1) Which of the following are
prevalent in rural areas of Sri
Lanka?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Necator americanus
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Strogyloides stercoralis
a) A, B, D b) A, B, E c)
B, C d) B,E e) B, C,
D
2) Which of the following parasitic
infections are diagnosed by
demonstration of characteristic
eggs in stool samples?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Necator americanus
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Trichinella spiralis
E. Strogyloides stercoralis
a) A, B, C b) A, B,
C, D c)A, B, C, Ed) A, D,
E e) B, C, E
3) Which of the following is true?
a) Loeffler’s syndrome occurs
due to obstruction by
Ascaris lumbricoides
worms.
A project by MSWSPage 11
b) Albendazole is the main
drug used in all intestinal
roundworm infections.
c) Oral iron replacement is
required in Trichinella
spiralis infections.
d) Trichinell spiralis females
reproduce by
parthenogenesis.
e) Autoinfection can occur in
Strongyloides stercoralis
infestations.
4) Which of the following is true?
a) Trichuris trichiura inhabits
the duodenum and
jejunum.
b) The lemon-shaped eggs of
Enterobius vermicularis
contain two translucent
polar prominences.
c) Posterior end of Trichuris
trichiura is embedded in
the mucosa.
d) Low iron intake is a cause
of anaemia in Trichuris
trichiura infections.
e) Rectal prolapse is a
common complication of
Enterobius vermicularis
infections.
5) Which is true?
a) All the segments of Taenia
saginata are of equal
length.
b) Taenia solium inhabits the
large intestine.
c) Clinical features of Taenia
solium infections are
mainly due to the adult
parasite.
d) Symptoms of Echinococcus
granulosus infections are
mainly due to the adult
parasite.
e) Humans are the
intermediate hosts of
Hymenolepis diminuta life
cycle.
6) Which of following is false?
a) Taenia saginata and Taenia
solium proglottids can be
observed in stool samples.
b) Both Taenia solium and
Taenia saginata have four
suckers in their scolex.
 c) Adult tapeworms do not
cause any symptoms of
significance.
d) Echinococcus granulosus
infections are diagnosed by
demonstration of eggs in
stool samples.
e) Hymenolepis species
inhabit the small intestine.
7) Which of the following is false?
a) Humans are the only
natural hosts of Entamoeba
histolytica.
b) Entamoeba histolytica and
Entamoeba dispar are
morphologically identical.
c) Entamoeba dispar causes
mucosal invasion in
patients with AIDS.
d) Entamoeba histolytica
doesn’t cause any
symptoms in most
individuals.
e) Entamoeba histolytica can
be transmitted by oral and
anal sex.
8) Which of the following is true?
A project by MSWSPage 12
a) Invasion of the liver by
Balantidium coli can cause
liver abcesses.
b) Entamoeba histolytica
trophozoites contain a
large macronucleus and a
small micronucleus.
c) Balantidium coli is the only
flagellated human parasite.
d) Entamoeba histolytica cysts
cannot be differentiated
from Entamoeba coli cysts.
e) Acute dysentery is a
clinical feature of
Balantidium coli infections.
9) Which of the following is false
regarding Giardia lamblia ?
a) Inhabits the upper small
intestine.
b) Invasion of gut wall causes
blood and mucus
diarrhoea.
c) The oval-shaped cyst is
binucleated.
d) Fat malabsorption is a
feature of chronic
infections.
e) Replicates by longitudinal
binary fission.
10) Which of the following is false
regarding Cryptosporidium
parvum ?
a) Stool samples may contain
cysts.
b) It causes severe infections
in immunocompromised
patients.
c) Its infections are
transmitted by
contaminated food.
d) Its infections lead to
decrease in brush-border
enzymes.
e) Its infections are
self-limiting.
11) Which of the following is/ are
true regarding Trichomonas
vaginalis ?
A. Transmitted from mother
to baby via the placenta.
B. Cysts can be observed in a
wet-smear of vaginal
discharge in infected
females.
C. Found in the prostate
gland of the males.
 a) A b) A, B
c) A, C d) C
B a. Loa loa
12)Which one of the following
resembles the non flagellated
human parasite, found mostly
inside a macrophage?
a. Balantidium coli
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Giardia Lamblia
d. Leishmania tropica
e. Wuchereria bancrofti
13). What is the parasite most
likely to be transmitted by tsetse
fly?
a. Loa loa
b. Trypanosoma
c. Leishmania
d. Yersinapestis
e. Rickettsia
14) Inhalation is a route of
transmission for
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Ascaris eggs
c. Cryptosporidium parvum
d. Toxoplasma gondii
e. Leishmania
A project by MSWSPage 13
15) River blindness is most likely
e) caused by
b. Brugia malay
c. Onchocerce volvulus
d. Wucheraria bancrofti
e. Brugia timori
16) Which of the following is not a
resultant of acute filarial disease?
a. Lymphangitis
b. Chyluria
c. Adenolymphangitis
d. Funiculitis
e. Epididymo orchitis
17) Which of the followingis not true?
a. Temephos and fenithion are used
to eradicate Culex.
b. simple hygienic methods are
induced in the global elimination
programme of lymphatic
filariasis.
c. Loiasis is caused by eye worm.
d. The characteristic features of
Onchocerca is blindness and
itching.
e. Black flies are vectors for
Diarofilaria spp.
