :
Superior labial artery
Opthalmic artery gives branches to :
Anterior ethmoidal artery
Posterior ethmoidal artery
Q.216) Montgomery tube used in ENT procedure is a :

a) Lobster tail tube
b) Double barrel tube
c) Airway tube
d) Silicone T - tube
Ans : D. Silicone T - tube

Advantage :
It has to be left in the trachea for a long period of time.
Patient can speak if larynx is intact.
Disadvantage :
Surgically placed inside the trachea
If it gets blocked cleaning is very difficult.
Q.217) All of the following are true about adult larynx EXCEPT
a) It is cylindrical in shape
b) Have harder cartilage
c) Narrowest part is the glottis
d) Lamina propria is not well developed

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Ans : D. Lamina propria is not well developed

Infant larnyx :
It is cone/ funnel shaped
Narrowest part is the sub – glottis
Have softer cartilage
Q.218) Most common cerebellopontine angle tumor

a) Acoustic neuroma
b) Cholesteatoma
c) Meningioma
Ans : A. Acoustic neuroma

Lesion of CP angle
Most common Acoustic neuroma = 80%
Congenital colesteatoma = 5%
Meningioma = 10%
Q.219) Headache in sunrise and relief at sunset is seen in

a) Frontal sinusitis
b) Maxillary sinusitis
c) Anterior ethmoidal sinusitia
d) Posterior ethmoidal sinusitis
Ans : B. Frontal sinusitis

Typical characteristic of frontal sinusitis also known as office headache.
Feature Site of tenderness
Maxillary sinusitis Cheek and alveolus
Ethmoidal sinusitis Medial canthus of eye
Sphenoidal sinusitis Vertex of skull
Frontal sinus Below eyebrow
Q.220) Aminoglycoside causing nephrotoxicity;

a) Neomycin
b) Gentamicin
c) Amikacin
d) Streptomycin
Ans : A. Neomicin
Neomycin > Gentamicin is nephrotoxic
Ototoxic :
Amikacin ( Auditory )
Streptomycin ( Vestibular)
Neuromuscular blockade Neomycin > Streptomycin
Q.221) Gp II /IIIa is targeted by which monoclonal antibody

a) Denosumab
b) Omalizumab
c) Abciximab
d) Trastuzumab

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Ans : C. Abciximab
Monoclonal antibody Use Target
Denosumab RANK ligand Osteoporosis
Omalizumab Ig E Bronchial asthma
Abciximab Gp II /IIIa Antiplatelet
Trastuzumab her – 2 /neu Breast cancer
Q.222) Best uterine relation is seen with

a) Chlorprocaine
b) Halothane
c) Ether
d) Nitrous oxide
Ans : B. Halothane
Chlorprocaine :
Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting local anesthetic.
Contraindicated in spinal anesthesia.
Halothane : Contraindiacted in pheochromocytoma
Entonox :
Is a mixture of 50 % N2O + 50% O2
Nitrous oxide :
It is also called as “ laughing gas “
It is poor muscle relaxant
Q.223) Shortest acting opiod;

a) Alfentanil
b) Remifentanil
c) Fentanyl
d) Sufentanil
Ans : B. Remifentanil
Alfentanil : An opiod used for day care surgery
Remifentanil : It is the shortest acting opiod
Fentanyl : along with droperidol for neurolept analgesia
Sufentanil : most potent opiod
Q.224) Topoisomerase I inhibitor;

a) Topotecan
b) Etoposide
c) Teniposide
d) Doxorubicin
Ans : A. Topotecan
Topoisomerase I inhibitor :
Topotecan
Irinotecan
Topoisomerase II inhibitor :
Etoposide
Tenoposide
Doxorubicin
Daunorubicin
Mitoxantrone

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Q.225) Hypoglycemia is an adverse effect of which drug ?

a) Insulin
b) Thiazides
c) Diazoxide
d) Glucagon
Ans : A. Insulin
Hyperglycemia causing drugs :
Thiazides
Glucocorticoids
Glucagon
Furosemide
Phenytoin
Hypoglycemia causing drugs :
Insulin
Ethanol
Quinine
Octreotide
Q.226) Growth is assessed by;

a) Shakir’s tape
b) Harpenden callipers
c) Anthropometry
d) Icteriometer
Ans: D. Anthropometry
Anthropometry :
Height
Weight
Mid – arm circumference
Head circumference
Body mass index
Skin fold thickness
Q.227) Moro reflex is absent in;

a) Congenital hemiplegia
b) Fracture clavicle
c) Erb’s palsy
d) Down’s syndrome
Ans : D. Down’s syndrome

Absent moro’s reflex :
Down’s syndrome
Assymetric Moro’s reflex :
Erb’s palsy
Congenital hemiplegia
Fracture clavicle

