Prelims GS PYQs English

Index
UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper...................................................................................................................................01
Section - A
1. Ancient and Medieval History ............................................................................................................................17
Section - B
2. Modern History ......................................................................................................................................................39
Section - C
3. Art and Culture .......................................................................................................................................................79
Section - D
4. Polity ...................................................................................................................................................................... 107
Section - E
5. Indian Economy................................................................................................................................................... 163
Section - F
6. Environment and Ecology................................................................................................................................. 225
Section - G
7. Geography............................................................................................................................................................. 299
Section - H
8. Science and Technology .................................................................................................................................... 351

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper
UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 GS Paper 1 Analysis

Subject Number of Questions
Ancient-Medieval & Art and Culture 10
Modern History 2
Polity 15
Economy 20
Geography 13
Environment and Ecology 19
Science and Technology 6
Current Affairs 9
Miscellaneous 6
1. In which one of the following regions was 3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai,
Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? (a) Capital cities
(a) Andhra (b) Gandhara (b) Ports
(c) Kalinga (d) Magadha (c) Centres of iron-and-steel making
2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following (d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
statements: 4. Which one of the following explains the practice of
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. (a) Kings employing women bodyguards
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure (b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to
in Buddhist tradition. discuss religious and philosophical matters
How many of the statements given above are (c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields
correct? and driving away birds and animals
(a) Only one (b) Only two (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual
(c) All three (d) None of the above suicide by starving himself to death
5. Consider the following dynasties: 11. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
1. Hoysala (a) The principle of natural justice
2. Gahadavala (b) The procedure established by law.
3. Kakatiya (c) Fair application of law
4. Yadava (d) Equality before law
How many of the above dynasties established their 12. Consider the following statements:
kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one (b) Only two Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State
Governments with their own rules and regulations
(c) Only three (d) None
for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by
the following pairs: the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the
Literary work Author subject of prisons in the control of Provincial
1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana Governments.
2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri Which one of the following is correct in respect of
3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna the above statements?
4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(a) Only one (b) Only two Statement-I
(c) Only three (d) All four (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
7. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant
for Statement-I
life, but also of rocks, running water and many other
natural objects not looked on as living by other (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
religious sects.” The above statement reflects one of (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
the core beliefs of which one of the following religious 13. Which one of the following statements best reflects
sects of ancient India? the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) Buddhism (a) It determines the objective for the making of
(b) Jainism necessary laws.
(c) Shaivism (b) It enables the creation of political offices and a
(d) Vaishnavism government.
8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra (d) It secures social justice, social equality and social
River and a canal-cumaqueduct several kilometres
security.
long from the river to the capital city?
(a) Devaraya I 14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional
Amendments was widely believed to be enacted
(b) Mallikarjuna
to overcome the judicial interpretations of the
(c) Vira Vijaya
Fundamental Rights?
(d) Virupaksha
(a) 1st Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment
9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat
(c) 44th Amendment (d) 86th Amendment
surrendered Diu to the Portuguese?
(a) Ahmad Shah (b) Mahmud Begarha 15. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
(c) Bahadur Shah (d) Muhammad Shah 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor 2. The National Human Rights Commission
General of Bengal designated as the Governor General 3. The National Law Commission
of India? 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
(a) The Regulating Act Commission
(b) The Pitt’s India Act How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(c) The Charter Act of 1793 (a) Only one (b) Only two
(d) The Charter Act of 1833 (c) Only three (d) All four
2 UPSC Prelims PYQs

16. Consider the following statements: 3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are
1. If the election of the President of India is declared required to submit annual reports to the Union
void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled
by him/her in the performance of duties of his/ Areas in the States.
her office of President before the date of decision How many of the above statements are correct?
become invalid. (a) Only one (b) Only two
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can (c) All three (d) None
be postponed on the ground that some Legislative
Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are 20. Consider the following statements:
yet to take place. Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, in some judgments that the reservation policies
the Constitution prescribes time limits within made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution
which he/she has to declare his/her assent. of India would be limited by Article 335 for
How many of the above statements are correct? maintenance of efficiency of administration.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of
(c) All three (d) None India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
17. With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill Which one of the following is correct in respect of
in the Indian Parliament, consider the following the above statements?
statements: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
Statement-I
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it
can only make recommendations. and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok for Statement-I
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
necessary for the Finance Bill.
21. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two Statement-I: India, despite having uranium
(c) All three (d) None deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity
production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a
of at least 60%, is required for the production of
‘Community Reserve’
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes electricity.
the governing authority of such forest Which one of the following is correct in respect of
2. hunting is not allowed in such area the above statements?
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non- (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
timber forest produce and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
4. people of such area are allowed traditional Statement-I
agricultural practices (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
How many of the above statements are correct? and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(a) Only one (b) Only two for Statement-I
(c) Only three (d) All four (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider (d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
the following statements: 22. Consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in
Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of India.
the President. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in
2. The largest administrative unit forming the montane grasslands with no predators.
Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the cluster of villages in the Block. the above statements?
UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 3

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 28. Consider the following statements:
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments
Statement-I with temperature above the boiling point of water.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation with temperature below the freezing point of
for Statement-I water.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct environment with a pH below 3.
23. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops
(a) Only one (b) Only two
Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which
(c) All three (d) None
one of the following organizations?
(a) The International Union for Conservation of 29. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick
Nature to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of
wood?
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(a) Fishing cat (b) Orangutan
(c) The United Commission for Environment and
(c) Otter (d) Sloth bear
Nations World Development
30. Consider the following:
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
1. Aerosols
24. Consider the following fauna: 2. Foam agents
1. Lion-tailed Macaque 3. Fire retardants
2. Malabar Civet 4. Lubricants
3. Sambar Deer In the making of how many of the above are
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or hydrofluorocarbons used?
most active after sunset? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
(c) All three (d) None 31. Consider the following statements:
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle
dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
and the distance to a source of their food? 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
(a) Butterflies (b) Dragonflies How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(c) Honey Bees (d) Wasps (a) Only one (b) Only two
26. Consider the following statements : (c) All three (d) None
1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 32. Consider the following pairs:
2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties Port Well known as
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. registered as a company
How many of the above statements are correct? 2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned
(a) Only one (b) Only two port in India
3. Visakhapatnam : Largest container port in
(c) Only three (d) All four
India
27. Consider the following statements regarding the How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Indian squirrels : (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
1. They build nests by making burrows in the (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
ground. 33. Consider the following trees:
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
in the ground. 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. They are omnivorous. 3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None
4 UPSC Prelims PYQs

34. Consider the following statements: 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic
1. India has more arable area than China. Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India Kunming in China.
as compared to China. How many of the above statements are correct?
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian (a) Only one (b) Only two
agriculture is higher than that in China. (c) All three (d) None
How many of the above statements are correct? 41. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one (b) Only two Statement-I : Interest income from the deposits
(c) All three (d) None in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
35. Which one of the following is the best example of distributed to their investors is exempted from tax,
repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day but the dividend is taxable.
extensive marshland? Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest Act, 2002”.
(c) Naupada Swamp
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(d) Rann of Kutch the above statements?
36. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
of the following? Statement-I
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(c) Iron (d) Titanium and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
37. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for Statement-I
for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
vehicles, is produced by (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(a) Argentina 42. Consider the following statements:
(b) Botswana Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past,
(c) The Democratic Republic of the Congo many Central Banks worldwide had carried out
(d) Kazakhstan interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume
38. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo
that they have the ability to counteract the rising
Basin?
consumer prices via monetary policy means.
(a) Cameroon (b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan (d) Uganda the above statements?
39. Consider the following statements: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
and Sahyadri Ranges. Statement-I
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
part of Satpura Range. and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost for Statement-I
part of Western Ghats. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
How many of the statements given above are incorrect
correct? (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(a) Only one (b) Only two 43. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one
40. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, of the most widespread tools in the fight against
consider the following statements: climate change.
1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources
Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. from the private sector to the State.
2. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Which one of the following is correct in respect of
Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 47. Consider the following statements:
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for 1. The Government of India provides Minimum
Statement-I Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica)
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct seeds.
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
for Statement-I 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect cooking.
(d) Statement-I is but incorrect but Statement-II is How many of the above statements are correct?
correct (a) Only one
44. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve (b) Only two
Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’? (c) All three
(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ (d) None
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems 48. Consider the investments in the following assets :
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and 1. Brand recognition
State Governments 2. Inventory
(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial 3. Intellectual property
Institutions
4. Mailing list of clients
45. Consider the following markets: How many of the above are considered intangible
1. Government Bond Market investments?
2. Call Money Market (a) Only one (b) Only two
3. Treasury Bill Market (c) Only three (d) All four
4. Stock Market 49. Consider the following:
How many of the above are included in capital 1. Demographic performance
markets? 2. Forest and ecology
(a) Only one 3. Governance reforms
(b) Only two 4. Stable government
(c) Only three 5. Tax and fiscal efforts
(d) All four For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth
46. Which one of the following best describes the concept Finance Commission used how many of the above
of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’? as criteria other than population area and income
(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, distance?
uprooted from their countries due to war, by (a) Only two
giving them a large cultivable land which they (b) Only three
cultivate collectively and share the produce (c) Only four
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize (d) All five
themselves into groups and synchronize and 50. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
harmonize selected agricultural operations
1. Affordable housing
(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make
2. Mass rapid transport
a contract with a corporate body and surrender
3. Health care
their land to the corporate body for a fixed term
for which the corporate body makes a payment 4. Renewable energy
of agreed amount to the farmers On how many of the above does the UNOPS
(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and
and material inputs to a number of small Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
farmers in an area so that they produce the (a) Only one
agricultural commodity required by the company (b) Only two
for its manufacturing process and commercial (c) Only three
production (d) All four
6 UPSC Prelims PYQs

51. With reference to Home Guards, consider the 54. Consider the following statements:
following statements: Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards relations with some Arab States.
Act and Rules of the Central Government. Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated
by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an
League.
auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of Which one of the following is correct in respect of
internal security. the above statements?
3. To prevent infiltration on the international (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Guards Battalions have been raised in some Statement-I
States. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
How many of the above statements are correct? and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-1
(a) Only one
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) Only two
incorrect
(c) All three (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(d) None correct
52. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: 55. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports
awards:
The Act under 1. Major Dhyan : For the most spectacular
Action
which it is covered
Ratna Award and outstanding
Unauthorized of the The official Secrets Chand Khel performance by a
official police or Military Act,1923 sportsperson over
uniforms period years
Knowingly misleading The Indian 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime
or otherwise Interfering Evidence Act, 1872 achievement by a
with a police officer or sportsperson
military officer when 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent
engaged in their duties coaches who have
successfully trained
Celebratory gunfire : The The Arms
sports persons or teams
Arms which can endanger (Amendment) Act,
4. Rashtriya Khel : To recognize the
the personal safety of 2019
others Protsahan Puraskar contribution made by
sportspersons even
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? after their retirement
(a) Only one (b) Only two How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(c) All three (d) None (a) Only one
53. Consider the following pairs: (b) Only two
Regions often in news Reason for being (c) Only three
mentioned in news (d) All four
1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia 56. Consider the following statements in respect of the
and Azerbaijan 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held
Mozambique in India.
3. Kherson and : Dispute between Israel 2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.
Zaporizhzhia and Lebanon 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open
section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s
(a) Only one
section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
(b) Only two How many of the statements given above are correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three (d) All four

57. Consider the following pairs: 62. Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict Country where it mentioned Site Well known for
in news is located 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
1. Donbas : Syria 2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
2. Kachin : Ethiopia 3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine
3. Tigray : North Yemen How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) All three
(d) None 63. Consider the following statements:
58. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National
caught the international attention for which one of Handloom Day.
the following reasons common to all of them? Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements Movement was launched on the same day.
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(d) Successful coups and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
59. Consider the following heavy industries: Statement-I
1. Fertilizer plants (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. Oil refineries and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant
incorrect
role in decarbonizing how many of the above
industries? (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(a) Only one 64. Consider the following statements in respect of the
(b) Only two National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of
India, 2002 :
(c) All three
Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the
(d) None
National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
60. Consider the following statements about G-20: Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height
1. The G-20 group was originally established as a (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Which one of the following is correct in respect of
Bank Governors to discuss the international the above statements?
economic and financial issues. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
priorities. Statement-I
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) 1 only and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(b) 2 only for Statement-I
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
61. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, 65. Consider the following statements in respect of the
A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Constitution Day:
Walter Elliot were associated with Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th
(a) Archaeological excavations November every year to promote constitutional
values among citizens.
(b) Establishment of English Press in Colonial India
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the
(c) Establishment of Churches in Princely States Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
(d) Construction of railways in Colonial India Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R.
8 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 69. Consider the following statements:
66. Consider the following statements : The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European
Statement-I : Switzerland is one of the leading Union is a treaty that
exporters of gold in terms of value. 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the
Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest countries of the European Union
gold reserves in the world. 2. makes the countries of the European Union to
share their infrastructure facilities
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 3. enables the countries of the European Union to
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for share their technologies
Statement-I How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (a) Only one
(b) Only two
for Statement-I
(c) All three
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct (d) None
67. Consider the following statements: 70. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations
(USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched have adopted the first-ever compact for
the Trade and Technology Council’. international migration, the ‘Global Compact for
Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
through this they are trying to bring technological
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the
progress and physical productivity under their
control. GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or
the above statements? internally displaced people also in its objectives
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and commitments.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement-I
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation (c) All three (d) None
for Statement-I 71. Consider the following countries:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic
incorrect
3. Hungary 4. Latvia
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
5. Lithuania 6. Romania
68. Consider the following statements :
How many of the above-mentioned countries share
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global a land border with Ukraine?
export of goods. (a) Only two
Statement-II : Many local companies and some
(b) Only three
foreign companies operating in India have taken
advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ (c) Only four
scheme. (d) Only five

72. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of the following statements is correct? (a) 1 only
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the (b) 2 only
equator is roughly about 10 times of that received (c) Both 1 and 2
at the poles. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of
76. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants
insolation.
in India, consider the following statements:
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water
1. None of them uses seawater.
vapour that is concentrated in the lower
atmosphere 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of 3. None of them is privately owned.
electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich
(c) All three
in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture (d) None
of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter 77. ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with
in the soil to decompose quickly. reference to which one of the following?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by
the above statements? mosquitoes
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (b) Converting crop residues into packing material
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
Statement-I
(d) Producing biochar from thermochemical
conversion of biomass
for Statement-I 78. Consider the following activities:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various
Statement-I: The temperature contrast between
industries and pumping it into abandoned
continents and oceans is greater during summer
subterranean mines in the form of carbonated
than in winter.
waters
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more
than that of land surface. How many of the above activities are often
Which one of the following is correct in respect of considered and discussed for carbon capture and
the above statements? sequestration?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (a) Only one
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for (b) Only two
Statement-I (c) All three
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (d) None
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation 79. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the
for Statement-I following situations?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct one go
75. Consider the following statements: (b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier species of a habitat
than S waves. (c) Using air-borne devices to collect samples from
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and moving blood animals
fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas (d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect
in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at plant and animal samples from land surfaces and
right angles to the direction of wave propagation. water bodies
10 UPSC Prelims PYQs

80. Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one 84. Consider the following actions:
of the following? 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
various species of fauna 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse the ground which results in the immediate
functional tissues turning off of the hard drive
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural 3. Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which
plants results in the rotation of display between portrait
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting and landscape mode
series of drug trials in a population In how many of the above actions is the function of
81. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani accelerometer required?
Suraksha Yojana: (a) Only one (b) Only two
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State (c) All three (d) None
Health Departments. 85. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal Aquaculture System, consider the following
mortality among poor pregnant women. statements:
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing
poor pregnant women. uneaten fish feed.
4. Its objective includes providing public health 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste
facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. to nitrate.
How many of the statements given above are 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for
correct? fish in water.
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
82. Consider the following statements in the context of (c) All three
interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt (d) None
Bharat Strategy: 86. Consider the following pairs:
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation Objects in space Description
for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant 1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and
women. gas in space
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at 2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and
the time of child-birth. dim periodically
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children
3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are
and adolescents.
formed when massive
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in stars run out of fuel and
endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, collapse
hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
How many of the statements given above are (a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) Only three (d) All four
(d) None
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of 87. Which one of the following countries has its own
components used in automobiles and aircrafts. Satellite Navigation System?
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. (a) Australia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Canada
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Israel
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Japan

88. Consider the following statements: 92. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies,
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic consider the following statements:
speeds throughout their flights, while cruise 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital
missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT
phase of flight. system.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a
missile, while BrahMos is a solid- fuelled condition programmed into it such as a time-
intercontinental ballistic missile. frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements regarding mercury 93. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
pollution: (a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury an asset from different platforms
pollution in the world. (b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury balance risk versus reward
pollution.
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to hedging is not possible
mercury.
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations
How many of the above statements are correct? of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was
(c) All three
originally initiated by the State Bank of India by
(d) None providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
90. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take
following statements: responsibility for a loan that an individual
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal member takes.
combustion. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as Commercial Banks support SHGs
fuel for heat or power generation. How many of the above statements are correct?
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run (a) Only one (b) Only two
vehicles. (c) All three (d) None
Statement-I: India’s public sector health care
system largely focuses on curative care with limited
91. Consider the following statements with reference to preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
India: Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach
1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium to health care delivery, the States are primarily
Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the responsible for organizing health services.
‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments Which one of the following is correct in respect of
in plant and machinery between 15 crore and 25 the above statements?
crore. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Statement-I
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) 1 only and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(b) 2 only for Statement-I
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

96. Consider the following statements: 98. Which one of the following countries has been
Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ suffering from decades of civil strife and food
shortages and was in news in the recent past for its
World Water Development Report, 2022’, India
very severe famine?
extracts more than a quarter of the world’s
(a) Angola (b) Costa Rica
groundwater withdrawal each year.
(c) Ecuador (d) Somalia
Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a
quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to
1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees
satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs
are key to the realisation of the objectives of the
of almost 18% of world’s population living in its
Nagoya Protocol.
Territory.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees
Which one of the following is correct in respect of have important functions in determining access
the above statements? and benefit sharing, including the power to
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct levy collection fees on the access of biological
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for resources within its jurisdiction.
Statement-I Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for Statement-I 100. Consider the following statements in respect of
election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States
97. Consider the following statements: are also eligible to be included in the Electoral
College.
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats,
Government has a duty to protect States from
higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that
internal disturbances. State.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh
providing legal counsel to a person being held for is greater than that of Kerala.
preventive detention. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because
the ratio of total population to total number
2002, confession of the accused before the police
of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as
cannot be used as evidence.
compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) Only three (d) All four
v v v
Scan The QR Code to Watch Analysis of

UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper-1.

Section A
1 Ancient and Medieval History
PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS – PRELIMS 2011 TO 2022

Ancient and Medieval History : PYQs Analysis
25
20
Ancient and Medieval History
15
10
8 8 8
7
5 6
5
4
3 3
2 2
0 1
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
*Question count may vary due to subjectivity
ANCIENT HISTORY
PYQs ANALYSIS
Sr. No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
Introduction to
1 1 1 2 4
Ancient History
2 Harappan Civilization 1 1 1 1 4
History of the Vedic
3 1 1 2
Period
History of Mauryan
4 1 1 1 1 4
Age
Buddhism and
5 2 1 1 4
Jainism
History of the Gupta
6 1 2 1 4
Period
Harshvardhan
7 and the Southern 1 1 2
Dynasties
Art and Literature
8 1 1 1 3
during Ancient times
Total 3 4 4 3 0 1 3 * * 2 4 3 27
*Questions on Jainism and Buddhism are covered in art and culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given
CONSTRUCTION OF ANCIENT HISTORY below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
1. Consider the following pairs: (2021)
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Historical place Well - known for
1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines HARAPPAN CIVILIZATION
2. Chandra - ketugarh : Terracotta art (INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION)
3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts 5. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly known for its elaborate system of water harvesting
matched? and management by building a series of dams and
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 (2021)
2. In the context of the history of India, consider the (a) Dholavira (b) Kalibangan
following pairs: (2016) (c) Rakhigarhi (d) Ropar
Term Description 6. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
1. Eripatti : Land revenue which was set (2019)
apart for the maintenance of (a) Chanhudaro (b) Kot Diji
the village tank (c) Sohgaura (d) Desalpur
2. Taniyurs : Villages donated to single 7. Which of the following characterises/characterises
Brahmin or a group of Brahmins the people of the Indus Civilization? (2013)
3. Ghatikas : Colleges generally attached to 1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
the temples 2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
Which of the pairs given above is correctly 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
matched? Select the correct statement/statements using the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only codes given below
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
3. With reference to the scientific progress of Ancient (b) 2 only
India, Which of the statements given below are (c) 1, 2 and 3
correct?(2012)
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
1. Different kinds of specialised surgical instruments
were in common use by the 1st century AD 8. Regarding the Indus valley civilization, consider the
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body following statements: (2011)
began in the 3rd century AD 1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in the the religious element, though present, did not
5th century AD. dominate the scene.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilateral was known in 2. During this period, cotton was used for
the 7th century AD. manufacturing textiles in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. With reference to the Guilds (Shrenis) of ancient India HISTORY OF THE VEDIC PERIOD
that played a very important role in the country’s
economy, which of the following statements is/are 9. With reference to the difference between the culture
true?(2012) of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of
1. Every Guild was registered with the central the following statements is/are correct? (2017)
authority of the state and the King was the chief 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet
administrative authority on them in warfare whereas the people of the Indus Valley
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
were fixed by the Guild 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper
members. and iron.