18) Dot and Dash appearance is a
characteristic feature of,
a. Malaria parasites
b. Leishmanial parasites
c. Toxoplasma gonidii
d. Tryponima pallidum
e. Plasmodium falciparum
19) Which of the following is true
regarding malaria?
a) It affects erythrocytes and all cells in
the liver.
b) Anopheles culicifacies is the
intermediate host of P.vivax.
c) Sometimes P.vivax and P.falciparum
can affect the same person.
d) P.falciparum causes malignant
quartan malaria.
e) Its clinical manifestations are partly
due to damage to erythrocytes and
partly due to damage to hepatocytes.
20) Which of the following is false
regarding the life cycle of P.vivax?
a) Sporogony takes place in the
mosquito.
b) Infective stage is the sporozoite.
c) Merozoites infect RBCs.
d) Schizons are present both in RBCs
and hepatocytes.
d ) Dormant hypnocytes in the RBCs
reactivate to cause relapses of malaria.
21) Which of the following comparisons
of the life cycles of P.vivax and
P.falciparum is true?
P.vivax
P.falciparum
a)Longer hepatic phase
b)Merozoites invade all stages of
erythrocytes
c)Maurer’s clefts are seen in infected
RBCs.
d)Gametocytes are crescent shaped.
e)erythrocytes are macrocytic.
22)
A - Sporozoites of P.vivax enter the
body via the proboscis of the mosquito.
B – Diagnosis of P.falciparum can be
easily done by examining a peripheral
blood
sample.
C – In P.falciparum infections more
than one parasite may infect a single
hepatocyte.
D – The hepatic phase of the life cycle
of P.falciparum continues as long as the
infection lasts.
Which of the following gives the correct
combination of the false statements?
A project by MSWSPage 14
a)A
b)A,C,D
c)B,C,D
d)C,D
e)All
23).Which of the following is true
regarding leishmaniasis?
a)Vector is the black fly.
b)Amastigote is the infective stage.
c)Both amastigotes and promastigotes
have the ability to multiply.
d)Amastigotes multiply in the
neutrophils.
e)Skin lesions of cutaneous
leishmaniasis occur mostly as groups.
24) Which of the following is false
regarding leishmaniasis?
a) Volcanic lesions occur in cutaneous
leishmaniasis.
b) L. donovani complex is the main
cause of Kalar-azar in Sri Lanka.
c) Post kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis
can occur in some patients.
d) Diagnosis can be made by
demonstrating promastigotes in a blood
film.
e) The vector is active during dusk and
night.
25).Which of the following is true
regarding filariasis?
a) Humans are the intermediate hosts.
b) The adult worms reproduce and the
females lay eggs, from which
microfilaria larvae emerge.
c) A few bites by an infected vector will
cause filariasis in humans.
d) Culex quinquifasciatus is an
anthropophilic mosquito.
e) The drugs used for the treatment of
filariasis target the adult worms only.
26) Which of the following is false
regarding filariasis?
a) Lymphatic obstruction is due to
inflammatory reactions.
b) Elephantiasis cannot be improved by
any kind of treatment.
c) A disadvantage in antibody tests is
its poor specificity.
d) A chest X-ray of the individual with
tropical pulmonary eosinophilia will
have a “snow flake” appearance.
e) Oviposition by the vector is
prevented by using polystyrene beads
to cover water surfaces.
27) Which of the following is false
regarding toxoplasmosis?
a) Definitive host is the cat.
b) It can be contracted by inhalation of
oocysts.
c) Parasites invades enterocytes and
multiply there.
d) Choriorectinitis is the most common
sequelae of congenital toxoplasmosis.
e) Diagnosis is easily done by
demonstrating the parasite in a blood
film.
28) Which of the following is true
regarding malaria?
a) Quartan malaria is caused by
Plasmodium falciparum
b) Coma in Plasmodium falciparum
is due to sequestration
c) Rossette formation can be is seen
in Plasmodium vivax.
d) Mild splenomegaly is not a sign
of malaria.
e) Does not cause placental venous
congestion.
29) Which of the following is true
regarding malaria?
a) People who haven,t got duffy
blood group antigenare more
predisposed falciparum malaria.
b) Antibody detection can be used
to diagnose acute malaria.
c) Development of immunity
against malaria infection is only
seen in the presence of stable
transmission.
d) To exclude a patient from
malaria infection single blood
sample is sufficient.