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Q.228) Pinkish lesion behind eyebrow is known as :

a) Mongolian spots
b) Stork bite
c) Epstein pearls
d) Milia
Ans : B. Stork bite

Mongolian spots : Bluish black patches seen
Stork bite : Capillary hemangioma
Epstein pearls : Whitish lesion on hard palate
Milia : Colorless papules
Q.229) Maximum heat loss takes place from which part of the newborn
a) Head
b) Abdomen
c) Upper limb
d) Lower limb
Ans : A. Head
Newborns are more prone to hypothermia.
Maximum heat loss takes place from head of newborn.
Shivering is absent in new borns
Q.230) APGAR score involves all EXCEPT

a) Appearance
b) Pulse rate
c) Grimace
d) Respiratory rate
Ans : D. Respiratory rate
0 1 2
Appearance Blue / pale Body : pink, Complete pink
Extremity : blue
Pulse rate Absent <100/min >100
Grimace No response Grimace only Cough, sneeze
Activity None Some flexion Flexed posture
Respiratory None Slow irregular Normal/ strong
Effort
Q.231) Dental discoloration is an adverse affect of which drug?

a) Clomiphene
b) Lithium
c) Phenytoin
d) Tetracycline
Ans : D. Tetracycline
Adverse Affect of the Drugs
Clomiphene : Multiple gestation, Downs syndrome
Lithium : Ebstein anomaly
Phenytoin : Fetal hydantoin syndrome
Tetracycline : Discoloration of teeth
Chloramphenicol : Grey baby syndrome
Beta blocker : Foetal bradycardia
Thalidomide : phacomelia

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Q.232) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in;

a) Rotor’s syndrome
b) Gilbert syndrome
c) Diffuse Hepatocellular disease
d) Criggler Najjar syndrome
Ans : A. Rotor’s syndrome

Associated with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia :
Dubin Johnson syndrome
Rotor syndrome
Associated with Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia :
Gilbert syndrome
Diffuse Hepatocellular disease
Criggler Najjar syndrome
Q.233) Cardiac Defect in Marfans syndrome

a) PDA
b) COA
c) TGV
d) Aortic insufficiency
Ans : D. Aortic insufficiency

Disorder Defect
Rubella PDA
Turner’s syndrome COA
William’s syndrome Supravalvular AS
Down’s syndrome Ostium Primum
Q.234) Duration for which breast milk is stored at room temperature

a) 2 – 4 hours
b) 8 – 10 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 3 months
Ans : B. 8 – 10 hours
Breast milk storage :
Deep frezer : 3 months
Refrigerator : 24 hours
At room temperature : 8 – 10 hours
Breast milk is maximumat 5 – 6 months of lactation, Around 700ml per day.
Breast feeding is continued till years of age.
Exclusive breast feeding : 6 months
Q.235) All the features are seen in Marasmus EXCEPT.

a) Apathy absent
b) Edema present
c) Voracious apetite
d) Hepatomegaly Absent

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Ans : B. Edema present

Kwashiorkar Marasmus
Edema present Edema absent
Apathy present Apathy absent
Poor apetite Voracious apetite
Skin and hair changes Skin and hair changes are uncommon
are common.
Hepatomegaly present Hepatomegaly absent
Q.236) Classification of fracture used for upper end of humerus.

a) Neer’s
b) Gustilo’s
c) Pauwel’s
d) Salter and Harris
Ans : A. Neer’s
Classifications
Gustilo’s : for open fractures
Pauwel’s : For fracture neck of the femur
Salter and Harris : For epiphyseal injuries
Q.237) Dennis brown splint is used in.

a) Ulnar nerve
b) CTEV
c) Volkman’s ischemic contracture
d) Femur fracture
Ans : B. CTEV
Splint Used in
Knuckle bender splint Ulnar nerve
Aeroplane splint Brachial plexsus injury
Turn buckle splint Volkman’s Ischemic contracture
Q.238) Static stabilizer;

a) Supraspinatous
b) Infraspinatous
c) Teres minor
d) Glenoid labrum
Ans : D. Glenoid labrum

Static stabilizer :
Glenoid labrum
Glenohum ligament
Dynamic stabilizer :
Suprasinatous
Infraspinatous
Teres minor
Subscapularis

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Q.239) CASPAR criteria is used in diagnosis of;

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Gouty arthritis
c) Pseudogout
d) Psoriatic arthritis
Ans : D. Psoriatic arthritis

Associated with skin psoriasis and nail lesions
Pencil in cup deformity of DIP seen on X – ray.
Q.240) Ivory vertebra is seen in

a) Paget’s disease
b) Achondrolplasia
c) Osteopetrosis
d) Sickle cell anemia
Ans : A. Pagets disease

Increase osteoclastic activity and increase osteoblastic activity.
Long bone chalk stick fractures.
Achondrolplasia :
Membranous ossification is not affected.
Most common cause of dwarfism.
Q.241) A child 10 years of age complains of burning, itchy sensation in the eye. History suggests of recurrent
Condition in spring and summer. On examination Maxwel Lyon sign was positive
a) Vernal conjunctivitis
b) Trachoma
c) Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
d) Giant Papillary conjunctivitis
Ans : A. Vernal conjunctivitis

1. Also known as Spring Catarrh / Warm weather conjuntivitis
2. Palpebral form of disease presents with cobble stone / pavement stone appearance
3. White ropy discharge indicates positive Maxwel Lyon sign.
4. Horner Tranta spots are seen
B. Trachoma
1. Chronic keratoconjuctivitis
2. Pathogonomic feature is presence of Sago grains follicles.
C. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
1. Mostly seen in children
2. Type 4 hypersensitivity.
3. Presents as nodule at limbus (phlycten)
D. Giant papillary conjunctivitis
Localised allergy due to contact lens / nylon sutures/ prosthesis
Q.242) Identify the condition,in which the patient has white lacy buccal mucosa and pruritic scales on feet.
a) Psoriasis
b) Pemphigus vulgaris
c) Bullous pemphigoid
d) Lichen planus.