3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse
BUDDHISM AND JAINISM
whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley
people having been aware of this animal. 15. With reference to Indian history, consider the
Select the correct answer using the code given following texts: (2022)
below: 1. Nettipakarana
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Parishishta Parvan
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Avadanasataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
10. The Religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of:
(2012) Which of the above are Jaina texts?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) Bhakti
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Image worship and yajnas
16. With reference to Indian history, consider the
(c) Worship of nature and yajnas following pairs: (2022)
(d) Worship of nature and bhakti
Historical person Known as
HISTORY OF MAURYAN AGE 1. Aryadeva Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga Buddhist scholar
11. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the
3. Nathamuni Vaishnava scholar
following are correct? (2022)
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial
(a) None of the pairs (b) Only one pair
punishment.
(c) Only two pairs (d) All three pairs
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was
17. With reference to the history of Ancient India, which
legally free.
of the following was/were common to both Buddhism
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her and Jainism? (2012)
master the son was entitled to the legal status of 1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and
the master’s son. enjoyment
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. Indifference to the authority of Vedas
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Denial of the efficacy of rituals
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) 1 and 3 only below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Who among the following rulers advised his subjects
18. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created
through this inscription? (2020) and maintained by: (2011)
“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames (a) Universal law (b) Universal Truth
other sects out of excessive devotion to his own (c) Universal Faith (d) Universal Soul
sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he
rather injures his own sect very severely.” THE HISTORY OF THE GUPTA PERIOD
(a) Ashoka
(b) Samudragupta 19. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of
Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which
(c) Harshavardhana of the following kingdoms were holding power in
(d) Krishnadeva Raya Northern India? (2021)
13. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions 1. The Guptas of Magadha
is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along 2. The Paramaras of Malwa
with the stone portrait of Ashoka? (2019) 3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
(a) Kanganahalli (b) Sanchi 4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
(c) Shahbazgarhi (d) Sohgaura 5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi
14. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts
Select the correct answer using the code given
of Emperor Ashoka? (2016) below:
(a) Georg Buhler (b) James Prinsep (a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
(c) Max Muller (d) William Jones (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 5 and 6
Ancient and Medieval History 19

20. With reference to the history of India, the terms 24. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade
“kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote (2020) links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Measurement of land For this pre-eminence of the early maritime history
(b) Coins of different monetary value of the Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be
the most convincing Solution/Solutions? (2011)
(c) Classification of urban land
(a) As compared to other countries, India had better
(d) Religious rituals
ship-building technology in ancient and medieval
21. With reference to the period of the Gupta dynasty times.
in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and (b) The rulers of southern India always patronised
Chaul were well known as: (2020) traders, Brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in
(a) Ports handling foreign trade this context.
(b) Capitals of powerful kingdoms (c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal
(c) Places of exquisite stone art and architecture facilitated sea voyages.
(d) Important Buddhist pilgrimage centres (d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing Solutions in this
context.
22. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India
during the Gupta period, which one of the following
statements is correct? (2019) ART AND LITERATURE DURING
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, ANCIENT TIMES
a sort of tax paid by the people.
25. With reference to the history of ancient India,
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were
Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire. famous:(2021)
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages. (a) Jain monks
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the (b) Playwrights
forced labourer.
(c) Temple architects
(d) Philosophers
HARSHAVARDHAN & THE SOUTHERN
26. With reference to the scholars/literatures of ancient
DYNASTIES
India, consider the following statements: (2020)
23. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) 1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
who visited India recorded the general conditions and 2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
culture of India at that time. In this context, which 3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-II.
of the following statements is/are correct? (2013)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The roads and river routes were completely (a) 1 and 2 only
immune from robbery.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by
(c) 3 only
fire, water and poison were the instruments for
(d) 1, 2 and 3
determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and 27. With reference to the cultural history of India, the
barrier stations. memorising of chronicles, dynastic histories and epic
tales was the profession of which of the following?
(2016)
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Shramana (b) Parivraajaka
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Agrahaarika (d) Magadha
Answer Key
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d)

Explanation
1. (d) Sub-Theme: Significant features of historical control quality production, create sound
places business ethics, and maintain fair wages and
z Pair 1 is incorrect: Burzahom had a well- prices. Each Guild has its own chief, assisted
developed bone tool industry. Other finds by others.
at Burzahom include pits and coarse pottery. Statement 2 is correct. The Ramayana and
Rock-cut shrines were not a feature of the
many plays from the Gupta period and
Burzahom site.
Tamil Sangam literature write in detail about
z Pair 2 is correct: Chandraketugarh is
the trade guilds or shrenis.
located in the Ganges delta in West Bengal.
It was famous for terracotta art. It is Statement 3 is correct. Guild members were
connected to Ganga by the Vidyadhari river entitled to impeach and punish a chief found
which makes it ideal for a flourishing trade guilty of misconduct.
centre. 5. (a) Sub-Theme: Location of historical place and its
z Pair 3 is correct: Ganeshwar is located significant/unique feature
in the northeastern part of Rajasthan. Option (a) is correct: Dholavira was discovered
Hundreds of copper artefacts have been
in 1968 by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi,
found at this site which suggests it must
have been a copper working centre. one of the most remarkable and well-preserved
urban settlements in South Asia. After Mohen-
2. (d) Sub-Theme: Terminologies based on ancient India
jo-Daro, Ganweriwala and Harappa in Pakistan
The Correct answer is Option (d): Eripatti
was a special kind of land donated by and Rakhigarhi in Haryana of India, Dholavira
individuals, revenue from which was set apart is the fifth largest metropolis of Indus Valley
for the maintenance of tanks in the village. Civilization (IVC). The City of Dholavira had
Generous donations were given to places of an impressive and unique system of water
study like Ghatikas and Mathas. harvesting and management systems. The
z During the Chola administration,
Rann’s water levels may have been greater in
occasionally a very large village would be
administered as a single unit and this was protohistoric times than they are now, enabling
called Taniyur. boats to travel from the shore all the way up
3. (c) Sub-Theme: Technological development during to the site. Manhar and Mandsar, two streams,
ancient times border the Dholavira site. To direct their water
Statement 1 is correct. Sushruta has been into reservoirs, dams had to be constructed.
documented as the first surgeon. He used Option (b) is incorrect: Kalibangan is located
S-type and U-type instruments and has also on the bank of the Ghaggar river in Rajasthan.
documented Plastic surgery. A fire altar, Camel’s bones and Wooden plough
Statement 2 is incorrect. There has been no
have been found here.
documented proof of organ transplants in the
Option (c) is incorrect: Rakhigarhi is the
3rd century AD.
Statement 3 is correct. Aryabhatta has given largest Harappan site in the Indian subcontinent.
sine angles and reversed sine angles in his book Planned townships having mud-brick as well as
Surya Siddhanta. burnt-brick were found here.
Statement 4 is correct. Brahmgupta was Option (d) is incorrect: At the Ropar site, a
known to give the formula for the area of a building made of stone and oil, a dog buried with
cyclic quadrilateral.
humans and an oval pit burial have been found.
4. (c) Sub-Theme: Administrative structure during
6. (c) Sub-Theme: Location of Harappan site Option
ancient times
(c) is correct: Sohgaura is located in Gorakhpur,
Statement 1 is incorrect. Guilds were Uttar Pradesh. Here Ashokan inscriptions were
professional bodies of jewellers, weavers, found. The Sohgaura copper plate inscription is
and ivory carvers who came together to an Indian copper plate inscription written in

Prakrit in the Brahmi script. It was found at rituals and beliefs of the Harappans is entirely
Sohgaura, about 20 kilometres to the southeast based on the terracotta figurines and seals
of Gorakhpur, on the banks of the Rapti River. that have survived. The Harappan religion is
normally termed as “animism” i.e., worship of
trees, stones etc. A large number of terracotta
figurines discovered at the Harappan sites
have been associated with the worship of the
mother goddess. Evidence of fire worship
has also been found at some sites such as
Kalibangan and Lothal. The burial practices
and rituals have been a very important
Option (a), (b), (d) are incorrect: Kot Diji, aspect of religion in any culture. Kalibangan
Desalpur and Chanhudaro are Harappan has yielded evidence of a symbolic burial.
sites. Kotdiji means “Fort of the Daughter’’ Despite having the engineering know-how, the
and is located in Khairpur province, Pakistan. Indus Valley civilization did not build any
Here copper-bronze objects, bangles and grand palaces. Religious rituals were mostly
arrowheads; etched carnelian and other beads performed in private houses, little temples,
and numerous terracotta human, bull, and or outside.
bird effigy figurines were found. At Desalpur Statement 2 is correct: In 1929 cotton textile
houses built next to walls have been found. fragments were found from Mohenjo-Jo-Daro.
Chanhudaro is located on the bank of the Also, cotton seeds found nearby Mehrgarh
Indus River in Sindh, Pakistan. Bead makers’ dated to 5000 BCE.
shops have been found here. 9. (c) Sub-Theme: Significant features and lifestyle
aspect of Aryans viz-a-viz Indus Valley Civilization
NOTE: Reference to question came from
the news of Sohgaura copper plate Statement 1 is correct: For offensive weapons,
inscription found in 2018-19. the Vedic-Aryans have the bow and arrow, spear,
dagger, and axe, and for defensive armour the
7. (b) Sub-Theme: Aspect of Religious life of Harappan helmet and coat of mail. The Indus people also
civilizations have the bow and arrow, spear, dagger and
Harappan civilization: The Harappan axe, but defensive armour is quite unknown to
Civilization arose in the North -western part of Indus valley people.
the Indian subcontinent. It is called Harappan Statement 2 is incorrect: The metals which
because this civilization was discovered first in the Indo-Aryans used in the time of the Rigveda
1921 at the modern site of Harappa situated are gold and copper or bronze; but a little later,
in the province of West Punjab in Pakistan. these metals are supplemented by silver and
The Harappan culture covered parts of Punjab, iron. Among the Indus people, silver is more
Sindh, Balochistan, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and the common than gold, and utensils and vessels
fringes of western Uttar Pradesh. It is older are sometimes made of stone – a relic of the
than the chalcolithic cultures which have been Neolithic Age – as well as of copper and bronze.
treated earlier, but it is far more developed Statement 3 is correct: The horse seems
than these cultures. to have been unknown to the inhabitants of
Statement 1 is incorrect: No building has Mohenjo-Jo-Daro and Harappa. But Many
been discovered in the Indus valley which can references have been made regarding the
resemble a temple. Although “Great Bath” may Surkotada site containing horse remains dated
have been used for ritual purposes by the Indus to 2000 BCE, which is considered a significant
valley people. observation with respect to Indus Valley
Statement 2 is correct: Figurines resembling Civilisation. After evaluating the Surkotada bone
female deities and male gods have been found fragments, Sándor Bökönyi (1997) concluded
in the Indus Valley. that at least six of the samples most likely
Statement 3 is incorrect: No trace of Horses belonged to the real horse. However, this is
has been found in the Indus valley. not definitive proof, and it does not imply that
8. (c) Sub-Theme: Religious aspect of Harappan people in the Indus Valley knew about horses.
civilization and significant features
NOTE: Likewise in the above question (i.e.
Statement 1 is correct: Indus Valley people
of 2017), In 2013, UPSC asked a question
used to worship trees and animals. No traces
on Harappan Civilization in which “Horse”
of the practice of religion have been found at
was the central theme in question.
any site. The understanding of the religious

10. (c) Sub-Theme: Religious aspects of early Vedic dhamma. Ashoka had his messages inscribed on
Aryans pillars and rocks, and he ordered his officials to
The correct answer is Option (c): Vedic read his messages to people who were unable
Aryans used to worship manifestations of to do so for themselves.
forces of nature as Gods in the form of Indra, NOTE: This is a direct question from Class
Agni, Soma, Varuna. Mother earth and Rivers, 6 NCERT Our Past 1, hence reading NCERT
especially Saraswati, were worshipped as the is very important both in terms of clearing
goddess. Yajna was a method of worship concepts and gaining facts.
that involved offering sacrifices. It included
13. (a) Sub-Theme: Ashoka and sites (location) of his
Vedic chants, shamans singing and a sacrificial
inscriptions
mantra. The Vedic mantra was chanted while
sacrificing havan samagri in the fire during a The correct answer is Option (a):
Kanaganahalli is in Gulbarga, Karnataka. In
yajna.
this sculptural depiction, the emperor with his
queen and attendants are carved on a slab, with
“Ranyo Ashoka” (King Ashoka) mentioned
along with the stone portrait of Ashoka.
About Sannati and Kanaganahalli Buddhist
Sites:
z About 3 kilometres from Sannati lies
Kanganahalli, a significant Buddhist site
where an old Mahastupa was erected.
z It is located in India’s Karnataka on the left
bank of the Bhima River in the Chitapur
11. (b) Sub-Theme: Significance of Arthashastra Taluk of the Kalaburagi District.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the z The remnants of a large stupa, as well as
Arthashastra, any person who has voluntarily numerous brick buildings in the shape of a
enslaved himself shall, if he runs away, be a Chaitya-griha and memorial stupas, were
slave for life. Similarly, any person whose life uncovered during excavations conducted at
has been mortgaged by others shall, if he runs Kanaganahalli from 1994 to 1998.
away twice, be a slave for life. z During the excavations, numerous
Statement 2 is correct: There was a variety architectural components of the stupa
of protection offered to the slaves, especially were discovered, including four pictures of
to the women slaves. As per the Arthashastra, the Buddha, remains of sculptured veneering
when a child is begotten on a female slave by slabs, pieces of railings, pillars, and capitals.
her master, both the child and its mother shall The sculptured panels show different
at once be recognized as free. Játaka, the legend of Lord Buddha’s life and
Statement 3 is correct: According to the portraits of numerous Satavahana kings.
Arthshastra, if a son born to a female slave was 14. (b) Sub-Theme: Ashoka and his inscriptions
fathered by her master, the son was entitled to The correct answer is Option (b): James
the legal status of the master’s son. Prinsep deciphered the edicts of Ashoka in
12. (a) Sub-Theme: Ashoka and his Dhamma 1837. James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of
the East India Company, deciphered Brahmi
The Correct answer is Option (a): As per the
and Kharosthi, two scripts used in the earliest
Major rock Edicts 7 and 12, Ashoka insisted inscriptions and coins. The most widely
that all religions should co-exist and the known are the edicts of Ashoka, which have
ascetics of all religions were honoured. About been discovered in many parts of the country.
Ashoka’s Dhamma: Ashoka’s dhamma did not In fact, the reconstruction of the Mauryan
involve worship of a god, or performance of period to a great extent became possible only
a sacrifice. He felt that just as a father tries to after the Brahmi script of the inscriptions at
teach his children, he had a duty to instruct his Sanchi was deciphered by James Prinsep in
subjects. He was also inspired by the teachings 1837. James Princep found that most of these
of the Buddha. People in the empire followed mentioned a king referred to as Piyadassi –
different religions, and this sometimes led to meaning “pleasant to behold”; there were a few
conflict. Ashoka appointed representatives, inscriptions which also referred to the king as
referred to as the dhamma mahamatta, who Asoka, one of the most famous rulers known
travelled around instructing people about from Buddhist texts.

15. (b) Sub-Theme: Jain and Buddhist Literature/Text Statement 4 is correct: Trishashthilkshana
z Buddhist Literature/Texts: The earliest Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed
Buddhist works were written in Pali, largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of
Rashtrakutas.
which was spoken in Magadha and South
Bihar. The Buddhist works can be divided 16. (c) Sub-Theme: Scholars and Thinkers of Ancient
into the canonical and non-canonical texts. India
Canonical texts are believed to be the Pair 1 is incorrect: Ā� ryadeva was a Mahayana
actual words of the Buddha. Canonical Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a
texts are books which lay down the basic Madhyamaka philosopher. After Nagarjuna,
tenets and principles of Buddhism such as he is considered to be the next most important
the Tripitakas. Non-canonical texts or
figure of the Indian Madhyamaka school. His
semi-canonical texts are commentaries
writings are important sources of Madhyamaka
and observations on canonical texts,
in both East Asian Buddhism and in Tibetan
quotes, definitions, historical information,
Buddhism. Ā� ryadeva is also known as
grammars and other writings in Pali,
Tibetian, Chinese and other East Asian Kanadeva, recognized as the 15th patriarch in
languages. Chan Buddhism and some Sinhalese sources
z Jain Literature/Text: The sacred books also mention an elder (thera) called Deva which
of the Jainas are collectively known as the may also be the same person. He is known for
Siddhanta or Agama. Both the Shvetambara his association with the Nalanda monastery in
and Digambara schools accept and give modern-day Bihar, India.
prime importance to the Angas. Agamas is Pair 2 is correct: Dignāga, Buddhist logician
a term used for Jaina canonical literature. It and author of the Pramāṇasamuccaya
includes: 14 Purvas; 12 Angas; 12 Upangas; (“Compendium of the Means of True
10 Prakirnas; 6 Cheda Sutras; 4 Mala Sutras; Knowledge”), a work that laid the foundations
Niryuktis; Kalpasutra; Acharang Sutras; of Buddhist logic. Dignāga gave a new definition
Nandi Sutra; Anuyogadvara. of “perception”: knowledge that is free from all
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Netti Pakarana conceptual constructions, including name and
is a Buddhist scripture containing methods class concepts. Dignāga’s tradition was further
that were taught by the Buddha’s disciple developed in the 7th century by Dharmakī�rti.
Kaccana as approved by the Buddha and that it
Pair 3 correct: Sri Ranganathamuni,
was recited at the First Buddhist Council.
popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni (823
Statement 2 is correct: The Parishishta
CE–951 CE), was a Vaishnava theologian
Parvan (12th century) by Hemachandra
gives a history of the earliest Jaina teachers who collected and compiled the Nalayira
and also mentions certain details of political Divya Prabandham. Considered the first of
history. Sri Vaishnava āchāryās, Nathamuni is also the
Statement 3 is incorrect: Avadana literature author of Yogarahasya, and Nyāyatattva.
(Avadana means ‘Legends’) is a type of 17. (b) Sub-Theme: Philosophical aspect of Jainism and
Buddhist literature correlating past lives’ Buddhism/Similarities between Jainism and
virtuous deeds to subsequent lives’ events. Buddhism
Jainism vis-a-vis Buddhism

z Both were influenced by the Upanishads’ ideology as well as that of other Hindu religious
groups. For instance, salvation is the ultimate aim of life.
z Both groups welcomed members from various social classes while also catering to the socially
Similarities outcast.
z Both believed that Nirvana, or salvation, frees one from the cycle of perpetual birth and death.
z Both placed more emphasis on moral principles than on engaging in ritualistic behaviour or
paying homage to and worshipping God.

