PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

Name: ___________________________________________ Score:

______
1. Marital consent is not required in deed of sale, except:
a. When the property relation of the spouses is one of absolute community
b. When the property relation of the spouses is one of absolute separation
c. When the property relation between the spouses is one of the conjugal
partnership of gains and the property involved was acquired by onerous title
during the marriage at the expense of the common fund
d. A and B
e. A and C

2. Authority given by the owner of an income property for the broker to secure tenants.
a. Lease agency
b. Tenancy
c. Leased Fee agency
d. Rental Agency

3. An environment can support only as many organisms as the available energy, minerals,
and oxygen will allow. Which term is best described by this statement?
A. biological feedback
B. carrying capacity
C. homeostatic control
D. biological diversity

4. In a forest community, a shelf fungus and a slug live on the side of a decaying tree trunk.
The fungus digests and absorbs materials from the tree, while the slug eats algae
growing on the outside of the trunk. These organisms do not compete with one another
because they
occupy

A. the same habitat, but different niches

B. the same niche, but different habitats
C. the same niche and the same habitat
D. different habitats and different niches

5. What is the Rule in case area is different from that stated in the contract and the sale is
for a lumpsum?
a. The vendee may accept the area included in the contract and reject the rest
b. The vendee may accept the whole area, but must pay for the excess area at the
contract rate
c. There shall be no increase or decrease of the price although there is a greater or
lesser area that stated in the contract.
d. All of the above

6. It is the kind of cycle that are recurrent expansions and constructions in property,
business and economic activity.
a. Economic Cycle
b. Real Estate Cycle
c. Business Cycle
d. Investment Cycle

7. In case of “Approval of Preliminary Plans”, the Architectural plan shows the following
except:
a. Topographic Plans
b. Ground and Floor Plans
c. Site Development Plans
d. Sections and elevations
8. The following are modes of land acquisition under UDHA EXCEPT:
a. community mortgage, land swapping
b. land assembly or consolidation
c. land banking, donation to the Government
d. joint-venture agreement, negotiated purchase, and expropriation
e. None of the above
9. Money given by the buyer to the seller, as a proof of the perfection of the contract. It is a
partial payment of the purchase price and it must be deducted therefrom:
a. Option money
b. Fiat money
c. Arras
d. None of the above

10. “Real estate development project” refers to the following, except:

a. Development of land for residential, commercial, or industrial use.
b. Development of land for institutional, tourism or recreational purposes
c. Development of skills and knowledge of real estate appraisers, brokers or
salespersons
d. Development of land for agricultural, reclamation, or columbary projects
e. None of the above
11. An agency may be created by the following.
a. By the asset
b. By Good Relations
c. By Ratification
d. By Estopped

12. This is a contract of sale whereby the property being sold is presently mortgaged and
the Vendee pays a certain amount to the vendor and assumes as well the existing
obligation which is secured by a mortgage over the property.
a. Deed of Sale with Mortgage
b. Deed of sale with assumption of mortgage
c. Deed of sale with the right to repurchase
d. Deed of mortgage
e. Deed of sale

13. PRC was previously called the_______________________, which was created by

Republic Act No. 546 on June 17, 1950, under the aegis of the Civil Service Commission
a. Office of the Board of Examiners
b. Professional Board of Regulations
c. National Professional Countil
d. Philippine Regulation Commission

14. A stipulation which authorizes the mortgage to appropriate the property as his own upon
failure of the debtor to fulfil the principal obligations. This is void and of no legal effect:
a. Pactum de non aliendo
b. Pacto de retro
c. Dacion en pago
d. Pactum commissorium

15. The person who cannot acquire by purchase because of fiduciary relationship:
a. Guardians
b. Executor and administration
c. Agents
d. All of the above

16. The buyer bought a 200 sqm. Subdivision lot at P10,000.00/ sqm. He paid 20% down
payment the balance payable in 120 equal amortizations totaling P 1,152,000 inclusive of
penalty interest of P 52,000.00.
Compute for his cash surrender value under the Maceda Law.
a. 853,600
b. 750,000
c. 825,000
d. None of the above
e. No cash surrender value
17.Assuming same values in number 16 but he has paid 18 monthly amortization totaling to
354,978 monthly amortizations inclusive of 54,978. What is the cash surrender value under
the Maceda law, if any?
a. 350,000
b. 377,489
c. 354,978
d. None of the above
e. No cash surrender value
18. The buyer bought a 200 sqm. Subdivision lot at P20,000.00 / sqm. He paid 20% down
payment the balance payable in 180 equal amortizations at 22% interest per annum. He
has paid 168 monthly amortization totaling P 3,872,000 inclusive of penalty interest of
P72,000.00. Compute for his cash surrender value the Macedo Law. What is the cash
surrender value under the Maceda law, if any?
a. 4,370,000
b. 4,140,000
c. 3,420,0000
d. None of the above
19. How many regions do we have in the Philippines as of today?
a. 18
b. 17
c. 16
d. 15

20. Compostella Valley is now known as

a. Davao Region
b. Island Garden City of Samal
c. CARAGA
d. Davao de Oro

21. The following are officially the major provinces in Davao Region
a. Davao de Oro, Davao del Norte, Davao del Sur, Davao Oriental, and Davao
Occidental.
b. Davao de Oro, Cagayan, Davao del Sur, Davao Oriental, and Island Garden City
of Samal.
c. Davao City, Davao del Norte, Davao del Sur, Davao Oriental, and Davao
Occidental.
d. Compostella Valley, Davao del Norte, Davao del Sur, Davao Oriental, and Island
City Garden of Samal.

