MICROBIOLOGY OLD EXAM QUESTIONS

VIROLOGY

1. Viruses enter cells by adsorbing to specific sites on the outer membrane if

cells. Each of the following statements regarding this event is correct,
EXCEPT:
a. The reaction determines the specific targe organs for infection
b. The reaction determines wether the purified genome of a virus is
infectious
c. The interaction can be prevented by neutralizing antibody
d. If the sites are occupied, interference with virus infection occurs

2. Latency is an outcome of which of thhe following virus groups?

a. Polioviruses
b. Herpesviruses
c. Rhinoviruses
d. Influenza viruses

3. Each of the following statements concerning retroviruses is correct EXCEPT:

a. The virus particle carries an RNA-directed DNA polymeraseencoded by the
virus genome
b. The viral genom consists of 3 segments of double stranded DNA
c. Thhe virion is enveloped and enters cells via an interaction with specific
receptor on the host cell
d. During infection the virus synthesizes a DNA copy of its RNA and this DNA
becomes conveniently integrated into host cell DNA

4. Viruses may contain:

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Glycoprotein
d. Enzymes
e. Cell wall

5. Viruses are:
a. Obligate intracellular parasites
b. May divide by binary fission
c. Have their own metabolism
d. May contain enzymes for replication
e. May have an envelope

6. Serlogical diagnosis of primary viral infection may be made:

a. Detection of viral specific IgA
b. Detection of viral specific IgD
c. Detection of viral specific IgE
d. Detection of viral specific IgM
e. Seroconversion

7. Standard polymerase chain reaction (PCR) consits of:

a. Dentaturation, annealing and ligitation steps
b. Denaturation, annealing and extension steps
c. dNTPs
d. Mg2+ ions
e. Taq polymerase

8. Viruses that routinely establish latent infections in human sensory ganglia

include:
a. Epsien-Barr virus
b. Herpes simplex 1 virus
c. Varicella-Zoster virus
d. Herpes simplex 2 virus
e. Human herpes virus 6

9. The following statements are true:

a. All viruses are senstive to antiviral agents
b. Virus infected cells may be transformed
c. Viruses may have a lipid envelope
d. Viruses may produce cytopathic changes in cell culture
e. Some viruses are destroyed by lipid solvents

10. The following viruses are associated with respiratory infections:

a. Rotaviruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Influenza viruses
d. HTLV-1
e. RSV

11. The following viruses are thought to cause gastroenteritis:

a. Enteroviruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Norwalk-like viruses
d. Astroviruses
e. Rotaviruses

12. Chronic carrier state may occur in the following:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis delta
e. Hepatitis E

13. The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected

individuals:
a. HIV envelope antibody
b. HIV-p24 antigen
c. CD4 count
d. CD8 count
e. HIV viral load

14. The following markers are usually present in a Hepatitis B carrier with chronic
active hepatitis:
a. HBs Ag
b. HBs Ab
c. Anti-HBc IgM
d. HBV-DNA
e. Hbe Ag

15. Regarding rash illness:

a. Varicella-Zoster virus infection may cause a vesicular rash
b. The rash caused by Parovirus B19 is due to presence of virus in the skin
c. Measles is usually diagnosed by viral culture
d. Herpes simplex virus infection is usually diagnosed by a viral culture

16. Rubella infection:

a. Can be asymptomatic
b. May be indistingushable from Parovirus B19
c. Can cause serious side effects when occuring in women in thrid trimester
pregnancy
d. Is usually preventable by vaccination
e. May be acquired by having close contact with an infant with congenital
rubella syndrome

17. Herpes simplex encephalitis:

a. Commonly affect the temporal lobe
b. Is usually diagnosed by culture of the CSF
c. May be diagnosed by PCR of the CSF
d. Should be treated by IV ganciclovir
e. May be diagnosed by the finding of specific antibody in the CSF

18. The following statements are true for varicella-zoster virus:

a. Causes a maculopapular rash
b. Tesponds to AZT therapy
c. Remains latent in sensory ganglia following primary infection
d. Recurrent episodes of Shingles usually occur
e. Patients with shingles are not infectious

19. Cytomegalovirus (CMV):

a. Primary infection is usually symptomatic
b. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary
infection
c. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individual
d. Is teratogenic
e. Cuases Kawasaki's Disease

20. The following diseases are caused by enteroviruses EXCEPT ONE.

a. Pleurodynea
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Paralysis
d. Meningitis
e. Pericarditis
21. Viral pathogens, wrong statement:
a. Spread of virus in the body through different route e.g. blood, saliva
b. Humoral immunity but not cell mediated immunity act against viruses
c. Inclusion bodies produced by viruses can be single or many
d. In cytocydal infection, cells usually die
e. Several RNA viruses can cause persistent infection

22. In viral properties circle the wrong statement:

a. The viral envelope contains lipoproteins
b. Viruses can replicate in non-living media
c. Viruses need live cells to grow
d. Vriuses have no ribosomes
e. Contain either RNA or DNA

23. Regarding poliovirus, circle the wrong statement:

a. Two vaccines are available
b. There is no vaccine for polio
c. Can be isolated from throat swab or stool
d. Sub-clinical infections are common
e. Three serotypes exist

24. Structure and classification of viruses, wrong statement:

a. Isosahhedral symmetry hhave 12 vertices
b. Helical symmetry such as othomyxo virus
c. Thhe viruses contain protein and nucleic acid
d. Transcription is the formation of protein
e. Translation is the formation of protein

25. In HCV and HBV, circle the correct virus:

a. HBV is dsRNA
b. HCV is ssRNA
c. Both viruses can grow in cell culture
d. HBV doesn't have chronicity complication
e. Hemodialysis but not hemophilias are at risk for HCV

26. Regarding viral hepatitis, circle the wrong answer:

a. HCV-abs can't be diagnosed in the lab by EIA test
b. The risk factor for hepatocellular ca by HCV are underlying liver disease,
alcohol
c. HCV-DNA integrate into liver cell chromosomes in most HCC patients
d. Cell entry and replication of delta hepatitis take place by the presence of HBV
e. The RNA and protein of HDV is surrounded by HHBsAg

27. Viral diseases with maculopapular rash, EXCEPT:

a. Measles
b. Rubella
c. Erythema infectiosum
d. Exanthem subitum
e. Herpangina
28. True statements about herpesviruses, EXCEPT ONE:
a. There are 8 human herpes viruses
b. All are morphologically identical
c. All are DNA-viruses
d. All cause vesicular rash
e. All remain latent inside human body after primary infection

29. The following viruses are associated with cogenital infection, except:
a. Rubella
b. CMV
c. Parovirus B19
d. Varicella
e. RSV

30. The following statements about varicella and zoster are true, except one:
a. They are two diseases caused by the same virus
b. Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is the recurrent form of the
disease
c. They have the same clinical picture
d. Varicella is a disease of children, whereas zoster is a disease of elderly and
immunosuppressed patients
e. Varicella can be prevented by vaccination

31. Thhe following statements regarding HIV are true, EXECPT ONE:
a. It belongs to the family retroviridiae
b. It is an oncovirus
c. It is associated with the enzyme reverse transcriptase
d. The virus is present in all body fluids
e. The sexual route is the main mode of transmission

32. The following viruses are transmitted bt the fecal-oral route, EXCEPT:
a. HAV
b. HEV
c. HDV
d. Enteroviruses
e. Adenoviruses

33. Thhe following viruses can be transmitted sexually, except one:

a. HIV
b. HBV
c. HSV-2
d. Adenoviruses
e. Rubella

34. One of the most common sexually transmitter diseases that may lead to
cervical carcinoma is caused by whhich of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Papilloma virus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
e. Adenovirus

35. Which of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by the fecaloral route?
a. St. Louis encephalitis virus
b. Colorado tick fever virus
c. Coxsackievirus
d. Yellow fever virus
e. Dengue fever virus

36. Erythena infectiosum, a self-limited disease if children, is caused by:

a. Measles
b. Parovirus
c. Rubella
d. Human herpes virus 6
e. Norwalk virus

37. Cytomegalovirus infection is common. Whhich of the following statements

best charazterizes CMV?
a. It can be transmitted across the placental barrier
b. While common, CMV is almost always symptomatic
c. The CMV can be cutured from red blood cells of infected patients
d. Unlike other viral infections, CMV is not activated by immunosupressive
therapy
e. There is no specific therapy for CMV

38. Which one of thhe following statements best describes rotavirus?

a. There are no related animal viruses
b. It's a major cause of neonatal diarrhea
c. It is readily cultured from the stool of infected patients
d. Maternal antibody does not appear to be protective
e. Early breast feeding offers no protection to neonates against it

39. Paramyxoviruses are most commonly associated with whichof the following
diseases?
a. Fifth disease
b. Rubella
c. Croup
d. Tonsillitis
e. Otitis media

40. IgM antibody to the viral particle is the method of choice for laboratory
diagnosis of which one of thhe following hepatitis viruses?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E

41. This virus is a single-stranded RNA orthomyxovirus. Annual vaccination is

necessary because of antigenic drift and shift.
a. Measles virus
b. Inflluenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Parainfluenza virus
e. Adenovirus

42. Reverse transcrpitase is an enzyme unique to retroviruses. Which one of the

following is a function of the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
a. DNAse activity
b. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
c. RNA isomerase activity
d. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
e. Integration activity

43. Which of the following may be the only detecable serological marker during
the early convalescent phase of HBV infection (window phase)?
a. Hbe Ag
b. HBs Ag
c. HBc Ag
d. Anti-HBc
e. Hbe Ab

44. Patients should be vaccinated annually for influenza virus with which of the
following vaccines?
a. Immune serum globulin
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine
d. Live virus vaccine
e. Recombinant viral vaccine

45. Whichh of the following statements about virion structure and assembly is
correct?
a. Most viruses acquire surface proteins by budding through the nuclear
membrane
b. Helical nucleocapsids are found primarly in DNA viruses
c. The symmetry of virus particles prevents inclusion of any nonstructural
proteins such as enzymes
d. Enveloped viruses use a matrix proteins to mediate interactions
between viral glycoproteins in the plasma membrane and structural
proteins in the nucleocapsid

46. Each of the following statement concerning viruses is correct EXCEPT:

a. Viruses can reproduce only within cells
b. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into the
host cells
c. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus
mediate the entry of the virus into host cells
d. Neutralizing antibody is directed againts proteins on the surface of the virus
e. Viruses replicate by binary fission
47. Vruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Each of the statements is correct,
except:
a. Viruses cannot generate energy outisde cells
b. Viruses cannot synthetize proteis outside cells
c. Viruses must degrade host cells DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
d. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelope

48. Each of the following viruses posses an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:
a. Varicella-zoster virus
b. Papilloma virus
c. Influenza virus
d. HIV

49. Which of the following viruses possesses a genome of single stranded RNA
that is infectious when purified?
a. Influenza virus
b. Rotavirus
c. Measles virus
d. Polio virus

50. Each of the following viruses possesses an RNA polymerase in the virion,
except:
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Small pox virus
c. Mumps virus
d. Rotavirus

51. Each of the following viruses posesses a DNA polymerase in the virion,
except:
a. HIV
b. Human T cell leukemia virus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Hepatitis B virus

52. Which of thhe following would be the treatment of choice for HSV infection?
a. Acyclovir
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Herpes immune globulin
d. Azythromycin
e. Recombinsnt viral vaccine

53. Vaccination for thhis hepatic disease is with viral surface antigen snd usually
provides immunity:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
e. Hepatitis E
54. Recently appearing in thhe United states, the virus is carried by birds,
transmitted by mosquitos and infects humans and horses:
a. HPV
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-Borne encephalitis virus
d. Polyoma virus
e. SSPE

55. This virus is the leading cause of bronchiolitis and community acquired
pneumonia in infants:
a. Mesles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Parainfluenza virus
e. Adenovirus

56. Viroids:
a. Are defective viruses that re missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein
b. Consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat
c. Cause tumors in experimental animals
d. Require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur

57. Each of the following statements about HIV is correct except:

a. HIV is an enveloped RNA virus
b. The virion contains an RNA-dependent DNA poymerase
c. A DNA copy of thhe HIV genome integrates into host cell DNA
d. Acyclovir inhibits HIV replication

58. One of the following statements is true about yhe Varicella-Zoster virus:
a. Causes a maculopapular rash
b. Patients with dhingles are not infectious
c. Remanis latent in sensory ganglia following primary infection

59. Adenoviruses:
a. Are associated with gentital cancers
b. May cause gastroenteritis
c. May cause conjunctivitis
d. May cause pneumonia
e. May cause warts

60. The following markers are usually present in hepatitis B carrier with chronic
active hepatitis:
a. HbeAg
b. Anti-HBc IgG
c. Anti-HBc IgM
d. HbsAg

61. The following viruses can be transmitted by blood:

a. Hepatitis A
b. HIV
c. Influenza
d. HBV
e. HCV

62. Influenza A virus:

a. May undergo antigentic shift and drift
b. May cause pandemic
c. Responds to rimantidine
d. Vaccination confers lifelong protection

63. HIV infection may lead to:

a. Dementia
b. Chronic diarrhoea
c. CMV renitis
d. Vesicular rash
e. Gastroenteritis

64. Thhe following may be used for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected

individuals:
a. HIV envelope body level
b. HIV-p24 antigen
c. CD4 count
d. HIV pro-viral DNA in leucocytes
e. HIV plasma RNA

65. The following statements are true:

a. Chronic HBV infection may respond to interferon therapy
b. Hepatitis E infection may be prevented by vaccination
c. Chronic HVC infection may respond to ribavirin therapy
d. Hepatitis delta infection may be prevented by vaccination against HBV

66. The following viruses are associated with gastroennteritis:

a. Astroviruses
b. Noroviruses
c. Picornviruses
d. Adenoviruses
e. Rotaviruses
BACTERIOLOGY

1. The cell wall compsition of Gram-negative bacteria is:

a. Teichoic acid
b. Protein M
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Porins
e. Lipopolysacchharides

2. What is the role of glycocalyx

a. Enters the cell wall composition
b. Participates in adherance to host cells
c. Participates in biofilm creation
d. It is made of axial filaments

3. Which statements are correct for peptidoglycan?

a. Consists of alternately connected molecules of N-acetylmorumic acid
and N-acetylglycosamine
b. D-alanine is involved in cross-links between tetrapeptides
c. It is degraded by lysozyme
d. In ghram positive bacteria is thinner than in ghram negative

4. The identification of bacteria by serological tests is based on thhe presence of

specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial structures does NOT have a
significance as antigen carriers useful for identification?
a. Capsule
b. Cytoplasmic membrane
c. Flagelae
d. Cytoplasmic granules

5. A bacterial capsule has the following characteristics:

a. Represents a virulence factor
b. Protects the bacterium from host defense factors
c. It is significant for species typing
d. Maintains a permanent bacterial cell shape

6. The following enzymes act on the bacterial cell wall:

a. Beta-lactamases
b. Autolysins
c. Aminoglycosidases
d. Lysozymes

7. Resistance to bacterial spores to physical and chemical agents contributes to:

a. Reduced permeability of spore envelope
b. Reduced amount of water
c. Presence of Ca-dipicollinate
d. Increased metabollic activity
8. Thhe following statements are true for strictly anaerobic bacteria:
a. They have no catalase
b. The ultimate recipient of electrons in the energy generation process is
nitrate most often
c. They do not have superoxide dismutase
d. Oxygen acts toxic

9. According to the action of antibiotics, bacteria can express:

a. Sensitivity
b. Intermediate sensitivity
c. Tolerance
d. Resistance

10. The following statements are true for plasmids:

a. They are transfered by the conjugation process
b. They are not essential to the life of the bacterial cell
c. They have the ability to autonomously replicate
d. These are transposble structures

11. The virulence factors of gram-positive bacteria are:

a. Capsule
b. Ribosomes
c. Exotoxin
d. Lipid A

12. What is sterilisation?

a. A method of killing vegetative bacteria
b. Method of removal of all living microorganisms
c. Destruction of pathogenic microorganisms
d. Selective removal of individual microorganisms

13. What are the primary sterile regions in man?

a. Vagina
b. Blood
c. Urine
d. Liqor
e. Colon

14. At what stage of reproduction is the number of individuals created equal to

thhe number of dead bacteria?
a. Logarithmic
b. Lag
c. The slow growth phase
d. Stationary

15. The following statements are true for bacterial chromosome:

a. Bacteria have 2 chromosomes
b. DNA polymerase is involved in chromosome replication
c. The bacterial chromosome is coated with histones
d. Replication in 5' 3' direction is continuous
16. Who participates in restrictive transduction process:
a. Plasmids
b. The soluble portion of DNA
c. Transducing phage
d. DNA phage + bacterial chromosome DNA

17. A virulent phage is:

a. Plasmid
b. Transposon
c. Phage incorporated into bacterial genome
d. Released phage

18. Which of the following methods kill bacterial spores?

a. Autoclaving
b. Dry heat
c. Gamma-radiation
d. Pasteurization

19. Whichh of the following statements describes the mode of action of

endotoxins?
a. It breaks down lecithin in all cell membranes
b. It causes a rise in body temperature
c. It blocks acetyl-choline release
d. Causes tumor necrosis factor release

20. Basteria reproduce.

a. By binary fission
b. By conjugation
c. Via the L-shape
d. Multiple division

21. Whichh of the following features possess bacterial cytoplasmic membrane?

a. It is completely permeable to all nutrients
b. Contains porins
c. It mantains the shape of a bacterial cell if the cell wall is removed
d. It houses an electron-transport system

22. Adherance factors are:

a. Fimbira
b. Flagellae
c. Glycocalix
d. Ig A protease

23. What are intrahospital infections?

a. Occurence of infection up to 12h from admission to hospital
b. Occurence of infection within 24 hours of admission to hospital
c. Occurence of infection up to 48h from hospital admission
d. Occurence of infection after 48h from hospital admission
24. What constitues thhe central structure of the TnA transposon?
a. Insertion sequence
b. Antibiotic and protein resistance gene transposase and resolvase
c. Part of bacterial chromosome
d. Beta phage

25. Whhich cephalosporins cross the hematoencephalis barrier:

a. II generation cephalosporins
b. Oral cephalosporins of III generation
c. Generation III cephhalosporins parenterally
d. IV generation cephalosporins

26. The mechanisms of action of antimicrobials are.

a. Inhibition of iron metabolism
b. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c. Inhibition of thhe ribosomal subunit 70s
d. Inhhibition of folate metabolism

27. The combination of the following drugs has a synergistic effect:

a. Penicillins and quinolones
b. Cephalosporins and glycopeptides
c. Penicillins and aminoglycosides
d. Penicillins and tetracyclines

28. The mechanisms of bacterial resistance to antimicrobials are:

a. Modification of permeabillity of cell envelopes
b. Enzymatic inactivation of the drug
c. Modification of plasmids
d. Modification of metabolic pathway

29. The following statements about exotoxins are correct, EXCEPT:

a. They are integral part of cell wall
b. Exotoxins of different bacteria have different mechanisms of action
c. These are polypeptides consisting of 2 functional parts. One binds to cellular
receptors and other has toxic effect
d. By the action of formaldehyde, some exotoxins are converted to toxoids,
which are used as immunogens in certain vaccines