Lesson

Virology. Morphology and structure of viruses. Methods of the virus cultivation.

1. The absolutely new type of contagious agents of tobacco mosaic disease was described by:
a – *D. Ivanovsky in 1892;
b – Beyerink in 1898
c - L. Pasteur in 1885;
d – F. Loeffler in 1887;
e – F. d’Herell in 1917;

2. The chemical composition of capsid is represented by:

a – *proteins;
b – nucleic acids;
c – lipids;
d – carbohydrates;
e – lipoproteins.

3. Steps in the replication of viruses:

a – *Attachment, penentration, biosynthesis of Virus Components, maturation and assembly,
release
b – Attachment, biosynthesis of Virus Components, maturation and assembly, release.
c – Attachment, penentration, biosynthesis of Virus Components, release.
d –. Penentration, biosynthesis of Virus Components, maturation and assembly, release.
e - Attachment, penentration, biosynthesis of Virus Components, maturation and assembly.

4. The classification of viruses is based on:

a – *type of nucleic acid;
b – contents of lipids;
c – type of carbohydrates;
d – presence or absence of capsid;
e – presence or absence of nucleic acid.

5. The structural unit of virus capsid is:

a - *capsomer;
b – neuraminidase;
c – hemagglutinin;
d – proteins;
e – lipids.

6. Viruses are cultivated into

a – *tissue culture
b- liquid medium
c – isotonic solution
d – insects
e – solid medium

7. Many viruses mature by budding through the outer membrane of the host cell. Each of the
following statements regarding these viruses is correct EXCEPT:
A. *Some of these viruses do not have an envelope
B. Some of these viruses cause multinucleated giant cell formation
C. Some new viral antigens appear on the surface of the host cell
D. Some of these viruses contain host cell lipids

8. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Each of the following statements concerning this
fact is correct EXCEPT:
(A) *Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
(B)Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells
(C)Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells
(D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes

9. Viroids, the smallest known infectious agents, have wich of the following characteristics?
A – *possess a protein coat
B – infect only plants
C – infect only animals
D – are made up of single-stranded circular or linear RNA
E – are capable of coding for their own proteins

10. Each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct EXCEPT:
(A) *They participate in active transport of nutrients across the viral envelope membrane
(B) They elicit antibody that neutralizes infectivity of the virus
(C)They determine the species specificity of the virus-cell interaction
(D) They protect the genetic material against nucleases

11. Which one of the following statements about virion structure and assembly is CORRECT?
(A)*Most viruses acquire surface glycoproteins by budding through the nuclear membrane
(B)Helical nucleocapsids are found primarily in DNA viruses
(C)The symmetry of virus particles prevents inclusion of any nonstructural proteins, such as
enzymes
(D) Enveloped viruses use a matrix protein to mediate interactions between viral glycopro-
teins in the plasma membrane and structural proteins in the nucleocapsid

12. Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct EXCEPT:

(A) *Viruses replicate by binary fission
(B)Viruses can reproduce only within cells
(C)The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into host cells
(D) Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus

Lesson
Indication and identification of viruses. Laboratory diagnostics of the viral infections
(culture method).

1. Choose the correct method of detecting viral growth in cell cultures:

A – *hemadsorption
B – inclusion bodies
C – hemagglutination

2. Choose the correct serologic techniques of identification of a viral growth in cell cultures:
A – *Hemagglutination inhibition
B – *Neutralization
C – Hemadsorption
D – Cytopathogenic effect
E – Indirect immunofluorescence

3. Choose the correct method of detecting viral growth in cell cultures:

A - *loss of architecture and rounding of cells
B - *cytopathogenic effect
C – hemagglutination
4. Choose the correct serologic techniques of identification of a viral growth in cell cultures:
A – *Hemadsorption inhibition
B – *Neutralization
C – *Cytopathogenic effect ingibition
D – Hemagglutination
E – Direct immunofluorescence

Lesson
Serological tests in the laboratory diagnostics of the viral infections.