22. Sara Duterte’s hometown is geographically located in which province?

a. Davao de Oro
b. Davao del Norte
c. Davao del Sur
d. Compostella Valley
e. Davao Oriental

23. Leni Robredo’s hometown is geographically located in what province?

a. Bicol
b. Camarines Norte
c. Camarines Sur
d. Albay

24. One who stays on the leased premises after his lease has expired. The landlord
normally has the choice of evicting the holdover tenant or permitting him to remain and
continue to pay rent
a. Ancho tenant
b. Hold-over tenant
c. Tacita reconducta
d. Master tenant

25. NCR has 1 municipality known as _____, and how many cities?
a. Pateros, 17
b. Pateros,16
c. Muntinlupa, 17
d. Pateros, 15

26. RA 11261 No fees or charges shall be collected from first time jobseekers when
obtaining the following, after getting barangay certification attesting such being first time
jobseekers EXCEPT:
a. TIN ID, UMID ID
b. barangay clearance, NBI and police clearance
c. medical certificate from public hospital
d. birth and marriage certificates
e. other documentary requirements issued by the private employer that may be
required by the government from applicants
27. Any amendment to the master deed of a condominium project decided by the majority of
owners must be approved by the HLURB and
a. City/ Municipal Mayor
b. City/ Municipal Engineer
c. City/ Municipal Assessor
d. City/ Municipal Development Planning Officer

28. The machine is depreciated at 5.0% per year on a straight-line basis. What is the
estimated useful life?
a. 100 years b. 50 years c. 25 years d. 20 years

29. In exclusive-use condominium with the unit owners. Simple Majority is based on:
a. Unit of ownership
b. Total area of condominium units
c. Floor area of ownership
d. Value of the condominium unit

30. Mixed-use condominium projects, the master deed may be amended by simple majority
based on:

a. Unit of ownership
b. Total area of condominium units
c. Floor area of ownership
d. Value of the condominium unit

31. According to Lina Law, Urbanizable areas refer to sites and lands, which considering
present characteristics and prevailing condition, display marked and great potential of
becoming urban areas within the period of ___ (years)
a. 15 b. 20 c. 5 d. 10

32. Vaccine Czar of PH’s COVID-response

a. Teofilo Pilando Jr.
b. Carlito Galvez Jr.
c. Vince Dizon
d. Benjamin Magalong

33. BIR Revenue MC 13-2021 entails

a. Online TIN verification via application on mobile
b. Celebrities and vloggers are now being taxed
c. TRAIN Law Package 2 implementation
d. Deadline of Amnesty

34. He was considered the first to practice the real estate brokerage in the Philippines in
early 1920’s after the world war.
a. Mr. William Petty
b. Sir Collin Hoskins
c. Mr. Collin Hoskins
d. Sir Robert Torrens

35. The longest river in the Philippines

a. Cagayan River
b. Rio Grande de Janeiro River
c. Agusan River
d. Mindanao River

36. National Shelter Month

a. October
b. January
c. March
d. August

37. A special joint tenancy between a lawfully married husband and wife, which places
all title to the property into the marital unit, with both spouses having an equal, undivided
interest in the whole property.
a. Tenancy at Will
b. Tenancy by the entirety
 c. Tenancy in Severalty
d. Tenancy in common

38. The right of survivorship is that special feature of a joint tenancy whereby all title,
right and interest of a decedent joint tenant in certain property passes to the surviving
joint tenants by operation of law, free from claims of heirs and creditors of the decedent
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes when we touch

39. SUMMARY POSSESSION is the legal process used by a landlord to regain

possession of the leased premises if the tenant has breached the lease or is holding
over after the termination of tenancy.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes when we touch

40. A clause usually found in percentage leases, especially in shopping center leases,
giving the landlord the right to terminate the lease if the tenant does not maintain a
specified minimum amount of business.
a. Recapture Clause
b. Hold-over clause
c. Seizure clause
d. Turnover clause

41. Right of way act, as the latest amendment for national infrastructures.
a. RA 11232
b. RA 11223
c. RA 10023
d. RA 10752

42. Republic Act No. 10708

a. ‘The Tax Incentives Management and Transparency Act (TIMTA)’
b. ‘National Internal Revenue Code’
c. "Tax Reform for Acceleration and Inclusion (TRAIN)"
d. all of the above

43. Currently, how many countries make up the ASEAN?

a. 13
b. 12
c. 11
d. 10

44. Prices of office units in a Metro Manila have been rising dramatically because of
a. Demand-pull inflation
b. Stagflation
c. Cost-push inflation
d. leverage

45. In a judicial foreclosure, the owner of a property has 3 months before approval of
court order to
a. right of redemption
b. reglementary period
c. equity of redemption
d. prescriptive period

46. The practice of holding a loan for a specified period before it may be sold into the
secondary market.
a. loan seasoning
b. loan participation
c. loan portfolio
d. loan servicing
47. If a decedent died leaving several heirs, but no will and no debts, the heirs must
execute the following document to transfer the title to the heirs.
a. Affidavit of Adjudication by heirs with the LRA
b. Extrajudicial settlement of estate with the RD
c. Transfer of Rights with the Assessor’s Office
d. Extrajudicial partition of estate with notary public

48. In the sale of a condominium unit, it is necessary to present this additional document
in order to register the sale in favor of the buyer with the Register of Deeds.
a. Certificate Authorizing Registration
b. Certificate of Management
c. Certificate of Citizenship
d. Certificate of Non delinquency in Condominium Dues

49. The latest price ceiling/s for socialized condominium as per latest Housing Urban
Development Coordinating Council resolution is:
a. 450K
b. 600K-750K
c. 530K-580K
d. 480K-580K

50. HUDCC Resolution 1 Series of 2018 entails

a. Income Level for underprivileged Filipinos
b. Price ceilings for socialized housing
c. Price ceiling for socialized condominium
d. Price ceiling for economic housing