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Ans. Lichen planus.

1. Wickhams striae is a network of greyish lines along the papules seen due to hypergranulosis .
NOTE: AGRANULOSIS IN PSORIASIS AND HYPERGRANULOSIS IN LIHEN PLANUS.
2. HLA B8 in oral lichen planus.
3. Commonly involves flexors of the wrist, lower back, shins and oral mucosa.
4. Nail changes: pterygium formation, splitting of nail and onychodystrophy, pup tenting of the nail [puptent sign].
5.Max joseph space and civatte bodies are present.
Psoriasis: Has strong association with HLAC W6. HLA B27 +ve with psoraitic arthritis. Commonly involves extensors.
Pemphigus vulgaris: Non itchy bullae over face, scalp, axilla and trunk very flaccid rupture easily to produce large
painful erosions. Nikolsky sign positive.
Bullous pemphigoid: intense itching with tense intact bullae . Nikolsky sign is usually negative.
Q.243) An individual developed, after few minutes red colored wheals, swelling and irritation on the skin
afterconsuming shellfish. Identify the sign for the given condition
a) Darier’sign.
b) Nikolsky sign
c) Ollendorf sign
d) Carpet track sign
Ans A. Darrier’s sign:

1. Seen in URTICARIA PIGMENTOSA ( redness, erythrema and edema).
2.Brown lesion are seen, mast cell release histamine
B. Nikolsky sign
1. Shearing of skin of lateral pressure.
2. Seen in * Pemphigus vulgaris.
*staphylococcal scalded syndrome.
*Toxic epidermal necrosis (TEN).
NIKOLSKY SIGN ABSENT IN BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID.
C. Ollendorf sign
1. Secondary syphilis.
2. Deep dermal pain on pinching of papules.
D. Carpet track sign

Seen in Discoid lupus erythrematous( only skin is affected).
Q.244) A child 7 years of age complains of intense itching that gets worse at night. On examination there is
presence of thin burrow line ending with pustule on the skin, his younger brother also has the similar
Complains. The conditiondescribed is
a) Pediculosis
b) Scabies.
c) Sporotrichosis
d) Atopic dermatitis
Ans : B. Scabies
1. Incubation period: 4 – 6 weeks.
2. Female mite: Sarcoptes scabei.
3. Intense itching at night, all family members will suffer.
4. PATHONOMIC FINDING: BURROW.
5. Average: 11 mites.
6.DEFINE BURROW: WAVY LESION WITH END OF PUSTULE OR VESICLE.
A. Pediculosis
1.Pediculosis corporis / Vagar Bonds dis--- ( TREATMENT OF CLOTHES MORE IMPORTANT THAN TEATMENT OF
PERSON)

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2. Pediculosis pubis ( caused by pthibisus pubis)

C. Sporotrichosis :
1.Also known as Rose Gardeners disease.
2. Subcutaneous mycosis
3. Produces cigar shaped yeast
4.Asteroid bodies.
D. Atopic dermatitis
1. Type 1 hypersensitivity.
2. Headlight sign and Hertoghe sign is seen
Q.245) A patient 65 years of age suffering from CML was prescribed with Hydroxyurea. During period of
time thereis dusky red and itchy rash on face and eyelids. On examination there is Gottron sign and
shawl sign observed. Identifythe diagnose
a) Xeroderma pigmentosa.
b) Addison’s disease
c) Dermatomyositis
d) Vogt kayanagi Harada
Ans C. Dermatomyositis
1. Etilology: unknown, Autoimmune, associated with internal malignancy.
2. Drugs triggering: Hydroxyurea, D- penicillamine, phenytoin.
3. CUTANEOUS CHANGES: ( VIOLACEOUS DISCOLOURATION)
EXACERBATE ON SUNLIGHT EXPOSURE
* Helitrope rash: purple red confluent discolouration of periorbital regions
* Gottron papules: violaceous flat topped papules over bony prominences of hands, PARTICULARLY OVER MIP AND
DIP JOINTS
* Holster sign: violaceous erythrema over upper aspect of thigh.
* Shawl sign: Poilkilodema may occur on exposed skin such as extensor surfaces of the arm,
the “ V- Of the NECK”
A. Xeroderma Pigmentosa
1. Autosomal recessive , defective DNA repair, DNA excision repair damaged by ultraviolet radiation there is
abnormal response of polymerase to UV light exposure.
2. IMPORTANT 4 P’s: * PHOTOSENSITIVE SKIN.
*PREMATURE AGEING.
*PIGMENTARY CHANGES.
* PREMALIGNANT AND MALIGNANT CHANGES
3. Ocular problems consists of photophobia, conjunctivits, symblepharon
4. Actinic keratosis, Keratoacanthoma occurs
Q.246) A woman 45 years suffers with sudden, severe attacks of pain, swelling, redness and tenderness in the
joints, often the joint at the base of the big toe. Patient complains of severe pain after consumption of
alcohol or meat rich diet. Blood test suggests of uric acid level 9mg/dl
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Gout
d) Ankylosing spondylitis

