BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE

BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY

SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019Date:20/03/2019 Time:15:00-17:00pm
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: INFECTIOUS AND PARASITIC DISEASES
SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding to the b. Hook worm
most appropriate response(s)) c. Taeniasaginata
1. Enteric fever affects only humans and is spread d. Fasciola hepatica
through 8. The main treatment for intestinal worms is
a. Consumption of contaminated food and drink a. Albendazole
handled by people who shed the organism from stool b. Tinidazole
or, less commonly, urine. c. Metronidazole
b. It may also be acquired from ingesting water d. Mectizan
contaminated with sewage. 9. Taeniacapitis affects the
c. Shellfish from water polluted by raw sewage and a. Hair of the Scalp
canned meat production with poor technique have b. Sole of the feet
also caused outbreaks. c. Palm of the hand
d. All of the above d. None applicable
e. None of the above. 10. A disease condition caused by Salmonella typhiis
2. Which of the following is not true of gas a) Paratyphoid b)Typhoid c) Chlamydia
gangrene? d)Gas gangrene
a) It is caused by clostridium perfringens. 11. Aconfirmatory lab test for HIV includes
b) Clostridium perfringens is a gram negative spore a) Western Blot. B)Low WBC.
bearing bacillus. c. Comprehensive metabolic panel.
c) Gas gangrene is characterized by severe local pain, d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
crepitus and signs of toxemia. 12. Which of the following would have the highest
d) High dose penicillin and aggressive debridement of priority in septic shock?
affected tissue is the treatment of established a) Monitoring temperature.
infection. b) Monitoring ABC (airway, breathing, circulation).
3. Acute paronychia is most commonly caused by c) Monitoring pupillary reaction.
which of the following organisms? d) Monitoring ANA and RF levels.
a) Trichophytonrubrum 13. A patient complains of the following symptoms
b) Staphylococcus aureus stool containing blood, mucus and pus, diarrhea,
c) Candida tropicalis abdominal cramps and fever. What will probably
d) Candida albicans be your diagnosis?
4. Chronic paronychia is most commonly caused by a) Dysentery b) Typhoid c) Paratyphoid fever
which of the following organisms? d) Cholera
a) Staphylococcus aureus 14. Which of the following agent is used to prevent
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa malaria?
c) Candida albicans A. Mebendazole B) Quinine
d) Candida tropicalis C) Inactivated vaccine D) Fancidar
5. Carbuncle is due to? 15. Each of the following statements concerning
a) Bacteroids b)Staphylococci Ascarislumbricoides is correct except
b) Clostridium d)Escherichia coli A. Ascarislumbricoides is one of the largest
6. Which of the following agent is used to prevent nematode
malaria? B. Ascarislumbricoides can cause biliary
a) Mebendazole. b) Quinine obstruction
c)Inactivated vaccine.d)Fancidar C. Fever may occur when the larvae of
7. The movement of a parasite from the Skin  Ascarislumbricoides are migrating through the
Lymphatic Blood  Lungs coughed & lungs
swallowed shows the movement of which worm? D. Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of A.
a. Ascarislumbricoides lumbricoides.