51. For purpose of complying with the provisions of PD 957, the owner or developer may
divide the development and sale of the subdivision into phases, each phase to cover not
less than
a. Ten (10) hectares
b. Five (5) hectares
c. Twenty (20) hectares
d. Nine (9) hectares

52. An estimate of value of a parcel of land which is expressed in peso amount and
made as of a particular point in time.
a. Valuation
b. Appraisal
c. Assessment
d. Evaluation

53. Under PD 957, the real estate dealer must file a bond with DHSUD in the amount of

a. 1,000 b. 5,000 c. 20,000 d. 25,000

54. A real estate consultant is required to file a cash bond with PRC in the amount of?
a. 500 b. 1,000 c. 20,000 d. none

55. In the sale of a property of the owner, the real estate broker shall be entitled to
commission if
a. The broker is able to find a ready and willing buyer
b. The broker is the only broker involved
c. The broker is the procuring cause of the sale
d. The broker is registered with the BIR

56. The carry-over clause entitles the real estate broker to

a. Extension of his authority until the last day of the year
b. Broker’s commission even if the sale is closed after expiration of authority and the
buyer is registered in writing with the seller
c. Broker’s commission even if the buyer was registered after the expiration of his
authority
d. Brokers commission even if the owner himself sold the property

57. The holdover clause in real estate brokerage, is also referred to as

a. Carry-over clause
b. Safety clause
c. Extender clause
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
58. In case a property is leased out by two (2) real estate brokers, the sharing of
commission, in the absence of any agreement, shall be
a. As determined by the owner
b. As determined by the tenant
c. Equal sharing
d. 60% for the broker who represent the lessee

59. The law that governs the relationship between the principal and the real estate
broker is
a. Law on real estate brokerage
b. Law on agency
c. Law on real estate practice
d. Law on real estate service practice
60. A real broker obtained a listing for the sale of a lot of the owner. The authority of the
broker may be extinguished by the following, except:
a. Death of owner
b. Expiration of the authority
c. Withdrawal of the Buyer
d. Withdrawal of the Agent
e. Revocation by the owner

61. Mr. B owns a house and lot in Makati and wants to sell the house and lot at a price of
P10,000.000 net to the owner. How much will the real estate broker have to sell the
property if the capital gains tax and broker’s commission of 3% shall be included in the
final selling price.
a. P 10,000,000
b. P 10,600,000
c. P 10,300,000
d. P 10,900,000
e. P 10,989,011

62. The real estate broker sold the property of Mr. House for P4,800,000 but Mr. House
wanted a net amount of P4,400,000. If the owner will shoulder the capital gains tax, how
much will be the amount left for the 5% commission of the real estate broker?
a. P 240,000
b. P 225,000
c. P 225,600
d. P 220,000
e. P 112,000

63. Real estate as a profession refers to rendering of service for and on behalf of
another, the sell, lease, mortgage, exchange, on real estate matters, for a professional
fee or
a. Commission or other valuable consideration only
b. Other valuable consideration only
c. Commission only
d. Valuable compensation only

64. The essential attribute of tact and diplomacy of a real estate broker refers to skills in
a. Negotiation
b. Site tripping
c. Project presentation
d. Closing the sale

65. The principal has the right to negotiate and close the deal himself without being
under any obligation to pay commission to the broker unless it is a/n
a. Exclusive listing
b. Exclusive right to sell
c. Open listing
d. Non-exclusive authority

66. It is always advised that when dealing with co-brokers that the sharing agreement, in
order to avoid disagreements and conflict in the sharing of commissions be
a. Be agreed mutually and reduced in writing
b. Be clarified at the beginning
c. Be duly notarized
d. Be in front of at least two witnesses
67. The following are modes of extinguishing agency, except
a. Expiration of period
b. Withdrawal of agent
c. Death of the buyer
d. Revocation

68. Mr. Joko gave an authority to negotiate sale to the real estate broker and may
indicate the following in the authority, except
a. Period and conditions of the authority
b. Amount of rent and deposit
c. Price and terms
d. Terms only

69. The lessor cannot demand more than ____ advance rent/s. Neither can he/she
demand more than two ____ deposit/s which shall be kept in a bank under the lessor's
account name during the entire duration of the lease agreement with P19,000 monthly
rate.
a. 1 month, 2 months
b. based on agreement, based on agreement
c. 3 months, 1 month
d. 2 months, 1 month
70. The lessor cannot demand more than ____ advance rent/s. Neither can he/she
demand more than two ____ deposit/s which shall be kept in a bank under the lessor's
account name during the entire duration of the lease agreement with P9,000 monthly
rate.
a. 1 month, 2 months
b. based on agreement, based on agreement
c. 3 months, 1 month
d. 2 months, 1 month

71. Tenants of urban land where their residence is constructed shall have the land when
the following requisites are present, except?
a. they are legitimate tenants
b. they have occupied the land for at least ten (10) years
c. the land is within an urban land reform zone
d. the land owner is not yet selling the land

72. Land valuation guidelines for socialized housing as per RA 7279.

a. BLGF
b. Department of Finance
c. NHA
d. Provincial/City Assessor

73. What is the total interest of Php 500,000.00 loan in 5 years at 12% interest per
annum if interest is simple?
a. Php 60,000.00
b. Php 120,000.00
c. Php 200,000.00
d. Php 300,000.00

74. The buyer bought an installment lot and paid 30% down payment. How much is the
selling price if monthly amortization factor is .02705 and the monthly amortization is Php
17,041.50?
a. Php 700,000.00
b. Php 800,000.00
c. Php 900,000.00
d. Php 1,000,000.00