z Jainism has endured in India throughout history, unlike Buddhism because Jains strictly adhere
to their religious rules. However, Buddhism was nonetheless interpreted liberally in other
cultures.
z Jainism upholds a more comprehensive understanding of life. Every element of nature, both
living and non-living, is said to have its own soul. However, Buddhism does not believe so.
Differences z Jainism believes that men and women who are householders cannot find salvation, in contrast
to Buddhism, which does not make any distinctions between genders.
z Jain teachings include opposition to animal sacrifices, including those made for spiritual
purposes. In Buddhism, the concept of Ahimsa (non-violence) is different than in other
religions. Ahimsa permits the eating of animal flesh where it is a necessity or traditional diet of
the people.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Buddhism professed of Malwa, the Maukharis of Kanauj, the

a middle path, and avoidance of extremities Maitrakas in Saurashtra and others. During
of penance and enjoyment whereas Jainism that time the Gupta empire was restricted
advocated extreme penance and asceticism. to Magadha only. Pushyabhuti of Thanesar
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Buddhism and (Haryana) also carved an independent state
Jainism rejected the idea of grand rituals along around that time. During the 10th CE, Tomars
with the authority of Vedas and Priests. They of Delhi, Chauhans of Rajasthan, Solankis
both believe in the concept of reincarnation. of Gujarat, Parmars of Malwa, Chandels
18. (a) Sub-Theme: Philosophical aspect of Jainism of Bundelkhand started ruling north India.
The correct answer is Option (a): Jain During the 14th CE, the Yadavas of Devagiri
philosophy holds that the world is created (Maharashtra) became an important ruling
and maintained by Universal laws. Jainism dynasty of Deccan. By eliminating options 2
does not support belief in the creator deity. and 5, we can get the correct answer.
According to Jain doctrine, the universe and NOTE: If we try to apply knowledge of
its constituents (soul, matter, space, time and Physical geography here, we can try
motion) have always existed. The first Jain to attempt this otherwise difficult and
Tirthankara was Rishabnatha. Mahavira complex question. Question is talking
was the twenty-fourth and last Tirthankara. about “Northern India”. We all know Malwa
Jainism did not condemn the concept of the (Malwa plateau) is located in central India
varna system. Jainism believes in the theory (option 2) and Devagiri in Deccan (Devgiri
of Karma. Both the idea of reincarnation and Fort) (option 5). If we take calculable risk
the universal soul are accepted in Jainism. of elimination of both of these statements,
Jainism rejects the idea of a creator god. The we can reach the correct answer.
universe and all of its elements, including soul, 20. (a) Sub-Theme: Administrative aspect of Gupta Age/
matter, space, time, and motion, have existed Terminologies based on ancient India
forever, in accordance with Jain theology. To
The correct answer is Option (a): During the
break free from the circle of karma and reach
Gupta period, different land measures were
salvation, Jainism teaches that one must lead
known in different regions such as Nivartana,
a life of extreme austerity and penance.
Kulyavapa, Dronavapa. The term “Kulyavapa’’
Jainism holds to the “theory of Karma” and the
and “Dronavapa’’ are mentioned in inscriptions
“transmigration of the soul.” Anekantavada:
in Bengal. The term ‘’vap” means ‘’to sow”.
Stresses that there are many different facets to
Kulyavapa means the area required to sow one
the ultimate truth and reality, or the “theory
kulya of grain and the Dronavyapa was the area
of plurality.” Syadavada: Literally, means the
required to sow one drona of grain. One kulya
procedure of analysing various probability. Five
is equal to eight drona.
Doctrines Of Jainism: Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya,
Aparigraha, Brahmacharya. NOTE: Careful reading of NCERTs along
19. (b) Sub-Theme: Historical Timeline of post-Gupta with side notes and boxes will help us to
period. solve such terminology based questions.
The correct answer is Option (b): Due to Hun 21. (a) Sub-Theme: Trades and Commerce during Gupta
invasions, the Gupta kingdom was weakened Age
in its power and several independent kingdoms The correct answer is Option (a): In India
arose in north India such as Yashodharman Trade with foreign empires dates to Harappan

culture. Important among them were Lothal, made sea travel easier, this was the primary
Lakhabawal, Kindarkhera, Kuntasi, Megham, factor in India’s early commerce and cultural
Prabhasa, Todio, Amra. This tradition continued connections with Southeast Asia.
through the Mauryan and Gupta empires. India
NOTE: In option (b), “southern India
had commercial and cultural ties with nearly all
always patronised traders” seems extreme
of the Southeast Asian nations as well as Egypt,
and an absolute statement. Option (a) also
Rome, the Greeks, Arabs, and China. Chaul was
seems incorrect, however the question is
one of the ports in Western India, with Kalyan,
talking about “most convincing Solution/
Broach and Cambay. In the south were Kadura,
Solutions” so it will be option (c).
Ghantsala and Puhar (Kaveripattinam).
25. (b) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Literature
NOTE: In 2017, UPSC asked about Kakatiya
The Correct answer is Option (b):
Kingdom’s foreign trade port – Motupalli.
z Bhavabhuti was the court poet of King
Careful reading of NCERTs along with side
Yashovarman of Kannauj in 8th CE. His
notes will help us to solve such terminology
written plays include Mahavircharitra,
based questions.
Uttamcharitra, Malatimadhava. Bhavabhuti
22. (a) Sub-Theme: Administrative aspect of Gupta Age was an 8th-century scholar of India noted
The correct answer is Option (a): During the for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit.
Gupta period, forced labour (vishti) became His plays are considered the equal of the
a source of income for the state and was works of Kalidasa. Bhavabhuti was born
also looked upon as a form of taxation on the in Padmapura, Vidarbha, in Gondia district,
subjects. Vishti was forced labour in lieu of on the Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
taxes hence no weekly wages were entitled. border. He is described as an ‘Udumbara
Anyone from the family can be sent as a Brahmin’. Dayananidhi Paramahansa is
forced labourer, not particularly the eldest son known to be his guru. He composed his
of the family. historical plays at ‘Kalpi’, a place on banks
23. (b) Sub-Theme: Foreign Travellers Account of river Yamuna.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Roads and River- z Hastimalla was a Kannada poet and
routes were not completely robbery-free. playwright during Hoysalas reign.
Hiuen-Tsang himself was looted a couple of z Kshemeshvara was an 11th-century
times. Sanskrit poet from Kashmir in India.
Statement 2 is correct. Criminal law was very He is known for his poetic works and for
severe. Mutilation was commonly practised. his contributions to the development of
Ordeals by fire, water and poison were used to Sanskrit poetry. One of the important works
determine the innocence or guilt of a person. attributed to him is the Dasavatar Charita.
Statement 3 is correct. Duties were to be paid z Playwrights write scripts for plays to be
at trade barriers without fail. It was a source of enacted on a stage.
income for the kingdom.
NOTE: It is always advisable to read about
NOTE: If you observe statement 1 various personalities during historic times
carefully, it states “roads and river routes and their contribution to the various
were completely immune from robbery” fields – Art, literature, religion, paintings,
which logically sounds an absolute and playwrights, philosophy songs among
extreme statement. Another way to solve others. UPSC asked questions on similar
this question is to ask yourself, at that time themes in 2020 and 2012.
was it possible to maintain roads and river
routes completely immune from robbery? 26. (c) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Literature
If we eliminate statement 1, we will get The Correct answer is Option (c): Panini
the correct answer !! Reading questions was a contemporary of the Mahajanapada era
between the lines and with utmost attention (6th to 4th CE). He was a Sanskrit Grammarian
is the key to solve otherwise seemingly known for writing Ashtadhyayi- a sutra style
difficult questions. treatise on Sanskrit grammar.
Pushyamitra Shunga started the Shunga
24. (c) Sub Theme: Early Maritime History of India
dynasty by assassinating Brihadratha, the
Option (c) is correct: Indians have been last ruler of the Magadha Empire in 185 BCE.
familiar with the monsoon winds since the Pushyamitra Sunga was a Buddhist follower.
Gupta era. The Bay of Bengal’s monsoon winds Some historians have portrayed him as anti-

Buddhist, but there is no credible evidence term came to refer to several non-Brahmanical
for the claim. He also constructed a stone ascetic religions parallel to but separate from
gateway at Sanchi and restored Buddhist the Vedic religion. The Sramaṇa tradition
stupas at Barhut. He also patronized the includes primarily Jainism, Buddhism, and
Sanskrit grammar scholar Patanjali. others such as the Ajivika. The Sramaṇa
Amarasimha was a Sanskrit grammarian and religions became popular in the same circles of
poet who lived in ancient India. Amarasimha mendicants from greater Magadha that led to
was one of the nine gems that adorned the the development of spiritual practices, as well
throne of Vikramaditya, and according to as the popular concepts in all major Indian
the accounts of Hieun Tsang it is believed religions such as Samsara (the cycle of birth
that he was the Chandragupta Vikramaditya and death) and moksha (liberation from that
(Chandragupta II) who flourished around cycle). The Sramanic traditions have a diverse
375 CE. Amarsimha is famous for his Sanskrit range of beliefs, ranging from accepting or
thesaurus- Amarakosha. denying the concept of soul, fatalism to free
Kalidasa was a renowned Classical will, idealisation of extreme asceticism to that
Sanskrit writer who is widely regarded as of family life, renunciation, strict ahimsa (non-
one of the greatest poets and dramatists violence) and vegetarianism to permissibility
in Indian history. He generally draws of violence and meat eating.
inspiration from the Vedas, the Ramayana, z Memorizing chronicles, dynastic histories
the Mahabharata, and the Puranas for his and epic tales was the profession of different
plays and poems. Kalidasa wrote three plays: types of people, the sutas and the Magdhas,
Malavikagnimitram, Abhijnanasakuntalam, who were descendants of priest families of
and Vikramorvasiyam. the Vedic period.
Two epic poems of Kalidasa are Raghuvamsa z Shramana means seeker, one who performs
and Kumarasambhava. Kalidasa and acts of austerity.
Amarsimha were among the nine jewels z Agraharika looked after the lands given
of Chandragupta-II aka Chandragupta in charity. Agrahara means grant given
Vikramaditya. to Brahmins, it was perpetual, hereditary
27. (d) Sub-Theme: Terminologies based on ancient and tax free.
India z Parivrajaka means “One who roams
The Correct answer is Option (d): around”. The Sanskrit word parivrajaka
About Buddhism and Jainism: Buddhism means renunciant & wanderer in
and Jainism emerged as prominent religions English. Only a few parivrajakas have ever
having a large number of followers, referred existed in history. Ajita Keshkambalin,
to as Sramanic religions; these two religious Makhkhali Goshala, Gauthama Buddha,
systems were antithetical to the mainstream and Vardhamana Mahavira are a few well-
Vedic religion. During its development, the known examples.
v v v

MEDIEVAL HISTORY
PYQs ANALYSIS
Sr. No Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
Early Medieval 1 1 1 1 4
1 Period
The Delhi
2 1 1 4
2 Sultanate
1 1 1 1 4
3 Regional Kingdom
Vijayanagar
1 1 1 1 4
4 Empire
Bhakti and Sufi
1 1 1 1 1 1 6
5 Movement
6 Mughal Period 1 3 1 5
7 Miscellaneous 1 1 1 3
Total 5 4 2 5 1 1 4 4 2 1 1 - 30
* Question count may vary due to subjectivity
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the

EARLY MEDIEVAL PERIOD feudal lord and his overlord
1. Consider the following pairs: (2022) Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Nannuka Chandela below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Jayashakti Paramara
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta THE DELHI SULTANATE
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs 5. With reference to Indian history, consider the
following statements: (2022)
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened
2. Which of the following phrases defines the nature during the reign of Jalalud- din Khalji.
of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of 2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol
the post-Harsha period? (2020) assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
(a) An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost
(b) A diary to be maintained for daily accounts portions of the north-west of his kingdom to
(c) A bill of exchange Mongols.
(d) An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
3. With reference to the economic history of medieval (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to: (2016)
6. With reference to Indian history, who of the following
(a) bonded labour were known as “Kulah-Daran”? (2022)
(b) land grant made to military officers (a) Arab merchants
(c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of land (b) Qalandars
(d) wasteland converted to cultivated land (c) Persian calligraphists
4. With reference to Indian history, which of the (d) Sayyids
following is/are the essential element/elements of 7. Consider the following statements: (2021)
the feudal system? (2015) 1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz
1. A very strong centralized political authority and Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive
a very weak provincial or local political authority Khwarezm prince.
2. The emergence of an administrative structure 2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq
based on control and possession of the land that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.

3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of the 12. Consider the following pairs: (2015)
Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached
the coast of Kerala. Medieval Indian State : Present Region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Champaka : Central India
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 2. Durgara : Jammu
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 3. Kuluta : Malabar
8. Consider the following statements: (2019) Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
the in-charge of revenue collection was known as (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient VIJAYANAGARA EMPIRE
indigenous institution. 13. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence (2022)
during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. (a) Clothing (b) Coins
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Ornaments (d) Weapons
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 14. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 in Vijayanagara Empire were experts in which of the
following areas? (2021)
REGIONAL KINGDOMS 1. Wrestling 2. Astrology
3. Accounting 4. Soothsaying
9. With reference to Indian history, which of the Select the correct answer using the code given
following statements is/are correct? (2021) below.
1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged from Hyderabad (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
State. (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged from the 15. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva,
Vijayanagara Empire. the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following
statements: (2016)
3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the 1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the
territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani. quality of the land.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Private owners of workshops paid an industry tax.
below: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following events in the history of India: 16. Who of the following founded a new city on the south
(2020) bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook
to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja whom all the land south of the river Krishna was
2. E s t a b l i s h m e n t o f Pa l l ava p o we r u n d e r supposed to belong? (2015)
Mahendravarman-I (a) Amoghavarsha I (b) Ballala II
3. Establishment of Chola power by Purantaka (c) Harihara I (d) Prataparudra II
4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
BHAKTI AND SUFI MOVEMENT
What is the correct chronological order of the
above events, starting from the earliest time? 17. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of
(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 3-1-4-2 Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister
of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the
(c) 2-4-1-3 (d) 3-4-1-2
following statements correctly represents the
11. Which one of the following was a very important teachings of Ramanuja? (2022)
seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? (2017) (a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
(a) Kakinada (b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly
authoritative.
(b) Motupalli
(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) highest bliss.
(d) Nelluru (d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

18. Consider the following statements: (2019)
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
MUGHAL PERIOD
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh 23. With reference to medieval India, which one of the
Ahmad Sirhindi. following is the correct sequence in ascending order
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? in terms of size? (2021)
(a) 1 only (a) Paragana—Sarkar—Suba
(b) 2 only (b) Sarkar—Paragana—Suba
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Suba—Sarkar—Paragana
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Paragana—Suba—Sarkar
19. With reference to the cultural history of medieval 24. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are
India, consider the following statements: (2016) the difference/differences between Jagirdar and
1. Siddhas (Sittars) of the Tamil region were Zamindar? (2019)
monotheistic and condemned idolatry. 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu
2. Lingayats of the Kannada region questioned the of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars
theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy. were holders of revenue rights without obligation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
(a) 1 only 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary
(b) 2 only and revenue rights or Zamindars were not
hereditary.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
below.
20. Consider the following statements: (2014) (a) 1 only
1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint (b) 2 only
Dadu Dayal. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded (d) Neither 1 nor 2
by Madhvacharya.
25. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? following statements is not correct? (2019)
(a) 1 only
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor
(b) 2 only Akbar.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Tansen composed Dhrupada on Hindu gods and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 goddesses.
21. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: (2013) (c) Tansen composed songs for his patrons.
1. Dadu Dayal (d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
2. Guru Nanak 26. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted
3. Tyagaraja emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to albums and
Who among the above was/were preaching when individual portraits? (2019)
the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over? (a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) Jahangir (d) Shah Jahan
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 27. Consider the following: (2015)
22. With reference to the religious history of medieval The arrival of Babur into India led to the:
India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
of the following practices? (2012) 2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s
1. Meditation and control of breath. architecture
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place. 3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy Select the correct answer using the codes given
in their audience. below.
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 1 and 2 only
below: (b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

29. Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history
MISCELLANEOUS were generally (2016)
28. Which one of the following foreign travelers (a) Agriculturists (b) Warriors
elaborately discussed diamonds and diamond mines (c) Weavers (d) Trader
of India? (2018) 30. In Medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and
‘Pattakila’ were used for (2014)
(a) Francois Bernier
(a) Military officers
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(b) Village headmen
(c) Jean de Thevenot (c) Specialists in Vedic rituals
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre (d) Chiefs of craft guilds
Answer Key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
Explanation
1. (b) Sub-Theme: Regional Dynasty payments but it may have been used by
Pair 1 is correct: In the first quarter of the merchants as well.
9th century CE, the Chandella dynasty was z The Reserve Bank of India describes the
founded by Nannuka Hundi as “an unconditional order in writing
Pair 2 is incorrect: Vakpati’s son’s Jayashakti made by a person directing another to pay a
(Jeja) and Vijayashakti (Vija) consolidated the certain sum of money to a person named in
the order.” The hundi was a piece of paper,
Chandella power.
usually written in Hindi or any other Indian
Pair 3 is correct: Nagabhata II (reigned language, promising the payment of a sum
c. 793–833) was Vatsaraja’s successor, he of money to the bearer at a particular place
reorganized Pratihara power, attacked Kannauj. either immediately or afterwards.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Bhoja I/Mihir Bhoja
(c.836−885 CE) Grandson of Nagabhatta II, NOTE: Question highlights the
who had a long reign of over 46 years and importance of reading NCERTs for
proved to be the most successful and popular prelims with special emphasis on
ruler of Pratiharas. keywords and terminologies. The above
question directly came from Our Past II
2. (c) Sub-Theme: Medieval Terminology or keyword/ (class 7th) NCERT (Page 84)
Economic History of Medieval India
3. (c) Sub-Theme: Medieval Terminology or keyword/
Correct answer is Option (c): Hundis are
Economic History of Medieval India
used as a form of remittance instrument to
Correct answer is Option (c): The ‘Persian
transfer money from place to place, as a form
Wheel’ has been referred to as Araghatta in
of credit instrument or IOU to borrow money ancient Sanskrit writings.
and as a bill of exchange in trade transactions. z The term “ara-ghatta” derives from the
z The Hundis was a letter of credit payable words “ara,” which means “spoke,” and
after a period of time at a discount. The “ghatta,” which means “pot.”
word “hundi” is derived from the Sanskrit z There is evidence to support the theory
word “hundika,” which was first used in that India was the origin of this method of
914 AD. The Lekhapaddhati and Kalhan’s drawing water from open wells.
Rajatrangini (12th century) refer to the z It is referred to as the “cakka-vattakka”
use of hundika by kings and nobles to make or the “ghati yantra” in the Panchatantra