1. Serology are used for

A – *identification antibodies in the pathient’ sera and antigens of viruses
B – identification only antigens of viruses
C – determine only antibodies
D – identification only viruses

2. During the outbreak of acute respiratory infection express-diagnostics method is used

for diagnosing the flu. The method is based on detecting a specific virus antigen in the
researched material (nasopharynx swab). Which serological reaction is used for this purpose?
A. *Immunofluorescence assay.
B. Complement fixation.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Precipitation.
E. Opsonization.

Lesson 27
Bacteriophages. Structure and features. Practical usage.

1. Bacteriophages are:
a – *small microorganisms, which are filtrated through bacterial filters,
b – mycoplasmas,
c – viruses of bacteria,
d – macro- and microphages.

2. By their morphology phages are divided on:

a - *phages with icosahedral head and process,
b – cubic,
c – *filamentous,
d –- pleomorphic.

3. There are some types of interaction of phages and sensitive cells:

a – *productive (lytic) infection,
b – *abortive infection,
c – *lysogeny (virogeny).

4. A temperate bacteriophage has been induced from a new pathogenic strain of Escherichia
coli that produces a toxin. Which one of the following is the MOST convincing way to show
that the phage encodes the toxin?
A. * Carry out conjugation of the pathogenic strain with a nonpathogenic strain
B. Infect an experimental animal with the phage
C. Lysogenize a nonpathogenic strain with the phage
D. Look for transposable elements in the phage DNA

5. Each of the following statements concerning lysogeny is correct EXCEPT:

A. Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes
B. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
C. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA
D. *Some lysogenic bacteriophage encode toxins that cause human disease

6. The main method of cultivations of the phages is:

A. in the solid media
B. in the liquid media
C. in the embryo egg
D.* in the bacterial culture
E. in the animals

Lesson
Viruses of the flu, measles and parainfluenza. Biological properties. Laboratory diagnostics
of diseases caused by them.

1. Each of the following statements concerning influenza is correct EXCEPT:

(A) *The antigenic changes that occur with antigenic drift are due to reassortment of the
multiple pieces of the influenza virus genome Major epidemics of the disease are caused by
influenza A viruses rather than influenza B and C viruses
(B) Likely sources of new antigens for influenza A viruses are the viruses that cause
influenza in animals
(C) Major antigenic changes (shifts) of viral surface proteins are seen primarily in influenza
A viruses rather than in influenza B and C viruses

2. Each of the following statements concerning measles vaccine is correct EXCEPT:

(A) *The vaccine should not be given in conjunction with other viral vaccines because
interference can occur
(B) The vaccine contains live, attenuated virus
(C) Virus in the vaccine contains only one serotype
(D) The vaccine should not be given prior to 15 months of age because maternal antibodies
can prevent an immune response

3.Which of the following is known to exist in only one major antigenic type EXCEPT:
a. Measles
b. Rubella
c. Mumps
d. Rabies
e. *Influenza A

4. Influenza viruses:
a. *Have a helical nucleocapsid with a core of single-stranded RNA
b. Lack a lipid envelope
c. Have an icosahedral nucleocapsid with a core of double-stranded DNA
d. Have an icosahedral nucleocapsid with a core of double-stranded RNA
e. Have a helical nucleocapsid with a core of single-stranded DNA

5. The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be
(A) *Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
(B) People in isolated communities such as the Arctic
(C) Soil, especially in the tropics
(D) Sewage

6. Which one of the following is the BEST evidence on which to base a decisive diagnosis
of acute mumps disease?
(A) *A 4-fold rise in antibody titer to mumps surface antigen
(B) A positive skin test
(C) A history of exposure to a child with mumps
(D) Orchitis in young adult male

7. Each of the following statements concerning measles virus is correct EXCEPT:

(A) *Latent infection by measles virus can be explained by the integration of provirus into the
host cell DNA
(B) One of the important complications of measles is encephalitis
(C) The initial site of measles virus replication is the upper respiratory tract, from which it
spreads via the blood to the skin
(D) Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome

8. Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct
EXCEPT:
(A) *The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein
(B) Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase
(C) The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts
(D) Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and
are due to the recombination (reassortment) of segments of the viral genome

9.Last year’s influenza A vaccine is unlikely to be effective today because influenza A virus
a. *Undergoes genetic variation
b. Has a heavy polysaccharide coat
c. Immunosuppresses the host
d. Kills lymphocytes
e. Resists inactivation by complement

10. Infecting of chicken embryos is the basic method of influenza virus isolation. Before
introducing the researched material (nasopharynx swab) into a chicken embryo a sample should
be preliminary decontaminated with:
A. Formalin.
B. Alcohol.
 C. Eagle's solution.
D. *Streptomycin and penicillin.
E. Ether.

The bank of Krok-1 tests

1. During the outbreak of acute respiratory infection express-diagnostics method is used

for diagnosing the flu.The method is based on detecting a specific virus antigen in the researched
material (nasopharynx swab). Which serological reaction is used for this purpose?

A. *Immunoelectrophoresis. D. Precipitation.
B. Complement fixation.
C. Agglutinations. E. Opsonization.

2. Influenza virus contains internal antigens — nucleoprotein (NP), polymerase (PI, P2,
P3), matrix protein (M), and surface antigens — hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).
Which of them play the basic role in the creation of the immunity to influenza infection?

A. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.

B. Nucleoprotein antigens.
C. Matrix protein.
D. Polymerase proteins.
E. Neuraminidase and nucleoprotein.

3. A human corpse is sent to a department of morbid anatomy from an infectious hospital.

The preliminary diagnosis is influenza. What researches are the most rational for confirmation of
this diagnosis?
A. Antibodies detecting during complement fixation test.
B. Electron microscopic detecting of viruses.
C. Detecting intracellular inclusions using light microscopy.
D. Detecting high antibody titers during hemagglutination inhibition test.
E. *Isolation and serologic identification of virus.

4. Infecting of chicken embryos is the basic method of influenza virus isolation. Before
introducing the researched material (nasopharynx swab) into a chicken embryo a sample should
be preliminary decontaminated with:

A. Formalin.
B. Alcohol.
C. Eagle's solution.
D. *Streptomycin and penicillin.
E. Ether.

5. There is a flu epidemic in a city. Which preparation could be recommended for the
nonspecific prevention of the disease?
A. *Remantadin.
B. Influenza vaccine.
C. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt.
D. Antigrippal immunoglobulin.
E. Antigrippal serum.
6. A doctor in charge of immunization program makes the list of preparations to prevent a
season influenzaepidemic. Which one of the following is the least allergenic and the most likely
to develop active specific immunity?
A. *Subunit vaccine.
B. Live vaccine.
C. Killed vaccine.
D. Donor γ-globulin.
E. α-interferon.

7. For prevention of the seasonal high rate of influenza in educational institutions doctors
decided to carry out immunization of children and teenagers. Which preparation should be used
for this purpose?

A. Interferon. D. Oxolin.
B. Normal human immunoglobulin.
C. Remantadin. E. *Vaccine.

8. At a neonatal unit the children's morbidity with respiratory virus infections caused by
different groups of viruses has sharply increased. To prevent the spread of infection it was
recommended to prescribe human leukocytic interferon. How should it be introduced?
A. Via inhalation.
B. Subcutaneously.
C.*Through nasal meatuses.
D. Orally.
E. Intramuscularly.

Lesson
Enteroviruses. Poliovirus, Coxsackie and ECHO viruses. Laboratory diagnostics of
diseases.