75. Under the new BIR ruling, acquired assets of banks, when sold, regardless of
amount are subject to:
a. capital gains tax of 6%
b. CWT of 6%
c. CWT of 5%
d. capital gains tax of 5%
76. For purposes of determining whether a seller/transferor can be considered as
habitually engaged in real estate business, he should offer satisfactory evidence that he
consummated at least ___ taxable real estate transactions during the preceding year.
a. Five
b. Eight
c. Twelve
d. Six

77. Withdrawal limit from bank account of decedent without certification from the BIR is
abolished under Train law but subject to final tax of:
a. 1%
b. 3.5%
c. 5%
d. 6%

78. Under RA 10963, now the estate tax return shall be filed and paid with the BIR
within:
a. one year
b. six months
c. 90 days
d. 120 days

79. AN ACT INSTITUTIONALIZING THE PHILIPPINE QUALIFICATIONS

FRAMEWORK (PQF)
a. RA 10963
b. RA 10023
c. RA 11213
d. RA 10968
e. None of the above

80. The capital gains tax on the sale of Php 1,100,000.00 property with Php 535,000.00
initial payment is:
a. Php 131,250.00
b. Php 31,500.00
c. Php 66,000.00
d. Php 32,100.00

81. Capital gains tax on the sale of real estate classified as capital asset is a/an:
a. Creditable tax on the sale
b. Deductible item from income tax
c. Expanded withholding tax
d. Final withholding tax

82. In appraisal of an old building, economic life is the sum of:

a. Actual age plus remaining physical life
b. Actual age plus remaining economic life
c. Effective age plus remaining economic life
d. Effective age plus remaining physical life

83. In the cost approach to value, physical deterioration is estimated by the formula:
a. Economic life divided by chronological age.
b. Chronological life divided by economic life
c. Economic life divided by effective age
d. Effective age divided by economic life

84. Refers to one who has both no willingness and no capacity to buy the property
a. Suspect
b. Prospect
c. Future Prospect
d. Sure buyer

85. The step in the real estate brokerage process where the minds of the parties meet
and the buyer’ offer of price, terms and other conditions finally become acceptable to the
seller, or vice- versa is referred to as
a. Final agreement
b. Closing
c. Finalization of sale
d. Deed of absolute sale
86. It is basically a result of the interplay of supply and demand of a certain product,
such as real estate housing
a. Multiplier effect
b. Price
c. Demand
d. Supply

87. In the case where there are more buyers than sellers of lots in a subdivision, then it
is considered a
a. Oversupply of buyer
b. Sellers’ market
c. Buyers’ market
d. Open market

88. DHSUD means in local translation

a. Kagawaran ng Pananahanang Pantao at Pagpapaunlad ng Kalunsuran
b. Kagawarang Pantao at Pagpapaunlad ng Kalunsuran
c. Komisyon ng Pangkarapatang Pantao at Pagpapaunlad ng Kalusugan
d. Komisyon ng Pananahanang Pantao at Pangkalarang ng Kalunsuran

89. PAGIBIG means

a.Pagtutulungan sa Kinabukasan: Ikaw, Bangko, Industria at Gobyerno
b.Pagtutulungan sa Kinalaunaan: Ikaw, Bangko, Industrialisasyon at Gobyerno
c. Pangangarap sa Kinabukasan: Ikaw, Bangko, Industria at Gobyerno
d. Pagkamit ng Kinalaunang Industria sa Banjo at Pang-Gobyerno

90. Article XII of the 1987 Constitution is

a. NATIONAL ECONOMY AND PATRIMONY
b. NATIONAL SECURITY AND PROPERTY REGIMES
c. LOCAL ECONOMY AND PROPERTY RIGHTS
d. NATIONAL PATRIMONY AND ECONOMY

91. Mr. Villanueva inherited a piece of land when he was still single. Then he got married
on October 1, 2000 without a marriage settlement. What is the nature of the property not
that he is married?
a. Exclusive property
b. Community property
c. Conjugal property
d. Separate property
92. Property owners with manual certificates of title may choose to avail of this upgrade
to e-Title to avoid the inconvenience of the process of replacement of Owner’s Duplicate
Certificate of Title. The process does not include:
a. Bring your Owner’s Duplicate Certificate of Title, and other required documents i.e.,
verified petition by the registered owner, tax clearance, certified copy of tax declaration,
and valid identification, to the nearest satellite office of the LRA.
b. The LRA shall match the duplicate copy to the original to validate authenticity.
c. Once validated, the conversion process of your manual title to e-Title shall commence
after payment of minimal fees.
d. None of the above

93. Husband and wife cannot sell property to each other except when a separation of
property is agreed upon in the “ante-nuptial” contract and,
a. When their property relationship is one of absolute community of property
b. When one of the spouses is still a minor
c. When there is a pending annulment of their marriage
d. When one of the spouses is accused of infidelity
e. When there is a judicial separation of property

94. A contract which is merely an executory contract or a mere promise to sell with no
transfer of ownership.
a. Contract of sale
b. Deed of sale with assumption of mortgage
c. Deed of sale with “Pacto de Retro”
d. Contract to sell
e. Deed of absolute sale
95. A conclusive authority from the registered owner to the Registry of Deeds (ROD) to
enter a new certificate of title or to make a memorandum of registration in accordance
with the instrument embodying the voluntary dealing. Generally, no voluntary dealing
shall be registered by the ROD unless this is presented.
a. Owner’s Duplicate Certificate of Title
b. Certificate Authorizing Registration
c. Tax Declaration
d. Official Receipt of Transfer Tax Payment

96. Article 1142 of the Civil Code provides but clarified by a jurisprudence that the Right
to foreclosure of real estate mortgage prescribes in
a. 1 year from the time the right of action accrued
b. 10 years from the contract of mortgage execution
c. 10 years from the time the right of action accrued
d. 1 year from the contract of mortgage execution