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 16. The following statements concerning Kala-azar is
true except
A. Kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies
B. Kala-azar is caused by Leishmaniadonovani
C. Kala-azar is found in much of Asia and Africa.
D. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding the
parasites in bone marrow.
17. Which of the following statements is not true
about Trichomonasvaginalis?
A. Trichomonasvaginalis is transmitted sexually
B. Trichomonasvaginalis causes vulvovaginal
dyspareunia
C. Trichomonasvaginalis can be treated effectively
with metronidazole
D. Trichomonasvaginalis causes bloody diarrhea.
18. What is false about the following statements
concerning Giardia lamblia?
A. Giardia lamblia has both a trophozoite and cyst
stage I its life cycle
B. Giardia lamblia is transmitted by oral fecal route
C. Giardia lamblia causes hemolytic anemia
D. Giardia lamblia causes abdominal cramps.
19. Each of the following statements concerning
malaria is true except
A. The principal site of gametocyte formation is the
human gastrointestinal tract.
B. The infected female anopheles mosquito is the
vector
C. Early infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes
D. Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes
fever and chills.
20. In malaria, the form of plasmodium that is
transmitted from mosquito to human is the
A. Sporozoites B.Gametocyte
C.Merozoites D. Hypnozoites
SECTION B: WRITE TRUE OR FALSE
1) The standard treatment for abscesses in children is
cutting it open and drain.
2) Carbuncles are associated with malnutrition, drug
addiction, and severe generalized disease.
3) In dry gangrene, there is usually no infection and the
tissue dies because it has no blood supply.
4) Gas gangrene is caused by endotoxin producing
clostridium species.
5) Since clostridium species are anaerobic bacteria,
proper management should involve high pressurize
oxygen in the affected tissue.
6) Hookworm infction will leave a child anemic.
2
7) Using treated mosquito nets is the only way of
preventing malaria.
8) Intestinal worm infections cannot be prevented.
9) Port of entry for the hookworm is through the skin.
10) Port of entry for the ascaris is the feaco-oral route.
11) One of the signs of gonorrhoea infection in women is a
green vaginal discharge
12) Once you contact syphilis once you are protected from
it for life
13) HIV is found in feces, urine, tears only when the viral
load is high
14) Chancroidis a sexually transmitted infection caused by
a bacterial infection known as Haemophilusducreyi
15) meningococcal meningitis most commonly occurs in
children less than 5yrs An obligatory parasite is one
that live on the host but is capable of living
independently
16) The exoerythrocytic phase of malaria involves infection
of erythrocytes or red blood cells
17) Malaria in pregnancy is considered severe malaria only
when there is an organ dysfunction.
18) Diphyllobothiumlatum is a type of tape worm found in
fish.
19) Human infected with Echinococcusgranulosus might
have cysts in the brain
20) Man is the intermediate host in the transmission of
malaria.
SECTION C: SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS
1) What is the difference between a carbuncle and a
boil? (1mk)
2) patient complains of the following signs acute,
profuse watery diarrhoea (―rice water stools‖), with
vomiting, Leg cramps and dehydration.
a. What will be your diagnosis? 1mk
b. What is the cause of your diagnosis above? 1mk
c. State how you will manage this situation as a
nurse. 5mks
3) A pregnant woman complaint of vaginal itching with
profuse and offensive discharge. Gynecological
examination revealed edema and erythema vaginal
mucosa.
a. What is the possible parasitic cause? (1mark).
b. What diagnostic procedure will confirm your
diagnosis? (1mark.)
c. What will be your nursing interventions and
patient teaching based on your diagnosis?
(6marks
 BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE
BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY
SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019 Date : 20/03/2019 TIME: 8:00am-10:00am
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II

SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding to the a. 2kidneys

most appropriate response(s)) b. 2ureters
c. A urinary bladder
1. The process of ultrafiltration is d. Urethra
a. Active e. All of the above
b. Passive 9. ……………………. Is the functional unit of the
c. Both a and b are correct kidneys?
d. None of the above a. Urethra
2. Filtration takes place at the b. Nephron
a. Glomerulus c. Bladder
b. Proximal convuluted tubule d. Glomerulus
c. Distal convuluted tubule 10. …………………….. make up the body’s main
d. Lope of henle purification system
3. The following substances are filtrated except a. Kidneys
a. Glucose b. Urinary orifice
b. Water and ions c. Nephron
c. Urea and uric acid d. Bladder
d. Proteins and creatinine 11. which part of the kidney is responsible for the
4. Important centers for heart rate, blood pressure, production of urine
respiration, swallowing, coughing, and vomiting a. Kidneys
are located in the b. Urinary orifice
A. Cerebrum. c. Nephron
B. Medulla oblongata. d. Bladder
C. Midbrain. 12. It carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder
D. Pons. a. kidneys
5. Important respiratory centers are located in the b. ureters
A. Cerebrum. c. urinary bladder
B. Cerebellum. d. Urethra
C. Pons and medulla oblongata.
D. Midbrain. 13. They are the major excretory organs of the body
6. The master gland amongst all glands is; a. Kidneys
A. Hypothalamus. b. Urinary orifice
B. Thyroid gland c. Nephron
C. Pituitary d. Bladder
D. Ovaries.
7. Which of these occurs as a response to a
7. Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
thyroidectomy (removal of the thyroid gland)?
A. Are produced in the anterior pituitary.
a. decreased calcitonin secretion
B. Are transported to the posterior pituitary
b. increased T3 and T4 secretion
within axons.
c. decreased TRH secretion
C. Include GH and TSH.
d. increased TSH secretion
D. Are steroids.
8. Calcitonin
E. All of the above.
a. is secreted by the parathyroid glands.
8. The urinary system is made up of
b. levels increase when blood calcium levels decrease.