1. Family Picornaviridae includes viruses with following morphology:

a. *naked viruses;
b. enveloped viruses;
c. genome is positive double -stranded RNA;
d. virus containing double-stranded DNA.
2. Choose the correct characteristics of the Salk's vaccine:
a. *inactivated vaccine
b. after immunization local and general immunity will be created
c. the route of administration is per oral;
d. *it consists of three types of the polioviruses
e *it is used for immunization of the children 3 months old

3. Choose the correct characteristics of the Sabin's vaccine:

a. inactivated vaccine
b. *live vaccine
c. *after immunization local and general immunity will be created
d. *the route of administration is per oral

4. Polyoviruses have a (an)

A. is icosahedral and contains double-stranded RNA*
B. bullet-shaped and contains RNA
C. has a lipid envelope and contains double-stranded DNA
D. is icosahedral and contains single-stranded DNA

5. Although polioviruses initially multiply in the intestinal tract, they may eventually cause
muscular paralysis by infecting the cells in the gray matter of the:
A. *spinal cord
B. large intestine
C. lymph nodes
D. small intestine
E. muscles

6. Each of the following statements regarding poliovirus and its vaccine is correct EXCEPT:
(A)Poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route
(B)*Pathogenesis by poliovirus primarily involves the death of sensory neurons
(C)The live, attenuated vaccine contains all three serotypes of poliovirus
(D) An unimmunized adult traveling to underdeveloped countries should receive the inacti-
vated vaccine

7. Which one of the following strategies is MOST likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal
immunity to poliovirus?
(A) Parenteral (intramuscular) vaccination with inactivated vaccine
(B)Oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin
(C)Parenteral vaccination with live vaccine
(D) *Oral vaccination with live vaccine

The bank of Krok-1 tests

1. From a patient with acute intestinal infection enterovirus was obtained. To detect the
serotype of thevirus diagnostic serums were used. Which antibodies must the serums contain?
A. To proteins of supercapsid.
B. *To proteins of capsid.
C. To non-structural virus proteins.
D. To virus enzymes.
E. To virus hemagglutinin.

2. For poliomyelitis serologic diagnostics paired serum samples of a patient are being
examined. What should be used as antigen during virus neutralization test?
A. Antigens of virus capsid proteins.
B. Viral complement-fixing antigens.
C. Antigens inactivated by formalin.
D. Antigens-hemagglutinins.
E. *Live viruses.

3. The first vaccination against poliomyelitis should be done at 3 month's age with the use
of Sabin vaccine. What class of immunoglobulins does not take part in postvaccinal immunity
formation in this case?
A. IgG.
B. *IgE.
C. IgA secretory.
D. IgM.
E. IgA serumal.
Lesson
Hepatitis viruses. Biological properties. Laboratory diagnostics of a human viral hepatitis.

1. Choose the correct method for laboratory diagnostic of the viral hepatitis type A:
a. Biological method
b. *Serological method: revealing of the antibody titer in RA
c. Detection of the viral particles in RA
d. Detection of the viral particles in the blood with ELISA
e. Virological method

2. Each of the following statements hepatitis A virus is correct EXCEPT:

(A)The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract
(B) Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children
(C)*The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus in cell culture
(D) Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons

3. Choose the correct methods for laboratory diagnostics of the viral hepatitis type B:
a. Serological method: revealing of the antibody titer in RA
b. Detection of the viral particles in RA
c. *Detection of the viral particles or viral antigens in the blood with ELISA
d. Virological method
e. Biological method

4. One of the hepatitis viruses requires helper for own reproduction into the hepatocytes dueto its
failure. Choose from the next list this virus and its helper:
a. HBV and HAV
b. HDV and HCV
c. *HDV and HBV
d. HCV and HBV

5. The routine screening of transfused blood for HBs antigen has not eliminated the problem
ofposttransfusion hepatitis. For which one of the following viruses has screening eliminated a
largenumber of cases of posttransfusion hepatitis?
(A)Hepatitis A virus
(B) *Hepatitis C virus
(C)Cytomegalovirus
(D)Epstein-Barr virus