97. Under RA 8791, the maximum redemption period after extrajudicial foreclosure of
mortgage executed by a corporation in favor of a bank is:
a. 9 months
b. 18 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
e. 12 months

98. On a Pacto de Recto contract of sale which there is no stipulation of the period to
which the vendor shall have the right to buy back or redeem of the property. The period
of redemption shall be:
a. Two (2) years
b. Four (4) years
c. Eight (8) years
d. Sic (6) years
e. Ten (10) years

99. When the owner’s duplicate certificate of title is lost, the registered owner shall file a
petition in court for:
a. judicial reconstitution
b. administrative reconstitution
c. adverse claim
d. issuance of new duplicate certificate of title

100. What is a future prospect?

a. A person who has the capacity but without the willingness
b. A person who has the interest to buy in the future
c. A person who has the willingness but does not have the capacity but will find a way
to afford the property
d. A person who is in need and can afford to buy

101. Under the procedures in registration of conveyance provided by PD 1529, In

duplicate of grantor’s certificate and shall be stamped as follows:
a. “Transferred”
b. “Registered”
c. “Cancelled”
d. “Superseded by”

102. Tenancy that can be cancelled anytime by landlord or tenant.

a. Tenancy at will
b. Tenancy at sufferance
c. Free Tenancy
d. Illegal tenant

103. Refers the system of combining all properties offered into a common list and made
available to
all broker participants.
a. Multiple listing
b. Net listing
c. Gross listing
d. Open listing

104. Refers to the trade of buying, selling, leasing and financing, developing real
properties by real
estate dealer.
a. Real estate as Business
b. Real estate as profession
c. Real estate as job
d. Real estate as occupation

105. In the case where there are more buyers than sellers, then it is considered a
seller’s market as there are fewer real properties available vis-à-vis a higher demand for
it. In this case,
a. the movement of prices will tend to go up because of the higher demand
b. the movement of prices will tend to go down because of the higher demand.
c. the movement of supply will tend to go up because of the higher demand
d. the movement of supply will tend to go down because of the higher demand

106. All real estate service associations shall be integrated into one (1) national
organization, which shall be recognized by the Board, subject to the approval of the
Commission, as the only accredited and integrated professional organization of real
estate service practitioners pursuant to
a. PRC Res. No. 2004-178, Series of 2004
b. PRC Res. No. 2004-179, Series of 2004
c. PRC Res. No. 2004-180, Series of 2005
d. PRC Res. No. 2004-181, Series of 2005

107. An environment-friendly mangrove aquaculture system that

promotes the harmonious co-existence between fishery species and mangrove trees in a
semi-enclosed system.
a. Aquasilviculture
b. Horticulture
c. Mariculture
d. Mangrove Aquaculture

108. Refers to a title formally recognizing the rights

of ICCs/IPs over their ancestral lands.
a. Certificate of Ancestral Lands Title
b. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
c. Native Title
d. Ancestral Title of Indigenous Peoples

109. Those with facilities and operational procedures

sufficiently adequate that the livestock and fowls slaughtered therein is suitable for sale
in any market within the country.
a. Class "AAA" Slaughterhouse/Abattoir
b. Class "AA" Slaughterhouse/Abattoir
c. Class "A" Slaughterhouse/Abattoir
d. All of the above

110. Those with facilities and procedures of minimum

adequacy that the livestock and the fowls slaughtered therein are suitable for distribution
and sale only within the city or municipality where the slaughterhouse is located.
a. Class "AAA" Slaughterhouse/Abattoir
b. Class "AA" Slaughterhouse/Abattoir
c. Class "A" Slaughterhouse/Abattoir
d. All of the above

111. As specified in CLUP, this refers to the finish ground level of a proposed
development which shall be determined according to the provisions of the latest edition
of the National Building Code.
a. Ground Floor
b. Finished Baseline
c. BHL
d. Established Grade
112. A unitary development plan/site plan that permits flexibility in planning/urban
design, building/structure siting, complementary of building types and land uses, usable
open spaces for general public uses services and business activities and the
preservation of significant land features (NBC)
a. Master Development Plan/ Comprehensive Development Master Plan
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
c. Town Plan
d. Planned Unit Development

113. A land development scheme wherein the project site is comprehensively planned
as an entity via unitary site plan which permits flexibility in planning/design, building
siting, complementarity of building types and land uses, usable open spaces and the
preservation of significant natural land features.
a. Master Development Plan/ Comprehensive Development Master Plan
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
c. Town Plan
d. Planned Unit Development

114. Empowering the HLURB to review and approve or disapprove land use plans of
cities and municipalities.
a. RA 7160
b. EO 72
c. RA 7279
d. EO 90

115. Active Fault Overlay Zone (FLT-OZ) is an area in a municipality defined by _____
wide strips on both sides of and running along identified earthquake faults. It is to
minimize the possible harmful effects of fault movements to properties.
a. five (5)-meters
b. five (5)-square meters
c. fifteen (15)-meters
d. fifteen (15)-square meters

116. The proof of ownership of lands awarded to an agrarian reform beneficiary under
R.A. No. 6657, as amended, which contains the restrictions and conditions for such
ownership and must be registered in the Register of Deeds.
a. Emancipation Patent (EP)
b. Certificate of Land Ownership Award (CLOA)
c. Vested Right
d. Right of Security of Tenure (SoT)

117. A property right which has become fixed and established, and is no longer open to
doubt or controversy; an immediately fixed right of present or future enjoyment as
distinguished from an expectant or contingent right.
a. Emancipation Patent (EP)
b. Certificate of Land Ownership Award (CLOA)
c. Vested Right
d. Right of Security of Tenure (SoT)