(3rd century BCE) and the Rajatarangini invasions reached till the outskirts of Delhi
(12th century CE). city and besieged it. Alauddin established a
z In the twelfth century, this term, also known huge permanent, standing army to satisfy his
as the “Araghattikka” or “arahattiyanara,” ambition of conquest and to protect the country
was frequently used to refer to a person or from Mongol invasion. The Mongols attacked
animal working the Araghatta. at the worst time possible for Alauddin Khilji–
z The Persian wheel is a water lifting device when he was busy laying siege to Chittor.
used usually by draft animals, like bulls, Alauddin Khilji was forced to retreat to Siri for
buffaloes, or camels. about two months. The Mongols attacked and
pillaged not only the surrounding areas, but
z Baburnama provides a comprehensive
Delhi itself. Alauddin Khilji continued to hold
explanation and a picture of the Persian
the fortress at Siri; Targhi withdrew the siege
Wheel which was in use in the Punjab
after a few months and left the area.
province.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-
NOTE: In Our Past II, Pg 6 and 7 Tughlaq defeated the Mongols and he had not
there is a discussion on the invention lost any of the portions of his kingdom to them.
of the Persian wheel in irrigation, UPSC 6. (d) Sub-Theme: Sayyid Dynasty
twisted the information and asked the Correct answer is Option (d):
question on Persian wheel. Also, do not z The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah)
confuse it with the ‘Agrahara system’. and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’
A ‘agrahara’ was a piece of land given to during the Delhi sultanate. The Sayyids were
a Brahmana who was typically exempt claimed to descend from the Prophet through
from paying land revenue and other his daughter Fatima. They Commanded
dues to the king and frequently granted special respect in Muslim society. Even the
the authority to collect these dues from Timur protected the life of Sayyids during
the local people. his invasion in India. Although his policy
4. (b) Sub-Theme: Feudalism in India was one of general slaughter.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Feudalism, in its 7. (a) Sub-Theme: Foreign invaders/Foreign Travellers
various forms, usually emerged as a result of the Statement 1 is correct. In his pursuit of the
decentralization of an empire which lacked fugitive Khwarezm prince, Changez Khan
the bureaucratic infrastructure necessary to arrived in India during the reign of Iltutmish.
administer grand empires. In the medieval By denying shelter to Prince Jalaluddhin of
era, feudalism was the predominant socio- Central Asia, Iltutmish protected India from
economic structure. In this feudal system, the Changez Khan’s fury.
nobility owned land from the Crown in return Statement 2 is incorrect. The period of
for military service, and vassals were tenants Muhammad bin Tughlaq was from 1325 to
of the nobles. The peasants were required 1351. Taimur invaded India during the reign
to reside on their lord’s land and to offer him of Nasurud-din Muhammad Shah(1394-1412),
homage, labor, and a share of the production in the last Tughlaq ruler.
exchange for military protection Statement 3 is incorrect. The reign of
Statement 2 is correct: An essential feature Devaraya II lasted from 1422 to 1426. He died
of Feudalism was the emergence of an in 1446. Vasco da Gama came to India in 1498.
administrative structure to maintain control
and possession of land and effectively NOTE: Even if you don’t know the exact
generate massive revenues from them. answer, still you can reach the correct
Statement 3 is correct: A person became answer through logical elimination
a vassal by pledging political allegiance and technique, but obviously for that you
providing military, political, and financial must have some prior knowledge on
service to a lord. either the advent of the Europeans and
5. (b) Sub-Theme: Delhi Sultanate and the Mongol the coming of foreign travelers. For eg.
Invasion Vasco Da Gama reached Calicut in 1498
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Mongol and the time period of Devaraya II was
invasion of India took place in the reign of (1422–46), now with this simple yet useful
Sultan Shams-ud-din Iltutmish. information you can eliminate option (c)
Statement 2 is correct: During the reign and (d). Then if you calmly think then you
of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one of the Mongol could easily eliminate option (b) as well,

z Nagabhatta I founded the Gurjara Pratihara
it was during the reign of the last Tughlaq
dynasty in the Malwa region around the 8th
ruler that Timur invaded India and
century AD. The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty
Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the second
ruled a large area of Northern India from the
ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty. Hence, not
mid-8th century to the 11th century. Mihir
only reading NCERT but understanding the
Bhoja (836–885 CE) was the greatest ruler
time frame and concept is very important.
of the Pratihara dynasty.
8. (a) Sub-Theme: Medieval Terminology or keyword/ z The Pallavas were a powerful dynasty
Medieval Administration that ruled a large part of southern India
Statement 1 is correct: In the land revenue between the 6th and 9th centuries AD,
system of the Delhi Sultanate, the central with Kanchipuram (now in Tamil Nadu)
government appointed amil to collect as their capital. The Pallavas achieved their
revenues in each subdivision called shiq. pinnacle with Mahendravarman I’s rule (c.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Iqta system of 600–630), who reigned alongside Harsha
land control was first introduced in the Delhi and Pulakeshin II.
Sultanate by Iltutmish. The institution known
by its Arabic name, iqta, had existed in the early z The Cholas rose to prominence in the 9th
Islamic world as a means of rewarding services to century and formed an empire that included
the state. In the administration of the Caliphate, most of South India; Tanjore served as
it served as a means of funding operations and their capital. The reign of the Chola king
compensating civil and military leaders. It was Parantaka, who succeeded his father Aditya
not an ancient indigenous institution. I as king, lasted from 907-953 CE.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The office of Mir z The Pala Empire, which started in the
Bakshi was established under the Mughal Bengal region and ruled throughout the
empire, who was head of the military post-classical period (8th and 9th century
department, nobility, information and AD), was an imperial power. The empire
intelligence agencies. was officially established when Gopala was
9. (b) Sub-Theme: political history of medieval India chosen to rule as Gauda’s emperor in 750
Statement 1 is incorrect: The kingdom of CE.
Arcot, also known as the kingdom of Carnatic,
was the monarchy that ruled over the majority 11. (b) Sub-Theme: Kakatiya Kingdom
of the eastern part of the present-day Tamil Option (a) is incorrect: Kakinada Deep Water
Nadu region throughout the eighteenth century. Port was commissioned by the Government of
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Vijayanagar AP in November 1997.
Empire, there was a small feudal kingdom Option (b) is correct: Motupalli was the chief
called Mysore. The ruling Wodeyar dynasty port of the Kakatiyas and this port was visited
declared their independence following the fall by the Venetian traveller, Marco Polo.
of Vijayanagar in 1565, and Raja Wodeyar Option (c) is incorrect: Machilipatnam was
ascended the throne in 1578. The capital the main port of Golconda Kingdom.
moved from Mysore to Srirangapatna in 1610. Option (d) is incorrect: Nelluru (a port
Statement 3 is incorrect: Ali Muhammad town) was part of Kakatiya kingdom in the
Khan established Rohilakhand, a small 13th century. Later it changed hands between
kingdom, by taking advantage of the breakdown Kakatiya and Pandyas a few times until
of authority in North India following Nadir Prataprudra II defeated Pandyas. But this
Shah’s invasion.
doesn’t seem to be as significant as Motupalli.
10. (c) Sub-Theme: Chronology of Regional Dynasty of
Medieval India 12. (b) Sub-Theme: Past and Present name of Medieval
Indian State
z Correct chronology of given events are as
follows: 2-4-1-3 Correct answer is Option (b):
z The 9th century saw the rise of a number of
King Dynasty Duration Founder hill states, some of which maintained their
Mahendravarman I Pallavas 660-630 Simha identity until recent years, despite their
CE Vishnu wars with each other and frequent raids
Gopala Palas 750 CE Dharmapala from the plain areas.
King Bhoja Gurjara- 836-885 Nagabhata Medieval Indian state Present Region
pratiharas CE I
Champaka Chamba
Parantaka I Cholas 907-953 Vijayalaya
CE Durgara Jammu

Kuluta Kullu z It encompassed the entire Krishna-
Tungabhadra Doab peninsula, extending
Malwa Central India from the river Krishna in the north to its
Kamarupa Assam furthest southern point.
Trigarta Jalandhar z Harihara I founded a new city on the south
bank of a tributary to river Krishna and
Utkala Odisha
undertook to rule his new kingdom as the
Twipra Tripura agent of a deity to whom all the land south
13. (d) Sub-Theme: Socio-Economic Condition of of the river Krishna belonged.
Vijaynagar Empire 17. (a) Sub-Theme: Shri Ramanujacharya
Correct answer is Option (d): Correct answer is Option (a): Shri
z The chief gold coin of the Vijayanagar Ramanujacharya firmly believed that intense
Empire was the varaha or pagoda. The devotion to Vishnu was the best means to
Perta was half a Varaha. Fanam was one attain salvation. Sri Ramanujacharya was
tenth a perta. Tar was a silver coin. Jittal
born in 1017 CE in Tamil Nadu.
was a copper coin.
z He is the most respected Acharya in the
14. (d) Sub-Theme: Foreign Traveller/Vijaynagar philosophy of Sri Vaishnavism. Ramanuja
Empire was deeply influenced by the Alvars. He
Correct answer is Option (d): According to firmly believed that intense devotion to
Fernao Nuniz: “he (the king of Vijaynagar) also Vishnu was the best means to attain salvation.
has women who wrestle, do accounting and He is famous as the chief proponent of
others who are astrologers and soothsayers. Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedānta.
z Fernao Nuniz was a Portuguese traveler
who visited the Vijayanagar empire during z He was also referred to as Ilaya Perumal,
the reign of Achyuta Deva Raya. He has which means the radiant one. He wrote nine
recorded that in Vijayanagara society, works that came to be known as the Navratnas
women typically held prominent positions, including three major commentaries, the
and there are numerous examples of them Vedartha-Sangraha, the Sribhasya and the
actively participating in the political, social, Bhagavad Gita-bhashya aimed at providing
and literary life of the kingdom. a philosophical foundation for devotional
z In addition to receiving training in wrestling, worship. Vishishtadvaita is a non-dualistic
using swords and shields, music, and other school of Vedanta philosophy in which
fine arts, some of these women also had Brahman alone exists, but is characterized
some exposure to literature. by multiplicity.
15. (c) Sub-Theme: Vijayanagar Economy 18. (d) Sub-Theme: Bhakti and Sufi Movement
Statement 1 is correct: The tax rate was fixed Statement 1 is incorrect: Saint Nimbarka
between one-third and one-sixth depending on is believed to be the contemporary of
the quality of the land. In the reign of Krishna Ramanuja(11th century). He believed in
Deva, land revenue was the main source of total devotion to Krishna and Rama.
income of the government. The government also The Mughal emperor Akbar lived from
assessed other taxes, such as the grazing tax, 1542 -1605. Nimbarkacharya also known as
customs duty, gardening tax, and industrial Nimbarka, Nimbaditya or Niyamananda, was
taxes on the production of various goods. a Hindu philosopher, theologian and the chief
Statement 2 is correct: Commercial taxes proponent of the theology of Dvaitadvaita
consisting of levies, duties and customs on (dvaita–advaita) or dualistic–non-dualistic.
manufactured articles of trade were also
He wrote Dashasloki and Vedanta. He was
levied. Private owners of workshops also paid
also a prominent astronomer
an industry tax. In addition to the land tax,
Statement 2 is incorrect: Shaikh Ahmad
there were taxes levied on shopkeepers, farm
workers, farm servants, laborers, posters, Sirhindi (1564-1624 AD) was Islami Hanif,
shoemakers, musicians, etc. Grazing and house scholar of Naqsyabandi silsilah. Kabir
taxes were also imposed. (1440-1510 AD) was a follower of Nirguna
bhakti of the 15th century.
16. (c) Sub-Theme: Political aspect of Vijayanagar Empire
Correct answer is Option (c):Vijayanagara 19. (c) Sub-Theme: Cultural History of Medieval India
or the “city of victory” empire was founded Statement 1 is correct: Siddhas condemned
in the fourteenth century by Harihara and idolatry, they advocated renunciation of the
Bukka (1336). world. To them, the path to salvation lay in

meditation on the formless ultimate reality and 21. (b) Sub-Theme: Bhakti Movement
the realisation of oneness with it. Correct answer is Option (b):
z There are 18 Siddhas who are considered z Guru Nanak was born in 1469. Babur
as the pillars of Siddha medicine according defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the First battle
to Tamil tradition. of Panipat in 1526.
z There is no consensus on their exact time. z So when Babur was strengthening the
The Siddhars by their spiritual and yogic Mughal dynasty in India Guru Nanak was
practices attained immense knowledge preaching Sikhism in India.
and experience in Vaithiyam (Medicine), z Tyagaraja, a Carnatic music composer
Vatham (Alchemy), Jothidam (Astrology), was born in 1767.
Manthirigam (Tantric practices), Yogam z Daddu Dayal was a poet-saint of Gujrat
(Meditation and yogic exercises) and born in 1544.
Gnanam (Knowledge about the Almighty).
22. (d) Sub-Theme: Sufi mysticism
Statement 2 is correct: The Lingayats
challenged the idea of caste and the z Sufism is a mystic branch of Islam that
“pollution” attributed to certain groups by puts emphasis on the search for God on a
Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of spiritual level and rejects materialism. The
Sufi practices included:
rebirth.
z The Lingayats are devotees of Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Focuses on love
Basaveshwara, a poet and social reformer and devotion to God. Devotee expressions for
who lived in the 12th century. music and dance, breath-control techniques
and meditation.
z He was against the caste system and Vedic
They also used to perform Severe ascetic
rituals. The Lingayats adhere to absolute
exercises in a lonely place.
monotheism. They encourage worshiping Statement 3 is correct: The practice of Sama
only one deity, especially Linga (Shiva). is a musical performance that aims to elicit a
z The term “Linga” refers to universal mystical feeling of ecstasy. Murid, or disciple,
consciousness as defined by the universal must pass through countless phases while
energy, not to Lingas seen in temples engaging in spiritual activities in a lonely
(Shakti). Lingayats are Shaivites and have setting.
been categorized as a Hindu subcaste known 23. (a) Sub-Theme: Mughal Administration
as “Veerashaiva Lingayats.” Correct answer is Option (a):
20. (d) Sub-Theme: Bhakti and Sufi Movement z The correct order according to the size is:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bijak is the collection Pargana >Sarkar> Suba.
of ideas and teachings of Kabir. Kabir was an z The entire Suba was split into Sarkars
Indian mystic poet and saint who lived in the (districts), with a military commander
15th century. known as the chief Shiqdar in charge of
each one. Each Sarkar was divided into
z His verses may be found in the Sikhism’s
smaller units called Parganas.
holy book Guru Granth Sahib and his
writings had an impact on the Bhakti z Each Pargana had two Karkuns (clerks or
writers), one Fotahdar (treasurer), one
movement in Hinduism. He was a disciple
Shiqdar (military officer), one Amin or
of Ramananda. He launched a strong
Munsif (civilian judge).
campaign on the superficial religious rituals
that Muslims and Hindus both observe. z In order to organise his kingdom for
better administration and taxation, Akbar
z According to Kabir, the individual who is adopted Sher Shah’s methods and
following the path of righteousness, views principles.
all living things as his own, and is passively
24. (d) Sub-Theme: Mughal Revenue System
detached from worldly affairs is the one
who is closest to the truth. Statement 1 is incorrect: Zamindars were also
expected to maintain law and order in their
Statement 2 is incorrect: Vallabhacharya’s jurisdictions. The judicial and police functions
philosophy came to be known as Pushti were performed locally by zamindars.
Marga. Vallabhacharya was also known as Statement 2 is incorrect: Jagirdar only has the
‘Achinitabhadra’. He was the first to promote right to claim and enjoy the revenue collected
Krishna Bhakti on the basis of Maha Bhagavata from the land. Jagirs were transferable and
Purana. He founded the philosophy of could be seized too.
Shuddhadvaita which believed in the absolute Additional information:
union. He prescribed Pushtimarg as the means z The holder of land was termed Zamindar.
for salvation (extreme devotion to God). They have hereditary rights over the land.

z The primary responsibility of zamindars z Ayar-i-Danish and Anwar-i-sunavli are
was to collect revenue and deposit it in the two further animal fable books with
royal treasury. illustrations that date to Jahangir’s reign.
z Law and order were another duty imposed 27. (b) Sub-Theme: Political aspect during the Mughals
on zamindars in their jurisdictions. The Statement 1 is incorrect: Gunpowder was
local zamindars handled the police and first used in the Indian subcontinent during
judicial duties. the Mongol invasion. When Babur acquired
z The Jagirdars were the King’s appointed control of Bhera in India in 1519, it was his first
officials who were given land by the significant mission.
King. The jagir system allocated a certain Statement 2 is incorrect: The introduction of
amount of land to each person, without any Islamic architectural details, such as true domes
inheritance rights. and arches, and the fusion of Indian and Islamic
z Jagirdar is only entitled to claim and enjoy architectural forms were the Delhi Sultanate’s
the revenue collected from the land. Jagirs biggest contributions to Indian fine arts.
could be transferred and seized as well. Statement 3 is correct: The Timurids, an
islamic Sunni dynasty, had two notable
25. (a) Sub-Theme: Art and Culture during the Mughals empires in history. The Timurid Empire
Correct answer is Option (a): Tansen was (1370–1507) in Persia and Central Asia and
the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of the Mughal Empire (1526–1857) in India was
Gwalior. greatly impacted by Persian culture.
z Raja Ram Chandra of Bandavagarh 28. (b) Sub-Theme: Foreign Travelers
employed Tansen as a court musician at Correct answer is Option (b): Jean-Baptiste
his darbar (Rewa). Tavernier (1605–1689) was a well-known
z After learning of Tansen’s extraordinary gem trader and traveller in 17th-century
talent, Akbar wrote the king of Rewa a France. He was an independent traveller and
“firman” requesting Tansen and appointed trader who, between the years of 1630 and
him as one of the Navaratnas in his court. 1668, made six travels to Persia and India,
z He bestowed upon him the name “Mian.” covering 60,000 leagues on his own expense.
According to Lalita Ramakrishna’s Musical z The Tavernier Blue diamond, which
Heritage of India, Tansen is also referred to Tavernier discovered or bought in 1666,
as the “Sangit Samrat”. is what made him most famous. He went
into great detail on Indian diamonds and
z He composed various dhrupads on Rama, diamond mines.
Parvati, Shiva, and Ganesha. A compilation
of 300 of his dhrupad that were in Gauhar 29. (d) Sub-Theme: Medieval Terminology/Keyword
Bani is called Kalpadruma. Tansen Correct answer is Option (d): During the
composed his favorite ragas — Multani, Indian Middle Ages, banjaras were generally
Bhairavi and Todi. merchants. They referred to their caravans as
tanda.
z He created the ragas Darbari Kanhra for
z During the reign of Alauddin Khalji,
the night, Mian Ki Todi for the morning,
banjaras had a significant impact. For
Mian ki Sarang for the midday, and Mian
the purpose of transporting grain to the
ki Malhar for the season. markets in the cities, Alauddin Khalji used
z His descendants and disciples are called the Banjaras. They were responsible for
Seniyas. He composed songs for his patrons. moving goods from one location to another.
26. (c) Sub-Theme: Art and Culture during the Mughals z According to the Emperor Jahangir’s
Correct answer is Option (c): Mughal Emperor chronicles, the Banjaras transported grain
Jahangir shifted emphasis from illustrated from various regions on their bullocks and
manuscripts to albums and individual sold it in towns.
portraits. 30. (b) Sub-Theme: Medieval Terminology/Keyword
z The Mughal school of painting achieved Correct answer is Option (b):
increased charm, elegance, and grandeur z Mahattara and pattakila were the village
during his rule. headmen. Pattalika is generally identified
z The portrait of Jahangir, who is pictured with the modern Patel, believed to be the
holding a picture of the Virgin Mary in his king’s representative in the village.
right hand, is the best representation of this z Mahattara was a non-official and possibly
time period. a representative of the people.
v v v
Section B
2 Modern History

Modern History : PYQs Analysis
25
20
Modern History
15
10 12 12
9
8 8
7 7
5 6 6 6
5
3
0
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
Modern History: PYQs Analysis

No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
The Advent of
1 1 1 2
Europeans in India
British Expansion
2 1 1
in India
Economic Policies
3 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 14
of The British
Administrative
4 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 12
Changes After 1857
Peasants and Tribal
5 2 1 1 1 5
Movements
Socio-Religious
6 1 2 2 5
Reforms
Indian National
7 Movement-I 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 9
(1905-1918)
Indian National
8 Movement-II 1 1 1 1 2 1 7
(1918-1929)
Indian National
9 Movement-III 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 15
(1930-1947)
Development of
10 1 1 3 5
Education
Prominent
11 Personalities in 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 13
Modern History
Constitutional
12 1 1
Developments
Total 3 7 9 6 12 7 6 8 5 6 12 8 89
THE ADVENT OF THE ECONOMIC POLICIES OF THE BRITISH

EUROPEANS IN INDIA 4. With reference to the history of India, consider the
1. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: (2020)
following statements: (2022) 1. Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the State
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses 2. Banian - Indian agent of the East India Company
on the east coast on lands granted to them by
3. Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to the State
Gajapati rulers.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the
Bijapur Sultanate. matched?
3. The English East India Company established a (a) 1 and 2 only
factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a (b) 2 and 3 only
representative of the Vijayanagara empire. (c) 3 only
Which of the statements given above are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
5. Which of the following statements correctly explain
(b) 2 and 3 only
the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during
(c) 1 and 3 only
the first half of the nineteenth century? (2020)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Indian handicrafts were ruined.
2. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in
(b) Machines were introduced in the Indian textile
which of the following was/were the factory/factories
of the English East India Company located? (2021) industry in large numbers.
1. Broach (c) Railway lines were laid in many parts of the
2. Chicacole country.
3. Trichinopoly (d) Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of
Select the correct answer using the code given British manufactures.
below. 6. Which one of the following groups of plants was
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 the ‘Old World’? (2019)
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
BRITISH EXPANSION IN INDIA (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
3. Which one of the following statements does not apply (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Lord Wellesley? (2018)
7. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in
(a) To maintain a large standing army at others
India in the 19th century was the: (2018)
expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger (a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company (b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian (c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
States (d) rapid increase in the urban population

8. The staple commodities of export by the English East Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Company from Bengal in the middle of the (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
18th century were (2018) (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium 14. Consider the following statements: (2012)
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpeter and opium was that he-
9. Who among the following was/were associated with 1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the
the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India British.
during the British Rule? (2017) 2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored
1. Lord Cornwallis the self-confidence of Indians.
2. Alexander Read 3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social
3. Thomas Munro evils before anything else.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 15. Consider the following: (2012)
10. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for: (2017) 1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature
(a) the participation of workers in the management of the soil and the quality of crops.
of industries. 2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare.
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell 3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies.
industrial disputes. Which of the above was/were introduced into
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event India by the English?
of a trade dispute. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes. (c) 2 and 3 (d) None
11. Consider the following statements: (2017) 16. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord
to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally
the workers to form trade unions. traced to which of the following provisions?(2011)
2. N. M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the (a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-à-vis the
labour movement in British India. ryot
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) Making East India Company an overlord of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Zamindars.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Making judicial system more efficient
12. Who of the following was/were economic critic/ (d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above.
critics of colonialism in India? (2015) 17. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India,
1. Dadabhai Naoroji “Home Charges” formed an important part of the
2. G. Subramania Iyer drain of wealth from India. Which of the following
3. R.C. Dutt funds constituted “Home Charges”? (2011)
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
below. 2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only personnel engaged in India.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the
13. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the British.
following statements: (2012) Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the below:
Government. (a) 1 only
2. The government gave Pattas to the Ryots. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before (c) 2 and 3 only
being taxed. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Modern History 41
23. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined:
ADMINISTRATIVE CHANGES AFTER 1857 (2015)
18. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) (a) The separation of power between the judiciary
of the Government of India Act, 1919? (2012) and the legislature
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive (b) The jurisdiction of the central and provincial
government of the provinces. governments
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates (c) The powers of the Secretary of State for India and
for Muslims. the Viceroy
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre (d) None of the above
to the provinces. 24. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related
Select the correct answer using the codes given to:(2016)
below: (a) social reforms
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) educational reforms
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) reforms in police administration
19. The distribution of powers between the Centre and (d) constitutional reforms
the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the 25. In the context of Indian history, the principle of
scheme provided in the: (2012) ‘dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to: (2017)
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 (a) division of the central Legislature into two houses.
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919 (b) introductions of double Government i.e., central
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 and Statement governments.
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 (c) having two sets of rulers; One in London and
20. What was the purpose for which Sir William another in Delhi.
Wedderburn and W.S. Caine had set up the Indian (d) division of the subjects delegated to the provinces
Parliamentary Committee in 1893? (2011) into two categories.
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House 26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to:
of Commons (2017)
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the (a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and
Imperial Judiciary Provincial Governments.
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence (b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for
in the British Parliament India.
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into (c) Impose censorship on national press.
the British Parliament (d) Improve the relationship between the Government
21. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the: (2013) of India and the Indian States.
(a) Imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms 27. In the Federation established by the Government of
by the Indians India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to
(b) Imposition of restrictions on newspapers and the:(2018)
magazines published in Indian languages (a) Federal Legislature
(c) Removal of disqualifications imposed on the (b) Governor General
Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the (c) Provincial Legislature
Europeans (d) Provincial Governors
(d) Removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth 28. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter
22. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Act of 1813’: (2019)
Proclamation (1858)? (2014) 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India
1. To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian Company in India except for trade in tea and trade
States with China.
2. To place the Indian administration under the 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown
British Crown. over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India 3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the
Select the correct answer using the code given British Parliament.
below. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

29. Consider the following statements: (2021) 34. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or
1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 the Great Tumult is the description of which of the
recommended granting voting rights to all the following events? (2020)
women above the age of 21. (a) The Revolt of 1857
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women (b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
reserved seats in the legislature. (c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859 – 60
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 SOCIO-RELIGIOUS REFORMS
PEASANT AND TRIBAL MOVEMENT 35. During the Indian freedom struggle, the National
Social Conference was formed. What was the reason
30. Which amongst the following provided a common for its formation? (2012)
factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th
(a) Different social reform groups or organizations
century?(2011)
of the Bengal region united to form a single body
(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and
to discuss the issues of larger interest and to
taxation of tribal products
prepare appropriate petitions/representations
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal to the government.
areas
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders
social reforms in its deliberations and decided to
and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
form a separate body for such a purpose.
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order
(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to
of the tribal communities
bring together all the social reform groups of the
31. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in country under one organization.
Bengal was for: (2013)
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from is correct in this context.
one-half of the crop to one third.
36. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they
regarding Brahmo Samaj? (2012)
were the actual cultivators of the land.
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end 1. It opposed idolatry.
of serfdom. 2. It denied the need for a priestly class for
(d) writing off all peasant debts. interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are
32. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/
were the measure/measures taken by the colonial infallible.
government? (2018) Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were below:
created. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
a non-Santhal. 37. Satya Shodhak Samaj organized: (2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
below: (b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab
33. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning
of the 20th century because of (2020) 38. Consider the following: (2016)
(a) peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of 1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
planters 2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
(b) its unprofitability in the world market because of 3. Indian Reform Association
new inventions Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the
(c) national leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of establishment of which of the above?
indigo (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Government control over the planters (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Modern History 43
39. In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case 44. Which one of the following movements has contributed
of 1884 revolved around: (2020) to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting
1. women’s right to gain education in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
2. age of consent (2015)
3. restitution of conjugal rights (a) Swadeshi Movement
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) Quit India Movement
below:
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) 1 and 3 only 45. What was the main reason for the split in the Indian
(d) 1, 2 and 3 National Congress at Surat in 1907? (2016)
(a) Introduction of communalism into Indian politics
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT–I by Lord Minto
(1905-1918) (b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of
the moderates to negotiate with the British
40. Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022)
Government
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
(c) Foundation of Muslim League
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose (d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to the elected as the
Who of the above was/were actively associated President of the Indian National Congress
with the Ghadar Party? 46. The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only of struggle for the first time during the: (2016)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only (a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal
41. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organise (b) Home Rule Movement
a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(2011)
1. The Administration did not suspend the land (d) visit of the Simon Commission to India
revenue collection in spite of a drought. 47. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect
2. The Administration proposed to introduce of the Champaran Satyagraha? (2018)
Permanent Settlement in Gujarat. (a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? and women in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities
of India in the National Movement
42. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National
lasted until: (2014)
Movement
(a) The First World War when Indian troops were
needed by the British and the partition was ended. (d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation
crops and commercial crops
(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act as the Royal
Durbar in Delhi in 1911 48. With reference to Swadeshi Movement consider the
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience following statements: (2019)
Movement. 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous
(d) The Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal artisan crafts and industries.
became East Pakistan.
2. The National Council of Education was established
43. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.
(a) revolutionary association of Indians with Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
headquarters at San Francisco.
(a) 1 only
(b) nationalist organisation operating from Singapore.
(b) 2 only
(c) militant organisation with headquarters at Berlin
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Communist movement for India’s freedom with
head-quarters at Tashkent. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT–II following statements is/are correct ? (2015)
(1918-1929) 1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommen-
dations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
49. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle,
which of the following was/were recommended by 2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilise the
the Nehru report? (2011) Home Rule League.
1. Complete Independence for India. 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of the Simon
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.
minorities Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. Provision of fundamental right for the people of below.
India in the constitution. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given (b) 1 and 2 only
below: (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
55. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to
50. The Rowlatt Act aimed at: (2012) “Swarajya Sabha”? (2018)
(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts (a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
procedures for trial
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(c) Suppression of the Khilafat Movement.
(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press. (d) The Servants of India Society
51. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress

(1929) is very important in history, because: (2012)
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT - III
1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding (1930-1947)
complete independence.
56. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission,
2. The rift between the extremists and moderates consider the following statements: (2022)
was resolved in that Session.
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members
3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation
nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well
theory in that Session
as the Princely States.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the
new Constitution would have the right to sign a
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
separate agreement with Britain regarding its
52. The people of India agitated against the arrival of the future status.
Simon Commission because: (2013)
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition
of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces 57. Which one of the following observations is not true
(c) There was no Indian member in the Simon about the Quit India Movement of 1942? (2011)
Commission (a) It was a non-violent movement
(d) The Simon Commission suggested the partition (b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
of the country (c) It was a spontaneous movement
53. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is on (d) It did not attract the labour class in general
significance in the history of the Freedom Movement
58. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha
because the: (2014)
Mehta is well-known for: (2011)
(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as
the objective of the Congress. (a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of
Quit India Movement
(b) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the
goal of the Congress. (b) Participating in the second round Table Conference
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched. (c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Decision to participate in the Round Table (d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government
Conference in London was taken. under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Modern History 45
59. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven 65. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after
provinces in 1939, because: (2012) the Second World War: (2016)
(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the (a) India should be granted complete independence
other four provinces. (b) India should be partitioned into two before
(b) Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made granting independence
the working of the ministries impossible. (c) India should be made a republic with the condition
(c) There were widespread communal disturbances that she will join the Commonwealth
in their provinces. (d) India should be given Dominion status
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above 66. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider
is correct. the following events: (2017)
60. Quit India Movement was launched in response to: 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
(2013) 2. Quit India Movement launched
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan 3. Second Round Table Conference
(b) Cripps Proposals What is the correct chronological sequence of the
(c) Simon Commission Report above events?
(d) Wavell Plan (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
61. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to: (2014) (c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2
(a) Solve the problem of minorities in India 67. With reference to the British colonial rule in India,
(b) Given effect to the Independence Bill consider the following statements: (2019)
(c) Delimit the boundaries between India and 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the
Pakistan abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
(d) Enquire into the riots in East Bengal 2. In Lord Chelmsford’s War Conference’, Mahatma
62. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider Gandhi did not support the resolution on
the following statements: (2015) recruiting Indians for World War.
1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and 3. Consequent upon the breaking of the Salt Law by
evasion of taxes. the Indian people, the Indian National Congress
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of the was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
proletariat. Which of the statements given above are correct?
3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities (a) 1 and 2 only
and oppressed classes. (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
68. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the
63. Who of the following organised a march on the Tanjore following?(2020)
coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930? (2015) 1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round
(a) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai Table Conference
(b) C. Rajagopalachari 2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in
(c) K. Kamaraj connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Annie Besant 3. Acceptance of Gandhi’s suggestion for enquiry
64. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the into police excesses.
following statements is/are correct? (2015) 4. Release of only those prisoners who were not
1. It recommended a federal government. charged with violence.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts. Select the correct answer using the code given
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS. below:
(a) 1 only
below. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

69. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian history, 74. Wellesley established the Fort William College at
which one of the following statements is correct? Calcutta because: (2020)
(2021) (a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at London
(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the to do so
AICC. (b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning
(b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to in India
include more Indians. (c) he wanted to provide William Carey and his
(c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven associates with employment
provinces. (d) he wanted to train British civilians for
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full administrative purpose in India
Dominion Status once the Second World War was 75. Who among the following was associated as Secretary
over. with Hindu Female School which later came to be
70. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, known as Bethune Female School? (2021)
Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are (a) Annie Besant
remembered as: (2021) (b) Debendranath Tagore
(a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) members of the Interim Government in 1946 (d) Sarojini Naidu
(c) members of the Drafting Committee in the
Constituent Assembly PROMINENT PERSONALITIES IN
(d) officers of the Indian National Army MODERN HISTORY
DEVELOPMENT OF EDUCATION 76. Which of the following parties were established by
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? (2012)
71. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following 1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India.
statements are true? (2018) 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation.
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 3. The Independent Labour Party.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended. Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of below:
education was recommended. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below: 77. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only mainly because: (2012)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian
72. Which of the following led to the introduction of political aspirations.
English Education in India? (2018) (b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of
1. Charter Act of 1813 opinion.
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 (c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy. Award.
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
below: is correct in this context.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 78. Annie Besant was: (2013)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
73. With reference to educational institutions during 2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: 3. Once the President of the Indian National
Institution Founder: (2018) Congress
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - William Jones Select the correct statement/statements using the
2. Calcutta Madrasa - Warren Hastings codes given below.
3. Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley (a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Modern History 47
79. Consider the following statements: (2015) 3. P. C. Joshi : General Secretary,
1. The first woman President of the Indian National Communist Party of
Congress was Sarojini Naidu. India
2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
85. With reference to the book “Desher Katha” written
by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom
80. Consider the following pairs: (2017) struggle, consider the following statement: (2020)
1. Radhakanta Deb – first President of the British 1. It warned against the Colonial States hypnotic
Indian Association conquest of the mind.
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – founder of the 2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street
Madras Mahajan Sabha plays and folk songs.
3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian 3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific
Association context of the region of Bengal.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
81. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji 86. The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to
and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time, have the untouchable people as its target audience
and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was was published by: (2020)
(2018) (a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Bipin Chandra Pal (b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Motilal Nehru (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
82. Which among the following events happened earliest? (d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
(2018) 87. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh,
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj. which one of the following statements is correct?
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan. (2021)
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath. (a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to National Flag here.
succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination. (b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement
of Andhra region from here.
(c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National
Movement : Organization Leader Anthem from Bengali to English here.
1. All India Anti- : Mahatma Gandhi (d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up
headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.
Untouchability
League 88. Who among the following is associated with ‘Song
from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious
2. All India Kisan : Swami Sahajanand lyrics in English? (2021)
Sabha Saraswati (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
3. Self-Respect : E. V. Ramaswami (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
Movement Naicker (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly (d) Sarojini Naidu
matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
89. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the
84. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider
Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:
the following pairs: (2019)
(2013)
Person : Position held (a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
1. Sir Tej Bahadur : President, All India (b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and
the Muslim League
Sapru Liberal Federation
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
2. K. C. Neogy : Member, The (d) selected by the Government for their expertise in
Constituent Assembly constitutional matters

Answer Key
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (c)
Explanation
1. (b) Sub-Theme: Various events during the advent of and council of the Surat factory which was
the Europeans established in the year 1612.
Statement 1 is incorrect: There is a difference z South-eastern Coast: EIC established their
in timeline of the events. The end of Gajapati factories at Masulipatam in 1611 and
Dynasty was in 1542 and the United East India Armagaon near Pulicat in 1626.
Company of the Netherlands, formed in March z Eastern India: In eastern India EIC
1605 by the Charter of Dutch Parliament and established their factories at Hariharpur
founded their first factory in Masulipatnam in and Balasore(now Odisha) in 1633, at
Andhra in 1605. Hugli in 1651, followed by setting up
Statement 2 is correct: Alfonso de Albuquerque factories at Patna, Dacca, Kasimbazar in
considered as Founder of the Portuguese Bengal and Bihar respectively.
power in India: captured Goa from Bijapur;
persecuted Muslims; captured Bhatkal from Sri NOTE: This is a direct question asked
Krishna Deva Rai (1510) of Vijayanagara. from Spectrum Modern India (revised
edition)
Statement 3 is correct: The English East India
Company established a factory in Madras in 3. (c) Sub-Theme: British Expansionist Policy
1639 on land leased from representatives of The system aimed to establish British
Vijayanagara Empire called the Nayakas. paramountcy over the Indian States and to
2. (a) Sub-Theme: Factories of English East India ensure their military and political subservience
Company to the British East India Company. Securing a
The English East India Company had a factory fixed income for the company was not the
at Broach (present-day Bharuch) in Gujarat, primary objective of the system.
India during the seventeenth century. However, Subsidiary Alliance by Wellesley (1798-
Chicacole (present-day Srikakulam) and 1805):
Trichinopoly (present-day Tiruchirappalli) z Allying Indian states maintained the British
were not among the locations of the Company’s army at its frontier and paid for their
factories during this period. maintenance. Ruler had to post British
Establishment of Factories by English East officials at their court. Ruler couldn’t employ
India Company: Europeans without the British’s permission.
z West Coast: The English India Company Couldn’t contact enemies to make peace.
established their factories at Agra, z Maintenance asked was high → Ruler’s
Ahmadabad, Baroda and Broach by couldn’t pay → asked to cede part of their
1619, under the control of the president territory.
Modern History 49
z Awadh was first to come under it. 5. (a) Sub-Theme: Impact of Industrial Revolution on
z Signed by: Nawab of Awadh, Nizam of indigenous industry
Hyderabad, Ruler of Mysore, Ruler of Declining and deindustrialisation of the Indian
Tanjore, Peshwa, Bhonsle of Berar, The traditional cottage and handicraft industry was
Sindhias, The Rajput states, The ruler of a direct effect of the industrial revolution in
Bharatpur, Holkars. England along with the colonisation of India.
z During this phase, almost all the Indian Industrial Revolution and its impact on
States came under British subordination, India’s indigenous industry
by compelling them to enter into subsidiary z The Industrial Revolution brought severe
alliances with them. Also the Indian Princes consequences to Indian society.
were put under obligation to accept the z The fall and destruction of the urban and
British Paramountcy. rural handicraft industry was one of the
z It was a ‘Non-Intervention Policy’ used by most significant effects of British Rule..
Lord Wellesley to bring the Princely states z The Industrial Revolution in England also
under the control of the British. affected the textile industries in India in
z Though the native Indian ruler had to pay many ways, such as:
for the maintenance of the British army and English textiles were now posing a
if he failed to make the payment, a portion serious threat to Indian textiles in the
of his territory was taken away and ceded European and American markets.
to the British, but securing fixed income Textiles from India were subject to high
was never part of the system of Subsidiary taxes in Britain.
Alliance.
The African markets were successfully
NOTE: Always stay focused and calm while taken over by cheap, machine-made
solving this type of question, often in this type textiles from Britain.
of question we miss/overlook the negative By the 1830s, inexpensive British
keyword such as ‘Does Not’/’Not’/’Not manufactured products had inundated
Correct’, etc. in the question and mark the the Indian marketplaces. The Indian
wrong answer in a haste. textile industries suffered as a result of
4. (b) Sub-Theme: Important Keyword related to them being less expensive than Indian
Colonial Revenue Policy textiles.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Aurang is a Persian term z Following the Industrial Revolution, Britain
referring to a warehouse where goods are began making textiles by a machine that
collected before being sold. were considerably more affordable and of
Pair 2 is correct: The word Bania (also Vania) higher quality than conventional Indian
is derived from the Sanskrit vanij, meaning textiles.
‘a merchant’. The banian acted as an agent z The start of the industrial revolution had
for individual East India Company managers a negative impact on the Indian handicraft
and performed a range of functions including, industry.
bookkeeping, interpreting, and brokerage,
z Additionally, the decline of the kings,
as well as managing his household and
chieftains, and zamindars who served as the
personal business activities. Banians served as
employers of these masters of handicrafts led
middlemen for European merchants in Bengal
to the steady expansion of British dominion
during the British era.
in India through outright battles with the
Pair 3 is correct: Mirasdar in Urdu means
rulers, which resulted in the suffering of
hereditary landowner, co-proprietor and in
handicrafts in India.
Persian, miras is inheritance, estate. Under
the Ryotwari settlement system in Southern z India became both a raw material supplier
India, the East India Company recognized and a finished goods market. India, a country
mirasdars as the only proprietors of land, based on agriculture, became an economic
dismissing tenants’ rights completely. They colony.
were prohibited by law from selling their land z The British items were inexpensive and only
but it can be leased to tenants for a nominal required a little amount of duty, while the
fee in return for its cultivation. They acted as a Indian goods were subject to heavy import
designated revenue payer of the state. duties.