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c. causes blood calcium levels to decrease.
d. insufficiency results in a weak bones and tetany.
9. If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of
these conditions is expected?
a. Osteoclast activity is increased.
b. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
c. Calcium re-absorption from the urine is inhibited.
d. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
e. All of the above.
10. The adrenal medulla
a. produces steroids.
b. has cortisol as its major secretory product.
c. decreases its secretions during exercise.
d. produces catecholamines
e. all of the above.
11. Which of these is not a hormone secreted by the
adrenal cortex?
a. aldosterone
b. androgens
c. cortisol
d. epinephrine
12. If aldosterone secretions increase
a. blood potassium levels increase.
b. blood hydrogen levels increase.
c. acidosis results.
d. blood sodium levels decrease.
e. blood volume increases.
13. Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
a. increase the breakdown of fats.
b. increase the breakdown of proteins.
c. increase blood glucose levels.
d. decrease inflammation.
e. all of the above.
14. The release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex is
regulated by other hormones. Which of these hormones
is correctly matched with its origin and function?
a. CRH—secreted by the hypothalamus; stimulates the
adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol
b. CRH—secreted by the anterior pituitary; stimulates the
adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol
c. ACTH—secreted by the hypothalamus; stimulates the
adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol
d. ACTH—secreted by the anterior pituitary; stimulates the
adrenal cortex to produce cortisol
15. Within the pancreas, the pancreatic islets produce
a. insulin.
b. glucagon.
4
c. digestive enzymes.
d. both A and B.
e. all of the above.
SECTION B: WRITE TRUE OR FALSE
1. Urine pH varies from 4.5 to 8.0
2. Only the urinary system can regulatethe acid
base balance of blood.
3. The kidney of a foetus develops by the 8th month.
4. The urine of a new is always concerntrated.
5. The bladder of a new is 2-3 times bigger than that
of an adult.
6. Control of the voluntary urethral sphincter does
not start until age 1 month of age.
7. The medulla oblongata contains the vital centres
as in ―vital signs‖
8. The hypothalamus controls the activities of the
pituitary
9. Melatonin inhibits the development of the
reproductive system.
10. Insulin is the only hormone that reduces blood
glucose levels.
11. Tropic hormones are hormones produced by the
posterior pituitary gland.
12. The gonadotropic hormones are produced by the
gonads.
13. Another name for adrenocorticotropic hormone is
adrenaline.
14. Hormones produced by the anterior pituitary are
all non-steroids
15. Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion are the
three major processes critical to the formation of
urine.
16. Hydrostatic pressure move urine alone the ureters
to the urinary bladder
17. The walls of the ureters are thicker than that of
the bladder
18. During cold weather urine is more concentrated
than during hot weather
SECTION C: SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. Explain in detail explain the process of urine
formation by the kidney nephron (10mks)
2. Name and explain the various functions of the
urinary system (12mks)
3. List and explain the functions of the various parts
of the urinary system (8mks)
 BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE
BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY
SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019 Date: 21/03/2019 Time: 10:00am-12:00pm
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENT
SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding to the 10) A listing showing all the possible values (or
most appropriate response(s)) intervals) of a data set and how often they occur
1) The number of newly diagnosed cases of a disease a. Frequency b. Range of data set
in a given community is known as? c.Unit d. Distribution
a.Prevalence b. Incidence 11) Considering the data set (3, 42, 4, 37, 4, 27, 6, 25, 7,
c.New cases d. Incidence/ prevalence 20, 8, 17, 12, 8, 10, 14, 8, 14, 10), the mean and
2) The total number of cases in a given community at a median are
particular period is known as? a .Mean=14.5; Median=10 b. Mean=10.9; Median=20
a.Prevalence b. Incidence c.Mean=8.4; Median=14 d. Mean=13.8; Median 8
c. New cases d. Incidence/ prevalence 12) The Cameroon health care system is presently based
3) What was the outcome of the Lusaka Conference? on _____
a)Restructuring of the health care delivery system into 3 a. State monopoly b. Primary Health Care
functional levels c.Vertical Primary Health Care
b)Co-management of health care delivery d.Reorientation of Primary Health Care
c)Cost-recovery by sales of drugs and health services 13) Over the years, the most successful health care
d) Introduction of the essential drugs policy system in Cameroon is centered around ____
4) One of the objectives of the Bamako Conference was a. The Vertical Health System
to b. The Regional Health System
a.Provide health for all by the year 2000 c. The District Health System d. None of the Above
b.Mobilize community financing through cost recovery 14) The reorientation of primary health care in Africa was
c.Restructure the health care delivery system into 3 as a result of two very important conferences that
functional levels d. Introduce the MDGs laid the foundation. From the pair of conferences
5) The role of the Central level of a reorganized health identify the most meaningful pair to the reorientation
care system is to provide strategic support. This of primary health care
means that a. Alma Ata of 1978 and Lusaka of 1985 conferences
a.Supervise the health district b. Lusaka of 1985 and Bamako of 1987 Conferences
b.Translate policies, laws and programmes into activities c. Bamako of 1987 and Alma Ata of 1978 conferences
c. Real execution of activities which may be patient care and d. Tailloires of 2017 and Bamako of 1987 conferences
prevention of disease 15) The idea of primary health care with aim of
d.Making laws and policies, and allocating resources promoting health for all sprang up after
6) Any characteristic or attribute that differs between a. Alma Ata conference of 1978
subjects b. Lusaka conference of 1985
a. Sample b. Population c. Variable d. Unit c. Bamako conference of 1987
7) A variable that has values that describe a 'quality' is d. Tailloires conference of 2017
called 16) the health care system that laid emphasis on shifting
a. Dependent variable b. Independent variable from the well-known health professionals and
c. Categorical variable d. Continuous variable classical health structures (hospitals and health
8) One of the statements bellow defines a continuous centers) to community health workers (village health
variable workers and traditional birth attendants) and their
a)A categorical variable village health postsis
b) An Example: number of children in a family a. the colonial system
c) Can only be measured as whole units b. the vertical primary health care system
d)Can take an infinite set of possible values in any interval c. the horizontal primary health care system
9) A key characteristic of the data set: (3, 6, 9, 3, 4, 12, d. the reorientation of primary health care system
20, 9, 5, 8, 7, 10) is 17) The reorganization of the national health system had
a. Range = 7 b Bimodal 3 objectives. Which of the following is not one of the
c.Odd numbered data set d. Median = 16 three objectives?
a. Improve the accessibility of health to the population