118. The proof of ownership of lands awarded to an agrarian reform beneficiary under
P.D. No. 27 (Operation Land Transfer) or Executive
Order No. 228 which contains the restrictions and conditions for such ownership and
must be registered in the Register of Deeds
a. Emancipation Patent (EP)
b. Certificate of Land Ownership Award (CLOA)
c. Vested Right
d. Right of Security of Tenure (SoT)

119. Suppose a property is titled to a deceased person, which recommendation below is

not absolutely necessary?
a. Recommend that the heirs settle the estate taxes.
b. That the heirs should adjudicate ownership among themselves.
c. That after adjudication, they should wait for two years before starting construction on
the said property.
d. Recommend that the heirs must designate only one person to be their special power
of attorney with respect to the property.
120. A group of complementary land uses; a congruous grouping of inhabitants,
buildings, or business enterprises.
a. market area
b. district
c. neighborhood
d. village

121. The holder of title in OWNERSHIP IN SEVERALTY.

a. Husband and Wife
b. Joint tenants
c. tenants in common
d. Sole owner

122. There are several titleholders of the property. Upon the deceased of one of the
owners, that owner's share passes to his or her heirs. There is no right of survivorship
with tenancy in common. There can be unequal ownership shares as well.
a. Ownership in Severalty
b. Tenancy in Common
c. Joint Tenancy
d. Joint Venture

123. One of the amendments under Department Order 59 Series of 2019, how many
parking slots should be provided in a residential condo with 240 units that are all below
50 sqm in size?
a. 50
b. 30
c. 40
d. 80

124. As per DPWH DO 59-2019, residential condominium- Units with a gross floor area
above 50.00 sq. meters up to 100.00 sq. meters will provide one (1) pooled parking slot
for every __ units.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8

125. If a residential condo has 250 dwelling units, what is the minimum size of the park
or playground?
A. 1,500 sqm
B. 650 sqm
C. 770 sqm
D. 740 sqm

126. The then HLURB requires publication by the developer of a notice of filing of the
project registration statement.
A. In at least two newspapers for 30 days
B. In one newspaper daily for two weeks
C. In two newspapers daily for one week
D. In two newspapers, once a week, for two weeks

127. Design Standards and Guidelines for Residential Condominium

Projects The minimum size of parks/playgrounds for condominium projects under PD
957.
A. 100 sq. meters
B. At least one floor with amenities
C. 50 sq. meters for every 10 units
D. 50 sq. meters plus 3 sq. meters per unit in excess of ten

128. Following the guidelines set on IRR of PD 957, Preservation of Site Assets:
a. Suitable trees with a caliper diameter of 200 millimeters or more, as well as shrubs
and desirable ground cover shall be preserved in accordance with the implementing
rules and regulations of DENR
b. Where good quality top soil exists in the site, it shall be banked and shall be
preserved for finishing grades of yards, playgrounds, parks and garden area.
c. Only B is true
d. Both A and B are true
129. The minimum size of parks/playgrounds for subdivision projects with 1 hectare or
more under PD 957.
A. 100 sq. meters
B. At least one floor with amenities
C. 50 sq. meters for every 10 units
D. 50 sq. meters plus 3 sq. meters per unit in excess of ten

130. At present, the association dues of unit owners in the condominium corporation
A. Shall be subject to income tax
B. Shall be subject to EVAT or percentage tax only
C. Shall be exempt from EVAT
D. Shall be subject to all internal revenue taxes

131. Mr. Charat bought an equipment to be used in maintaining his real property and
has already paid in 8 years of installment a total amount of P520,000.00 inclusive of
P20,000.00 penalty interest. The cash surrender value of the property based on Maceda
Law is:
a. P200,000.00
b. P325,000.00
c. P250,000.00
d. None of the above

132. Marites bought a 200sqm lot at 3K per sqm. She paid 25% DP and the balance is
payable in 120 mos. At 20% interest per year. She already paid 84 MA w/ a total of
737,612.00 inclusive of penalty interest of 32,000.00. How much is the refund under
Maceda Law?
a. 513,367.20
b. 531,637.20
c. 513,763.20
d. None of the above

133. You are to sell my property originally bought at 8.2M. I want a 40% gross profit.
How much should you sell my property if you want a 5% commission? Rounded to the
nearest thousands.
a. 14,180,000
b. 12,504,000
c. 11,480,000
d. 12,084,000

134. The money paid by the state when a public agency takes private property and
converts it for public use.
a. Fair compensation
b. Just compensation
c. Disturbance compensation
d, Cash surrender value

135. Modes of acquiring RIGHT OF WAY of Government under expropriation act, except
a. Donation
b. Purchase
c. Expropriation
d. Agreement between Servient & Dominant estate

136. A notice of adverse claim annotated on a title is valid only for

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 6 months

137. No developer shall levy upon any lot or unit buyer a fee for an alleged community
benefit. Fees to finance services for common
comfort, security and sanitation may be collected only by _______
a. a properly organized homeowners’ association
b. property manager
c. zone leader
d. barangay official

138. The Act allowing the long-term lease of private lands by foreigner investors
a. RA 8974
b. RA 7652
c. RA 6732
d. RA 6657
e. RA 3844

139. Defined as the inscription, recording, or annotation of an act and contracts resulting
to the ownership of and rights over land.
a. Land registration
b. Land documentation
c. Land Legislation
d. Land Titling

140. Adam Smith believes in

a. Laissez-Faire policy
b. government guidance to influence the economy
c. command economy
d. socialist state

