VIROLOGY MCQs

Lecture 1

1. Which statement is true?

a) All viruses make us sick and can be Lethal

b) Our immune system can manage most viral infections

c) Humans are usually infected by one virus at a time

d) The press is usually correct in their virology reporting

e) Our immune system cannot handle most viral infections

2. Which of the following is true concerning bacterial versus viral replication?

a) Viruses must assemble using pre-formed components

b) Bacteria do not replicate via binary fission as viruses do

c) Bacteria must assemble using pre-formed components

d) Viruses do not have an "eclipse" period

e) Viruses replicate by binary fission

3. Which key concept first discovered about viruses that distinguish them from other
microorganisms?

a) They were too large to pass through a 0.2 micron filter

b) They could replicate only in broth

c) They made tobacco plants sick

d) They were small enough to pass through a 0.2 micron filter

e) None of the above

Miscellaneous

Lecture 2

1. A ____ and _____cell is the only cell that can take up a virus particle and replicate it (fill in the
blanks)

a) Naive and resistant

b) Primary and permissive

c) Susceptible and permissive

d) Susceptible and naive

e) Continuous and immortal

2. When doing a plaque assay, what is the purpose of adding a semi-solid agar overlay on the
monolayer of infected cells?
 a) To stabilize progeny virions

b) To ensure that cells remain susceptible and permissive

c) To act as a pH indicator

d) To keep cells adherent to the plate during incubation

e) To restrict viral diffusion after lysis of infected cells

3. In the 'particle to PFU ratio', 'particle' can best described as:

a) One of the proteins which makes up the virion

b) A virus which may or may not be infectious

c) A virus which is infectious

d) A virus which is not infectious

e) Elementary or composite

4. If cells are infected at an MOI=10 in a one-step growth cycle experiment, in the growth curve
you will likely see…

a) Multiple bursts of virus release

b) Multiple eclipse periods

c) A single burst of virus release

d) No burst of virus release

e) Asynchronous infection

Miscellaneous

a. What living organism is used for the large-scale propagation of many different viruses?
A. Beef heart
B. Chicken eggs
C. Monkey brains
D. Paramecium
E. All of the above
b. When studying viral growth cycles, infecting all available cells will result in:
A. One-step growth cycle
B. Multiple-step growth cycle
C. Bacterial growth cycle
D. Arithmetic growth cycle
E. None of the above

Lecture 3: Genomes and Genetics

1. Why is mRNA placed at the centre of the Baltimore scheme?

a) Because all virus particles contain mRNA

b) There is no specific reason

 c) Because all viral genomes are mRNAs

d) Because mRNA must be made from all viral genomes

e) Because Baltimore studied mRNA

2. What information may be encoded in a viral genome?

a) Gene products that catalyze membrane biosynthesis

b) Gene products that catalyze energy production

c) Complete protein synthesis systems

d) Centromeres and telomeres

e) Enzymes to replicate the viral genome

3. Which DNA genome, on entry into cell, can be immediately copied into mRNA?

a) dsDNA

b) Gapped dsDNA

c) Circular ssDNA

d) Linear ssDNA

e) All of the above

4. Which statement about viral RNA genomes is correct?

a) (+) as RNA genomes may be translated to make Viral protein

b) dsRNA genomes can be directly translated to make Viral protein

c) (+) ssRNA virus replication cycles do not require a (-) strand intermediate

d) RNA genomes can be copied by host cell RNA-depended RNA polymerases

e) All of the above

Miscellaneous

a. How many different types of viral genomes are known to science?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 20
E. 100

Lecture 4: Structure of Viruses

1. Virus capsids are metastable because:

a) They must protect the viral genome outside the cell

b) They must come apart and release genome into a cell

c) They have not obtained a minimum free energy conformation

 d) They are spring loaded

e) All of the above

2. Which of the following describes virus symmetry and self-assembly?

a) The bonding contacts of subunits are usually covalent

b) The bonding contacts of subunits are usually non-covalent

c) Each subunit has different bonding contacts with its neighbors

d) Self-assembly of virus particles does not occur

e) None of the above

3. Which of the following are characteristics of icosahedral symmetry in viral capsids?

a) Produces a solid with 20 faces, each an equilateral triangle

b) Allows formation of a closed shell with 60 identical subunits

c) Fivefold, threefold, and twofold axes of symmetry

d) The T Number describes the number of facets per icosahedral face

e) All of the above

Miscellaneous

a. Which of the following is false in reference to host membrane surrounding a capsid?