A project by MSWSPage 15
e) Anopheles culicifacies ai
considered as an efficient vector
of Plasmodium vivax.
30) Each of the following statements
concerning Toxaplasma gondii is
correct except,
a) T. gondii can be transmitted
across the placenta to the fetus.
b) T. gondii can be transmitted by
cat faeces.
c) T. gondii can cause encephalitis
in immunocompromised
patients.
d) T. gondii can be diagnosed by
finding trophozoites in stool.
e) Risk of congenital transmission
by infection during pregnancy
increases with progression of
pregnancy.
31) Each of the following statements
concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is
correct except,
a) T. vaginalis is transmitted
sexually.\
b) T. vaginalis can be diagnosed by
visualizing trophozoite.
c) T. vaginalis be effectively treated
with metronidazole.
d) T. vaginali causes bloody
diarrhea.
e) Vertical transmission can occur
durin delivery.
32)Regarding mosquitoes
a) Mansonia sp. is the vector for
yellow fever
b) Adult aedes mosquitoes are jet
black in colour, with a silvery
marking on the dorsum of the
thorax
c) Culex quenquefasciatus are
the vectors for subcutaneous
filariasis
d) Anopheles culicifacies adults
can be recognized by the ‘salt
and pepper’ appearance on
their wings
e) The ideal breeding site of an
Aedes mosquito contains
stagnant, polluted water.
33) Regarding flies
a) House fly causes myiasis
b) Sandfly only acts as a vector
for leishmaniasis
c) ‘Hatchet cell’ on the wing is a
characteristic feature of sand
fly
d) Sleeping sickness is
transmitted by house fly.
e) When at rest, the sandfly
wings are kept over one
 another, while tsetse fly wings
are kept erect
34)Which of the following is false
regarding arthropods
a) Hard ticks are vectors for
several medically important
diseases, including tick born
typhus.
b) Pubic louse and body louse
have different morphology,
but they both reside on human
body
c) Anopheles adult mosquito lies
at 450 angle
d) Phlebotomus has its head bent
acutely down
e) Lice are dorsoventrally
flattened whereas fleas are
laterally flattened.
35) Regarding snakes,
a) Ceylon krait is a moderately
venomous snake found in Sri
Lanka
b) One of the hooded snakes
found in Sri Lanka is the
Ceylon cobra.
c) Saw scaled viper has a
characteristic ‘Bird’s foot’
marking on the head
d) Russell’s viper attacks(bites)
are not common in Sri Lanka
A project by MSWSPage 16
e) Both rat snake and python are
slightly venomous snakes
36)Regarding snakes,
a) Both Russell’s viper and
python have almost identical
appearance
b) Both sea snake and fresh
water snakes are non
venomous harmless snakes
c) Vasculotoxins are not found in
snake venom but neurotoxis
are commonly found in it
d) Green pit viper has a black
strip running from the eye to
the jaw on each side
e) Ceylon wolfsnake is deadly
poisonous, and contributes to
the highest number of fatal
snake bites in Sri Lanka
37) Which of the following
statements is false regarding
snakes in Sri Lanka?
a) Naja naja (cobra) accounts
for most of the deaths due
to snakebites.
b) Only a minority of the
people who get bitten by
snakes go to a hospital to
receive proper treatment.
c) Vipers are back fanged
snakes.
d) Venom producing glands of
snakes are modified sweat
glands.
e) The python kills its prey by
coiling around it and
crushing it to death.
38) Which of the following
statements is true regarding
vipers?
a) They are usually long and
slender.
b) Their heads are oval in
shape.
c) Their venom is mainly
vasculotoxic.
d) They can be differentiated
from elapids from the
location of fangs in the
mouth.
e) They have Duvernoy’s
glands.
39) Which of the following is
false regarding identification of
snakes?
a) The saw scaled viper has a
bird foot mark on its head.
b) The Ceylon wolf snake is
often mistaken for the Sri
Lankan krait.
 c) The green pit viper has a
black stripe extending from
the eye to the angle of the
jaw.
d) The Russell’s viper has
three rows of dark brown
spots on its body.
e) The rat snake has lung
shaped markings on its
head.
40) Which of the following is
true regarding the first aid
given to a person bitten by a
snake?
a) The limb should be
splintered to prevent blood
from reaching the affected
part.
b) Alcohol is not given as it
increases the absorption of
venom.
c) King coconut water can be
given to dilute the venom
in the blood.
d) Aspirin can be given to
reduce the pain.
e) A tourniquet is used to
reduce the blood flow to
the affected part so that
venom absorption would
be reduced.
Answers
A project by MSWSPage 17
1) d 2) a 3) e 4) d 5) b 6) d 7) c 8) e 9) b
10) a 11) d 12) d 13) b 14) d 15) c 16) b
17) e 18) b 19) c 20) d 21) 22) 23) c 24)
d 25) d 26) b 27) e 28) b 29) c 30) d 31)
d 32) b 33) 34) b 35) c 36) d 37) a 38) b
39) e 40) b
Microbiology
1) Regarding spirochetes,
a) They are all gram positive
rods
b) Can be made visible by
staining with heavy metals
c) Cultures are used for
diagnosis
d) Borrelia’s one or both ends
are hooked
e) Gonnorrhea is caused by
spirochetes
2) Regarding syphilis
a) Primary syphilis becomes
secondary syphilis in 2-4
weeks
b) Chancres are painful, usually
a single ulcer
c) Lesions of secondary syphilis
is highly infectious
d) To heal the chancre
medication is essential
e) Treponema can infect the fetus
only during child birth
3) WOF is false regarding Human
Papilloma virus?
a) It is a non enveloped ssDNA
virus
b) Some types of HPV are
associated with malignancies
c) Most important
characteristics of HPV
pathogenesis is its specificity
for epithelial cells
d) Condyloma acuminata are the
warts formed in genitalia
e) Recurrence can occur when
treated with liquid nitrogen
therapy
4) Regarding Neisseria gonorrhoeae,
a) The organism lives as a
commensal in the female
genital tract
b) Most of the infected females
are symptomatic
c) Urethritis is the major
manifestation in females
d) Is resistant to drying
e) Some strains produce
penicillinase
5) HIV,
a) Is a virus of picorna viridae
b) Is non enveloped
 c) HIV 1 is the most common
strain
d) Cannot be transmitted by
breast feeding
e) Incubation period is between
6-8 weeks
6) Which of the following is not true for
Herpes viruses?
a) HSV 1 is shed in saliva
b) Herpes viruses become latent
in the sensory ganglion cells
c) Neonatal herpes caused by
HSV 2 is chiefly from the
contact with vesicular lesions
within the birth canal, so
prevented by forming cesarian
section
d) HSV 2 virus is shed in the
genital secretions from time to
time, especially during
intercourse
e) Vesicles of genital herpes are
shallow, painless ulcers
7) Regarding vaginitis,
a) Normal flora of the vagina
doesnot vary throughout the
lifetime
b) Vaginal discharge can be only
caused by vaginitis
A project by MSWSPage 18
c) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
(VVC) usually is not
transmitted sexually
d) VVC is a rare condition
among females
e) Vaginal discharge is quite
watery in VVC
8) Chlamydia,
a) They are obligate intracellular
organisms
b) Chlamydia psittaci is a species
of genus Chlamydia
c) Those causing
lymphogranuloma venarum
has 14 serotypes (A-K)
d) Immunity is complete so
reinfection is uncommon
e) Exist in the form of
elementary bodies which are
intracellular pathogens
9) Clinical manifestations of known
sexually transmitted diseases do not
include
a) Chondyloma lata
b) Chanchroids
c) Wart like lesions
d) Mucopapular rashes
e) Koplik spots
10) Regarding bacterial vaginosis,
a) There is a low concentration
of anaerobic bacteria
b) Mainly caused by gram
negative rods
c) Has a thick, malodorous white
discharge
d) Presence of clue cells on
microscopy confirms
diagnosis
e) Gardnerella are curved rods
11) Which of the following is true
regarding Pharyngitis?
a) It is not usually caused by a
virus
b) Always benefits from
antibiotic treatment
c) Of bacterial origin can be
distinguished from viral
pharygitis on clinical signs
alone
d) Can lead to
glomerulonephritis
e) Can be caused by
streptococcus group B
12) Common cold cannot be caused by,
a) Coronavirus
b) Epstein-Barr virus
c) Parainfluenza virus
d) Respiratory syncitial virus
e) Rhinovirus
13) Which of the following virulence
factors is common to Neisseria, S.
pneumoniae and H. influenzae?
a) β lactamases
b) IgA proteases
c) Lipopolysaccharide
d) Protein A
e) Protein G
14) Each of the following statements
concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis
is correct except,
a) After being stained with
carbolfuchsin, M. tuberculosis
resists decolouration with acid
alcohol
b) M. tuberculosis has a large
amount of mycolic acid in its
call wall
c) Appears as a red rod in gram
stained specimens
d) M. tuberculosis appears as a
red rod in acid fast stained
specimens
e) Resistant to drying
15) The most important way the host
circumvents the function of
pneumococcal polysaccharide capsule
is via,
a) T lymphocytes sensitized to
polysacchride antigens
A project by MSWSPage 19
b) Polysacchrides degrading
enzymes
c) Anticapsular antibody
d) Activated macrophages
e) cytokines
16) Which of the following is most
likely to be the cause of pneumonia in
an immunocompromised patient?
a) Norcardia asteroids
b) Serratia marcescens
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Legionella pneumophilia
e) Non capsulated Haemophilus
influenzae
17) Which one is the most frequent
bacterial cause of Pharyngitis?
a) Streptococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Neisseria meningitis
e) Haemophilus influenzae
18) Each of the following statements
concerning Mycobacterium leprae is
correct except,
a) In lepromatous leprosy, large
numbers of organisms are
usually seen in acid fast
stained smears
b) Organism will grow on
bacteriologic media in 3-6
weeks
c) Prolonged therapy (9 months
of longer) is required to
prevent recurrence
d) Skin tests for delayed
hypersensitivity are useful
diagnostically
e) Organisms multiply in
macrophages
19) A 6 month year old child develops a
persistent cough and a fever, Physical
examination and chest x-ray suggest
pneumonia. Which of the following
organisms is least likely to cause this
infection?
a) Respiratory syncytial virus
b) Adenovirus
c) Parainfluenza virus
d) Rotavirus
e) Streptococcus pneumoniae
20) Which of the following viruses/
groups of viruses is the most common
cause of croup?
a) Rhinoviruses
b) Enteroviruses
c) Respiratory syncytial virus
d) Parainfluenza virus
e) Coronaviruses
21)Which of the following is the most
common lower respiratory pathogen in
infants?
a) Respiratory syncytial virus
b) Adenovirus
c) Rhinovirus
d) Coxsackievirus
e) Rotavirus
22)Which of the following is false
regarding Streptococcus pyogenes,
a) Infection can be followed by
glomerulonephrits
b) Is a common cause of meningitis
in children
c) Can be isolated from pharyngeal
swabs of children
d) Produce exotoxins
e) Are ß haemolytic on blood agar
23)Which of the following is false
regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
a) Usually grows slowly
b) Non sporing and non capsulated
bacteria.
c) Motile
d) Cause chronic inflammation
e) Diagnosed by Ziehl-Neelsen stain
24)Which of the following are paired
incorrectly?
a) Toxic Shock Syndrome –
Streptococcus pyogenes
A project by MSWSPage 20
b) Otitis media – Streptococcus
pneumoniae
c) Atypical pneumonia – Legionella
pneumophila
d) Typical pneumonia –
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e) Epiglottitis – Haemophilus
influenzae
25) Which of the following
is incorrect?
a) Haemophilus influenzae is
susceptible to freezing
b) Haemophilus influenzae type b is
the most virulent serotype
c) Chlamydia can cause pneumonia
d) Slit skin smear is used to
diagnose tuberculosis
e) Mycobacteriujm leprae damages
sensory nerve fibres
26) Which of the following is correct,
regarding Mycobacterium
tuberculosis,
a) Can be cultured on Lowenstein
Jenson medium.
b) Human carriers are considered
as the main source of pathogen.
c) Inactivated Mycobacterium bovis
bacteria is given as the BCG
vaccine.
d) Mantoux reaction used to detect
tuberculosis is due to type II
hypersensitivity reaction.
e) In tuberculoid meningitis protein
level is markedly reduced in CSF.
27) The most important protective
function of the antibody stimulated by
tetanus immunization is,
a) To opsonize the pathogen
b) To prevent growth of the
pathogen
c) To prevent adherence of the
pathogen
d) To neutralize the toxin of the
pathogen
e) To inactivate the invasive
enzymes of the pathogen
28) The most important contribution
of the capsule of Streptococcus
pneumoniae to virulence is
a) To prevent dehydration of the
organism on mucosal surface
b) To retard phagocytosis by
polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
c) To inhibit the
polymorphonuclear leukocyte
chemotaxis
d) To accelerate tissue invasion by
its collagenase activity
 e) Release of its autolysin resulting
the lysis of host cells
29) Three organisms, Streptococcus
pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitides and
Haemophillus influenzae cause the vast
majority of cases of bacterial
meningitis. What is the most important
pathogenic component they share?
a) Protein A
b) Capsule
c) Endotoxin
d) ß- lactamase
e) Endospore
30) Each of the following statements
concerning Neisseria is correct except,
a) They are gram negative
diplococci
b) They produce IgA protease as a
virulence factor.
c) They are oxidase positive
d) They grow best under anaerobic
conditions
e) Pathogenic species are ciliated
31) Which of the following organisms
causes meningitis in
immunocompromised patients and
neonates?
a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b) Listeria monocytogens
c) Bacillus anthracis
A project by MSWSPage 21
d) Clostridium botulinum
e) Streptococcus pyogenes
32) Which of the following is a
coccobacillary gram- negative rod that
is an important cause of meningitis in
young children?
a) Bacteriodes fragilis
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Chlamydia pneumoniae
e) Niesseria meningitidis
33) Each of the following statements
regarding poliovirus and its vaccine are
correct except,
a) Poliovirus is transmitted by feco-
oral route
b) Pathogenesis by poliovirus
primarily involves the death of
sensory neurons.
c) The live, attenuated vaccine,
which contains three serotypes, is
recommended for use in children.
d) An unimmunised adult traveling
to under- developed countries
should receive the inactivated
vaccine.
e) Live attenuated vaccine produces
both IgG and IgA mediated
immunity.