141. In PD 957 and BP 220 IRRs, they shall act as one of the witnesses
to the sales document which negotiated the sale of a subdivision lot
or condominium unit indication their certificate of registration
number and renewal date.
a. Broker
b. Salesperson
c. Developers employee
d. Owner or principal
e. Only A and B

142. The revenue derived from the use of the land and of the forces
inherent in the land called as:
a. Lease Fee Estate
b. Lease Money
c. Lease Contract
d. Economic Rent

143. How many hectares/sqm required before a subdivision can be said the specific land
area is phase based on PD 957?
a. 10,000 sqm c. 100,000 sqm
b. 50,000 sqm d. 1 hectare

144. Vynz Realty developer has 12 hectares to develop, the land allocation for saleable
portion is:
a. 100,000 sqm
b. 84,000 sqm
c. 36,000 sqm
d. 50,000 sqm

145. If it’s a Transfer Certificate of Title (TCT), it should indicate

a. “Judicial Form No. 108-D”
b. “Judicial Form No. 109-D”
c. Serial Number Labe in Red color
d. “Cancelled by virtue of conveyance”

150. If it’s an Original Certificate of Title (OCT), it should indicate ______________ at

the topmost.
a. “Judicial Form No. 108-D”
b. “Judicial Form No. 109-D”
c. Serial Number Labe in Red color
d. “Cancelled by virtue of conveyance”

151. According to the latest NBC, Building Height Limit is “the maximum height to be
allowed for buildings and shall be generally measured from the established grade line to
the topmost portion of the proposed building/structure. The said limit may be subject to
clearance requirements of the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines (CAAP) or the
concerned military/security authorities. Height limit is expressed as the number of
allowable storey’s/floor above:

a. established grade only

 b. highest grade only
c. established grade and/ or meters above highest grade
d. none of the above

152. In project selling, the payment of the broker's commission will most likely be -
a. Paid in advance by the developer
b. Paid in full after receipt of reservation money
c. Paid in full after receipt of down payment
d. Paid progressively depending on the developer

153. The criteria used in the selection of building materials include:

a. Climate
b. Availability
c. Durability
d. All of the above

154. In the form report, it is NOT usually necessary for the appraiser to:
a. Demonstrate evidence of value through one or more approaches
b. Describe any physical deterioration or functional inadequacy found in the
structure
c. Rate the neighborhood employment stability
d. Write a letter of transmittal to the client

155. Green building programs are emerging to encourage builders and developers to
incorporate sustainable building practices, system, and materials into their building
projects. In the Philippines, there is already few building ongoing construction that
complied to these standards and had certification from this US Council known as
certified
a. LEED
b. LLDD
c. LEAD
d. LEDD

156. It is a certification issued by the Environment Management Bureau (EMB)

certifying that, based on the submitted project description, the project is not covered by
the EIS system and is not required to secure an ECC.
a. Environmental Compliance Certificate
b. Environment Impact Statement
c. Certificate of Non-Coverage
d. Initial Environmental Exam Report
157. A new mortgage that has one or more properties as security to the amount of loan,
and the total amount of the loan is a combination of the new loan and one or more
existing loans.
a. Blanket mortgage
b. Closed mortgage
c. Wrap around mortgage
d. Open mortgage
158. A situation in which demand exceeds supply and owners has an advantage over
buyers in price negotiations.
a. Perfect market
b. Supplier's market
c. Seller's market
d. Buyer's market

159. In ecology it is an assemblage of population of different specie interacting with one

another
a. Ecosystem
b. Building
c. Community
d. Inhabitant

160. It occurs when water channels and reservoirs become clotted with silt and mud, a side
effect of deforestation and soil erosion.

a. Siltation
b. Salination
c. Purification
d. Waterlogging
161. Why are ecosystems with high biodiversity more stable than those with few species
a. They recover from negative events more quickly
b. They have a higher carrying capacity
c. They have several species
d. They produce rapidly

162. It refers to the entire process of organization administration and procedure institutionalized
for the purpose of assessing the significance of the effects of physical developments on the
quality of the environment.
a. Environmental Management System
b. Environmental Impact Statement System
c. Environmental Impact Assessment
d. Environmental Assessment

163. An area that is environmentally sensitive and is so listed under Presidential Proclamation
(Pres. Proc.) No. 2146, Series of 1981 as well as othe' areas which the President of the
Philippines may proclaim as environmentally critical in accordance with section 4 of P.D. No.
1586.
a. Environmentally Critical Population
b. Environmentally Critical Project
c. Environmentally Critical Area
d. Environmentally Critical Point

164. The coastlines in the tropical and subtropical regions fringed with a strip of swampland
which is inundated every high tide with marine and brackish waters.

a. Marine wetlands
b. Mangrove wetlands
c. Marine ecology
d. Marine wasteland

165. Who files the petition for cadastral hearing.

a. Director of lands
b. Judge
c. ROD
d. Board

166. Refers to the rational and judicious approach of allocating available land resources to
different land using activities
a. Land Survey
b. Land Planning
c. Land Banking
d. Land Allocation

167. Rightful occupants of residential lands or structures as per PD 1517

a. Residents
b. Owner
c. Occupants
d. Tenants

168. Refers to the legitimate lessees of houses as per PD 1517

a. Residents
b. Owner
c. Occupants
d. Tenants

169. What is the term refers to the reference monument, like BLLM or BBM, where the corner
no. 1 of the lot is connected
a. Distance
b. Tie Line
c. Tie Point
d. Distance Perspective

170. Who are qualified beneficiaries for socialized housing program?

a. Filipino citizen
b. Foreigner
c. Alien
d. Everyone

171. Refers to the allocation of resources on the bases of efficiency and equity to achieve
balance development.
a. Efficiency
b. Social Equity
c. Balance
d. Social Balance