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 b. Increase the efficiency of health services in order to 10) The mode of a data set is the observation or unit
better take care of health problems. with the highest frequency
c. Improve the quality of health care by paying attention to 11) The Minimum package of activity for a health center
the vulnerable groups are mostly prevention oriented, promotional, and to a
d. Eliminate curative approach from the health care lesser extent curative care
system 12) Community initiatives are development projects or
18) Criteria for the demarcation of health area and activities or programmes initiated and managed
district is based on (planned, executed and evaluated) by the
a. Population b. Geographical accessibility community to achieve goals
c.Socio-economic consideration d. All of the above 13) Co-financing means financing health activities and
19) The first level referral hospital is called health development projects through the financial
a. The health center b. The district hospital c. The contributions of all the partners: the State,
regional hospital Community, and other partners.
d.The central hospital 14) Community participation in health is achieved
20) Which of the following is not a health determinant? through co-management and co-financing.
a. Income b. Education c. Occupationd.Beauty 15) Dialogue structures (health committees) are organs
SECTION B: WRITE TRUE OR FALSE and forums put in place to ensure and enhance
1) A living organism that helps to transmit diseases is effective community participation in health care
known as a vehicle
2) Inanimate that helps in disease transmission are
known as vectors
3) A disease can be communicable but not contagious
4) Host that completes the life cycle of an agent and
show manifestations is known as intermediate host.
5) The quality of a disease causing death is known as
lethality.
6) In an experiment, any variable that the experimenter
manipulates can be called an independent variable
7) A discrete variable can take the value of a fraction
between one value and the next closest value
8) A good sample must be a very small representation
of the population
9) Bar charts and Pie Charts are most suited for
presenting qualitative data compared to quantitative
data.
SECTION C: SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS
1) A.) Differentiate between the Mean, Mode, and Median of a data set (3mks)
2) State 5 Importance of health information on health and healthcare management (5mks).
3) The health information system

a. Use the information provided on the table below to draw a histogram, 5mks
True class 29 – 39 39-49 49-59 59-69 69-79 79-89 89-99 TOTAL
limits
Frequency 11 46 70 45 16 1 5 194

b. The incubation periods of a random sample of 7 TB infected individuals is given below (in days):
12, 11, 10, 6, 14, 13, 7
i. Calculate the sample mean. 1mk
ii. Calculate the sample median. 1mks
iii. Calculate the sample variance. 2mks
iv. Range 1mk

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 BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE
BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY
SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019 Date: 20/03/2019 Time: 13:00pm-15:00pm
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: INFORMATION EDUCATION AND COMMUNICATION

SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding B. For economic reasons.

to the most appropriate response(s))
1. A means of providing people with the ability
to acquire new technique and practical skills
in order to change behavior positively is
known as
A. Education. B.Communication
C.Information D. Immunization
2. A way of creating awareness by giving new
knowledge and ideas to people about health
is called.
A. Education. B. Communication.
C.Information. D. Immunization
3. Which of the following are (is) an advantage
of IEC
A. Ensure health for all.
B. Active participation of group members.
C. Ensure discussion on various health topics.
D. None of the above
4. A receiver of a massage is also known as
A. Encoder. B. Decoder.
C.Channel. D. None of the above.
5. A sender of a massage is also known as
A. Encoder B. Decoder.
C. Feedback. D.Thought
6. For a massage to be send across, a sender
should
A. Speak difficult language.
B. Have poor vocal mechanism.
C. Have good communication skills.
D. Meaningful.
7. Verbal communication is.
A. Communication through eye contact.
B. Face to face communication.
C. Communication by the use of gait.
D. All of the above.
8. Which of the following is not a kind of
practice when KAP is carried out?
A. Beneficial practice. B. Neutral practice.
C.Harmful practice. D. Attempted practice
9. A good leader must be
A. Committed. B. Respectful
C.Rejectful. D. A and b are correct
10. Why do people join groups?
A. For political reasons.
C. A and b are correct. D. None of the above
11. The exchange of ideas or messages between
two or more people is the definition of:
A.Education B. Information
C.Communication D. Feedback
12. In a health care institution, IEC to clients is
the responsibility of:
A.The doctor B. The Nurse Assistan
C.Themidwife D. The pharmacy attendant E. All of
the above
13. Information can be defined as:
a) The acquisition of new skills
b) The use of new knowledge and skills
c) The acquisition of new knowledge
d) Training so as to change negative behaviours
14. Messages passed through third parties can
be the following except:
A.Delayed B. Misinterpreted
C.Delivered on time D. Distorted
15. For communication to be successful and
productive it should have
A.The sender, the channel, the message, the
feedback B. The sender the channel, the receiver
C. The sender, the message, the channel, the
receiver, the feed back D. The following are taboos
except:
16. Nonverbal communication includes the
following except:
A.Smiles B. Weeping C. Crying D. Silence
17. The following are verbal communication
techniques except:
A.Singing B. Laughing C. Audience
D.Hand clapping
18. Because of limited resources, priority areas
on which to emphasize IEC activities include:
A.Group animation B.Environmental hygiene
C.Interpersonal communication
D.Maternal and child health/family planning
E. Fight against infections and transmissible diseases
F. B, D, E
19. For face to face non-verbal communication,
we have to use the following except one:
A.Script visual aids

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B.Facial expression such as; smile, frown, anger C.
Tears D. Laughter E. C and D only
20. The strategy or approaches of
communication include:
A.Advocacy B.Social or community mobilization
C.Training of target groups
D.Communication for behaviour change
SECTION B: WRITE TRUE OR FALSE
1. The sender is equally the source of the
information and the transmitter
2. Feedback is not important in non-verbal
communication
3. The way or manner of talking cannot influence
communication
4. Environmental factors can influence
communication only negatively
5. In some circumstances vertical communication
can become the circular model of
communication
6. Horizontal communication is between the boss
and the subordinate
7. In group animation, when a participant asks a
question, it is necessary to first ask another
participant to respond
8. When the participant responds, you have to give
a valued judgement to his/her response and not
ask the group’s opinion.
9. The most important element in learning has to
be based on what is interesting to learn.
10. The fact that a convulsing child must not take
injection is a value system.
8
11. IEC ensures community participation.
12. It is necessary to use audio visual materials
when giving a health talk
13. A health talk is also known as educative talk
14. A good counselor should be empathetic
15. One of the techniques used in IEC is mass
education
16. Beneficial practices are practices that affect
health negatively
17. Communication between individuals is called
intrapersonal communication
18. Communication between departments is called
horizontal communication
19. One of the priorities of IEC is food and nutrition
20. One of the steps of IEC process is sensitization
SECTION C: SHORT ANSWERS
1. State 5 factors that can hinder communication
(5mks)
2. What are the objectives of IEC?(3MKS)
3. Give the difficulties of IEC?(2MKS)
4. What are the basic elements of
counselling?(2MKS)
5. What are the principles of group
dynamics(2MKS)
 BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE
BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY
SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019 Date: 21/03/2019 Time: 13:00PM-15:00PM
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: PEDIATRIC DISORDERS I
SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding 7. Mumps can cause infertility in both men
to the most appropriate response(s) and women because it may, as a
1. Respiratory tract infections are the complication cause
reasons for frequent hospitalization for A. Orchitis and oorphoritis
young children because of: B. Parotitis and tonsillitis
A. Resistance factorB.Cold weather C. Dysphagia and oorphoritis
D. Recurrent febrile seizures
C.Allergy D. Exclusive breastfeeding 8. A cough that is short, rapid and followed
2. A child inhalesdust and starts coughing by sudden inspiration and a whoop is
violently. The nurse describes the called
coughing as A. Wheezing cough B. Asthmatic
A. A form of violent exhalation cough C. Pertussis
B. A form of violent inspiration D. Bordetella pertussis
C. Secretions of thick tenacious mucus 9. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a cause of
D. Deep inspiration and exhalation A. Increased blood bilirubin
3. Common signs and symptoms peculiar to B. Pathologic jaundice
the respiratory tract infections are C. Physiologic jaundice D. Jaundice
A. Abdominal pain, diarrhoea, cough 10. Two common causes of diaper rash in
B. Anorexia, vomiting, nasal blockage infants are
C. Nasal blockage, nasal discharge, A. Sweat and decomposed urine
nasal flaring B. Candida albicans and sweat
D. Fever, nasal blockage, diarrhoea C. Decomposed urine and faeces
4. A mother consults with her 2 year son D. Mililaria and prickly heat
and the doctor says the child has acute 11. A person is said to have fever when the
inflammation of the throat. The possible body temperature rises above
diagnosis could be A.37.8 C B. 37.50 C C. 370 C D. 36.40 C
0