A. Envelope is a lipid bilayer derived from host cell
B. Viral genome does not encode lipid synthetic machinery
C. Envelope acquired by budding of nucleocapsid through a cellular membrane
D. Envelope can be from any cell membrane, but it is virus specific
E. Nucleocapsids inside the envelope may only have helical symmetry
b. Viral glycoproteins tend to be located in:
A. The capsid
B. The genome
C. In the viral envelope
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Lecture 5: Attachment and Entry

1. Viral receptors on cell surface:

a) Can bind directly to icosahedral virus capsid proteins

b) Interact with glycoproteins of enveloped viruses

c) Can be carbohydrate or protein molecules

d) Have cellular functions

e) All of the above

2. Which of the following does not play a role in virus entry?

 a) Catherin-mediated endocytosis

b) Fusion of viral and plasma membranes

c) Diffusion of virus particles in the cytoplasm

Viruses are too large to diffuse across the cell membrane. Diffusion of viral particles in
cytoplasm do not contribute to the viral entry. Reason: The diffusion of viral particle is not
possible as a virus. As diffusion is only possible for very small molecules like CO2, O2 etc.

d) Microtubule-mediated transport

e) Sialic acids-

Sialic acids (SAs), which are linked to glycoproteins and ganglioside, serve as receptors for
several human and animal viruses

3. Viral fusion peptides are exposed for insertion into the host cell membrane when:

a) The virus particle is near a cell

b) The virus particle is in the cytoplasm

c) Trimers of the fusion peptides form

d) The endosome becomes acidified

e) The virus is docked on the nuclear pore

Miscellaneous

a. Host cell receptors are essential for:

A. Animal viruses
B. Plant viruses
C. Fungal viruses
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
b. How does a virus move through a cell?
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Motor proteins and microtubules
D. Motor proteins and actin

Lecture 6

1. Which is a universal rule about RNA directed RNA synthesis?

a) RdRp may initiate de novo or require a primer

b) RNA synthesis initiates randomly on the RNA template

c) RNA is synthesized in a 3'-5' direction

d) RNA synthesis is always template-directed

2. Which is a part of the poliovirus replication strategy?

a) The production of subgenomic mRNAs

 b) De novo(without primer) initiation of RNA synthesis

c) Circularization of template for initiation of RNA synthesis

d) All of the above

3. How are Influenza virus and VSV RNA synthesis similar?

a) The switch from mRNA to genome RNA synthesis is controlled by an RNA binding protein

b) Polyadenylation occurs at a short stretch of U residues

c) Viral mRNAs are shorter than (-) genomic RNA

d) All of the above

Lecture 7

1. What is the first biosynthetic event that occurs in cells infected with dsDNA viruses?

a) Membrane fusion

b) Transcription

Transcription is the first biosynthetic event to occur after viral DNA enters the cell. This is the
case because in order to make enzymes and other structural components for assembly, the
vDNA must first be transcribed into mRNA in order for the information to be utilized by the
cell. This occurs in the cell nucleus

c) DNA replication

d) Protein synthesis

e) All of the above

2. Adenovirus E1A protein stimulating the expression of adenovirus E2 protein which then
stimulates the expression of adenovirus IVa2 & L4 protein is an example of:

a) A negative autoregulation loop

b) Repression of gene expression

c) Cascade regulation

d) Dimerization

3. Which statement about polyadenylation of DNA virus mRNAs is correct?

a) It always occurs in the cytoplasm

b) It occurs after cleavage of pre-mRNA

c) Poly(A) is added at 5' -end of pre-mRNA

d) Is specified by a stretch of U residues in the template

Lecture 8: Viral DNA Replication

1. Which statement about viral synthesis is NOT correct?

 a) Large DNA viruses encode many proteins involved in DNA synthesis

b) Small DNA viruses encode at least one protein involved in DNA synthesis

c) Viral DNA replication is always delayed after infection because it requires the synthesis of at
least one viral protein