34) Which of the following statements
concerning viral meningitis and viral
encephalitis is correct?
a) Herpes simplex virus type 2 is the
leading cause of viral meningitis.
b) Herpes simplex virus type 1 is an
important cause of viral
encephalitis.
c) The spinal fluid protein is usually
decreased in viral meningitis.
d) The diagnosis of viral meningitis
can be made by using the India
ink stain on sample of spinal
fluid.
e) Japanese encephalitis virus is
double stranded RNA virus.
35) Which of the following viruses is
most likely to be a causative agent of
encephalitis?
a) Yellow fever virus
b) Rabies virus
c) Rotavirus
d) Rubella virus
e) Rhinovirus
36) Which of the following is true
regarding meningitis?
a) Viral meningitis has a high rate
of mortality.
b) Blood culture is of very little
value in diagnosis of meningitis.
 c) CSF sample resulting from
bacterial meningitis is turbid.
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a
common cause for neonatal
meningitis.
e) In viral meningitis CSF glucose
level is markedly reduced.
37) Which of the following is
true of Haemophilus
influenzae?
a) Invasive infections are most
commonly are commonly
associated with encapsulated
strains.
b) Most invasive infections occur in
infants during the neonatal
period.
c) Most human infections are
acquired from domestic pets.
d) The organism can be readily
cultured on sheep blood agar in
an environment of elevated CO2.
e) Older adults are rarely at risk for
infection with this organism
because they typically have a
high level of immunity.
A project by MSWSPage 22
38) The majority if UTIs are caused
by,
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Enterococcus feacalis
c) Proteus mirabilis
d) Escherichia coli
e) Klebsiella pneumoniae
39) A- Klebsiella colonies are mucoid.
B- Swarming motility is
characteristic of Pseudomonas
aeruginosa.
C- Proteus mirabilis has urease
activity.
Which of the following gives the
correct combination of the true
statements out of the ones
mentioned above?
a) A,B,C
b) A,C
c) B
d) B,C
e) All statements are false
40) Which of the following statements
is false regarding Serratia marcescens?
a) Causes nosocomial infections
b) Produces lipase, gelatinase and
DNAse
c) They are gram negative rods
d) Are motile
e) Produce pyocyanin pigment
41) A patient who came to the OPD of
NHSL was diagnosed as having an
UTI. A urine sample was sent to the
microbiology lab for further
investigations. After receiving the
report, the OPD doctor recommended
a scan for renal calculi. Which of the
following could have been the organism
responsible for the UTI?
a) Pseudomonas aerugonosa
b) Proteus mirabilis
c) Serratia marcescens
d) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
e) Candida spp
42) Which of the following
statements is false?
a) Proteus mirabilis is a
facultative anaerobe.
b) The most common infection of
Klebsiella pneumoniae is
urinary tract infection.
 c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Transmitted by faecally
colonies produce a distinct contaminated food and
sweet smell. water.
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is C. Difficult to diagnose
resistant to a large range of clinically, before rashes
antibiotics. appear.
D. Maculopapular rashes can
e) Serratia marcescens can cause
be seen on trunk and limbs.
catheter associated
a) A,B,D b)B,C,D c)
bacteremia.
A,C,D, d)A,D, e)all
of the above
43) An elderly man, hospitalized and
recovering from cardiac bypass
45) Regarding Rubella and
surgery, develops pneumonia. Rubella virus.
Sputum culture reveals a gram- E. It is a RNA virus.
negative rod that produces a green F. Subclinical state in
47) What is the most correct
pigment but does not ferment pregnancy during first
carbohydrates. The most likely trimester doesn’t infect the
foetus.
organism is,
G. Effective vaccines are
a) Klebsiella pneumonia
polyvalent, related to its
b) Serratia species
numerous serotypes.
c) Proteus species
H. In congenital rubella IgG
d) Enterobacter species antibodies in the baby’s
e) Pseudomonas aeruginosa blood are tested.
I. It can be transmitted by
direct contact.
44) What are the true
a) A,E b)B,E c) B,C
statements regarding the d)A,B,E e)B,C,D
measles virus and measles?
A. It has a single serotype.
A project by MSWSPage 23
46) What is the most correct
statement regarding
Varicella-Zoster?
a) The virus is non-enveloped.
b) Primary infection can be
followed by a latent period.
c) Transmission doesn’t occur
before the rashes appear.
d) Varicella zoster virus
remains latent only in
spinal sensory ganglion.
e) Varicella Zoster
Immunoglobin shouldn’t
be given to pregnant
women.
response regarding the
immunity towards the Varicella
zoster virus?
a) Chicken pox is sporadic
and occurs only in
immunocompromissed
states.
b) Antibodies induced by
Varicella vaccine decreases
after 5 years.
c) It doesn’t down regulates
MHC class I and II
molecules.
d) Herpes Zoster is usually
bilateral in a single
dermatome.
 e) Increases in Varicella
antibody titre may occur in
patients with HSV
infection.