172. Refers to the linking of the consumption and production areas through appropriate
infrastructure system.
a. Spatial Integration
b. Infrastructure integration
c. Production integration
d. System integration

173. Refers to the graphic presentation of the zone classification and designation
a. Zoning Map
b. Classification man
c. Zone graphic
d. Zonal classification

174. Refers to a synthetic perceptual measure based on resident ratings of local trends of
change over time.
a. Population
b. Quality of Life
c. Income
d. Savings

175. Refers to a fourth step of planning process where assessment involves technical and
participatory methods
a. Processing the situation
b. Analyzing the Situation
c. Selecting the situation
d. Planning the situation

176. Where to find particular information needed for analysis purposes?

a. Aspect map
b. Analysis map
c. Information map
d. World map

177. Use that result in the highest NOI for that property.
a. Economic use
b. Profitable use
c. Highest and best use
d. Highest use

178. It is a land predominantly covered with dipterocarp, pine mangrove or industrial trees used
either for timber production, water and soil conservation and wild life refuge.
a. Agricultural
b. Forest
c. Mineral
d. In land Fisheries

179. The PRC/PRBRES may grant special or temporary permit to foreigners to practice real
estate service in the Philippines under what condition?
a. If he/she is president of a real estate company engaged in real estate in the Philippines
b. If his/her expertise is urgently needed loyalty in the absence or unavailability of local
practitioners for the purpose of enhancing the profession in the Philippines
c. If he/she pays big amount of fees with PRC/PRBRES and comes from a country where
Philippine licensed practitioners are allowed to practice real estate service
d. All of the above

180. A real broker maybe licensed without taking examination by the Professional Regulation
Commission/PRBRES subject to the following conditions, except:
a. If he/she is holder of valid DTI license on the date of affectivity of RA 9646
b. If he/she failed to renew his/her DTI license prior to the date of effectivity of RA 9646 and has
undergo twenty-four (24) credit units
c. If he/she passed the licensure examination given by DTI in 2008 and 2009 but failed to get
licensure prior to effectivity of RA 9646 provided he/she has fifteen (15) Continuing Education
Program credit units.
d. If he/she passed the licensure examination given by the DTI in 2006 and prior years but failed
to get license prior to effectivity of RA 9646, provided he/she has to undergo on hundred twenty
(120) credit units
e. None of the above

181. Economic principle holds that value is achieved and maintained when all elements are in
proper proportion.
a. Principle of balance
b. Principle of substitution
c. Principle of conformity
d. Principle of contribution

182. It is a situation which supply exceeds demand, giving purchasers an advantage over
sellers in price negotiations.
a. Bargain market
b. Supplier's market
c. Seller's market
d. Buyer's market

183. Peeling paints and loose floorboards are examples of

a. Physical deterioration
b. Functional obsolescence
c. Economic obsolescence
d. Both A and B

184. The sales comparison approach is generally most suitable for appraising
a. Commercial and investment property
b. Single-family homes
c. Heavily mortgaged property
d. Heavily insured property

185. The inhabitants like the Maranaos in Lanao del sur, Tausugs in Sulu, Yakan in Samal,
Iranuns in Tawi-tawi, and Kalibugan in Basilan are most commonly found in:
a. Region XI
b. Region XII
c. Region XIII
d. BARMM

186. The natural cycles of organic-inorganic cycles facilitating the self-regulating processes of
an ecosystem are:
a. Evolution
b. Ecological Successions
c. Control or Cybernetics
d. Biogeochemical cycles

187. The net increase in number or biomass per unit area and time is referred to as:

a. Productivity
b. Stability
c. Sustainability
d. Equitability

188. The constant productivity despite small variability in climate and other environmental
factors is known as:

a. Productivity
b. Stability
c. Sustainability
d. Equitability
189. The constant productivity despite major disturbances such as typhoon, drought, floods,
etc…. is:

a. Productivity
b. Stability
c. Sustainability
d. Equitability

190. Refers to the even or just distribution of ecosystem products and services among human
beneficiaries:

a. Productivity
b. Stability
c. Sustainability
d. Equitability

191. The seller is under financial or other pressure to sell quickly.

a. Forced Sale
b. Coercive sale
c. Emergency sale
d. None of the above

192. When the seller help finance part or all of the purchase price.
a. Seller financing
b. Buyer financing
c. Financer
d. None of the above

193. Organic Agricultural Act of 2010

A. RA 10068
B. RA 10963
C. RA 10023
D. RA 10968

194. The amount for which an asset could be exchanged between knowledgeable, willing
parties in
an arm’s length transaction.
a. Fair Market value
b. Business value
c. Book value
d. None of the above

195. An amount above the Market Value that reflects particular attributes of an asset that are
only of
value to a Special Purchaser.
a. Special value
b. Purchaser value
c. Market value
d. None of the above

196. Additional element of value created by the combination of two or more interests where the
value of the combined interest is worth more than the sum of the original interests.
a. Synergistic value
b. Plottage value
c. Market value
d. Plotting Value

197. Describes a situation where an entire business is transferred as an operational entity.

a. Going concern value
b. Business value
c. Operational value
d. Sacrifice value

198. This describes a situation where a group of assets employed together in a business are
offered
for sale separately, usually following a closure of business.
a. Liquidation value
b. Closing value
c. Losing value
d. None of the above

199. Describes the value of an asset that has reached the end of its economic life for the
purpose it
was made.
a. Salvage value
b. Economic value
c. Disposal value
d. None of the above

200. A former Representative of 2nd District of Quezon. He is considered as the 'Father of

Organic Agriculture' in the Philippines.
A. Diosdado Macapagal
B. Proceso Alcala
C. Willie Ong
D. Dr. Edmundo Delos Santos

*** END OF PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE ***