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3. Sporicidal chemical agents are 4. The followings are Beta Lactum antibiotics
a). a) Autoclave a). a) Monobactums
b). b) Formaldehyde b). b) Cephalosporins
c). c) Ethylene oxide c). c) Macrolids
d). d) Gamma radiation d). d) Sulphonamides
e). e) Hypochlorite e). e) Amoxycillins
FTTFT TTFFT
7. Bacteria that do not follow Koch’s postulates 8. Pigment producing bacteria are
a). a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae a). a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b). b) Enterococcus faecalis b). b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c). c) Treponema pallidum c). c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d). d) Chlamydia d). d)Escherechia coli
e). e) Vibrio cholera e). e) Staphylococcus aureus
TFTTF TFTFT
9. Following are the organisms that can cause latent 10. Non essential components of bacterial structures are
infections a). a) Capsule
a). a) Plasmodium falciparum b). b) Plasmid
b). b) Toxoplasma gondii c). c) Mesosome
c). c) Histoplasma capsulatum d). d) Periplasm
d). d) Pneumocystis jerovecii e). e) Spore
e). e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis TTFFT
FTFFT
11. Bacterial spores are
a). a) Antibiotic sensitive
b). b) Thermostable
c). c) Reproductive stage in bacterial multiplication
d). d) Easily destroyed by gamma radiation
e). e) Sensitive to antiseptics
FTFTF
12. Following are non spore forming non filamentous rods 13. Normal flora of the conjunctiva includes
a). a) Actionomyces a). a) Chlamydia
b). b) Corynebacterium b). b) Streptococcus viridians
c). c) Nocardia c). c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d). d) Listeria d). d) Staphylococcus aureus
e). e) Campylobacter e). e) Nocardia
FTFTF TTTTF
14. Following are obligate intracellular organisms 15. Bacterial components associated with induction of septic
a). a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis shock are
b). b) Chlamydia a). a) Bacterial capsular protein
c). c) Rickettesia spp. b). b) Lipopolysaccharide
d). d) Brucella spp. c). c) Peptidoglycan
e). e) Yersinia spp. d). d) Phospholipid
FTTFF e). e) Teichoic acid
FTFFT
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16. Staphylococcal aureus infections associated with 17. Diseases caused by streptococcus pyogenes include
a). a) Bullous impetigo a). a) Erysipelas
b). b) Folliculitis b). b) Necrotizing fascitis
c). c) Erysipelas c). c) Scalded skin syndrome
d). d) Carbuncles d). d) Toxic shock syndrome
e). e) Scarlet fever e). e) Food poisoning
TTFTF TTFTF
20. Following properties are applicable for C. diphtheriae 21. Listeria monocytogenes
a). a) Usually cause bacteraemia a). a) Causes meningoencephalitis
b). b) Only lysogenic bacteria produce exotoxin b). b) Produces alpha haemolysis on blood agar media
c). c) Death of the patient often results from cardiac toxicity c). c) Can grow at 4°C
d). d) Bacteria can be found in throat after vaccination d). d) Does not grow on MacConkey's agar medium
e). e) Capsule is a virulence factor e). e) Is motile at 25°C
FTTTF TFTFT
22. Helicobacter pylori can be detected by 23. The following statements are about Pseudomonas
a). a) H2 breath test aeruginosa
b). b) Rapid urease test a). a) Typically susceptible to penicillin G
c). c) Blood culture b). b) Frequently cause gum infection
d). d) Endoscopy of upper GIT c). c) Readily grown in anaerobic culture
e). e) Urea breath test d). d) Commonly present in moist environments in hospital
FTFTT e). e) Produce a greenish pigment
FFFTT
24. Following are acid fast bacteria 25. M. tuberculosis has the following character
a). a) Atypical mycobacteria a). a) Obligate aerobe
b). b) Nocardia b). b) Is a photochromogen
c). c) Actinomyces c). c) Cell wall has high lipid content
d). d) Corynaebacteria d). d) Do not produce any toxin and enzyme
e). e) Aspergillus e). e) Is easily stained by Gram stain
TTFFF TFTFF
26. Causes of false negative Mantoux test are? 27. In tuberculoid leprosy
a). a) MilIary TB a). a) lesions are asymmetrical
b). b) HIV b). b) lesions are numerous
c). c) BCG vaccination c). c) there is failure of T-helper cell activation
d). d) Adrenal tuberculosis d). d) there is early and marked nerve damage
e). e) Measles e). e) erythema nodosumleprosum can occur
TTFFT TFFTF
28. VDRL test may be reactive in the following diseases 29. Pyuria with a negative urine culture found in infection
a). a) Syphilis caused by?
b). b) Systemic lupus erythematosus a). a)Mycoplasma
c). c) Chancroid b). b)Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d). d) Yaws c). c)Chlamydia trachomatis
e). e) Lepromatous leprosy d). d)Rickettsia
TTFFT e). e)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
TFTTF
30. Bacteria associated with food poisoning are 31. Organism passing through breast milk?
a). a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa a). a) HTLV
b). b) Staphylococus aureus b). b) HBV
c). c) Clostridium perfringens c). c) S.aureus
d). d) Bacillus anthracis d). d) Treponema pallidum
e). e) Proteus spp. e). e) Chlamydia trachomatis
FTTFF TTFFF
32. Common bacterial infections in AIDs patients include? 33. Toxins acts as super antigen are
a). a) Candida albincans a). a) Erythrogenic toxins
b). b) Salmonella b). b) Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin
c). c) Shigella c). c) Staphylococcal enterotoxin
d). d) EBV d). d) Botulinum toxin
e). e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis e). e) Cholera toxin
FTTFT TTTFF
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34. Normal flora of vagina are 35. Capsular polysaccharide is used to form vaccine against?
a). a) E. coli a). a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b). b) B. fragilis b). b) Cl.Tetani
c). c) C. albicans c). c) Streptococcus pneumonia
d). d) Eikenella corrodens d). d) Neisseria meningitides
e). e) Streptococcus agalactiae e). e) Neisseria gonorrhoea
TTTFF FTTTF
36. Features of Secondary Syphilis includes? 37. Genital material transfer among bacteria by
a). a) Chancre a). a)Transduction
b). b) Maculopapular rash b). b)Sporulation
c). c) Sore throat c). c)Transformation
d). d) Condyloma accuminata d). d)Replication
e). e) Snail track ulcer e). e)Conjugation
FTTFT TFTFT
38. BCG vaccine 39. Staphylococcus aureus has following toxins & enzymes?
a). a) Recombinant DNA technology is used to produce it a). a) Leukocidin
b). b) Derived from M. TB b). b) Pyrogenic toxin
c). c) Should not be given in premature LBW baby c). c) Exfoliative toxin
d). d) Highly effective to prevent clinical tuberculosis d). d) Endotoxin
e). e) Subcutaneously injected e). e) Enterotoxin
FFTFF TFTFT
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