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Ans C. Gout
1. Acute inflammatory monoarthritis caused by precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joints. Associated with
hyperurecemia
2. Crystals are needle shaped and birefringement ender polarized light.
3. Tophus formation are seen
4. Classical manifestation is painful MTP joint of big toe (podagra)
5. Radiological sign: Martel sign / rat bite sign : Sharply marginated , bonny ersions from long standing soft tissue
tophus seen in X-ray in apatient with gout
Q.247) A 27 years of age attained a breast screening test camp. On examination there was mobile palpable
breast lump which was painless at upper outer quadrant. The condition is diagnosed as
a) Fibroadenoma
b) Breast cyst
c) Ductal ectasia
d) Peua d’ orange
Ans A. Fibroadenoma
Fibroadenoma is a common benign breast lesion. It is the most common breast mass in the adolescent and young adult
population.
2. Fibroadenomas are sometimes called breast mice or a breast mouse owing to their high mobility in the breast.
3. Symptoms: Painless
• Firm or rubbery
• Mobile
• Solitary-round with distinct, smooth borders
• Found in either one or both breast.
4. IOC: FNAC
5. Mammography popcorn calcification.
Q.248) A female 38 years comes to the clinic for antenatal scan at 12weeks of pregnancy. The scan reveals >
3.5mm nuchal translucency. Ultrasound reveals non ossified nasal bone, the condition is predicted to
cause dementia at muchearlier age
a) Downs syndrome
b) Edwards syndrome
c) Patau syndrome
d) Williams syndrome
Ans. A. Down’s syndrome

1. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in an extra full or partial copy of
chromosome 21.
2. Findings: Intellectual disability, prominent epicanthal folds, duodenal atresia
3. Associated early onset of Alzheimer's disease
B. Edward syndrome
1. Also known as trisomy 18, is a genetic disorder caused by a third copy of all or part of chromosome 18.
2. Features: Microcephaly
Micrognathia
cleft lip/ cleft palate
esophageal atresia
intellectual disability.
3. Edwards' syndrome has no treatment and is usually fatal before birth or within the first year of life

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Q.249) Father of CT scan;

a) Godfre Hounsefield
b) Laterbeur and Mansfield
c) John wild
d) Ion Donald
Ans : A. Godfre Hunsefield

A. Godfre Hounsefield : Father of CT scan
B. Laterbeur and Mansfield : Father of MRI
C. John wild : Father of USG
D. Ion Donald : Father of obstretical USG
Q.250) Half life of Iodine – 123

a) 2.7 day
b) 13.3hours
c) 5.26 years
d) 30years
Ans : B. 13.3 Hours

Half life of radionucleotides :
Gold – 198 : 2.7 days
Iodine 131 : 8 days
Cobalt 60 : 5.26 years
Caesium – 137 : 30years
Radium – 226 : 1620years
Q.251) Mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction cause of vommiting leads to

a) Plummer Vinson syndrome
b) Mallory – weiss syndrome
c) Esophagitis
d) Esophageal strictures
Ans : B. Mallory weiss syndrome

Plummer Vinson syndrome :
Triad of Dysphagia, Iron deficiency and Esophageal webs
Mallory – weiss syndrome :
Usually found in bulimics and alcoholics
Esophagitis :
Associated with reflux and immunocompromised conditins ( candida, )
Esophageal strictures :
Associated with acid reflux
Q.252) Destruction of which area in the hypothalamus leads to hyperphagia

a) Anterior hypothalamus
b) Posterior hypothalamus
c) Lateral area
d) Ventromedial area

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Ans : D. Ventromedial area

Areas in the hypothalamus Function destruction leads to
Lateral area Hunger Anorexia
Ventromedial area Satiety Hyperphagia
Anterior hypothalamus Cooling
Posterior hypothalamus Heating
Suprachiasmatic rhythm Circadian rhythm
Q.253) Lowest frequency of waves in sleep cycle

a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Gamma
d) Delta
Ans : D. Delta
Alpha waves : 8 – 12Hz
Beta waves : 13 – 30Hz
Theta waves : 4 -7 Hz
Gamma waves Highest frequency > 60 waves / sec
Delta waves ( lowest frequency) 1 – 3 Hz
Q.254) Rhomboid or Rosette kidney stones contain

a) Calcium oxalate
b) Calcium phosphate
c) Uric acid
d) Cystine
Ans : C. Uric acid

Calcium stone : Radiopaque, Shaped like envelope or dumbbell
Ammonium magnesium sulphate : Radiopaque , Coffin lid shaped
Uric acid: Radiolucent , Rhomboid or rosette shaped
Cystine : Radiolucent, Hexagonal shaped
Q.255) Obstructive lung disease associated with alpha 1 anti - trypsin deficiency
a) Pink puffers
b) Blue bloaters
c) Asthma
d) Bronchiectasis
Ans : A. Pink puffers

Emphysema : Barrel shaped chest on X – ray.
Blue bloaters: Chronc bronchitis
Asthma :
Charcot leyden crystals and Curschmann spirals are seen
Bronchiectasis :
Poor ciliary motility
Associated with kartagener syndrome and cystic fibrosis
Q.256) Maximum life of a transfused RBC is ?

a) One week
b) 35days
c) 50 days
d) 100days

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Ans : B. 35 days
Shelf life of RBC in packed cells : 5 weeks
Cryoprecipitate is stored at – 40degree celsius
Platelets can be stored for 5 days at ( 20 – 24 degree celsisus)
Half life of factor VIII is 8 – 12hours
Q.257) 257.Epulis generally arises from;

a) Gingiva
b) Enamel
c) Root of teeth
d) Pulp
Ans : A. Gingiva
Q.258) Most common benign salivary gland tumor

a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Warthin’s tumor
c) Mucoepidermoid
d) Adenoid cyst
Ans : A. Pleomorphic adenoma

Most common tumor in male smokers : Warthins tumor
Tumor that producees more of lymph node metastases : Mucoepidermoid cancer.
Most common malignant parotid tumor : Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Stenson’s duct - parotid duct
Wharton’s duct - Submandibular duct
Most common site of stones in salivary gland - submandibular stone
Q.259) Most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction.

a) Jejunal atresia
b) Duodenal atresia
c) Intusussecpetion
d) Malrotation
Ans : B. Duodenal atresia
Q.260) Opoclonus – Myoclons is a phenomenom seen in.

a) Wilm’s tumor
b) Neuroblastoma
c) Menigioma
d) Cortical tuberculoma
Ans : B. Neuroblastoma
Drooping lily sign is seen in Neuroblastoma
Modified shimda classification is used in neuroblastoma
Q.261) Galactogogue;
a) Metoclorpramide
b) Sulpiride
c) Testosterone
d) Carbegonline

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Ans : A. Metoclorpramide
Lactation supressor :
Bromocriptine / Carbegoline
Testosterone
Ethinyl oestradiol
Pyridoxine
Sulpiride
Galactogouges / Lactation stimulators
Stimulation of nipple / Genitals
Metoclopramide
Intranasal Oxytocin
Q.262) Osiander’s sign describes

a) Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices.
b) Softening of fundus
c) The uterus becomes flexible at uterocervical junction
d) Regular and rhythmic contractions felt on bimanual examination
Ans : A. Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices.

Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fornices : Osianders sign
Softening of fundus : Von Fernwald
The uterus becomes flexible at uterocervical junction : Mc Donald sign
Regular and rhythmic contractions felt on bimanual examination : Palmer’s sign
Q.263) Most common organism involved in mastitis

b) Streptococcus
c) Herpes simplex
d) HIV
Ans : A. Staphylocccocus aureus

Maternal infections contraindicated in breast feeding.
Mastitis
Herpes simplex
HIV – in developed countries
Puerperal sepsis
Most common site of infection : placental
Most common causative agent : Streptococcus
Most common mode of spread is direct spread
Q.264) In which week is gestational sac on TVS seen?

a) 4 weeks
b) 5 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 7 weeks
Ans : A. 4 weeks
Visualization TVS TAS
Gestational sac 4 weeks and a half week 5 and a half week
Yolk sac 5 weeks 7 weeks
Cardiac activity 6 weeks 7 weeks

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Q.265) At birth cervix to corpus ratio;

a) 1 :1
b) 1:2
c) 2:1
d) 3:1
Ans : A. 1: 1
CERVIX TO CORPUS RATIO :
Prenarche : 2:1
Post menarche : 1:2
Reproductive life : 1 :3
At birth, menopausal : 1 :1
Q.266) Gynecomastia is seen in;

a) Tuberculosis
b) Leprosy
c) Toxoplasmosis
d) Herpes
Ans : B. Leprosy
Causes of gynecomastia
Excess Estrogen status
Androgen deficiency states
Initiated gynecomastia : Digitalis, Spirinolactone, captopril
Q.267) Most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in India

a) Irradiation
b) Trauma
c) Obstructed labor
d) Gynae surgery
Ans : C. Obstructed labor

Most common urinary fistula : Vesicovaginal fistula
Most common VVF in India : Obstructed labor
Most common cause of Recto vaginal fistula : Cesarean perineal tear
Most common cause of Vesico uterine fistula : Cesarean section
Q.268) Stein Levinthal syndrome belongs to which compartment of primary amenorrhea.