48) What is the false statement
regarding Dengue virus?
a) It is an Arbovirus.
b) Its incubation period is
approximately 4 days.
c) The risk of the
haemorrhagic fever
syndrome is about 0.2%
during first dengue
infection, but two folds
higher during infection
with second dengue
serotype.
d) Vector mosquito remains
able to transmit dengue for
its entire life after
infection.
e) Virus multiplies in the
salivary glands of the
mosquito.
49) What are the true
statements regarding the
epidemiology of Dengue?
J. It is the most important
mosquito borne viral
A project by MSWSPage 24
disease of past but not
recently.
K. Dengue haemorrhagic
fever is a leading cause of
childhood death in several
Asian Countries.
L. In urban Countries Dengue
epidemics are explosive
and involve appreciable
portions of population.
M.They often start during the
rainy season.
a) A,D, b)B,C,D c)
C,D, d)A,B,C, 5)all of
the above
52)
50) True statement regarding
Chikungunya.
a) Causative virus is a DNA
virus.
b) Has an incubation period
approximately 2 weeks.
c) Can cause Arthralgia and
Arthritis affecting joints.
d) Antibody tests are not
useful, as the level is very
low.
e) Can be prevented by
proper cooking of poultry
food products.
51) False statement regarding
morphology and culture of
Leptospirae
a) One or both ends are
hooked.
b) Actively motile, best seen
using a darkfield
microscope.
c) Can be impregnated with
silver.
d) Grow best under anaerobic
conditions.
e) Can survive for weeks in
water.
Correct statements
regarding Leptospirae.
N. Transmitted through the
intact skin, abrasions and
mucous membrane.
O. Leptospirae establish in
parenchymatous organs,
producing haemorrhage
and necrosis.
P. Human urine may contain
spirochetes in the second
and third weeks of the
disease.
a) B,C b) A.B c)
A,C d) C e) all of the
above
 53) Regarding rotaviruses;
a) Rotavirus is the
commonest cause of
childhood diarrhoea.
b) Is a DNA virus.
c) Mode of transmission is
inhalation of virus
particles.
d) Infect and damage the
epithelial cells of large
intestine.
e) Cause blood and mucous
diarrhoea.
54) In the intestine,
a) Clostridium defficile is an
opportunistic pathogen.
b) Vibrio cholera invades the
epithelium.
c) Oral antibiotic therapy has
no effects on normal flora.
d) Shigella dysenteriae causes
watery diarrhoea.
e) Prominent bacteria are
aerobes.
55) In diarrhoea,
a) Rectal swab is the best
sample to collect.
b) Sterile container is
required for collection of
stools.
A project by MSWSPage 25
c) Shigella dysenteriae need
very higher number of
organisms to cause
diarrhoea.
d) Food history is not useful
for clinical diagnosis.
e) Sometimes culture methods
are used for diagnosis.
56) Each of the following agents is
recognised causes of diarrhoea
except;
a) Clostridium difficile
b) Enterococcus faecalis
c) Escherichia coli
d) Vibrio cholera
e) Shigella dysenteriae
57) Thirty-year-old patient has
bloody diarrhoea for past fourteen
hours. Which of the following
organisms is least likely the cause?
a) Clostridium difficile
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Salmonella enteritidis
e) Escherichia coli
58) Two hours after a dinner a
whole family has developed
vomiting and diarrhoea. What can
be the most possible cause?
a) Shigella flexneri
b) Campylobacter jejuni
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Salmonella enteritidis
e) Escherichia coli
59) The pathogenesis of which one
of the following organisms is most
likely to involve invasion of the
intestinal mucosa?
a) Vibrio cholerae
b) Shigella dysenteriae
c) Enterotoxigenic
Escherichia coli
d) Clostridium botulinum
e) Clostridium difficile
60) Which of the following
organisms is the most frequent
cause of bacteraemia?
a) Shigella dysenteriae
b) Campylobacter jejuni
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Salmonella typhi
e) Escherichia coli
61) All the following statements are
correct except;
a) Escherichia coli ferments
lactose whereas Shigella
and Salmonella do not.
b) Escherichia coli is not a
part of the normal flora.
 c) Some strains of Escherichia
coli produce and
enterotoxin that causes
diarrhoea.
d) Cholera toxin acts by
stimulating adenylate
cyclase.
e) Staphylococcus aureus
produce and enterotoxin
that causes vomiting and
diarrhoea.
62) All of the following statements
regarding viruses causing diarrhoea
are correct exept;
a) Transmitted primarily by
faecal-oral route.
b) Rotaviruses have a double
stranded RNA genome.
c) Causes watery diarrhoea.
d) Norovirus causes diarrhoea
in people of all ages.
e) Rotavirus invades the
enterocytes of intestinal
villi.