A. Pharyngitis B. Tonsillitis 12. The nurse should be alert for

C.Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
5. Otalgia and otorrhoea occurring in a child
are signs of
A. Pharyngitis B. Mumps
C.OtitismediaD.Laryngitis
6. A child is admitted in the hospital with
malaria and after 24hours the child
presents with signs and symptoms of
acute pneumonia, this type of pneumonia
is considered as
A. Nosocomial pneumonia
B. Community acquired pneumonia
C. Hospitalization pneumonia
D. Hospital acquired pneumonia
complications of meningitis. Which of the
following are the most common?
A.Hydrocephalus B. Deafness
C.Damage of the optic nerveD.Myocarditis
13. In order to diagnose malaria, it is
necessary to have a
A.Blood test B. Urine test C. Stool test
D.Sputum test
14. Scabies spreads through
A.Insect bites B.Dog bites
C.Fontact with infected person
D. Food
15. A child with sore eyes should not be
allowed to
A.Sleep B. Wear spectacles
C.Play with other children D. Bath

9

16. A person suffering from diarrhoea must
be given
A.Nothing to drink
B.Only small quantities of water
C.A lot of water
D.A lot of water containing sugar and salt
17. A 10-day course of antibiotic therapy is
indicated for children with:
a) sterilepyuria.
b) hemorrhagic cystitis due to the adenovirus.
c) bacterial colonization of the urine without
obstructive uropathy.
d) recurrent urinary tract infections with a
functionally and anatomically normal urinary
tract.
e) persistent trace proteinuria.
18. An afebrile 18-month-old presents to the
emergency department with the sudden
inability to move the right arm. There is
no history of trauma. The next step is to:
a) notify social services.
b) extend and externally rotate the right
forearm.
c) x-ray the clavicle
d) do a skeletal survey.
e) order a serum calcium and phosphate level.
19. The etiologic agent responsible for most
urinary tract infections is:
a) Proteus.
b) Klebsiellapneumoniae.
c) Escherichia coli.
d) Mycoplasmahominis.
e) Chlamydia trachomatis.
20. Which of the following acts can a one
year old child perform ?
a) Sits down from standing position
b) Drinks from cup
c) Speaks one or two words with meaning
d) Rings bell purposefully
SECTION B: ANSWER TRUE (T) OR FALSE (F)
1. Poorly rinsed napkins can cause a diaper
rash
2. Poliomyelitis is many a times not
preventable
10
3. Stiffness and tenderness in the neck and
jaw muscles are signs of neonatal tetanus
4. Tetanus is caused by a gram negative
aerobic bacteria
5. Riscussardonicus is common in a child with
measles
6. The rash associated with scarlet fever is
itchy in nature
7. A child suffering from varicella is usually
photophobic
8. The measles in children is highly
contagious
9. Neonatal tetanus is a preventable disease
10. Diphtheria pertussis and tetanus can be
prevented with 3 shots of a single vaccine
11. You should cover your mouth with a
handkerchief when you cough.
12. It is harmful for joindice patient and healthy
person to sleep together.
13. There is no need to have windows in the
house.
14. The chances of catching a communicable
disease are more in a crowded place.
15. A person suffering from whooping cough
does not be isolated.
16. In diphtheria, there is difficulty in breathing.
17. Measles commonly occurs in adults.
18. Chickenpox usually lasts for about 3 weeks.
19. In mumps, the rash appears first on the
chest.
20. If a child is on breast milk, stop breast
feeding the child during illness to prevent
infection
SECTION C: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Define tetanus (2mks)
b) Identify the 4 conditions or requirements
necessary for tetanus to occur.( 4mks)
c) Identify 6 objectives or principles in the
treatment of tetanus in a child. (6mks)
2. Differentiate between
a) Measles and chicken pox rash. (2mks)
b) Whooping cough and scarlet fever.
(2mks)
c) Community acquired pneumonia and
hospital acquired pneumonia. (2mks)
4. How can you prevent a child from getting
dehydrated? (4mks)
5. What points will you consider regarding the diet of
a sick child? (2mks
 BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE
BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY
SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019 Date: 20/03/2019 Time:10:00am-12:00pm
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: MODULE: PROPHYLAXIS AND VACCINATION

SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding to the
most appropriate response(s))
1) All are notifiable diseases except;
a) Cholera b)Cough c)Ebola d)Polio
2) Immunity can either be _or –
a) Passive or acquired b)Active or natural
c)Natural or artificial d) Weaken or killed
3) V V M in vaccination stands for
a) Vaccine virus monitor
b) Vail vaccine monitor
c) Vaccine Vail monitor
d) Viral Vail monitor
4) The dose for the BCG vaccine is
a) 0.05ml b)0.5mls c)0.5 cc d)0.5ml
5) EPI stands for
a) Expanded program of immunizing
b) Expanded programs immunization
c) Expired programs for immunization
d) Expired program in immunization
6) The following are indicators of a vaccine
except
a) Shake test b) VVM c)Thermometer
d)Temperature
6. It is not a vaccine given at birth
a) BCG 0.05mls b)Polio drop
c)BCG 0.5mls d)None of the above
7. Vaccination strategies in Cameroon include all but
one
a) Fixed, mobile and catch up
b) Mobile, catch up and fixed
c) Supplemental, local and national
immunization day
d) Strategic, fixed and mobile
8. In which year did the EPI program become
operational in all region of Cameroon
a) 1976 b)1967 c)1982 d)2000
9. When did EPI program start in Cameroon
a) 1967 b)2000 c)1982 d)1976
10. What symptom below would be considered
'unusual' after receiving a vaccination?
a) High-pitched crying in babies
b) Tiredness
c) Fever
d) Mild rash
11. What kind of immunity is acquired from receiving a
live, attenuated or inactivated vaccine?
a) Natural active immunity
b) Artificial active immunity
c) Natural passive immunity
d) Artificial passive immunity
12. What kind of immunity is acquired by receiving
rabies immunoglobulin (RabIg)?
a) Natural active immunity
b) Artificial active immunity
c) Natural passive immunity
d) Artificial passive immunity
13. What is the importance of maintaining adequate
“herd immunity”?
a) It increases the chance of an outbreak, which
allows for the population to formulate natural
active immunity.
b) It protects those who are not immunized or for
whom the vaccine did not work, in a community
that has adequate coverage.
c) It lowers the cost of vaccines when buying in bulk.
d) It eliminates all vaccine preventable diseases.
14. Which of the following statements is true regarding
live attenuated vaccines?
a) They contain whole, live, weakened bacteria or
viruses.
b) They produce lower immunogenicity than other
vaccines.
c) Light exposure is no longer a concern for live
vaccine storage.
d) They are safely administered to those with
immunodeficiency.
15. Which of the following confer(s) passive immunity:
a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
c) Cross placental transfer of maternal antibodies
d) Measles vaccine
16. Which infants may be given a Bacille, Calmett-
Guerin (BCG) vaccine?
a) Those infants who received a BCG earlier, but did
not respond with a pustule or ―take‖.
b) Infants over 6 months old, who have never had a
BCG.
c) Neonates, who have a HIV negative biological
mother
d) Infants who are immune compromised and need
protection against TB.

11
17. Using the previous scenario, what is the minimal
time interval for his next Hepatitis B vaccination?
a) 14 weeks b) 6 weeks c)8 weeks d) 16 weeks
18. They are people who started the vaccination
schedule but did not complete because of one
reason or the other these individual are called
a) Disease carriers b) Drop out
c) Never reach d) All of the above
19. An immunization program ability to provide
vaccination services to all members of the target
population depends on
a) Technical know – how of the nurse
b) The VVM of the vaccination
c) The qualification of the nurse
d) The attention of the cold chain
20. The following are vaccination strategies except
a) Fixed strategie
b) On – going strategie
c) Mobile strategie
d) Out – reach strategies
SECTION B: WRITE TRUE OR FALSE
1. All vaccines are stored at the same
temperature in the freezer.
2. The V VM makes it possible for vaccines
taken to the field to be reused.
3. Vaccines given at birth include BCG and Polio
4. The EPI target population is infants and
pregnant women.
5. Vaccines can either be live attenuated or
killed.
6. Vaccines can be administered to children no
matter the conditions.
7. The main goal of vaccination was to reduce
mortality for all kinds of disease
8. Both vitamin A and the polio vaccine are
given through the oral route.
9. Proper diet is not a preventive health care
measures
10. Vaccines are used to treat and not to prevent
diseases
11. Mortality rate is reduced with the used of
prophylactic measures
12. A disease preventive measures generally
needs to be affordable and highly cost
effective
13. During EPI,vaccinators go about vaccinating
every body
14. Screening is a process of identifying people
with a symptomatic disease
15. Vaccines like BCG, measles, yellow fever and
pentavalent vaccines cannot be stored after
opening
16. A child can be vaccinated before the required
age if this child is very sick
17. A passive natural acquired immunity is an
immunity from mother to child
18. ATT4 is given at least 6 months after ATT 3
19. Decreasing the intervals between dose of a
multi – dose vaccine may interfere with anti
body response and protection
20. VVM means, vaccinating virus and measles

SECTION C: SHORT ESSAY

1. Define the following as used in prophylaxis and vaccination
a) Prophylaxis
b) Vaccination
c) Isolation
d) Prevention
e) Screening(5mks)
2. Draw the vaccination calendar for infants 0-12months(10mks)