a) Compartment I
b) Compartment II
c) Compartment III
d) Compartment IV
Ans : B. Compartment II
Compartment I : Asherman’s syndrome ( Disorder of uterus )
Compartment II : Stein Levinthal sndrome (Disorder of ovay )
Compartment III : Sheehan’s syndrome ( Pituitary )
Compartment IV : Kallman syndrome (Hypothalamus )

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Q.269) A patient complains of post coital bleed, no growth is seen, on per speculum examination: next step
should be
a) Colposcopy and Biopsy
b) Pap smear
c) Conisation
d) Culdoscopy
Ans : A. Colposcopy biopsy

Investigation protocol for carcinoma cervix :
Post coital bleeding : Pap smear done
If pap smear negative, Per speculum examination performed.
Lesion is present : Punch biopsy done
If Punch biopsy is negative : Colposcopy is performed
No lesion is visible : Colposcopy and biopsy performed.
When no diagnosis established : Conization
Q.270) Meig’s syndome is associated with

a) Teratoma
b) Brenner tumor
c) Theca cell tumor
d) Fibroma
Ans : D. Fibroma
Meig’s syndrome :
Ascites and right sided hydrothorx in association with fibroma of ovary is called as Meig’s syndrome.
Criteria for diagnosis of Meigs Syndrome :
Tumor must be ovarian, solid and benign
Both hydrothorax and ascites must be present
Removal of tumor results in spontaneous and permanent cure
Q.271) Chemoprophylaxis is a prevention of

a) Primordial
b) Primary
c) Secondary
d) Tertiary
Ans : A. Primary
Primordial : Action taken prior to the emergence of risk factors
Primary : Action taken prior to the onset of diseases
Secondary : Action hat haults the progress of disease
Tertiary : Measures taken to reduce disability or impairment
Q.272) Berkesonian bias is a type of

a) Interviewer’s
b) Selection
c) Information
d) Recall bias

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Ans : B. Selection
Interviewer’s bias : Occurs when the interviewer knows the hypothesis and also knows the case.
Berkesonian bias : Different rate of admission to the hospital for people with different diseases
Recall bias :
Cases and control are asked questions about the passed history.
Confounding bias :
Associated with both exposure and disease and is unequally distributed in study and control groups
Q.273) Quarantine is not required for cases suffering from which of the following diseases
a) Avian flu
b) Ebola virus disease
c) Infectious TB
d) Tetanus
Ans : D. Tetanus
Quarantine :
Restriction of freedom of the healthy contacts
Restricted for the longest incubation period of the disease
Q.274) Vaccine not to be frozen

a) BCG
b) Measles
c) OPV
d) DPT
Ans : D. DPT
Combined tripple vaccibne for Diphtheria, Pertusis and Tetanus
Dose : 0.5ml
Route : Intramuscular
Site : Anteo- lateral aspect of thigh
Thiomersal lis used as a preservative in DPT vaccine
Aluminium phosphate is used as a adjuvant in DPT vaccine
Q.275) Management of very severe pnuemonia in a 3year old patient.

a) Ampicillin
b) Amxoycillin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Symptomatic management
Ans : C. chloramphenicol
No pneumonia : Symptomatic mangement
Pneumonia : Amoxycillin is the DOC
Severe pnuemonia : Ampicillin or benzyl penicillin
Very severe pnuemonia : Cloramphenicol
Q.276) In 3rd trimester of pregnancy infected with falciparum malirae treatment advised is
a) Quinine
b) Lumefantrine
c) Chlorquinine
d) ACT therapy

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Ans : D. ACT therapy

In Pregnancy, infected by vivax malariae -
1st trimester : Clorquinone * 3 days
In pregnancy, infected by falciparum malariae
1st trimester - Quinine
2nd and 3rd trimester : ACT therapy
Q.277) Regimen in rabies for post exposure in vaccinated patient;

a) Day 0,3
b) Day 0, 3 ,7, 28
c) Day 0, 7, 21/ 28
d) Day 0,3, 7,14,28
Ans : A. Day 0,3

Day 0,3 : Post exposure in vaccinated
Day 0, 3 ,7, 28 : Updated thai regimen (post exposure )
Day 0, 7, 21/ 28 : Pre exposure prophylaxis
Day 0,3, 7,14,28 : Post exposure
Q.278) Cooling power of air is measured by;

a) Sling psychometer
b) Assmann psychometer
c) Kata thermometer
d) Anemometer
Ans : C. Kata thermometer

Instrument measure
Sling psychometer Humidity
Assmann psychometer Humidity
Dry bulb hygrometer Humidity
Kata thermometer Cooing power of air and low air velocity
Globe thermometer Radiant temperature
Anemometer Air velocity
Q.279) Waste water without human excreta is called as;

a) Sewage
b) Humus
c) Sullage
d) Effluent
Ans : C. Sullage
Sewage : Waste water with human excreta
Sullage: Waste water without human excreta
Q.280) Trends of a event over a period of time is presented by which graph.