NOTE: The question is talking about the “first wheat, barley, pulses, peas, rice, sesame,
half of the nineteenth century”. We all linseed, and mustard and traces of cotton
know, the first railway in India was started in some places were also found. However
in 1853, between Bori Bunder (Bombay) tobacco, cocoa and rubber came to India
and Thane. Moreover, the Bombay Spinning through Europeans in the late medieval
and Weaving Company was the first cotton or early modern era. So from our basic
mill to be established in Bombay in 1854 by knowledge we can eliminate the wrong
Cowaszee Nanabhoy Davar and his associates. options and reach the correct answer.
This factual knowledge helps us to eliminate
7. (c) Sub-Theme: Commercialisation of Indian
statements (b) and (c). Statement (d) is itself
Agriculture
contradictory to the nature of British trade and
economy. Why would Britishers discourage One of the results of the British rule in India
the profitability of goods coming from British in the 19th century was the commercialization
manufacturers? This is highly unlikely !! of agriculture by introducing cash crops like
6. (a) Sub-Theme: Columbian Exchange opium and indigo
z Colonial rule has negatively impacted the
Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber are the groups of
plants that were domesticated in the ‘New Indian industries and handicrafts.
World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’ z The increase in the import of finished
through the European explorers in the late manufactured goods poses a threat to the
medieval or early modern era. indigenous factories.
The Columbian Exchange: z It was, economically, one of the results of
z The Columbian exchange, also known British rule in India in the 19th Century
as the Columbian interchange, named for was the growth of commercial crops like
Christopher Columbus, was the widespread cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds, tobacco,
transfer of plants, animals, culture, human
sugarcane, etc. and the raw materials for
populations, technology, diseases, and ideas
the industries in Britain.
between the Americas, West Africa, and the
Old World in the 15th and 16th centuries. z There was no rapid increase in the urban
z It also relates to European colonization and population during 19th Century British
trade following Christopher Columbus’s India.
1492 voyage. Invasive species, including NOTE: If we read NCERT/Spectrum
communicable diseases, were a by-product carefully, we can easily observe a pattern in
of the Exchange. given sentences: in sentence 1, “decrease”
z Old World to New World: Coffee, wheat, replaced by “increase”, in sentence 2,
cotton, barley, rice, sugarcane and sugar “foreign” replaced by “Indian” and in
beet, etc. sentence 3, “rural” is replaced by “urban”.
z New World to Old World: avocado, cashew, 8. (d) Sub-Theme: Colonial Trade
cocoa bean, potato, maize, rubber, tobacco, etc.
The East India Company was originally formed
NOTE: Even if we don’t know the exact in Britain for pursuing trade with the East
answer of this particular question, we can Indies in Southeast Asia. In fact, it ended up
still attempt this question with our basic trading mainly with the Indian subcontinent
knowledge. For instance, Cotton and wheat and China, where the main items of trade
has been a widely cultivated crop in India were cotton, silk, tea, opium, and saltpetre
since ancient times. Even Harappans grew (potassium nitrate).
9. (c) Sub-Theme: Land Revenue Settlement
z Started by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.

z Prevalent in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi (United Provinces), and Northern
Permanent Karnataka.
Settlement z Covered 19% of British India.
z A new section of Zamindars was appointed who would provide 10/11th part of the
revenue collected to the British while keeping the remaining.
Modern History 51
z Started by Thomas Munro and Alexander Reed in 1820.
z Started in the Baramahal district of Tamil Nadu and later spread to Madras, parts of
Bombay, East Bengal, Assam and Kurg (Karnataka).
Ryotwari
z Covered 51% of British India.
System
z Ryots (farmers) were given ownership and other rights over the land and were
required to pay the revenue directly to the government. Involved high taxes and
strict collection.
z The Mahalwari system was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822.
z Prevalent in United Provinces, Central Provinces and Punjab.
Mahalwari z Covered 30% of British India.
System z The village or mahal served as the unit for collecting revenue. Village land belonged
to the community and it was the responsibility of the entire community to pay the
land revenue.
of children under the age 7. Children between

NOTE: Questions on the settlement system
earlier came in 2011 and two questions in the ages 7-12 were to work for a maximum 9
2012. Reference of PYQs and research about hours. It also made compulsory that dangerous
given options stands important. machinery should be fenced properly, but no
mention of forming trade unions.
10. (d) Sub-Theme: Labour Legislations Statement 2 is correct: Narayan Meghaji
About the Trade Disputes Act, 1929: Lokhande (1848–1897) was the father of
z The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 was codified the trade union movement in India. He is
for five years as an experimental measure. remembered not only for ameliorating the
z The main objective of the Act was to make working conditions of textile mill-hands in
provisions for the establishment of Courts the 19th century but also for his courageous
of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation with a initiatives on caste and communal issues.
view to investigate and settle trade disputes. Lokhande is acclaimed as the Father of the
z The Act banned unnoticed strikes or lockouts Trade Union Movement in India. Some of
in the provision of public utility services. the rights mill workers got because of N M
z A strike or lockout that was intended to Lokhande were:
cause severe, widespread, or prolonged z Mill workers should get a weekly holiday on
hardship for the community and compel Sunday
the government to take or refrain from z In the afternoon, workers should be entitled
taking a particular course of action was also
to half-hour recess.
made illegal.
z The mill should start working from 6:30 in
z This included strikes and lockouts that had
the morning and close by sunset.
any purpose other than to advance a trade
dispute within the trade or industry in z The salaries of the workers should be given
which the strikers or the employers locking by the 15th of every month.
out were engaged. NOTE: From NCERT, we know that N.M.
z The Act was amended in 1932 and was Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour
made permanent by the Trade Disputes movement in India and widely regarded as
(Extending) Act, 1934. the “father of the trade union movement”.
11. (b) Sub-Theme: Labour Legislations/Labour He also founded “Mill Hands’ Association”.
Movement If we critically think about statement 1,
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Factory it states that Factories Act, 1881 allows the
Act (1881) was passed in 1881 during the workers to form trade unions. It was the
tenure of Lord Ripon. This legislation aimed very first Factories Act, 1881. Do you think
to improve working conditions for factory Britishers would give such a heavy right in
workers. This act applies only to factories its very first act rather than incremental
that use mechanical power, employing at moves? This reasoning makes the possibility
least 100 workers. It prohibited employment of statement 1 being incorrect.

Mahalwari System
Read carefully about various personalities,
at least about those which are mentioned
in Modern NCERT. Personalities from Permanent settlement
Swadeshi Movement, Non-Cooperation
Movement, CDM, Quit India Movement (esp. Punjab and
Underground activities) and various socio- UP
religious reform movements are important. Bengal,
12. (d) Sub-Theme: Economic Exploitation of the Bihar and
British/Economic critics of colonialism Orissa
Dadbhai Naoroji, G.Subramania Iyer and R.C. Bombay
Dutt are considered as the economic critics of and
colonialism in India. Madras
Nationalists Critique Of Colonial Economy:
z The early nationalist of India analysed the
colonial character of British rule in India Ryotwari settlement
in great detail. The economic critique
produced by them was one of the remarkable NOTE: Question on land settlement system
achievements of the moderate nationalists. came in 2011 - on land settlement system
z Dadabhai Naoroji (Grand Old man of of Lord Cornwallis.
India): “Poverty and UnBritish Rule in 14. (a) Sub-Theme: Economic Exploitation of the
India” - Propounded Drain of Wealth Theory. British/Economic critics of colonialism
Uncovered the economic exploitation of Statement 1 is correct: Dadabhai Naoroji
India by the British.
(Grand Old man of India) wrote the “Poverty
z Romesh Chandra Dutta: “The Economic and UnBritish Rule in India” a Propounded
History of India” - Half of the annual GDP Drain of Wealth Theory and exposed the
of India outflowed every year. economic exploitation of India by the British.
z G. V. Joshi: Pointed out that the development Statement 2 is incorrect: Swami Dayanand
in India was like a subsidy to the British Saraswati, Swami Vivekananda, etc. interpreted
Industries. the ancient texts and restored the self
z Other Critiques: Justice Mahadev Govind confidence of Indians, not Dadabhai Naoroji.
Ranade, G. Subramaniam Iyer, G.K. Swami Dayananda Saraswati even gave the call
Gokhale etc. examined every facet of the to “go back to vedas”.
economy and subjected the entire range Statement 3 is incorrect: Raja Rammohan Roy,
of economic issues and colonial economic Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Keshav Chandra
policies to minute scrutiny. Sen, Atmaram Pandurang, etc. emphasised the
NOTE: This question can be made correct need for eradication of all social evils before
by reading Modern NCERT. It’s always anything else. Dadabhai Naoroji wasn’t a social
recommended reading between the lines reformer.
about every personality. NOTE: If we carefully look at statement 3,
13. (c) Sub-Theme: Land Revenue Settlement it talks about the “eradication of all the
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The social evils”. This sounds absolute and
Ryotwari System was started by Thomas exclusive because of the extreme word “all”.
Munro and Alexander Reed. It was started
Eliminating all social evils was a mammoth
in the Baramahal district of Tamil Nadu and
and uphill task. So there is less possibility
later spread to Madras, parts of Bombay, East
Bengal, Assam and Kurg (Karnataka). It of correctness of this statement. If we take
covered 51% of British India. Ryots (farmers) calculable risk of eliminating statement 3,
were given the ownership and other rights we can get an answer. Moreover, Dadabhai
(Pattas) over the land and were required to Naoroji propounded “Drain of wealth
pay the revenue directly to the government. theory”. It was about exposing the economic
Statement 3 is correct: The Ryotwari System
exploitation of India by the British. This
involved high taxes (50% in dryland and 60%
makes statement 1 correct.
in wetland) and strict collection.
Modern History 53
Zamindari System:
Economic Exploitation of the British/
Economic critics of colonialism theme is Zamindari System
significant with respect to Colonial history
in India. In the past, many questions came
from this particular topic to check the
The British Government
analytical ability of aspirants.
15. (d) Sub-Theme: Colonial Trade + Land Revenue
Settlement
Statement 1 is incorrect: After getting the Zamindars
Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in
1765 the major aim of the British East India
Company was to increase their land revenue Peasants
collection. So its policies were aimed at getting
maximum income from land without caring of z The Zamindari System was introduced
its consequences on cultivators and peasants. by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 through the
Three major systems of land revenue collection Permanent Settlement Act 1793.
existed in India - Zamindari, Ryotwari and z The land where the zamindars had previously
Mahalwari. been responsible for collecting revenue was
Statement 2 is incorrect: The first recorded given to them as ownership.
use of Artillery in India is at the Battle of Adoni z The settlement is referred to as the
in 1368. In the Deccans the Bahamani kings led Zamindari Settlement since it was made
by Mohammand Shah Bahamani used a train of with the zamindars.
Artillery against the Raja of Vijaya-nagar. z Since they were regarded as the soil’s
tillers, the ryots were made tenants.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tobacco and Red
z The demand for land revenue was
Chillies were introduced by Portuguese not
predetermined and out of controlled
British. revenue, 10/11th part was given to the
NOTE: In general, assessment of land company.
revenue on the basis of nature of the soil z Company also added the “Sunset clause”
and the quality of crops itself cumbersome for the zamindars.
and administratively mammoth task. It
NOTE: Many questions came from this
also needs a high level of record-keeping
particular theme esp. Permanent Settlement,
practice on part of administration. So this
Ryotwari Settlement, Mahalwari Settlement.
statement sounds. Now, if we carefully go
So understanding differences between them
through Spectrum or Modern NCERT it
stands crucial.
is clear that Portuguese had introduced
Tobacco in India. 17. (b) Sub-Theme: Economic Exploitation of the
British/Economic critics of colonialism
16. (d) Sub-Theme: Land Revenue Settlement
Drain of Wealth and Home Charges:
Reforms of Cornwallis: z Dadabhai Naoroji (Grand Old man of India)
z The Permanent Land Revenue Settlement in his “Poverty and UnBritish Rule in
of Bengal, which was extended to the India” (1901), propounded the Drain of
provinces of Bihar and Orissa, was Lord Wealth Theory.
Cornwallis’ most notable administrative z Home Charges played a significant role
initiative. in the Drain of Wealth from India. It
comprised of:
z The reforms had increased the litigation
Funding for the Indian offices in London.
after the introduction of the land settlement
Funds for paying the salaries and
system and the main reason for this was the
pensions of British employees working
removal of Court Fee and now everybody in India.
could drag anybody to the courts.
Funds used for additional capital
z The extension to the right of appeal was investments, such as railways, and to
also one of the reasons court fees were pay interest on debts.
abolished by Cornwallis and Lawyers were z “Economic history of India” book was
prescribed their fees. written by R. C. Dutta.

Statement 1 is correct: Funds used to support
NOTE: In every alternate year, in one way
the India Office in London. Hence, or another there is a question on acts and
Statement 2 is correct: Funds used to pay policies of colonial times. It is advisable to
salaries and pensions of British personnel go through each and every act/regulation/
engaged in India. law in detail and provision by provision.
Statement 3 is incorrect: No the funds 20. (a) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reform post-1857
collected as Home Charges were never used for Together with Dadabhai Naoroji and other
waging wars outside India by the British. supporters of India, Sir William Wedderburn
and W. S. Caine established the “Indian
18. (c) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reform post-1857 Parliamentary Committee” in 1893. The Indian
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: GoI Act 1919 Parliamentary Committee’s mission is to lobby
introduced the dual scheme of governance the House of Commons for political reforms in
known as ‘dyarchy’ in the executive India.
About Sir William Wedderburn:
government of the provinces. By demarcating
z President of INC: 1838-1918 (Bombay,
and separating the central and provincial 1889, Allahabad, 1910)
subjects, it relaxed the central control over z He came to India in 1860 and registered for
the provinces. It introduced bicameralism and work as an Assistant Collector at Dharwad.
direct elections in the country. The devolution z His interest in these issues led him to contact
of legislative authority by the centre to the the Indian National Congress.
provinces was done in the Government of India z After retiring, Wedderburn threw himself
Act, 1919. into it. He presided over the fourth Congress
held in Bombay in 1889.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Council
z Together with Dadabhai Naoroji and other
Act, 1909 or the Morley-Minto Reforms
supporters of India, Sir William Wedderburn
introduced separate communal electorates and W. S. Caine established the “Indian
for Muslims. It was put into place to appease Parliamentary Committee” in 1893. The
the moderates (in Congress) and introduces Indian Parliamentary Committee’s mission
separate electorates based on religion. is to lobby the House of Commons for
Therefore, Lord Minto came to be known political reforms in India.
as “Father of the Communal Electorate in z In 1895, Wedderburn represented India
on the Welby Commission (i.e. Royal
India”.
Commission) on Indian Expenditure.
19. (c) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reform post 1857 z He also began participating in the activities
Government of India Act, 1935: of the Indian Famine Union set up in June
z Divided the powers between the Centre 1901, for investigation into famines and
proposing preventive measures.
and provinces in terms of three lists– Federal
z He came to India in 1904 to attend the 20th
List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial
session of the Indian National Congress in
List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Bombay, which was presided over by Sir
Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Henry Cotton.
z Abolished dyarchy in the provinces and z He was again invited in 1910 to preside over
introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its the 25th session.
place, while adopted the dyarchy at the z He remained the Chairman of the British
Centre Committee of the Congress from July
1889 until his death.
z Introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven
provinces NOTE: By a general understanding of
modern history, we know congress was
z Further extended the principle of communal established in 1885 and 1893 was a
representation to the depressed classes phase of early moderates and demands
(Scheduled Castes), women and labour were mostly concentrated about reforms.
(workers). Demand for India’s Independence came
z Abolished the Council of India, established at a later stage. By this reasoning, we can
eliminate option c.
by the Government of India Act of 1858.
Modern History 55
21. (c) Sub-Theme: Ilbert Bill controversy z According to the proclamation Lord
Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883): Canning became the first viceroy and
governor general of India.
z Two types of law that had been common
in India were what Lord Ripon sought to z The proclamation put an end to the era of
abolish. further expansion of the British Empire
in India.
z The legal system stipulated that a European
could only be tried by a European Judge or Government 0f India Act (1858)
a European Magistrate. z It was known as the “Act of Good
Government of India”.
z The disqualification was unfair, because it
was intended to disgrace and discredit the z According to its provisions, Her Majesty’s
judges who were of Indian descent. government would now be in charge of
India and would do so in her name.
z A bill to end this prejudice in the judiciary
was proposed in 1883 by lawmaker C.P. z It abolished the East India Company and
Ilbert. Europeans were vehemently against transferred powers to the Crown.
this Bill. Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation was
z The Ilbert Bill controversy made educated read out by Lord Canning at a durbar held
Indians aware of the need of an all Indian on November 1, 1858 at Allahabad. It put an
organisation, resulting in the formation of end to the rule of the East India Company and
Indian National Congress in 1885 in Bombay the government of India came directly under
with early leadership of Dadabhai Naroji, the Crown. According to the proclamation
Pherozeshah Mehta, Badruddin Tyabji, WC Lord Canning became the first viceroy and
Banerjee etc. governor general of India. The proclamation
z The Ilbert Bill Controversy is a high put an end to the era of further expansion of
watermark in the history of the Indian the British Empire in India.
National Movement. The immediate result Statement 2 is correct: Queen Victoria’s
of this awakening of India was the birth proclamation of 1858 aimed at ending the rule
of the Indian National Congress in 1885, of the company and transferring all the powers
the very next year of Ripon’s departure. to the British crown after the 1857 revolt.
It also promised non- interference in the
Option (a) is incorrect: The Indian Arms Act
religious affairs of the people, grant of equal
(1878) imposed restrictions and it compelled
protection of law and respect for ancient rights
the Indians to have license to keep, sell or
and customs of the people.
purchase arms.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Queen Victoria’s
Option (b) is incorrect: The Vernacular Press
Proclamation (1858) is aimed at improving the
Act (1878) posed restrictions on newspapers
administrative machinery of supervision and
and magazines published in Indian languages.
control over the Indian government.
Option (c) is correct: The Ilbert Bill
Controversy 1883 was related to the removal 23. (b) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms post 1857
of disqualifications imposed on the Indian The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms which
magistrates with regard to the trial of the became the Government of India Act in 1919,
Europeans. defined the jurisdiction of the central and
Option (d) is incorrect: On March 13th, 1879, provincial governments.
Lord Lytton abolished the import duty on z The GoI Act 1919 introduced a diarchy
cotton goods except on the finest qualities and it (rule of two individuals/parties) for
has no relation with the Ilbert Bill controversy. the executive at the level of the provincial
22. (a) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms post 1857/ government.
Queen’s Proclamation z The diarchy was implemented in eight
Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858): provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and
z The proclamation was read out by Lord Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces,
Canning at a durbar held on November Bombay, Madras and Punjab.
1, 1858 at Allahabad. It put an end to the z The Dyarchy system increased the authority
rule of the East India Company and the of the provincial governments.
government of India came directly under z In the province, the governor was to serve
the Crown. as the chief executive.