d) Some viruses encode all proteins needed for DNA replication

2. The SV40 genome is circular ssDNA. Which statement about its replication is correct?

a) Viral T antigen binds and unwinds Ori

b) Replication is bidirectional from a single Ori

c) The 5' end problem is solved

d) Has a leading and lagging strand

e) All of the above

3. How is replication of Parvovirus and Adenovirus similar?

a) They both require protein-linked primers

b) Replication occurs by strand displacement

c) DNA synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm

d) A replication fork occurs in both

e) None of the above

Miscellaneous

1. What is the first post-transcriptional modification of RNA occurring right after/or during
transcription?
A. Translation
B. Splicing
C. Capping
D. Polyadenylation
E. None of the above
2. Which statement about polyadenylation of DNA virus mRNA's is correct?
A. It always occurs in the cytoplasm
B. It occurs after cleavage of pre-mRNA
C. Poly(A) is added at teh 5'-end of pre-mRNA
D. Is specified by a stretch of U residues in the template
3. Which of the following steps occur during reverse transcription of retroviral genomic RNA?
A. Priming of (-) DNA synthesis by tRNA
B. Two template exchanges
C. Degradation of the viral RNA by RNAse H
D. Generation of two LTRs
E. All of the above
4. Subassemblies are involved in which of the following types of virus particle production?
A. Concerted assembly
 B. Sequential assembly
C. Assembly lines
D. Chaperone-assisted assembly
E. All of the above
5. Packaging signals on viral ____________ interact with viral _______ during virus assembly.
A. Lipids, proteins
B. Proteins, subassemblies
C. Genomes, proteins
D. Proteases, membranes
E. Proteins, genomes
6. During RNA directed RNA synthesis:
A. RNA is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction
B. RNA is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction
C. RNA is synthesized in both directions
D. RNA is turned into DNA
7. + Strand RNA viruses normally initiate what initial activity once in the cytoplasm:
A. mRNA synthesis
B. DNA synthesis
C. - strand RNA synthesis
D. protein synthesis
8. Which statement about viral budding is incorrect?
A. The envelope can be acquired before or simultaneous with assembly of internal
components
B. The viral spike glycoprotein can drive budding
C. No host proteins are involved in the budding process
D. Lipids assist structural proteins to interact with the membrane
E. Budding can occur from the nucleus, ER, Golgi, or plasma membrane
9. In dsRNA viruses, the + strand may immediately:
A. Be translated into protein
B. Be used as a template for - strand synthesis
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Neither A nor B are correct
10. Which DNA cirus encodes its own RNA polymerase?
A. Retroviruses
B. Those that replicate in the host nucleus
C. Those that replicate in the host cytoplasm
D. All DNA viruses encode an RNA polymerase
11. Most transcription in DNA viruses is carried out by:
A. Host proteins
B. Viral proteins
C. Bacterial proteins
D. All of the above
12. The adenovirus E1A protein binds to host Rb protein allowing ________ to activate
transcription.
A. p53
B. Connexin 43
C. E2F
D. Reverse transcriptase
13. Viral assembly reactions are often assisted by cellular proteins known as:
A. Proteases
B. Chaperones
C. Translation factors
D. All of the above
14. Viral components are often concentrated in structures such as inclusion bodies to deal
with:
A. Proteases
B. Chaperones
C. Lysosomes
D. Dilution issues
15. Where in the cell do most DNA viruses replicate?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. ER
D. Mitochondria
16. Where in the cell do most RNA viruses replicate?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. ER
D. Mitochondria
17. The outer layer of which of the following is dead but can still serve as a portal of virus
entry?
A. Respiratory tract
B. Alimentary tract
C. Eye
D. Skin
E. Urogenital tract
18. In general, secondary viremia is a consequence of which of the following events?
A. Viral replication in the bloodstream
B. Viral replication at the original site of entry
C. Viral replication in organs distal to the site of entry
D. Viral replication in lymph nodes
E. All of the above
19. Insertion of multiple basic amino acids at the HA cleavage site allows influenza virus to
infect many organs. This means that the _______ of the virus has changed.
A. Susceptibility
B. Club cell tryptase
C. Permissivity
D. Tropism
E. All of the above
20. Which statement about viral transmission is not correct?
A. All virus infections are transmitted by shedding
B. The route is determined by the site of virus shedding
C. Transmission is required to maintain a chain of infection
D. Speaking can produce aerosol that can transmit infection
E. Horizontal transmission is among members of one species
21. Which statement about viral virulence is wrong?
A. It can be influenced by dose, route of infection, species, age, and susceptibility of host
B. It can be quantitated by measurement of fever
C. Ebola virus is more virulent than human papillomavirus
D. It is the capacity of a virus to cause disease in a host
E. When comparing virulence, the assays must be the same
22. Which statement about determinants of viral virulence is incorrect:
A. Virulence genes can encode viral proteins
B. Virulence genes can encode cellular proteins
C. They are the same in all viruses
D. The can be found in untranslated regions
E. The may encode immune modulators
23. Which of the following do acute infections and incubation periods have in common?
A. The virus is not replicating
B. No symptoms are visible
C. Immune defenses are engaged
D. The immune system does not respond
E. All of the above
24. Which of the following is characteristic of uncomplicated influenza?
A. Transmission may occur via respiratory droplets
B. Incubation period is 1 to 5 days
C. Fever peaks within 24 hours
D. Coughing and weakness can last for 2 weeks
E. All of the above
25. Which of the following is a good reason to get measles vaccine?
A. There is a 1/1000 chance of acute post-infection encephalitis
B. There is a 1 to 2/1000 chance of death from measles
C. Each infected person spreads measles virus to 15 others
D. Immunosuppression can lead to secondary infections
E. All of the above
26. Herd immunity:
A. Demonstrates the importance of immunizing livestock
B. Emphasizes that not everyone must be immune to protect a population
C. Emphasizes that everyone must be immune to protect a population
D. Describes how group-think can dominate anti-vaccine choices
E. All of the above
27. Which statement about inactivated viral vaccines is incorrect:
A. Chemicals can be used to inactivate infectivity
B. They do not replicate
C. They can be dangerous if inactivation is not complete
D. Antigenic variation can make them ineffective
E. None of the above are incorrect
28. What are some requirements for an effective vaccine?
A. Low cost
B. Ease of administration
C. Provides long lasting immunity
D. Minimal side effects
E. All of the above
 29. For viruses that infect the CNS, a high level of _______ leads to the worst prognosis or
outcome.
A. Neurotropism
B. Neurovirulence
C. Neuroinvasiveness
D. Neurointuitiveness
30. West Nile Virus emerged in New York City in 1999. Since then, most West Nile infections
have resulted in:
A. Paralysis
B. Death
C. No symptoms
D. Headaches
31. Which of the following patterns of infection lead to the most stable levels of viral
production?
A. Acute
B. Latent
C. Persistent - asymptomatic
D. Persistent – pathogenic
32. Which of the following allow the innate immune system to distinguish microbes from self?
A. Cytoplasmic helicases and TLRs
B. Antibodies
C. Apoptosis
D. Apobec
E. All of the above