6. 35-year-old man addicted to intravenous drugs has been a carrier of HBs antigen for 10
years.He suddenly develops acute fulminant hepatitis and dies within 10 days. Which one of the
following laboratory tests would contribute MOST to a diagnosis?
(A)Anti-HBs antibody
(B)HBe antigen
(C)Anti-HBc antibody
(D) *Anti-delta virus antibody

7. During an operative intervention a patient had blood transfusion. In his blood the
presence of the following causative agent should be checked:
A. *Hepatitis B virus.
B. Hepatitis A virus.
C. Hepatitis E virus.
D. Enteroviruses.
E. Adenoviruses.
8. High-sensitivity methods are used for checking the presence of virus hepatitis B
antigens in donors' blood. Which test should be used?
A. *Solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B. Immunoelectrophoresis.
C. Indirect hemagglutination.
D. Complement fixation.
E. Indirect immunofluorescence.
9. In a settlement there is registered an outbreak of hepatitis associated with water factor.
What virus could induce this outbreak?
A. Hepatitis G.
B. Hepatitis C.
C. Hepatitis D.
D. *Hepatitis A.
E. Hepatitis B.

The bank of Krok-1 tests

1. High-sensitivity methods are used for checking the presence of virus hepatitis B
antigens in donors' blood. Which test should be used?

A. *Solid-phase enzyme immunoassay. D. Complement fixation.

B. Immunoelectrophoresis.
C. Indirect hemagglutination. E. Indirect
immunofluorescence.

2. HBs-antigen has been revealed during enzyme immunoassay in serum. What infection
can be diagnosed by this antigen detecting?
A. Syphilis.
B. Virus hepatitis A.
C. AIDS.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. *Virus hepatitis B.

3. The causative agent of hepatitis D (delta-agent) is a defective virus. It can replicate only
in cells already infected with one of the viruses. With which one?
A. Human immunodeficiency.
B. Hepatitis A.
C. Hepatitis E.
D. Epstein-Barr.
E. *Hepatitis B.

4. A patient with a very grave course of hepatitis B has been administered the examination
for detecting the possible concomitant agent, which complicates the course of the basic
disease.What agent is this?
A. *Delta-virus.
B. Hepatitis C virus.
C. Hepatitis G virus.
D. Hepatitis E virus.
E. HBs-antigen.

5. During an operative intervention a patient had blood transfusion. In his blood the
presence of the following causative agent should be checked:
A. *Hepatitis B virus.
B. Hepatitis A virus.
C. Hepatitis E virus.
D. Enteroviruses.
E. Adenoviruses.

6. A patient with viral hepatitis A was admitted to an infectious hospital. What antibodies
will be synthesized first in response to this virus reproduction?
A. IgA.
B. IgG.
C. *IgM.
D. IgD.
E. IgE.

7. In a settlement there is registered an outbreak of hepatitis associated with water factor.

What virus could induce this outbreak?
A. Hepatitis G.
B. Hepatitis C.
C. Hepatitis D.
D. *Hepatitis A.
E. Hepatitis B.

Lesson
Retroviruses. Human immunodeficiency virus. Laboratory diagnostics of the HIV infection
and AIDS.

1. Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct
EXCEPT:

A. Screening tests for antibodies are useful to prevent transmission of HIV through transfused
blood
B. The opportunistic infections seen in AIDS are primarily the result of a loss of cell-mediated
immunity
C. Zidovudine (azidothymidine) inhibits the RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
D. *The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is evidence that an individual is
protected against HIV-induced disease

2. Choose the correct estimations about human immunodeficiency virus:

A. It contains haploid double-stranded genome
B. Internal antigens are glycoprotein
C. *Enveloped RNA-including virus
D. It is antigen stable

3. Retroviruses contain viral specific enzyme. Choose the proprietary retrovirus enzyme from the
list:
A. *Reverse transcriptase
 B. RNA-polymerase
C. DNA-polymerase
D. Hemagglutinine
E. Neuraminidase

4.Which kind of cells may be infected by HIV?