Introduction to Diarchy: Introduction to Diarchy:
z The GoI Act 1919 introduced a diarchy (rule z The GoI Act 1919 introduced a diarchy (rule
of two individuals/parties) for the executive of two individuals/parties) for the executive
at the level of the provincial government. at the level of the provincial government.
z The diarchy was implemented in eight z The diarchy was implemented in eight
provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and
Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces,
Bombay, Madras and Punjab. Bombay, Madras and Punjab.
z The Dyarchy system increased the authority z The Dyarchy system increased the authority
of the provincial governments. of the provincial governments.
z In the province, the governor was to serve z In the province, the governor was to serve
as the chief executive.
as the chief executive.
Division of Subjects:
Division of Subjects:
z Division of subjects into two lists: ‘reserved’
z Division of subjects into two lists: ‘reserved’
and ‘transferred’.
and ‘transferred’.
z The reserved list: included subjects such
as law and order, finance, land revenue, z The reserved list: included subjects such
irrigation etc. and the subjects were to as law and order, finance, land revenue,
be administered by the governor through irrigation etc. and the subjects were to
his executive council of bureaucrats. All be administered by the governor through
significant subjects were maintained in the his executive council of bureaucrats. All
Provincial Executive’s reserved subjects. significant subjects were maintained in the
z The transferred subjects: were to be Provincial Executive’s reserved subjects.
administered by ministers nominated z The transferred subjects: were to be
from among the elected members of the administered by ministers nominated
legislative council and it included subjects from among the elected members of the
such as education, health, local government, legislative council and it included subjects
industry, agriculture, excise, etc. such as education, health, local government,
24. (d) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms/Montague- industry, agriculture, excise, etc.
Chelmsford Reforms Act
NOTE: UPSC has asked several questions
Montague-Chelmsford Proposals had the from this particular theme/sub-theme,
scheme of constitutional reforms, known thus aspirants are requested to read this
as the Montagu-Chelmsford (or Mont-Ford) particular theme very minutely both from
Reforms, which led to the enactment of the Spectrum and Laxmikanth.
Government of India Act of 1919.
z The GoI Act 1919 introduced a diarchy 26. (d) Sub-Theme: Important Commission during
(rule of two individuals/parties) for British
the executive at the level of the provincial Butler Committee (1927):
government. z The Butler Committee was appointed
z The diarchy was implemented in eight under the chairmanship of Sir Harcourt
provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and Butler in 1927 to investigate and clarify
Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, the relationship between the paramount
Bombay, Madras and Punjab. power of the British Raj in India, and the
z The Dyarchy system increased the authority rulers of Princely States.
of the provincial governments. z There were two other members of the
z In the province, the governor was to serve committee: William Searle Holdsworth and
as the chief executive. Sidney Peel.
25. (d) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms post 1857/ Recommendations:
Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms/GoI Act 1919 z In the committee’s report of 1929, the
Government of India Act/Montagu- “paramountcy” doctrine was reaffirmed.
Chelmsford Act, 1919 divided the provincial z Guidelines were given for its application,
subjects into two parts: transferred and and it was made clear that the financial
reserved, this dual scheme of governance was relationship between the Raj and the States
known as ‘dyarchy’. should be fair.
Modern History 57
z The relationship of the princely states z Taxes could be levied against citizens by the
with the British empire was not merely a local government. They could punish people
contractual relationship, but a living, growing for not paying taxes.
relationship shaped by the circumstances z It ended the East India Company’s monopoly
and policy, resting on the mixture of history on trading with India.
and theory.
z The company’s rule was extended for
z British paramountcy to stay intact(solid) to
another 20 years. The trade monopoly of
preserve the princely state.
their country was ended except for the trade
z State should not be transferred without their in tea, opium, and with China.
own consent to a relationship with a new
government in British India responsible to z Giving missionaries permission to travel to
an Indian legislature. India was one of the key components of this
law.
27. (b) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms post 1857
PITT’S INDIA ACT OF 1784:
As per the Government of India Act of
z Pitt’s India Act, 1784 extended the control
1935 Governor-General was empowered
of the British Government over the
to authorise, either the Federal or the
Provincial Legislature to enact a law with Company’s affairs and its administration
respect to any residuary matter. in India.
The Government of India Act, 1935 The act was significant for two reasons:
z Divided the powers between the Centre and z The Company’s possessions in India were
provinces in terms of three lists– Federal officially referred to as “British possessions
List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial in India” for the first time.
List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the z The Company’s activities and administration
Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). in India were placed under the total control
z The allocation of residuary powers was of the British Government.
unique. It was not vested in either of the Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act 1813
legislatures, central or provincial. But
ended the trade monopoly of the East India
the Governor-General was empowered
Company except for the trade in tea, opium,
to authorise, either the Federal or the
and with China.
Provincial Legislature to enact a law with
Statement 2 is correct: Company’s territories
respect to any residuary matter.
in India came under the Sovereignty of the
z Abolished dyarchy in the provinces and
British Government through this Act.
introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its
Statement 3 is incorrect: The revenue of
place, while adopted the dyarchy at the
Centre India was controlled by the British parliament
through Pitt’s India Act 1784.
z Enacted bicameralism in six out of eleven
provinces 29. (b) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms post 1857
z It further extended the principle of Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919:
communal representation to the depressed z by demarcating and separating the central
classes (Scheduled Castes), women and and provincial subjects, it relaxed the central
labour (workers). control over the provinces
z Abolished the Council of India, established z divided the provincial subjects into two parts
by the Government of India Act of 1858. – transferred and reserved, this dual scheme
of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’
NOTE: Questions from this particular theme
were generally straightforward in nature, z introduced bicameralism and direct
also this particular theme is a very high elections in the country.
yielding theme both in terms of Modern z It required 3 out of 6 members in the
History and Polity, so read thoroughly as Viceroy’s Executive Council to be Indian.
you cannot afford to miss these low hanging z recommended the voting rights to women
fruits. in limited numbers to be extended on the
28. (a) Sub-Theme: Administrative Reforms before 1857 basis of property, tax or education
CHARTER ACT OF 1813: z extended the principle of communal
z Company’s territories in India came under representation among the Sikhs, Indian
the Sovereignty of the British Government. Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.

z establishment of a public service z There were restrictions imposed on the
commission. utilisation of forest products, shifting
z separated the provincial budgets from the agriculture, and hunting methods. This
Central budget led to the loss of livelihood for the tribals.
Government of India Act, 1935: z The tribals turned into landless agricultural
z divided the powers between the Centre and labourers.
provinces in terms of three lists– Federal z Money lenders were introduced by the
List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial British into the tribal regions, which greatly
List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the increased the exploitation of the native
Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). tribes. Under the new economic structure,
z abolished dyarchy in the provinces and they were reduced to bonded labour.
introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its z A joint ownership arrangement for land
place, while adopted the dyarchy at the existed in tribal communities before the
Centre idea of private property took hold.
z introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven z Tribal society has historically been
provinces egalitarian in contrast to mainstream
society, which is characterised by caste and
z further extended the principle of
class inequalities. However, with the arrival
communal representation to the
of non-tribals or outsiders, tribal people
depressed classes (Scheduled Castes),
began to be seen as belonging to the lowest
women and labour (workers).
strata of society.
z abolished the Council of India, established
z In order to manage the abundant riches of
by the Government of India Act of 1858. Indian forests, the government established a
Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the Forest Department in 1864. A comprehensive
Montague Chelmsford Act or the Govt of India government monopoly on the forested land
Act, 1919 recommended the voting rights to was created by the Govt Forest Act of 1865
women in limited numbers to be extended on and the Indian Forest Act of 1878.
the basis of property, tax or education but it z The work of Christian missionaries also led
did not recommend granting voting rights to to social unrest in tribal societies, which
all women above the age of 21. also aroused their resentment.
Statement 2 is correct: The Government of
z Major Tribal movements of 19th Century:
India Act 1935 does reserve seats for women Kol Rebellion (1832); Santhal Rebellion
in the legislature, it extended the communal (1855-56); Munda Rebellion (1899-1900)
representation by giving a separate electorate
to women. NOTE: option (d) sounds more inclusive
and wider in coverage in terms of issues
NOTE: This is a very repetitive and high
faced by tribals. It also includes the meaning
yielding theme/sub-theme. Go through
and spirit of the above 3 sentences i.e. a, b,
the series of British policies and acts very
and c in one way or other. The options are
carefully.
ambiguous, hence we stuck to the official
30. (d) Sub-Theme: Tribal Movement answer key of UPSC.
The essence of Tribal life, i.e. shifting 31. (a) Sub-Theme: Peasant Movement
cultivation, hunting, fishing and the use of Tebhaga Peasant Movement (1946) in
forest produce etc. was completely disrupted Bengal demanded the share of the landlords
during the colonial rule. to be reduced from one-half of the produce
Causes of Tribal Revolts in India in the 19th to one third of the produce.
Century: Tebhaga Movement (1946):
z The cornerstone of Tribal life was shifting z In September 1946, the Bengal Provincial
cultivation, hunting, fishing and the use Kisan Sabha gave a call to implement,
of forest produce. through mass struggle, the Floud
z The practice of settled agriculture was Commission recommendations of
established with the inflow of non-tribals Tebhaga which means two-thirds’ share
into the traditional tribal lands and as a to the bargardars, the share-croppers also
result of it the tribal population suffered a known as ‘bhagchasi’ or ‘adhyar’, instead of
land loss. the one-half share.
Modern History 59
z The jotedars rented the land that the enacted laws so that the lands of tribals
bargardars worked on. could not be taken by outsiders (dikus).
z The main slogan was “nij khamare dhan 33. (b) Sub-Theme: Peasant Movement
tolo,” which meant that sharecroppers
z Indigo cultivation in India declined by the
should thresh their own paddy and not
beginning of the 20th century because of
to the jotedar’s house, as before, so as to
enforce tebhaga. new inventions of improved versions of
chemical colours that substitute indigo,
z North Bengal was the epicentre of the
thus the production of indigo became
movement, particularly among the
Rajbanshis, a low caste with tribal origins. unprofitable in the world market. Thus, its
Muslims took part in great numbers as well. unprofitability in the world market because
of new inventions’ caused decline in the
z The movement dissipated soon, as the
League ministry’s sop of the Bargardari Bill, Indigo Cultivation.
the popularisation of the Hindu Mahasabha’s Indigo Revolt 1856-57:
campaign for a separate Bengal, and new z Area: Bengal
riots in Calcutta, which eliminated the z Leaders: Bishnu Charan Biswas and
possibility of sympathetic support from the Diagambar Biswas
urban sections. z The great worth of indigo as a commerce
NOTE: If we read or Modern NCERT commodity led to its frequent usage as the
carefully, Tebhaga literally means ‘three nickname “blue gold.” It gives the materials
shares’ of harvests. Option 1 talks about a blue tint.
the “one-third” part. With just knowing z Reason: They started losing their land due
the meaning of “Tebhaga’’, we can solve the to poor output and they started fall into debt
given question. trap
32. (c) Sub-Theme: Tribal Movement z India’s first peasant strike resulted in the
Both the given measures were taken by the compelled planting of indigo since the trade
Colonial Government as a result of Santhal in it was profitable because blue dye was in
Uprising. high demand.
Santhal Uprising:
z During their strike, peasants refused to
z Santhals: They used to live in the Daman-
produce indigo or sign contracts. The strike
i-Koh area which is between Bhagalpur and
Rajmahal, and ‘hool’ means uprising in the expanded to other parts of Bengal, and
Santhali language. other zamindars supported the uprisings. A
commission was established in their favour.
z The Santhals of the Rajmahal Hills were
resentful of the oppression they suffered at z Intelligentsia helped to make it a powerful
the hands of revenue officials, police, money- campaign.
lenders, and landlords, by the “outsiders” z Harsh Chandra Mukherjee (editor Hindu
(whom they called diku). patriot), Dinabandhu Mitra play: Neel
z In 1854, the Santhals under the leadership Darpan.
of Sido and Kanhu rebelled against their 34. (d) Sub-Theme: Tribal Movement
oppressors, declared the end of the
Company’s control, and proclaimed their Munda Rebellion:
independence. z It is one of the prominent 19th century tribal
rebellions in the subcontinent. In the years
z The situation wasn’t brought under control
until 1856, a year that saw extensive military 1899–1900, Birsa Munda served as the
actions. Sido died in 1855, while Kanhu movement’s leader in the south of Ranchi.
was arrested in 1866. z The Ulgulan, also known as “the Great
z A separate district of Santhal Parganas was Tumult,” was an insurrection that aimed
created by the Government to pacify the to establish Munda Raj or Munda authority
Santhals. Thus, the government separated in this area.
Santhal Parganas into its own district in Reason of revolt:
order to pacify the Santhals. z In 1874, the British replaced the traditional
z It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer Khuntkari system of Munda tribals with
land to a non-Santhal. British Government the zamindari system.

z The introduction of the zamindari system z Later Debendranath Tagore joined the
created the classes of zamindars (landlords) Brahmo Samaj in 1842.
and ryots (tenants). z Keshab Chandra Sen was appointed as
z This led to the monetisation of the Acharya of the Brahmo Samaj in 1858.
economy, the tribals had to depend on cash z Favoured: Human reason and conscience;
for paying the rent and for meeting their Political upliftment of the masses, widow
daily needs. remarriage.
z This situation left them with no other option z Against: Polytheism; Incarnations;
but to depend on the money-lenders, who Scriptural authority; Idol worship; Caste
used to lend money at an exorbitant rate. system; Untouchability; Sati; Child marriage;
Birsa Munda: Purdah system.
z A tribal liberation warrior from the Munda z No definite view: on Karma and the
tribe, Bisra Munda is revered as a folk hero. transmigration of the soul.
z He was a spearhead behind the Ulgulan z Punjab: Dyal Singh College at Lahore (1910)
movement that arose in the Chotanagpur started by Dayal Singh Trust, popularised
region of Bihar and Jharkhand belt in the the ideas of the Samaj.
19th century under the British colonisation. Statement 1 is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy
z He is often referred to as the ‘Dharti Abba’ founded the Brahmo Samaj (1828) [formerly
or the Earth Father. called Brahmo Sabha.] Later Debendranath
Tagore joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1842.
z Birsa Munda organised masses to stop Brahmo Samaj vehemently opposed idolatry or
paying debts/interest to moneylenders and idol worship.
taxes to the British. By this, he led a revolt Statement 2 is correct: The chief aim of
to bring an end to Victorian rule and the Brahmo Samaj was the worship of the eternal
establishment of Munda Rule in Jharkhand God. It was against priesthood, rituals and
(Chotanagpur region). sacrifices.
NOTE: If we go through Modern Ncert in Statement 3 is incorrect: Brahmo Samaj
detail, this question can be easily solved. It spread the religious treasure and teachings
is advisable to remember keywords from of Vedas but never claimed that Vedas are
Ncert such as Dikus, Ulgulan, Tebhaga, nij infallible.
khamare dhan tolo etc. and corresponding 37. (c) Sub-Theme: Social Reform Organization
movements. An anti-caste movement was organized by
35. (b) Sub-Theme: Social Reform Organizations Satya Shodhak Samaj in Maharashtra.
Satyashodhak Samaj:
Indian Social Conference (1887):
z On 24 September 1873, Jotirao Govindrao
z It was formed by M. G. Ranade and
Phule formed Satyashodhak Samaj to
Raghunath Rao in Madras. focus on the rights of depressed groups such
z It is a separate social reform organ of as women, the Shudra, and the Dalit.
the Indian National Congress as they did z The Satya Shodhak Samaj opposed idolatry
not want to include social reforms in their and condemned the caste system by doing
deliberations. this.
z Advocated inter-caste marriage, opposed z The Satyashodhak Samaj opposed the need
polygamy and kulinism. for priests and advocated for the spread
z Launched “Pledge Movement to pledge of reason.
against Child Marriage” z Jotirao Govindrao Phule founded
36. (b) Sub-Theme: Social Reform Organisations/ Social Satyashodhak Samaj with the goals of
Reformist promoting the happiness, well-being,
equality, and simplicity of religious practices
Brahmo Samaj did oppose idolatry and
for all people.
denied the need for a priestly class for
interpreting the religious texts. z The Deenbandhu newspaper, published
BRAHMO SAMAJ (1828) from Pune, gave the Samaj’s viewpoints a
z Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo voice.
Samaj (1828) [formerly called Brahmo z Muslims, Brahmins, and government officials
Sabha.] all belonged to the samaj. Leading members
Modern History 61
and financial backers for the group came z The case was instrumental in the
from Phule’s own Mali caste. development of the Age of Consent Act in
1891.
38. (b) Sub-Theme: Social Reform Movement/Social
Reformist Statement 1 is incorrect: Dr. Rakhmabai
was an Indian physician and a feminist. At
Keshab Chandra Sen (1838-1884):
the young age of eleven, she was married to
z Appointed as Acharya of the Brahmo
Dadaji Bhikaji, who was then nineteen. Bhikaji
Samaj in 1858. petitioned the court in 1885, 12 years after they
z Spread the ideas of the Samaj outside had been married, asking for the “restitution
Bengal (in United Provinces, Bombay, of conjugal rights.”The Rakhmabai case did
Punjab, etc.). not involve the women’s right to gain education.
z Showed radical views against caste Statement 2 is correct: The Rakhmabai case
system, favored inter-caste marriage. of 1884 was instrumental in the drafting of the
Age of Consent Act in 1891. Hence, statement
z Expelled from Acharya’s position in 1865.
2 is correct.
z Founded Brahmo Samaj of India (1866). Statement 3 is correct: Dr. Rakhmabai was
z Ananda Mohan Bose, Shibchandra Deb, married off at the young age of eleven with
and Umesh Chandra Datta created the Dadaji Bhikaji, who was nineteen years old. In
Sadharan Brahmo Samaj in opposition to 1885, after 12 years of marriage, Bhikaji filed a
his ideas. petition in the court and sought “restitution of
z Keshab Chandra Sen erected the mandir conjugal rights”. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
known as the Tabernacle of New 40. (d) Sub-Theme: Revolutionary Activities Abroad
Dispensation on January 24, 1868, in Ghadar Party, 1913:
honour of the Magha Festival.. z Ghadar Party was a revolutionary group
z On October 29, 1870, the Indian Reform organised around a weekly newspaper
Association was founded with Keshab “The Ghadar” with its headquarters at San
Chandra Sen as President. It comprised Francisco and branches along the US coast
many people who did not belong to the and in the Far East.
Brahmo Samaj and represented the secular z These revolutionaries included mainly
wing of the organisation. ex-soldiers and peasants who had migrated
from the Punjab to the USA and Canada in
z The objective was to put into effect some
search of better employment opportunities.
of the concepts Sen was exposed to while
z Pre-Ghadar revolutionary activity had been
in Britain.
carried on by Ramdas Puri, G.D. Kumar,
39. (b) Sub-Theme: Social Reformist/Social Reform Taraknath Das, Sohan Singh Bhakna and
Organization Lala Hardayal who reached there in 1911.
Dr. Rakhmabai (1864–1955) z To carry out revolutionary activities, the
z Dr. Rakhmabai was an Indian physician earlier activists had set up a ‘Swadesh
and a feminist. Sevak Home’ at Vancouver and ‘United
z Apart from being one of the first practising India House’ at Seattle. Finally, in 1913,
women doctors in colonial India, she the Ghadar was established, with the aim
was also involved in a landmark legal case of organising assassinations of officials,
involving her marriage as a child bride publishing revolutionary and anti-
imperialist literature, work among Indian
between 1884 and 1888.
troops stationed abroad, procure arms and
z At the young age of eleven, she was married bring about a simultaneous revolt in all
to Dadaji Bhikaji, who was then nineteen. British colonies.
Bhikaji petitioned the court in 1885, z The moving spirits behind the Ghadar
12 years after they had been married, asking Party were Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra,
for the “restitution of conjugal rights.” Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba,
z Behramji Malabari and Pandita Ramabai Barkatullah and Bhai Parmanand.
established the Rakhmabai Defense Other prominent leaders involved in the
Committee to stand up for her. movement: Kartar Singh Saraba, Raghubar
z The case lasted for 4 years until Dadji was Dayal Gupta, Rash Behari Bose, and Sachin
compensated in 1888 out of court. Sanyal.