Extra

a. Which of the following statements about retroelements is not correct?

There are many copies in eukaryotic genomes

They are currently entering the koala germline

Those on humans produce infectious viruses

They can be beneficial

None of the above

b. Which of the following is a consequence of viral proteins modifying signal transduction

pathways to promote replication?

Poliovirus inhibition of transcription by RNA pol II

Herpes simplex virus protein blocking pre-mRNA splicing

Disruption of actin filaments to allow endocytosis

Initiation of mRNA degradation by viral proteins

c. PKR is an interferon-induced enzyme that is activated by ____, leading to

phosphorylation of _____ and inhibition of translation.

GDP,eIF2alpha

dsRNA, eIF2alpha

dsRNA,eIF2B

ssRNA, eIF2alpha

d. Which of the following assist in viral dissemination in the infected animal?

Viremia

Basolatoral release from epithelial cells

Movement through the lymphatic system

Inflammation at the basement membrane

All of the above

e. Intrinsic defenses are always present. Which one of the following are included?

Antibodies

T cells

Epigenetic silencing

Skin

Mucus

f. Which of the following allow innate immune system to distinguish microbes from self?
Cytoplasmic helicases and TLRs

Antibodies

Apoptosis

Apobec

All of the above

g. How do inteferons (INFNs) limit viral replication?

INFNs directly inhibit viral translation

INFNs lyse viral particles

INFNs induce ISGs

INFNs damage cells

None of the above

Mr. S.’s preoperative

GCS score was five.
He received a one
for being
nonverbal, a two for
opening his eyes
minimally to the
response of pain and
another two for
extending his arms
to pain which
indicates
decerebrate
posturing. Based on
his score of five
Mr. S.’s preoperative
GCS score was five.
He received a one
for being
nonverbal, a two for
opening his eyes
minimally to the
response of pain and
another two for
extending his arms
to pain which
indicates
decerebrate
posturing. Based on
his score of fi