A. T-killers
B. Enteric cells
C. *T-helpers
D. *Glial cells
E. *B-lymphocytes

5. Determine the INCORRECT route of transmission for HIV-infection:

A. *Fecal – oral route by ingestion
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Parenteral
D. Transplacental transferring

6. Each of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct
EXCEPT:
A. HIV is an enveloped RNA virus
B. The virion contains an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C. A DNA copy of the HIV genome integrates into host cell DNA
D. *Acyclovir inhibits HIV replication

7. AIDS is caused by a human retrovirus that kills

A. B lymphocytes
B. Lymphocyte stem cells
C. *CD4-positive T lymphocytes
D. CD8-positive T lymphocytes

8. Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus is correct

EXCEPT:
A. The CD4 protein on the T-cell surface is the receptor for the virus
B. There is appreciable antigenic diversity in the envelope glycoprotein of the virus
C. One of the viral genes codes for a protein that augments the activity of the viral tran-
scriptional promoter
D. *A major problem with testing for antibody to the virus is its cross-reactivity with human T-
cell lymphoma virus type I

9. Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus is correct

EXCEPT:
A. Patients infected with HIV typically form antibodies against both the envelope glycopro-
teins (gpl20 and gp4l) and the internal group-specific antigen (p24)
B. *HIV probably arose as an endogenous virus of humans because HIV proviral DNA is
found in the DNA of certain normal human cells
C. Transmission of HIV occurs primarily by the transfer of blood or semen in adults, and
neonates can be infected at the time of delivery
 D. The Western blot test is more specific for HIV infection than the ELISA is concerning

10. Which method of laboratory diagnostics is mainly used for primary diagnostics of HIV-
infection?

A. *ELISA test for revealing of antiglycoprotein antibody

B. ELISA test for revealing of p24 antigen
C. Isolation of the HIV from the blood
D. Detection of the viral RNA with PCR in the blood
E. Immunoblotting (Western blot)

11. Which method of laboratory diagnostics is mainly used to confirm diagnose HIV-infection?

A. ELISA test for revealing of antiglycoprotein antibody

B. ELISA test for revealing of p24 antigen
C. Detection of the viral RNA with PCR in the blood
D. Immunofluorescence test
E. *Immunoblotting (Western blot)

12. Some infections are known as HIV-associated ones. Indicate them in the following list:

A. *Kaposi’s sarcoma
B. *Candidosis
C. *Opportunistic enteric infection
D. *Tuberculosis
E. *Herpetic infections (labial herpes, herpes-zoster infection, generalized
cytomegaloviral infection)

The bank of Krok-1 tests

1. It is known that human immunodeficiency virus belongs to Retroviridae family. What
basic feature characterizes this family?
A. Simple viruses, which affect only human beings.
B. Contain RNA of negative polarity.
C. *Presence of reverse transcriptase enzyme.
D.Nucleic acid does not integrate into the genome of the host.
E. DNA-containing viruses which cause chronic infections.

2. Rather often the cause of acquired immunodeficiencies is the infectious damage of

organism which is characterized by causative agents' reproduction directly in immune system
cells and destruction of these cells. Choose such disease among given below.
A. *AIDS.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Poliomyelitis.
D. Cholera.
E. Epidemic typhus

3. S. aureus associated with S. epidermidis is isolated from numerous skin pustules of a 25-
year-old patient. Sputum analysis detects Pneumocysts carinii; feces analysis detects
Cryptosporidia,Proteus vulgaris, and fungi of Candida genus. What disease is characterized by
such multiple infection caused by opportunistic microorganisms?
A. *AIDS.
 B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Sepsis
D. Dysbacteriosis.
E. Drug agranulocytosis.

4. A 20-year-old patient has AIDS diagnosed. What cells populations are the most sensitive
to the human immunodeficiency virus?
A. B-lymphocytes.
B. Hepatocytes.
C. Endotheliocytes.
D. Epitheliocytes.
E. *T-helpers.

5. During checking the donors' blood at a hemotransfusion station antibodies to human

immunodeficiency virus have been revealed in the serum. What method is recommended for the
confirmation of HIV-infection diagnosis?

A. Complement fixation test. D. Immunofluorescence test.

B. Electron microscopy.
C. *Western blotting (immunoblotting). E. Radioimmunoassay
6. Human immunodeficiency virus, having on its surface antigens gp41 and gpl20, interacts
with the target cells of an organism. Which human lymphocytes marker can be complementary
connected with gpl20 of the virus?
A. *CD 4.
B. CD 3.
C. CD 8.
D. CD 19.
E. CD 28.

7. Blood serum examination of a patient with signs of immunodeficiency has shown

antibodies to proteins gpl20 and gp41. Which disease is confirmed by this result?

A. Poliomyelitis. D.HBV-infection.
B. HLTV-1-infection.
C. *HIV-infection. E. ECHO-virus infection.

8. During immunoblot analysis protein gp120 has been revealed in blood serum. What
infection can be diagnosed by this antigen detecting?
A. Virus hepatitis B.
B. *HIV-infection.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Poliomyelitis.

9. In a specialized clinic a patient has been prescribed a combination of preparations,

which inhibit HIV reproduction. To what group do the preparations, which are obligatory used in
complex antiviral treatment, belong?

A. Interleukin. D. Nystatin.
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics.
C. *Nucleosides analogs. E. Biseptol.
Lesson 32
Rabies virus and encephalitis viruses. Biological features. Laboratory diagnostics of rabies
and viral encephalitis.

1. Detect the correct characteristics of the rabies virus:

a. Naked spherical RNA-including virus
b. *Enveloped bullet-shaped RNA-including virus
c. Resistant to heating, drying and ultraviolet radiation
d. It can not be reveal with hemagglutination test with birds' erythrocytes

2. Choose the main reservoir of the Japanese encephalitis virus (*JV) and Russian spring-
summer encephalitis virus (**RSSEV) in the nature?
a. *Rodents
b. *Birds
c. **Goats
d. **Ticks
e. Humans

3. Rabies virus can multiply in:

a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves\Muccle tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. *All the above

4. Bullet-shaped virus is:

a. *Rabies virus
b. Reovirus
c. Orthomyxovirus
d. Poliovirus

5. Japanese virus encephalitis spread by:

a. Ixodes ticks
b. *Culex mosquitoes
c. Anopheles mosquitoes
d. Ill animals

The bank of Krok-1 tests

1. A patient has been bitten by a dog. The dog was caught, and it was established that the
animal is ill with rabies. What vaccine is to be used for specific prevention of rabies of this
patient?
A. *Live.
B. Toxoid.
C. Chemical.
D. Recombinant.
E. Synthetic.
 2. A patient with an avulsed wound of shin caused by a rabid animal bite was delivered to a
hospital. What vaccine is necessary to introduce for prevention of rabies development?
A. ADT vaccine.
B. APDT vaccine.
C. *Antirabic vaccine.
D. BCG.
E. TABTe.

3. A hunter has referred for medical aid concerning the bites of hands by a wounded fox.
What basic aid should be given to him for the specific prevention of rabies?
A. Washing of the wound with soap solution.
B. Surgical treatment of the wound.
C. Introduction of antibiotics.
D. *Introduction of rabies vaccine.
E. Treatment of the wound with alcoholic iodine solution.

Lesson
Herpes viruses. Biological properties. Laboratory diagnostics of the diseases caused by
herpes viruses.