63) Organisms found in the normal
flora of intestine include the
following, except;
a) Escherichia coli
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Candida albicans
A project by MSWSPage 26
e) Staphylococcus aureus
64) A lactose fermenting, glucose
fermenting, gram negative rod
isolated from a previously healthy
child with bloody diarrhea is most
likely to be,
a) Shigelle sonnei
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Escherichia coli
d) Salmonella enterica
e) Helicobacter pylori
65) Which of the following is true
regarding the diagnosis of
gastro-intestinal and abdominal
infections?
a) Salmonella gives pink colonies
on MacConkey agar.
b) Seagull shaped arrangement
of bacilli under light
microscope is a characteristic
feature of Vibrio cholerae.
c) Detection of antibodies
against cholera toxin in serum
is useful in diagnosing
cholera.
d) Stool culture will not be useful
in diagnosing typhoid fever, in
the first week of infection.
e) Presence of hepatitis B core
antigen in the serum indicates
highly infective stage of viral
hepatitis.
66) Which of the following
organisms does not cause blood and
mucus diarrhoea?
a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Vibrio cholerae
c) Shigella dysenteriae
d) Trichuris trichiura
e) Entamoeba histolytica
67) Which of the following is true
regarding hepatitis and its
aetiological agents?
a) Hepatitis A virus is protected
from gastric acid by its
envelope.
b) Chronic carrier state is not
seen in hepatitis B infections.
c) Hepatitis C infection can be
prevented by vaccination.
 d) Hepatitis D infection can be d) Post-exposure prophylaxis is b) Clostridium perfringens – food
prevented by vaccinating possible by administration of poisoning
against hepatitis B. hepatitis B immunoglobulin. c) Bacteriodes – non-sporing
e) Both hepatitis A and E e) Antibody against hepatitis B Gram negative bacilli
infections are characterized core antigen is not detected in d) Clostridium difficile –
by feco-oral transmission and plasma. exogenous infections
acute onset of symptoms. e) Intra-abdominal infections –
70) Which of the following is enterobacteriaceae,
incorrect regarding infections enterococci, and obligate
68) Which of the following is not a
caused by obligate anaerobes? anerobes.
feature of anaerobic bacterial
a) Clostridium spp. usually cause
infections? 72)Regarding staphylococcus aureus,
exogenous infections.
a) Foul-smelling discharge a) It’s a well known cause for
b) Routine bacterial culture is erysipelus
b) Positive Gram stain and
usually positive. b) Can be differentiated from other
negative routine culture.
c) Clostridium difficile is staphylococci by its coagulase
c) Readily respond to common
responsible for antibiotic positivity
antibiotics. c) Is incapable of producing
associated colitis.
d) Patients appear to be ‘toxic’. enterotoxins
d) Clostridium perfringens is a
e) Creptitations. d) Causes scalded skin syndrome
member of the normal gut which is due to its ability to
commensals. invade tissues
69) Which of the following is true
e) Crepitation is a feature of e) When grown in blood agar their
regarding hepatitis B virus?
infections caused by anaerobic colony appears gray without β
a) Is an ss-DNA virus of
bacteria. haemolysis
hepadnaviridae family.
b) Vertical transmission is 73) Regarding staphylococcus species
71) Which of the following is
mainly due to its ability to a) Staphylococcus saprophyticus is
matched incorrectly? not found in the normal flora in
cross the placenta.
a) Clostridium botulinum – female genitourinary tract
c) Vaccine is composed of
neurotoxin
hepatitis B core antigens.

A project by MSWSPage 27
 b) Staphylococcus epiderdimis can 52) a 53) a 54) a 55) e 56) b 57) b 58) c
cause infection to a person who is 59) b 60) d 61) b 62) e 63) e 64) c 65) d
given a saline drip. 66) b 67) d 68) c 69) d 70) c 71) d 72) b
c) Staphylococcus aureaus differs 73) b 74) c
from others by its catalase
positivity.
d) Staphylococcus saphrophyticus is
a common sause for neonatal
meningitis.
e) All Staphylococcus species
produce β haemolysis in blood
agar.

74)Infections by a dermatophyte is
mostoften associated with?
a) Intravenous drug abuse.
b) Inhalation of the organism from
contaminated bird faeces.
c) Adherence of the organism to
perspiration-moist skin
d) Fecal oral transmission
e)

Answers
1) b 2) c 3) a 4) e 5) c 6) e 7) c 8) a 9) e
10) d 11) d 12) d 13) b 14) c 15) c 16) c
17) c 18) b 19) d 20) d 21) a 22) b 23) c
24) d 25) d 26) a 27) d 28) b 29) b 30) d
31) b 32) b 33) b 34) b 35) b 36) c 37) a
38) d 39) b 40) e 41) b 42) b 43) e 44) d
45) a 46) b 47) e 48) e 49) b 50) c 51) d
A project by MSWSPage 28