INFECTIOUS BITCH PART 1

1. A positive ELISA test for HIV-1 & a Western blot test with bands at p24 & gp41 most likely indicate:
A. False-positive ELISA & inconclusive Western blot
B. Positive ELISA & Western blot; indicating HIV infection
C. False positive ELISA & Western blot
D. Lack of HIV infection

2. The presence of low levels of IgG but not IgM antibodies to rubella virus in the newborn suggests:
A. Presence of maternal antibodies
B. Susceptibility to rubella virus infection
C. Congenital infection
D. Persistent infection

3. Despite feeling healthy, a fourth-year medical student has developed a positive PPD skin test after
three years of negative results. The most likely interpretation of this result would be that the student
has:
A. Reacted as a result of a BCG vaccine given in childhood
B. An HIV infection which may give a false-positive PPD test
C. Secondary tuberculosis as a result of the activation of a long standing primary infection
D. Been exposed to a person with active tuberculosis and has developed a primary tuberculosis
infection

4. A 35-year old migrant worker is admitted to the hospital with a high fever and malaise. When he started
feeling weak 3 days ago, he checked his temperature and found it to be slightly elevated. Over the last
3 days, he has felt progressively worse and his temperature has reached 39.4ºC. The resident on call
in the emergency room observes a scanty maculopapular rash on the patient’s trunk. The patient
mentions that another worker in his group has been sick with similar symptoms. Which one of the
following tests would most likely yield a diagnosis:
A. Blood cultures
B. Methylene blue staining of a fecal extract
C. Serologic tests for mumps virus, rubella virus, coxsackie viruses and echovirus
D. Stool cultures

5. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in eighteenth week of
pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella vaccination. The best immediate course of action
is to:
A. Terminate pregnancy
B. Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
C. Administer rubella immune globulin
D. Administer rubella vaccine

6. One of the most remarkable aspects of human immune system is its diversity, that is, the ability to
recognize a wide range of antigens and to mount a specific antibody response. This is called clonal
selection. At the cellular level, which of the following is primarily responsible for such specificity?:
A. Cyctotoxic T cells
B. Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
C. Specific T cell receptors
D. Memory cells

7. Which one of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?:
A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B. Inactivation of elongation factor-2
C. Blocks release of acetyl choline
D. Causes the release of tumor necrosis factor
 INFECTIOUS BITCH PART 1

8. The major role of T cells in the immune response includes:

A. Recognition of epitopes presented with MHC molecules
B. Complement fixation
C. Phagocytosis
D. Production of antibodies

9. A recently hired laboratory technologist forgets the iodine-fixation step while performing a Gram’s stain
on a strain of Staphylococcus. The most likely result is that the organisms would:
A. Appear pink
B. Appear blue
C. Be colorless
D. Wash off the slide

10. The survival of Mycobacteria after ingestion by macrophages is attributed to:

A. bacterial inhibition of complement activation via the alternative pathway
B. bacterial inhibition of phagolysosome formation and interference with endosomal acidification
C. the poor immunogenecity of the cell wall glycolipids
D. the bacterium’s rapid escape from the endosome into the cytoplasm of infected cells

11. A 24-year old construction worker, who has had four injections of the DPT vaccine in his first year of
life and boosters at ages 5 & 19, received a deep laceration while excavating a building’s foundation.
The preferred method of treatment would be:
A. An aminoglycoside antibiotic
B. Human tetanus immunoglobulin, because it will stimulate his anamnestic response
C. Equine tetanus immune globulin, because it will passively immunize him.
D. Tetanus toxoid, because it will stimulate his anamnestic response

12. Salmonella has been isolated as a source of contamination in an outbreak of gastroenteritis associated
with eggs. Which of the following reactions is correct for this genus?:
A. H2S positive, urease negative, non-motile
B. H2S positive, urease negative, motile
C. H2S negative, urease positive, motile
D. H2S positive, urease positive, non-motile

13. The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Coughed sputum
B. Blood
C. Anterior nares swab
D. Nasopharyngeal swab

14. The agent for artificial immunization against Clostridium tetani consists of:
A. Purified capsular antigen
B. Purified cell-wall protein
C. An attenuated live organism
D. A toxic protein treated with formaldehyde

15. Chronic carriers, persons who remain infected with an organism for long periods, are typically
associated with the dissemination of:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Bordetella pertussis
 INFECTIOUS BITCH PART 1

16. Which of the following is NOT appropriate when discussing cultures of blood for the recovery of bacteria?
A. No more than 3 cultures should be drawn in one day
B. Should be drawn before the expected fever spike
C. Cultures are incubated aerobically and anaerobically
D. Collect 5 ml of blood for optimal recovery of pathogen