a) Frequency polygon
b) Frequency curve
c) Line diagram
d) Scatter diagram

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Ans : C. Line diagram

Frequency polygon : Joining all the midpoints of histogram
Frequency curve : Smooth curve over histogram
Line diagram : Trends of a event over a period of time
Scatter diagram : Relationship between two continous variables
Q.281) In disaster commonly found Vitamin deficiency

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin B1
Ans : A. Vitamin A
Mitigation : Emergency to lessen the effects of pregnancy
Black - Dead or moribund patients
Green – ambulatory patients
Red - high priority
Q.282) Diagnose the condition with the help of X – ray.
a) Tuberculosis
b) Pnuemonia
c) Asthma
d) Pleural effusion
Ans : D. Pleural effusion

Caused by : Congestive heart failure, kidney failure or infection
Symptoms : Coughing, sharp chest pain or shortness of breath
Fluid in the pleural space
Q.283) Identify the condition, with the help of image
a. Keratoconnus
b. Viral keratitis
c. Fungal keratitis
d. Bacterial keratitis

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Ans : B. Viral keratitis
Fungal keratitis :
Necrotic ulcer base.
Satellite lesion
Sterile immune ring
Bacterial keratitis :
Sterile hypopyon
No satellite lesion
Viral keratitis :
Geographic ulcer
Disciform keratitis
Q.284) Identify with the help of image, which carpal bone is fractured
a) Scaphoid
b) Pisiform
c) Lunate
d) Hamate
Ans : A. Scaphoid
Complications of scaphoid fracture :
Complication : avascular necrosis
Symptoms : Pain at the base of the thumb
Cause : Fall on an outstretched arm
Glass holding cast is applied
Pisiform is the smallest carpal bone (peashaped)

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82 | P a g e
Q.285) Muscle attatched to inferior angle of scapula
a) Deltoid
b) Infraspinatous
c) Trapezius
d) Latissimus dorsi
Ans : D. Latissimus dorsi

Actions : Adduction
Antagonist muscle : deltoid and trapezius
Artery supplied : Thoracodorsal branch of subscapular artery
Nerve : thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
Q.286) Patient complains of abdominal pain, pain in joints. On examination palpable purpura are present. Ig A
deposits are present.
a) Churg strauss syndrome

b) Wegner’s granumomatosis
c) Henoch – Schonlein purpura
d) Raynaud’s phenomenon

@ Arise - HYD
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83 | P a g e
Ans : C. Henoch – Schonlein purpura

Most common vasculitis in children
Also known as Anaphylactoid purpura
Churg strauss syndrome : Strong association with allergic rhinitis, bronchial asthma and ecosinophilia.
Raynauds phenomenon :
White to blue to red
Q.287) With the of image identify the fracture
a) Olecranon
b) Lunate
c) Calcaneus
Ans : A olecranon
Fracture of olecranon :
Treatment – Tension band wiring, pen reduction internal fixation.
Olecranon bursitis : Students elbow

@ Arise - HYD
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84 | P a g e
Q.288) Skin infection caused by poxvirus.
a) Molluscum contagiosum
b) Cherry angioma
c) Dermatifibroma
d) Dermatomyositis
Ans : A. Molluscum contagiosum

Cherry angioma
Also known as senile angioma
Benign in nature no treatment required
Dermatofibroma :
Legs most common site
Dimple sign is seen
Q.289) The condition given in the image below is a
a) Lipoma
b) Sebaceous cyst
c) Basal cell carcinoma
d) Pyogenic granuloma

@ Arise - HYD
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85 | P a g e
Ans : A. Lipoma
Most common subcutaneous neoplasm
Also known as universal tumor
Most common site is trunk
Basal cell carcinoma also know as rodent ulcer or tear cancer
Most common type of basal cell carcinoma is nodular
Q.290) Identify the muscle marked with blue arrow.
a) Extensor Hallucis brevis

b) Adductor hallucis
c) Flexor digiti minimi
d) Flexor hallucis brevis
Ans : A. Extensor Hallucis brevis

@ Arise - HYD
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86 | P a g e
Q.291) Identify the muscle given in the image below
a) Teres major
b) Teres minor
c) Latissimus dorsi
d) Anconeus
Ans : Teres minor muscles

Supplied by Axillaery nerve ( C5, C6)
Action : Laterally rotates the arm
Q.292) The instrument given below is used for.
a) Pap smear
b) Skin grafting
c) Bladder trauma
d) Retraction of abdominal muscles
Ans : B. Skin graftion

Humpy’s knife

@ Arise - HYD
@ Arise – Kannur
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87 | P a g e
Q.293) The condition given below is
a) Sebaceous cyst
b) Lipoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Basal cell carcinoma
Ans : A. Sebaceous cyst

Also known as epidermal cyst.
Cyst wall consists of epidermis
Lipoma :Most common subcutaneous neoplasm
Also known as universal tumor
Most common site is trunk
Q.294) Anomaly given below is
a) Spina bifida
b) Omphalocele
c) Gastrochisis
d) Choriocarcinoma