12
 BUEA EXAMINATION CENTRE
BUEA –MUYUKA SUB JURY
SECOND SEQUENCE MODULE VALIDATION
MARCH 2019
STATE REGISTERED NURSES YEAR I
MODULE: MODULE: PHILOSOPHY OF NURSING
SECTION A: MCQ (Write the letter corresponding 8. She believed that dirt rather than
to the most appropriate response(s)) microscope pathogens were the cause of
1. Nursing metaparadigism are: disease
a. Client, conceptual framework, nursing, a) Nightangle
health. b) Henderson
b. Health, practice, environment, client and c.All of the above
person d.None of the above
c. Person, environment, health, nursing 9. They are fulfilling expanded career roles such
d. Nursing, client, health, conceptual as those of medical practitioners
framework a. Nurses
2. Psychosexual theory of development was by:- b. Dressers
a) Sigmund Freud 1856-1939 c. Ward servants
b) Sigmund Freud 1855-1939 d. None of the above
c) Sigmund Freud 1856-1938 10. the theory is a set of concepts, relationship and
d) Sigmund Freud 1855-1937 assumptions that;
3. According to Freud, children’s pleasure- a) Explains a phenomenon
seeking urges are focuses on the erogenous b) Measure nursing function
zone being; c) Formulates legislation
a. Verbal, oral, and genital phallic d) Reflect the domain of nursing
b. Phallic, verbal, oral, latency, genital, anal 11. The 14 fundamental basic needs was
c. Oral, anal, phallic, latency and genital developed by
d. None of the above a) Virginia Henderson
4. Basic human needs by Maslow are: b) Virginia Herdenson
a) Biological safety, love/belonging, esteem c) VrigineHerderson
and self-actualization d) Verginia Henderson
b) Esteem, love, safety, growth, belonging 12. ________ introduced the nightingale system in
c) Biological, love, growth, self-actualization, France
safety a) Miss Florence Nightingale
d) None of the above b) Dr. Anna Hamilton
5. Three main purpose of Nursing theory: c) Miss Hurst Burnley
a. Education, practice and research d) St Catherine of Sienna
b. Research, needs, practice 13. Factors that affects health can be grouped as;
c. Practice, education, adaptation a) Socio – cultural factors
d. None of the above b) Sex, age and environmental factors
6. Types of concepts are: c) Biological and physical
a) Empirical, inferential and abstract d) Internal, external and socio – cultural
b) Abstract, experience and empirical factors
c) Emperical, abstract and individualization 14. As an art, nursing relies on the knowledge of
d) None of the above care gained from practice as a science, nursing
7. Henderson regulated nursing practice through: relies on
a. Licensure a) Physicians scientific knowledge
b. Education b) Experimental research
c. Orientation c) Scientifically tasted knowledge applied
d. None of the above in practice setting
d) Experimental research on animals

13
 15. The concept that man should rendered care
considering the social, physiological, cultural
and economic aspect is;
a) Individual care
b) Total care
c) Nursing patient relationship
d) Holistic care
16. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is useful to nurses
who continually priorities a client nursing needs.
The most basic or first level needs include;
a) Love and belonging
b) Air, water and food
c) Self esteem
d) Self actualization
17. It is a concept that explains that man is an
organism that posses characteristics such as
the ability to drink, eat, move, growth and repair.
a) Concept of death
b) Concept of man
c) Concept of health
d) Concept of life
18. There are _______ dimension of wellness of
health
a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4
19. Three of the components below consist a part of
the four components that are the centre of
nursing theory, except one which;
a) Phenomena
b) Person
c) Nursing
d) Environment/situation
SECTION B: WRITE TRUE OR FALSE
1. The British opened the first Anglophone
hospital in Victoria (Limbe) in 1931
2. The 1st training school was started by the
Catholic mission in Shisong in 1955 by the
(NOHRHC) national Observatory for Human
Resources’ for Health Cameroon.
3. History of Nursing can be defined as a study
of events form the present to the past time
4. A theory is a thought or notion conceived in
the mind.
5. The nursing practice must be based on
nursing theories to make nursing a
profession.
6. well adults have no need
14
7. nurses operate on the belief that man does
not exist as a separate entity but that all
parts are uncoordinated
8. Cultural aspects have a great influence on
the treatment choice.
9. Bargaining is the 3rd stage of dying
10. Lower socio- economic classes are
predisposed to disease condition but not the
high socio – economic class
11. Nursing is both an art and a science and not
only a science.
12. Whenever a person is in a state of dying, it is
always and a tradition to call the attention of
a priest
13. Social factors have nothing to do with
disease causation.
14. For a person to be label sick( with a disease)
the external , internal and social factors must
have been involved
15. By nursing we mean evolutionary changes
over time in a society than the nursing
profession itself
16. All clients at the state of dying must pass
through all the stages of dying.
17. The Maslow’s hierarchies of needs are
important in the nursing process because it
aids in the continuity of care.
18. The care of a client in nursing is basically
directed towards the wellness direction
19. The concept of life state that man posses
characteristics such as love, belonging and
dignity.
20. The theory that state that a client adapts to
illness and how actual and potential stress
affects the ability to adapt was laid down by
peplau
SECTION C: SHORT ANSWERS
1. List three characteristics of human needs?
3marks
2. Briefly discuss on Abraham Maslow
Hierarchy of needs? 5 marks
3. Explain the concept of holism in health
care(4marks)
4. Define health by WHO and explain the
factors that will affect the health of an
individual( 3.5mks)
5. List and explain any three nursing
theory(6marks)