17. The mycobacteria are described as “acid-fast” because:

A. The organisms cannot be stained with acidic dyes
B. The organisms are rapidly decolorized with acid-alcohol
C. Once stained, the organisms cannot be decolorized with acid-alcohol
D. The organisms are easily stained with acidic dyes

18. What is the cause of anemia associated with ancylostomiasis?:

A. Bone marrow depression caused by parasitic invasion
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency caused by competitive absorption by the parasite
C. Malabsorption of folic acid as a result of chronic diarrhea
D. Persistent iron loss

19. A 3-year old girl was admitted to the hospital with severe emaciation and anemia secondary to a long
term bloody diarrhea. While hospitalized, she experienced several episodes of rectal prolapse.
Numerous white worms were seen attached to the surface of the prolapsed rectal mucosa. This patient
most probably has:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Necator americanus
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura

20. Which of the following findings in a peripheral blood smear is especially associated with tissue-invading
helminths but may also be found in a variety of allergic conditions and other diseases?:
A. Anemia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Leucopenia
D. Neutropenia

21. A 31-year old female from Southern Mindanao is brought in for chronic diarrhea of two months duration.
Stool examination reveals larvae with prominent genital primodium. What is your probable diagnosis?
A. Capillariasis
B. Hookworm infection
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. Ascariasis

22. A 10-year-old girl, with perianal pruritus, was brought by her mother to her pediatrician. What is your
most probable diagnosis?
A. Ascariasis
B. Trichuriasis
C. Enterobiasis
D. Hookworm infection

23. Based from your probable diagnosis in #22, what diagnostic procedure will you request to support your
diagnosis?
A. Stool concentration technique
B. Direct fecal smear
C. Harada-mori stool culture
D. Cellulose tape swab
 INFECTIOUS BITCH PART 1

24. A 15-year old boy from Davao del Norte is noted to have pallor and malnutrition. Stool examination
reveals an ovum with thin colorless cell wall. Probable diagnosis is hookworm infection. Name the portal
of entry of this worm.
A. oral ingestion
B. inhalation
C. skin penetration
D. mosquito bite

25. a with flat bi-polar plugs were seen in the stool specimen of a 16-year old female with chronic diarrhea
from Compostela Valley province. What is your diagnosis?
A. Capillariasis
B. Hookworm infection
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. Ascariasis

26. Adult roundworm, measuring 27 cm. in length, was seen in the colon of a 10-year old boy who died of
pneumonia. Manifestations such as lung infiltration, asthmatic attacks, and edema of the lips were
documented before the patient died. What is the most probable parasitic infection can you identify in
this case?
A. Trichuriasis.
B. Ascariasis
C. Capillariasis
D. Hookworm infection

27. Antimicrobial which exert its action through inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
A. Aminoglycoside
B. Tetracycline
C. Penicillin
D. Rifampicin

28. Which is the best method of diagnosis of typhoid fever?

A. Widal test
B. blood culture
C. Typhi dot
D. stool culture

29. Resistance to tuberculosis is mediated by

A. Cell-mediated immunity
B. Interferon
C. Humoral immunity
D. NK cells

30. Which of the following characterize Salmonella typhi?

A. Infects man and animals
B. Non-invasive
C. The organism is a non-lactose fermenting, nonmotile bacillus
D. Chronic carriers harbor the organism in the gallbladder

31. Responsible for the virulence of M. tuberculosis

A. exotoxin
B. mycolic acid
C. trehalose 6,6 dimyculate
D. endotoxin
 INFECTIOUS BITCH PART 1

32. You want to determine whether your patient is infected with a deadly virus, HIV. Which is the most
sensitive technique that you will request in the laboratory?
A. complement fixation
B. countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis
C. ELISA
D. indirect immunofluorescence

33. A neutralization test was done in a patient who is suspected to be suffering from a viral infection
characterized by fever, malaise and respiratory symptoms. Using anti-echovirus antibody, no CPE was
observed. Which statement is true regarding this infection?
A. The patient is infected with enterovirus
B. The patient is infected with echovirus
C. The patient is unlikely to produce antibodies against enterovirus
D. The result is inconclusive, other tests must be done

34. Which is associated with congenital abnormalities?

A. mumps
B. rubeola
C. german measles
D. all of the above

35. Measles is most infectious during the appearance of

A. Koplik spots
B. Fever, cough and coryza and conjunctivitis
C. Macupapular rash
D. Photophobia