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88 | P a g e
Ans : A. Spina Bifida

Levela of AFP are elevated in amniotic fluid.
Omphalocele :
Protruding organs are typically covered by a thin aminopritoneal membrane.
Gastrochisis :
No sac or membrane covering the herniated organs.
ASSOCIATED WITH HIGHER LEVELS OF AFP THAN OMPHALOCELE
Q.295) Condition give below is
a) Aphthous ulcer
b) Marjolins ulcer
c) Rodent ulcer
d) Tear ulcer
Ans : B. Marjolins ulcer

Aggressive ulcerative squamous cell carcinoma, taking place at a traumatized site
Q.296) Identify the instrument
a) Landon blade retractor

b) Cusco’s speculum
c) Right angle retractor
d) Tongue blade
Ans : C. Tongue blade

Used to depress the tongue

@ Arise - HYD
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Q.297) Organism causing the condition is
b) Streptococcus pneumonia
c) Klebsiella
d) Psudomonas
Ans : A. Staphlococcus aurues

Bacteria produces a exfoliative toxin.
Bacteria also causes toxic shock sndrome
Furuncles, carbuncle
Q.298) Patient has a butterfly rash and is photosensitive
a) Erysipelas
b) Erysepeloid
c) SLE
d) Parvovirus infection

@ Arise - HYD
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90 | P a g e
Ans : C. SLE
Erysipelas : Acute cutaneous bacterial infection involving superficial lymphatics.
Erysepeloid :
Caused by Erysiplothrix.
Presenting as painful, tender erythrematous lesion
Ecthyma : Caused by pseudomonas
Q.299) The given skin disorder is
a) Psoriasis
b) Lichen planus
c) Pityriasis versicolor
d) Pityriasis rubra
Ans : A. Psoriasis
It is a scaling disorder
Strong association with HLA Cw6
In psoriatic arthritis : HLA B27 is positive
Q.300) Condition given below is
a) Penile cancer
b) Chancre
c) Chancroid
d) Fordyce spots
Ans : D. Fordyce spots
Fox – fordyce spots : on lips
Tyson gland : penis
Meibomian glans : Eyes
Montomometry tubercles : Breast

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Date: 25th, January
91 | P a g e

Mock - 4 Question & Explanations 300

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Mock - 4 Question & Explanations 300

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ARISE MEDICAL ACADEMY MOCK EXAM 4

MOCK EXAM 4 – FMGE SIMULATOR DECEMBER 2019

Q.1) Drug of choice for Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aures;

Ans : D. Tetanus (Killed vaccine)

Ans : B. Staphylococcus aureus

Regular Batch for FMGE

Caused due to consumption of Honey.

Q.4) Which of the following is determining factor for severity of TOF ?

Ans : Pulmonary stenosis

Q.5) Most common cause of blindness in India ?

Q.7) How much weight is gained in pregnancy ?

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.8) As per WHO, how much is the sodium concentration in ORS?

Ans : A. 2.6 grams

Q.9) Which type of Anemia is seen in Rheumatoid arthritis ?

Ans : A. Normocytic normochromic anemia

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.11) Most common tumor of anterior mediastinum;

Q.12) Most common cancer metastasizing to brain;

Q.13) According to WHO, what is the normal sperm concentration

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.14) Which of the following is most potent anti – oxidant

Q.15) I/V anesthesia which is used in day care surgery

Q.16) How much population is covered under a PHC in plain area

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.17) Evisceration involves removal of all coats EXCEPT

Ans : A. Sclera and extra ocular muscles

Q.18) Transport media of salmonella

Ans : A. Buffered glycerol saline

Q.19) Abductor of hip joint

Ans : B. Gluteus minimus

Q.20) Maximum content of vitamin A is found in;

Regular Batch for FMGE

Ans : A. Halibut liver oil

Q.21) Deficiency of which vitamin causes Wernicke Encephalopathy?

Pantothenic acid (Vit B5) Deficiency causes :

Q.22) Enzyme deficient in maple syrup urine disease;

Ans : A. Alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase

Q.23) Calories required in a lactating women during first six months;

Regular Batch for FMGE

Ans : C 600kcal/ day

Q.24) Causative agent of dengue;

Ans : A. Aedes mosquito

Q.25) Which of the following is a hypersensitivity type II reaction?

Ans : A. Pernicious anemia

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.26) In India, vision 2020 includes all the diseases EXCEPT

Ans : B. Increase TIBC

Q.28) Acute rejection of graft;

Ans : B. Weeks to months

Q.29) Vitamin that helps iron absorption;

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.30) Most abundant amino acid found in collagen;

Q.31) PDH – 5 complex relates to all EXCEPT;

Q.32) Abductor of vocal cord :

Ans : D. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.33) Most parasympathetic action is seen by which cranial nerve

Q.34) Antidepressant drug which is used for smoking cessation;

Q.35) In adult, lumbar puncture is performed safely at which level?

Regular Batch for FMGE

Q.36) Which enzyme is inhibited by fluoride?

Q.37) Nitric oxide is derived from which amino acid;