1. What is the BEST explanation for the selective action of acyclovir (acycloguanosine) in
herpes simplex virus-infected cells?
(A) Acyclovir binds specifically to herpesvirus receptors on the infected cell surface
(B) Viral phosphokinase phosphorylates acyclovir more effectively than does the host cell
phosphokinase
(C) *Acyclovir inhibits the RNA polymerase in the virus particle
(D) Acyclovir blocks the matrix protein of the virus, thereby preventing release by budding

2. Varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus share many characteristics. Which one of
the following characteristics is NOT shared?
(A) *Inapparent disease, manifested only by virus shedding
(B) Persistence of latent virus after recovery from acute disease
(C) Vesicular rash
(D) Linear, double-stranded DNA genome

3. The eradication of smallpox was facilitated by everal features of the virus. Which one of
the following contributed LEAST to eradication?
A) It has one antigenic type
B) Inapparent infection is rare
C) Administration of live vaccine reliably induces immunity
D) *It multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected cells

4. A 24-year-old woman has had fever and a sore throat for the past week. Moderately
severe pharyngitis and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy are seen on physical
examination. Which one of the following viruses is LEAST likely to cause this picture?
(A) Varicella-zoster virus
(B) Adenovirus
(C) Coxsackievirus
(D) *Epstein-Barr virus
5. Which one of the following statements concerning infectious mononucleosis is the MOST
accurate?
(A) Multinucleated giant cells are found in the skin lesions
(B) Infected T lymphocytes are abundant in peripheral blood
(C) *Isolation of virus is necessary to confirm the diagnosis
(D) Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted by virus in saliva

6. Which one of the following statements about genital herpes is LEAST accurate?
(A) Acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes by eradicating latently
infected cells
(B) Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions
(C) Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are found in the lesions
(D) *Initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes

7. Each of the following statements concerning herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) is
correct EXCEPT:
(A) *Natural infection with HSV-2 confers only partial immunity against a second primary
infection
(B) HSV-2 causes vesicular lesions, typically in the genital area
(C) HSV-2 can cause virus-specific alterations of the cell membrane, leading to cell fusion
and the formation of multinucleated giant cells
(D) Recurrent disease episodes due to reactivation of latent HSV-2 are usually more severe than
the primary episode

8. Each of the following statements concerning Epstein-Barr virus is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Many infections are mild or inapparent
(B) The earlier in life primary infection is acquired, the more likely the typical picture of
infectious mononucleosis will be manifest
(C) Latently infected lymphocytes regularly persist following an acute episode of infection
(D) *Infection confers immunity against second episodes of infectious mononucleosis

9. Each of the following statements concerning herpes virus latency is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Exogenous stimuli can cause reactivation of latent infection, with induction of
symptomatic disease
(B) *During latency, antiviral antibody is not demonstrable in the sera of infected individuals
(C) Episodes of herpesvirus reactivation are more frequent and more severe in patients with
impaired cell-mediated immunity
(D) Virus can be recovered from latently infected cells by cultivation with susceptible cells

The bank of Krok-1 tests

1. During the microscopy of the cellular monolayer infected by the virus-containing
material from a patient a laboratory doctor has diagnosed a respiratory syncytial virus infection.
What changes are caused by this virus in cell culture?

A. *Symplasts formation. D.Appearance of Negri bodies.

B. Cluster-shaped destruction of monolayer.
C. Complete destruction of cellular monolayer. E. Cells proliferation
 2. A student was hospitalized to an infectious department at the beginning of the disease.
Infectious mononucleosis was suspected. Which result confirmed the diagnosis of this student on
the day of hospitalization?
A. Detecting antibodies to cytomegalovirus.
B. Detecting IgM-antibodies to herpes simplex virus.
C. Detecting 4-time quantity in crease of antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus.
D. Detecting of herpes simplex virus.
E. *Detecting IgM antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus.

Lesson
Adenoviruses. Biological properties. Laboratory diagnostics of an adenoviral infection.

1. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be caused by adenoviruses?

(A) *Glomerulonephritis
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Pharyngitis
(D) Conjunctivitis

2. Each of the following statements concerning adenoviruses is correct EXCEPT:

(A) *Adenoviruses have only one serologic type
(B) Adenoviruses cause both sore throat and pneumonia
(C) Adenoviruses are composed of a double-stranded DNA genome and a capsid without an
envelope
(D) Adenoviruses are implicated as a cause of tumours in animals but not humans