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MICROBIOLOGY

RNA Virus - Retro virus/Rota/Picorna

EBV causes - Hodgkins lymphoma/Burkitt’s/Nasopharyngeal Ca
EBV is associated with auto immune disease like - RA/SLE/dermatomyositis/sjogren
syndrome & Multiple sclerosis
Diagnosis of bacterial infection in mid-stream urine sample is done if there are
- 100000CFU/ml urine
Most infective stage of malarial parasite - Sporozoite
Definitive host in malaria - Female anopheles
Intermediate host in malaria - man
MCC of Gas gangrene - Clostridium Perfringens (Cl.Welchi)
Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by - Cl.Difficle
Causative organism of Chagas disease - T.Cruzi
Medium used for mycobacterium tuberculosis - LJ medium
Confirmatory test for TB - AFB
Most specific, sensitive & Gold standard test for syphilis - FT-ABS
Diagnosis of typhoid in the 1st week is by - Blood culture
Disease which can be transmitted by milk - Q fever
Actinomycetes is - gram positive bacteria
Satellitism is seen in cultures of - Hemophilus
Commonest cause of food poisoning - staphylococcal
Causative organism for gas gangrene - clostridium welchi
Hepatitis B is caused by - DNA virus
Rabies virus has a Bullet shape
Pneumocystis carini is diagnosed by - silver nitrate staining
Prototype of type 2 hypersensitivity reaction is - auto immune hemolytic anemia
Example of type 3 hypersensitivity - serum sickness
Spores are disinfected by - Glutaraldehyde
MICROBIOLOGY
Phenol co-efficient indicates - efficacy of a disinfectant
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by - staph aureus
Louis pasteur - discovery of rabies vaccine/introduction of complex media/disproved
spontaneous regression theory
L-form phenomenon is most likely to occur in - proteus
Charbon is a term used for - malignant pustule
Man is the terminal end for - tetanus
Chickenpox - may be severe in a newborn child infected by the mother in late trimester
Tyndalisation is a method of - sterilisation
Foam test is diagnostic for - bile salts
Post exposure immunisation is done for - Rabies
Leprosy spreads by - droplet spread

Microbiology
 In cholera the highest case fatality is observed in case of - classical cholera vibrio
Drumstick appearance is seen in - Cl.tetani
Exaltation is - increased virulence
MICROBIOLOGY
Interleukin 7 is produced by - stromal cells
AIDS is not transmitted by - cryoprecipitate
AIDS is transmitted by - blood transfusion/breast milk/ plasma
Mechanism of action of clindamycin is inhibition of - protein synthesis
Man is a definite host of which parasite - filaria
Test for Typhoid
1st week - Blood culture
2nd week - Antigen test ( Widal)
3rd week - Stool test
4th week - Urine test
Lues Maligna is caused by- Treponema
Father of modern microbiology – Louis Pasteur
Temp. used in Tyndallization- 100 degree Celsius
Gold standard for serodiagnosis of Leptospirosis- Microscopic Agglutination test
Malignant Pustule Caused by- Bacillus Anthracis
Cholera toxins acts – Adenylyl Cyclase and cAMP
Griffith experiment is done – Pneumococcus
Stain used for Corynebacterium diphtheria- Albert stain
Toxic shock syndrome – Exotoxin
Miyagawa corpuscles- LGV
H pylori resists acidity of gastric content due to- Urease
Reverse CAMP test is positive- Clostridium Perfringens
MC form of Melioidosis- Pulmonary Infection
Staph aureus shows methicillin resistance by – PBP alteration
Capsule of Anthracis stained by – Methylene blue
Fishy odour found on – Proteus
Borrelia causes – Vincent Angina
Ghee broth – Y.pestis
Mc symptom of tetanus- Locked jaw
Most dangerous type of diphtheria- Laryngeal
Penile ulcer painful – Chancroid
Hand foot and mouth disease- Cocsackie A virus
HIV target binding site – gp120
Laryngeal papillomas which HPV- 6,11
Australian antigen in hep b virus- HBs Ag
Cryoglobulinemia seen in – HCV
Foam cells which virus- EBV
Single stranded DNA – Parvovirus
Candidiasis of Penis – Balanitis

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Microbiology
 Atypical Pneumonia caused by – P.carinii
Opsonin – C3b
Chandlers index- Hook worm
MICROBIOLOGY
Winter bottom sign seen in – Trypanosomiasis
Special stain for cryptococcus- Mucicarmine stain
Disc diffusion method is also known as – Kirby-Bauer test
Echinococcus granulosus commonly seen in – dogs

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 MCQ’s
1. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all C. Susceptible to diptheria
of the following except: D. Carrier of diptheria
A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments Ans. C
across their cell wall from other species
B. Incorporating part of host DNA 5. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15
C. Through bacteriophages days of onset of fever is best done by:
D. Through conjugation A. Blood culture
Ans. B B. Widal
C. Stool culture
2. Neonatal thymectomy leads to: D. Urine culture
A. Decreased size of germinal center Ans. B
B. Decreased size of paracortical areas
C. Increased antibody production by B 6. Which of the following is transmitted by rat
cells urine?
D. Mcreased bone marrow production of A. Leptospira
lymphocytes B. Listeria
Ans. B C. Legionella
D. Mycoplasma
3. Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphy- Ans. A
lococcus epidermidis by:
A. Is coagulase positive 7. AII the following are true about Listeria ex-
B. Forms white colonies cept:
C. A common cause of UTI A. Transmitted by contaminated milk
D. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts B. Gram negative bacteria
Ans. A C. Causes abortion in pregnancy
D. Causes meningitis in neonates
4. Positive Shick’s test indicates that person is: Ans. B
A. Immune to diptheria
B. Hypersensitive to diptheria 8. Which of the following statement is true

Microbiology
 about Bacteroides: A. Mucor
A. It is gram positive bacilli B. Aspergillus
B. It is strictiy aerobic C. Histoplasma
C. It may cause peritonitis D. Candida
D. Presence in stool culture indicates need Ans. B
for treatment
Ans. C 15. Which of the following is true regarding glo-
bi in a patient with lepromatous leprosy:
9. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poi- A. Consists of lipid laden macrophages.
soning is caused by all the following except: B. Consists of macrophages filled with
A. Bacillus cereus AFB
B. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Consists of neutrophils filled with
C. Staphylococcus bacteria
D. Clostridium perfringens D. Consists of activated lymphocytes
Ans. D Ans. B

10. HIV virus contains: 16. The following diagnostic tests are useful for
A. Single stranded DNA corresponding purposes except:
B. Single stranded RNA A. Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of
C. Double stranded DNA mycobacteria
D. Double stranded RNA B. Immunoflorescence – Detection of
Ans. B influenza virus
C. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity
11. Regarding HIV which of the following is not against rubella
true: D. Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of
A. It is a DNA retrovirus acute infection
B. Contains reverse transcriptase Ans. C
C. May infect host CD4 cells other than
T-lymphocytes 17. IL-1 produces:
D. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at A. T lymphocyte activation
late stage of disease B. Delayed wound healing
Ans. A C. Increased pain perception
D. Decreased PMN release from bone
12. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 marrow
counts fall below: Ans. A
A. 50
B. 100 18. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in
C. 200 which stage of filariasis:
D. 150 A. Tropical eosinophilia
Ans. A B. Early elephantiasis
C. Early adenolymphangitis stage
13. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following D. None of the above
except: Ans. C
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Measles 19. Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma infection is by:
D. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma A. Antigen detection in stool by ELISA
Ans. B B. Antibody titres in serum
C. Antigen detection by
14. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals nar- immunoflurescence
row angled septate hyphae. Which of the D. Antigen detection in serum by ELISA
following is the likely etiologic agent: Ans. A

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20. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical
procedures can be best sterilized by:
A. Absolute alcohol
B. Ultra violet rays
C. Chlorine releasing compounds
D. Ethylene oxide gas
Ans. D
21. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables
procured from a picnic party. Twenty chil-
dren developed abdominal cramps fol-
lowed by vomiting and watery diarrhoea
6-10 hours after the party. The most likely
etiology for the outbreakis:
A. Rotavirus infection
B. Entero-toxigenic E. coli infection
C. Staphylococcol toxin
D. Clostridium perfringens infection
Ans. C
22. The following are true for Bordetella per- B. Expresses CD 3 receptor
tussis except:
A. It is a strict human pathogen.
B. It can be cultured from the patient
during catarrhal stage.
C. It leads to invasion of the respiratory
mucosa.
D. Infection can be prevented by a
acellular vaccine.
Ans. C
23. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy D. Nezelof syndrome
in the procedure room of the out patient de-
partment. To make the instrument safe for
use in the next patient waiting outside, the 29. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to
most appropriate method to disinfect the
endoscope is by:
A. 70% alcohol for 5 min.
B. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min.
C. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min.
D. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min.
Ans. B
25. Which of the following statements is true
about endemic typhus:
A. Is caused by R. rickettsii.
B. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas.
C. Has no mammalian reservoir.
D. Can be cultured in chemical defined
culture medium.
Ans. B
26. The organism most commonly causing geni-
tal filariasis in most parts of Bihar and east-
ern UP is:
A. Wuchereria bancrofti.
B. Brugia malayi.
C. Onchocerca volvulus.
D. Dirofilaria.
Ans. A
27. Regarding NK cells, false statement is:
A. It is activated by IL-2
C. It is a variant of large lymphocyte
D. There is antibody induced proliferation
of NK cells
Ans. D
28. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in
the following:
A. Common variable immunodeficiency.
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
Ans. B
vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5% NaCI, is
non-bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Strep. agalactiae
B. Strep. pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep. bovis
Ans. C

24. Which of the following statements is true 30. False statement about the streptococcus is:
about rabies virus: A. M protein is responsible for production
A. It is a double stranded RNA virus. of mucoid colonies
B. Contains a DNA-dependent RNA B. M protein is the major surface protein
polymerase. of group A streptococci
C. RNA has a negative polarity C. Mucoid colonies are virulent
D. Affects motor neurons. D. Endotoxin causes rash of scarlet fever
Ans. C Ans. A

Microbiology
31. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic
shock syndrome is: 35. An organism grown on agar shows green co-
A. Pyrogenic toxin loured colonies, likely organism is:
B. Erythrogenic toxin A. Staphylococcus
C. Hemolysin B. E. coli
D. Neurotoxin C. Pseudomonas
Ans. A D. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. C
32. A child presents with a white patch over the
tonsils; diagnosis is best made by culture in: 36. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed
A. Loeffler medium by:
B. LJ medium A. IgM FTAbs
C. Blood agar B. IgG FTAbs
D. Tellurite medium C. VDRL
Ans. A D. TPI
Ans. A
33. A patient with 14 days of fever is suspect-
ed of having typhoid. What investigation 37. All are features of Ureaplasma urealyticum
should be done: except:
A. Blood culture A. Non gonococcal urethritis
B. Widal test B. Salpingitis
C. Stool culture C. Epididymitis
D. Urine culture D. Bacterial vaginosis
Ans. B Ans. D

34. All are true about EHEC except:
A. Sereny test is positive
B. Fails to ferment sorbitol
C. Causes HUS
D. Elaborates shiga like exotoxin
Ans. A
38. Regarding HIV infection, not true is:
A. p24 is used for early diagnosis
B. Lysis of infected CD 4 cells is seen
C. Dendritic cells do not support
replication
D. Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus

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 Ans. C Ans. B

39. A pregnant woman from Bihar presents 43. Pancreatic CA is caused by:
with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely di- A. Fasciola
agnosis: B. Clonorchis
A. Hepatitis E C. Paragonimus
B. Hepatitis B D. None
C. Sepsis Ans. B
D. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Ans. A 44. All of the following are true except:
A. E.coli is an aerobe and facultative
40. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diar- anaerobe
rhea and conjunctivitis is: B. Proteus forms uric acid stones
A. RSV C. E. coli is motile by peritrichate flagella
B. Rhinovirus D. Proteus causes deamination of
C. Adenovirus phenylalanine to phenylpyruvic acid
D. Rotavirus Ans. B
Ans. C
45. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely
41. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient (CLED) to cause which of the following helminthic
medium is preferred over McConkey agar in disease:
UTI because: A. Tinea saginata
A. Former prevents swarming of proteus B. Tinea solium
B. Is a selective medium C. Hydatid cyst
C. Prevents growth of pseudomonas D. Trichuris trichura
D. Promotes growth of candida Ans. B
Ans. A
46. A woman with infertility receives an ovary
42. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria transplant from her sister who is an identi-
seen in peripheral blood: cal twin. What type of graft it is?
A. Tropical eosinophilia A. Xenograft
B. Early adenolymphangitis stage B. Autograft
C. Late adenolymphangitis stage C. Allograft
D. Elephantiasis D. Isograft.

Microbiology
 Ans. D A. Escherichia coli.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae.
47. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from C. Neisseria meningitidis.
one cell to another is known as: D. Listeria monocytogenes.
A. Transduction. Ans. C
B. Transformation.
C. Transcription. 53. All of the following Vibrio sp. are halophilic,
D. Integration. except:
Ans. A A. V. cholerae.
B. V. parahaemolyticus.
48. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by: C. V. alginolyticus.
A. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory D. V. fluvialis.
protein. Ans. A
B. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase.
C. Activation of GTPase. 54. All of the following organisms are known to
D. Active absorption of NaCl. survive intracellularly except:
Ans. A A. Neisseria meningitides.
B. Salmonella typhi.
49. HIV can be detected and confirmed by: C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D. Legionella pneumophila.
B. Reverse transcriptase - PCR Ans. C
C. Real time PCR
D. Mimic PCR. 55. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a
Ans. B CSF sample is best seen by:
A. Grams stain.
50. With reference to infections with Escherich- B. India ink preparation.
ia coli the following are true except: C. Giemsa stain.
A. Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated D. Methanamine-silver stain.
with pwesistent diarrhoea. Ans. B
B. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli can cause
haemolytic uraemic syndrome. 56. Viruses can be isolated from clinical sam-
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a ples by cultivation in the following except:
disease similar to salmonellosis. A. Tissue culture.
D. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a common B. Embryonated eggs.
cause of travelers diarrhoea. C. Animals.
Ans. C D. Chemicaly defined media.
Ans. D
51. The following statements are true regard-
ing melioidosis except: 57. It is true regarding the normal microbial
A. It is caused by Burkholderia mallei. flora present on the skin and mucous mem-
B. The agent is a grain negative aerobic branes that:
bacteria. A. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial
C. Bipolar staining of the aetiological agents.
agent is seen with methylene blue B. It is absent in the stomach due to the
stain. acidic pH.
D. The most common form of melioidosis C. It establishes in the body only after the
is pulmonary infection. neonatal period.
Ans. A D. The flora in the small bronchi is similar
to that of the trachea.
52. The following bacteria are most often asso- Ans. A
ciated with acute neonatal meningitis ex-
cept: 58. An army jawan posted in a remote forest

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 area had fever and headache. His fever was
104°F and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had
an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on
the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along
with generalized lymphadenopathy at the
time of presentation to the referral hospital.
His blood sample was collected to perform
serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial dis-
ease. Which one of the following results in
Weil-Felix reaction will be diagnostic in this
clinical setting:
A. High OX-2.
B. High OX-19.
C. High OX-K.
D. High OX-19 and OX-2.
Ans. C
A. Endemic trachoma.
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis.
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum.
D. Community acquired pneumonia.
Ans. D
64. The following statements are true regard-
ing Clostridium perfringens except:
A. It is commonest cause of gas gangrene.
B. It is normally present in human faeces.
C. The principal toxin of C.perfringens is
the alpha toxin.
D. Gas gangrene producing strains of C.
perfringens produce heat resistant
spores.
Ans. D

59. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency 65. The most common organism amongst the
is associated with: following that causes acute meningitis in an
A. Severe combined immunodeficiency AIDS patients is:
(SCID) A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. X-linked agammaglobulinemia. B. Streptococcus agalactiae.
C. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of C. Cryptococcus neoformans.
infancy. D. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. Chronic granulomatous disease. Ans. C
Ans. A
66. A bacterial disease that has been associated
60. Which of the following viral infections is with the 3 “Rs” i.e., rats, ricefields, and rain-
transmitted by tick? fall is:
A. Japanese encephalitis. A. Leptospirosis.
B. Dengue fever. B. Plague.
C. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD). C. Melioidosis.
D. Yellow fever. D. Rodent-bite fever.
Ans. C Ans. A

61. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the 67. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from
following microbial agents except: diarrhoea due to Campylobacter jejuni.
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Which of the following will be the correct
B. Legionella pneumophila. environmental conditions of incubation of
C. Human Corona virus. the culture plates of the stool sample:
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae. A. Temperature of 42°C and
Ans. D microaerophilic.
B. Temperature of 42°C and 10% carbon
62. The serum concentration of which of the dioxide.
following human IgG subclass is maximum? C. Temperature of 37°C and
A. IgG1. microaerophilic.
B. IgG2. D. Temperature of 37°C and 10% carbon
C. IgG3. dioxide.
D. IgG4. Ans. A
Ans. A
68. Which one of the following statements is
63. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae:
the following except: A. Fifteen serovars have been identified as
Microbiology
 human pathogens. Ans. D
B. Mode of transmission is by the airborne
bird excreta. 69. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which
C. The cytoplasmic inclusions present in of the following immunoglobulins?
the sputum specimen are rich in A. IgA.
glycogen. B. IgG.
D. The group specific antigen is C. IgM.
responsible for the production of D. IgE.
complement fixing antibodies. Ans. D

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Microbiology