Additional Information: 43. (a) Sub-Theme: Revolutionary Activities Abroad
Barindra Kumar Ghosh was associated with About the Ghadar:
a revolutionary group called Jugantar and z The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary
Jogesh Chatterjee was associated with the organisation centred on the weekly
Hindustan Republican Association/Army newspaper “The Ghadar,” which had
(HRA). branches in the Far East and along the
41. (a) Sub-Theme: Phase of Mahatma Gandhi US coast in addition to its San Francisco
Statement 1 is correct: Kheda Satyagraha headquarters.
(1918) was the first Non-cooperation z Ramdas Puri, G.D. Kumar, Taraknath Das,
Movement. Crops failed in Kheda district of Sohan Singh Bhakna, and Lala Hardayal,
Gujarat because of drought. The yield was less
who arrived there in 1911, were involved in
than 1/4th of normal produce so farmers were
pre-Ghadar revolutionary activities.
entitled to remission according to revenue
code but the Government demanded taxes z The Ghadar programme aimed to organise
and ordered seizure of property, if not paid. official assassinations, disseminate anti-
Mahatma Gandhi asked the farmers not to pay imperialist and revolutionary literature,
the taxes and organise a satyagraha on behalf coordinate with Indian troops stationed
of the peasants. Leaders: Sardar Vallabhai abroad, get weapons, and spark a
Patel, Mohanlal Pandya, Narhari Parekh, simultaneous uprising across all British
etc. Government finally agreed to return all colonies
confiscated property, reduce the increase in z The Ghadar Party’s inspirational forces were
tax, and suspend the tax for the year. Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan
Statement 2 is incorrect: Permanent Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah,
Settlement was introduced by Lord and Bhai Parmanand.
Cornwallis in 1893 and it was confined in
z The Ghadarites intended to bring about a
the areas of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi
revolt in India. Their plans were encouraged
(United Provinces), Northern Karnataka. It
by two events in 1914, the Komagata
was never introduced in Gujarat.
Maru incident and the outbreak of the
42. (b) Sub-Theme: Partition of Bengal
First World War.
Partition of Bengal (1905):
z The decision to divide Bengal was made 44. (a) Sub-Theme: Swadeshi Movement
public by the British Government in 1903 Swadeshi and Boycott Movements:
and partition came into force in October z It was launched due to the partition of
1905. Bengal. Later, the movement spread to other
z Reasons given by British- Bengal are too regions of the nation:
big to be administered and this division Poona and Bombay: Bal Gangadhar
of Bengal into eastern and western Bengal Tilak
would develop Assam. Punjab: Lala Lajpat Rai, Ajit Singh
z Moderates started anti partition campaigns: Delhi: Syed Haider Raza
z Leaders: Surendranath Banerjee, K.K Mitra Madras: Chidambaram Pillai
and Prithwishchandra Ray
z The Swadeshi Movement contributed to
z Newspaper: Hitabadi, Sanjibani, Bengalee.
a split in the Indian National Congress
z The Partition of Bengal was annulled during in 1907, resulting in the emergence of
the visit of the Royal Majesties, George V and ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’.
Queen Mary to India. Partition of Bengal
z Congress Session 1907, Surat, presided
was annulled mainly to curb the rising
revolutionary extremism/terrorism. by Rash Behari Ghosh was known as Surat
This action disappointed the Muslim Split.
political elite. King George V announced the z Extremists wanted either B.G. Tilak or
abrogation in the Delhi Durbar on 11th Lajpat Rai as President.
December, 1911. King George V abrogated z Moderates proposed Rashbehari Ghosh
Curzon’s Act as the Royal Durbar in Delhi and wanted the session to be in Surat in
in 1911. order to exclude Tilak from the presidency.
Modern History 63
z Since a leader from the host province could 47. (c) Sub-Theme: Phase of Mahatma Gandhi
not be session president, they also sought to Champaran Satyagraha (1917):
drop resolutions on swadeshi, boycott and z Mahatma Gandhi’s initial experiment of
national education. satyagraha was known as Champaran
45. (b) Sub-Theme: Important INC Sessions/Surat Split/ Satyagraha.
Swadeshi Movement z It was undertaken after Mahatma Gandhi
Option (a) is incorrect: Morley-Minto learned about the abuses suffered by
Reforms, 1909 introduced separate farmers, who were forced into growing
electorates on the basis of religion, indigo by British planters and estate owners.
thus introducing a system of communal z The tenants from Champaran were forced
representation. This was not the reason for the under the law to grow indigo on 3/20th
Congress split in 1907. part of the land (Tinkathia System) for
Option (b) is correct: On the backdrop of the his landlord.
Swadeshi Movement, the Extremists wanted
z To increase their profits, European planters
either B.G. Tilak or Lajpat Rai as President.
demanded exorbitant rents and illegitimate
Moderates proposed Rashbehari Ghosh and
fees.
wanted the session to be in Surat in order
to exclude Tilak from the presidency. Since z Rajkumar Shukla invited Gandhi to look
a leader from the host province could not be into the problems of Indigo planters in
session president, they also sought to drop Champaran, Bihar.
resolutions on swadeshi, boycott and national z Gandhiji intended to conduct a thorough
education. Thus it resulted in a split in the investigation in the district and demand
congress. Therefore, Extremists’ lack of faith in action based on its results.
the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with z During this time Gandhiji was even charged
the British Government’. with violating law and was told to leave
Option (c) is incorrect: Formation of Muslim Champaran, but he refused to leave.
League in 1906 at Dhaka was not the reason
z Later, the then Lieutenant Governor of Bihar
for Congress split in 1907.
ordered the withdrawal of the case against
Option (d) is incorrect: This is irrelevant to
Gandhi, and the Collector wrote to Gandhi
the particular question.
saying he was free to conduct the inquiry.
NOTE: Question on similar theme/topic i.e z In the history of the independence struggle,
Surat Split/Swadeshi Movement came in
this tiny step in the form of passive protest
2015.
was a great leap, signalling the beginning of
46. (a) Sub-Theme: Swadeshi Movement the Gandhian period.
Option (a) is correct: The ‘Swadeshi’ and z Leaders associated: Rajendra Prasad,
‘Boycott’ were the mass movements to oppose Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai, Narhari
the Bengal partition. Parekh, J.B. Kripalani etc.
Option (b) is incorrect: The Home Rule
z Gandhi’s position in India’s resistance to the
Movement in 1916 was the Indian response
British raj was solidified by the victory at
to the First World War in a less charged but
Champaran.
in more effective way. With people already
feeling the burden of war time miseries caused NOTE: in given statements, notice “all-
by high taxation and a rise in prices, Tilak and India participation” in statement (a)
Annie Besant ready to assume the leadership, and “Drastic decrease” in statement
the movement started with great vigour. (d), we can take risk of eliminating these
Option (c) is incorrect: The time period of extreme statements. Always remember,
Swadeshi and Boycott Movement and Non- there is no set rule for this “extreme word”
Cooperation Movement is different. Therefore elimination method. There are also some
it has no correlation with the Swadeshi and instances where sentences with extreme
Boycott Movement. words were correct, for instance a question
Option (d) is incorrect: Simon Commission
in 2017 about Foreign exchange of India. In
visited in 1928 to review the constitutional
the mentioned question, the statement with
reform in Britain’s largest and most important
“drastic increase” was correct.
possession.

48. (c) Sub-Theme: Swadeshi Movement z Recommendations:
Swadeshi and Boycott Movements: Dominion status on lines of self-
z There were large-scale protests against the governing dominions. Therefore,
partition of Bengal. Later, the movement statement 1 is incorrect.
spread to other regions of the nation: Rejection of separate electorates. Joint
z The Boycott Resolution was passed at the electorates with reservation of seats for
Calcutta Town Hall on August 7, 1905, Muslims at the Centre and in provinces
formally launching the Swadeshi Movement. where they were in minority. Therefore,
z Partition came into force: October 16, 1905 statement 2 is correct.
z There were also new means of protest Linguistic provinces.
like processions, public meetings, and Nineteen fundamental rights,
boycotts of imported goods. including the rights to form unions, the
z Imaginative use of Traditional Festivals, right to equal treatment for women,
Melas: Tilak’s Ganapati and Shivaji festivals and universal adult suffrage. Therefore,
became a medium of swadeshi propaganda. statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct: Importance to Self- Responsible government at the Centre
Reliance (Atma Shakti): Emphasis was placed and in provinces.
on honour, social and economic regeneration of Full protection of the cultural and
the villages. Swadeshi enterprises: Swadeshi religious interests of Muslims.
textile mills, banks, etc, were set up. At Complete dissociation of State from
Tuticorin, V.O. Chidambaram Pillai founded the religion.
Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company. The three Indian Round Table Conference
Statement 2 is correct: Swadeshi programme (1930–1932) attendees had access to
or National Education:
both the Nehru Report and the Simon
1. Bengal National College - Aurobindo
Commission report.
Ghosh as its Principal - inspired by Tagore’s
Nehru and Subash Bose rejected
Shantiniketan.
the congress goal and set up the
2. The National Council of Education (1906)
Independence for India league.
was set up to organise national education in
the vernacular medium. NOTE: If we read NCERT of Modern India,
3. The Bengal Institute of Technology was we will come to know “Dominion Status”
established to provide technical training. for India was the principal demand of the
z Cultural Impact: Rabindranath Tagore Nehru report. Just knowing this basic fact,
wrote Amar Sonar Bangla, Subramania we can eliminate option 1 and you will get
Bharati wrote Swadesha Geetham. the answer.
z Corps of Volunteers or ‘Samitis’: they 50. (b) Sub-Theme: Phase of Mahatma Gandhi/Acts and
generated political consciousness among Regulation under the Crown Rule
the masses. Option (a) is incorrect: The drain on the
Indian economy in the form of cash, kind and
NOTE: Question on similar theme/topic i.e loans to the British government came to about
Surat Split/Partition of Bengal/Swadeshi 367 million pounds during the WW-I. Rowlatt
Movement came in 2014 (on annulment of Act has no relation with draining Indian money
partition of Bengal), 2015 and 2016 (total or economic support to war efforts.
2 questions). Hereby, revising PYQ stands Option (b) is correct: Anarchical and
important. Revolutionary Crimes Act/ Rowlatt act gives
49. (b) Sub-Theme: Nehru Report the notorious power to imprison activists
Nehru Report (1928): without trial for two years, even possession
z As an answer to Lord Birkenhead’s of seditious newspapers is adequate evidence
challenge, the Nehru report was prepared of guilt.
by a committee headed by Motilal Nehru, Option (c) is incorrect: The Khilafat Movement
the committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru, (1919-20) was a movement to express Muslim
Subhash Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali support for the Caliph of Turkey, to protect the
Imam, Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as institution of the Khalifa in Turkey, against the
its members. allied powers, particularly Britain. The Rowlatt
Modern History 65
Act was not aimed at suppressing the Khilafat to abstain from the First Round Table
Movement. Conference because the British Government
Option (d) is incorrect: Vernacular Press declined to call a Constituent Assembly to
Act, 1878, The Newspaper Act, 1908 and The draft a constitution for India. Launch of a
Indian Press Act, 1931 were passed in order civil disobedience movement for complete
to impose restrictions on freedom of press. It independence and 26 January to be observed
has no relation with the Rowlatt Act. as ‘Independence Day’/Swarajya Day were
51. (a) Sub-Theme: Important Sessions of INC also decided in the Lahore Session.
Statement 1 is correct: In the Lahore Session Option (c) is incorrect: Mahatma Gandhi
of INC(1929), the resolution on ‘Poorna moved the Non-cooperation resolution in
Swaraj’ or complete independence was the Special Calcutta Session of Congress in
passed. 1920.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The rift between Option (d) is incorrect: Decision to participate
the extremists and moderates took place in the in the Round Table Conference in London was
Surat Session(1907) and the split was resolved taken in the Karachi Session of Congress in
in the Lucknow Session 1916. 1931.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cabinet
NOTE: Question on the Lahore Session of
Mission recommended an undivided India and
the Indian National Congress (1929) earlier
rejected the demand of the Muslim League for
came in 2012. This particular theme is a
a separate Pakistan. The Cabinet Mission felt
high-yielding theme and if the aspirants
that a separate state would contain a larger
cover this theme/sub-theme diligently then
proportion of the Non-Muslim population and
questions from this section may appear
a sizable population of Muslims will be left in
as low-hanging fruits which an aspirant
India, if two states are declared.
cannot miss.
52. (c) S u b -T h e m e : A d m i n i s t r a t i v e R e f o r m /
54. (b) Sub-Theme: Phase of Mahatma Gandhi
Constitutional Reforms
Statement 1 is correct: Rowlatt Act was
Simon Commission (1927):
z The Indian Statutory Commission, passed on the recommendations of the Sedition
commonly referred to as the Simon Committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt.
Commission, was a group of seven Statement 2 is correct: In organising his
British Members of Parliament under the satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilise three types
chairmanship of Sir John Simon who of political networks: The Home Rule Leagues;
arrived in British India in 1928. Certain Pan-Islamist groups and Satyagraha
z Objective: The Simon Commission was Sabha.
appointed by the British government to Statement 3 is incorrect: The two time
assess India’s constitutional development periods are not the same. It has a gap of 9 years,
and recommend constitutional reforms. the incident of Rowlatt Satyagraha took place
z Many Indians strongly opposed the in 1919 and the Demonstrations against the
Commission for a variety of reasons. The arrival of Simon Commission took place in
main reason behind the agitation against 1928, thus the two events cannot coincide.
Simon Commission was that there were NOTE: Question on Rowlatt act came
no Indian members of the panel and in 2012 as well. Moreover, the Rowlatt
only seven British members of the British Satyagraha took place in 1919 and the Simon
Parliament. This was viewed as racist and Commission in 1928. So the possibility of
colonialist. coincidence of Simon Commission with
53. (b) Sub-Theme: Important Sessions of INC Rowlatt Satyagraha stands null. Point
to note here is that the relative idea of
Option (a) is incorrect: Attainment of Self-
timeline and corresponding events is
Government was declared as the objective of
very important. This helps us to solve or
the Congress in the Calcutta Session, 1906.
eliminate statements.
Option (b) is correct: Attainment of Poorna
Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the 55. (a) Sub-Theme: Home Rule League Movement
Congress in the Lahore Session, 1929 under Home Rule League Movement (1916):
the presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru. Along z It was an Indian response to World War - I,
with this, the Congress made the decision inspired by Irish Home Rule Leagues.

z The movement sought to achieve self-rule 2. New Constitution making Body and the
through political discussion and education, Government would negotiate a treaty
public gatherings, etc. for Transfer of Power.
z The government responded with severe 57. (b) Sub-Theme: Quit India Movement
repression, but it prepared masses for Quit India Movement/August Revolution
Gandhian style of politics. (1942):
z Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule z After failure of Cripps’s Mission, a
League in April 1916 at Belgaum. Resolution was framed by Gandhiji for
z Annie Besant launched the Home Rule British withdrawal and non-violent Non-
League in September 1916 at Madras. Cooperation Movement against Japanese
z The All India Home Rule League became Invasion.
Swarajya Sabha in 1920. z Resolution was accepted in the CWC meeting
in Wardha on July 14, 1942.
z Its demands included Swarajya, formation
of linguistic states and education in the z AICC Gowalia Tank Meeting, Bombay:
vernacular. The Quit India Resolution was ratified in
z Leaders: Motilal Nehru, Lala Lajpat a Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank on

Rai, Jawaharlal Nehru, Bhulabhai 8th August 1942.
Desai, Chittaranjan Das, Madan Mohan Apart from QIM, other resolutions
Malaviya, Mohammad Ali Jinnah, Tej involved the Civil Disobedience

Bahadur Sapru. Movement against British Rule.
Mantra of “Do or Die” was adopted in
z Anglo-Indians, most of the Muslims and Non
brahmins from south did not join as they this Session by Gandhiji.
felt it would mean home rule of the Hindu z Major activity after QIM resolution was
majority. passed:
It was started in response to Mahatma
56. (b) Sub-Theme: Cripps Mission
Gandhi’s national appeal for satyagraha.
Cripps Mission (1942):
Gandhiji advocated for “an orderly
z In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford British withdrawal” from India as
Cripps was sent to India with constitutional the All-India Congress Committee
proposals to seek Indian support for World announced a nationwide protest.
War II. Because of the reverses suffered
Destruction of symbols of Public
by Britain in South-East Asia, the Japanese
Authority.
threat to invade India seemed real now and
Underground activities: Usha Sharma
Indian support became crucial.
started an underground Radio to give
z There was pressure on Britain from the
fuel to the movement.
Allies (USA, USSR, and China) to seek Indian
Yusuf Meherally, a communist and
cooperation.
trade unionist who also held the office
Provisions: of Mayor of Mumbai, is credited with
z Indian union with a Dominion status coining the phrase “Quit India.”
would be set up and it would be free to
Parallel Government: established in
decide its relation with the UN and the
Ballia (UP), Tamluk (Bengal) organised
Commonwealth.
“Bidyut Bahini”, Satara (Maharashtra)
z After the war the Constituent Assembly “Prati Sarkar” was organised by Y. B.
would be formed with members from Chavan, Nana Patil etc.
Provinces (elected through proportional Youth, Women, Workers, Peasants,
representation) and Princely states Government officials especially of
(nominated). (Hence, statement 1 is lower levels, Muslims, Communists
incorrect.) participated in the movement. Upper
z Conditions of Accepting New Constitution: class remained Loyalists.
1. Any Province not willing to join the There were no communal clashes during
Union can have a separate Constitution the movement. But there was severe
and form a Separate union. (Hence, government repression with upto
statement 2 is correct.) 10,000 being killed.
Modern History 67
Option (a) is correct: The movement basically were able to utilise the council work to their
promoted the non-violent and non-cooperative advantage to a great extent and ruled for 28
movement. months.
Option (b) is incorrect: The British Govt Resignation of Congress Ministries (1939):
responded to the call of Gandhi by arresting z The Congress Ministries resigned in protest
all major Congress leaders the very next day. because the then Viceroy Lord Linlithgow
Gandhi, Nehru, Patel, etc. were all behind the (1936-1944) action of declared India to be
bars. This left the movement in the hands of the belligerent in WW-II without even consulting
younger leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan and the Indian people.
Ram Manohar Lohia, besides many regional 60. (b) Sub-Theme: Quit India Movement
leaders also rose up to lead this movement in The failure of the Cripps Mission to resolve
their respective regions. the constitutional deadlock made it clear to the
Option (c) is correct: The Quit India nationalists that any silence would amount to
movement was the spontaneous participation accepting the right of the British to decide the
of the masses compared to the other Gandhian fate of Indians without consulting them.
movements like non-cooperation and civil z Quit India Movement was launched in
disobedience. response to Mahatma Gandhi’s national
Option (d) is correct: Quit India Movement call for satyagraha. The All-India Congress
did not attract the labour class in general. Committee proclaimed a mass protest
NOTE: Here we have to identify the option demanding what Gandhiji called “an orderly
which is not true about the QIM. British withdrawal” from India.
58. (a) Sub-Theme: Quit India Movement z The Quit India resolution was ratified
at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank,
Option (a) is correct: Usha Sharma started
Bombay on August 8, 1942.
an underground Radio to give fuel to the
movement. Hence, she was well-known for 61. (c) Sub-Theme: Last phase of Indian Freedom
underground activities during the Quit India Struggle/Boundary Commission/Mountbatten
Movement. Plan/Transfer of Power
Option (b) is incorrect: Second Round Table z In the event of Partition, a boundary
Conference was held in London between commission led by Sir Cyril Radcliffe
September 7, 1931 to December 1, 1931 was established which was to delimit the
and Sarojini Naidu participated to represent boundaries between India and Pakistan.
women. Boundary Commission, consultative
Option (c) is incorrect: Usha Mehta was part committee created in July 1947 to
of a small group which ran the Congress radio. recommend how the Punjab and Bengal
She started anUnderground Radio in Bombay regions of the Indian subcontinent were to be
whereas Captain Lakshmi Sahgal was the divided between India and Pakistan shortly
before each was to become independent
commander of the Jhansi Regiment of INA.
from Britain.
Option (d) is incorrect: She was not a part of
the Interim Government. 62. (d) Sub-Theme: Congress Socialist Party
NOTE: It is always advisable to read in detail Statement 1 is incorrect: On May 17, 1934,
about the personalities involved in various at Patna, with Acharya Narendra Dev as
movements. If we observe PYQs carefully, in president and Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) as
every alternate year, there are personality general secretary, the Congress Socialist
based questions. Party (CSP) was founded within the Congress.
The CSP advocated decentralised socialism
59. (d) Sub-Theme: Resignation of Congress Ministries in which co-operatives, trade unions,
The Congress Ministries: In the early 1937, independent farmers, and local authorities
elections to provincial assemblies were would hold a substantial share of the economic
held and Congress Ministries were formed power. It did not advocate
in Bombay, Madras, Central Provinces, Statement 2 is incorrect: Their focus was to
United Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Assam, attain independence and believed in socialism
and NWFP. By 1939, there were internal through nationalism. The CSP promoted a
strifes, opportunism and hunger for power had decentralised socialist system in which local
started surfacing among Congressmen, yet they authorities, cooperatives, trade unions, and

independent farmers would control a sizable vest in the provinces of British India. Thus,
portion of the economic power. Hence, it did the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak
not aim to establish the dictatorship of the Centre with Provincial autonomy, essentially
proletariat. proposing a federal structure of government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As secularists, Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The plan
they hoped to transcend communal divisions did not include the enlargement of the powers
through class solidarity. Many people, like of the Indian Court nor provided for more
Narendra Deva and Basawon Singh (Sinha), Indians in the ICS.
favoured a democratic socialism that was Objective of the Cabinet Mission:
separate from both reformist social democracy z To resolve political deadlock between the
and Marxism. Indian National Congress and the All-India
63. (b) Sub-Theme: Phases of Mahatma Gandhi/ Muslim League.
SatyagrahaMovements/Salt Satyagraha
z The Congress party wanted to obtain a
Civil Disobedience Movement - The Salt strong central government with more
Satyagraha and other upsurges: powers as compared to state governments.
Dandi March (March 12- April 6, 1930):
z The Dandi march was led by Gandhi and z All India Muslim League under Jinnah
began at Sabarmati Ashram and ended close wanted to keep India united but with political
to the Dandi village’s coastal location; it safeguards provided to Muslims such as
was also known as Salt Satyagraha. ‘guarantee’ of ‘parity’ in the legislatures.
z He reached Dandi on April 6, 1930, and z On 16 May 1946, this plan was announced
broke the salt law by collecting salt from and preceded by the Shimla Conference of
the beach. 1945.
Satyagraha at Different Places: z Recommendation:
z Tamil Nadu: C Rajagopalachari organised a The unity of India had to be retained
march from Tiruchirapalli to Vedaranniyam It proposed a very loose union of all
on Tanjore coast.
the Indian territories under a centre
z Malabar: K. Kelappan known for Vailkom that would control merely defence, the
Satyagraha organised salt marches. Foreign Affairs and the Communication.
z Orissa: Gopal Bandhu Chaudhuri The Union would have the powers
organised in Balasore, Cuttack etc. necessary to raise the finances to
z Bihar: Non chowkidari tax was imposed. manage these subjects.
z Peshawar: Badshah khan/khan Abdul All subjects other than Union subjects
Gaffar Khan(Frontier Gandhi) who and residuary power would vest in
organised Khudaikhidmatgars (red shirts) the provinces of British India. Thus,
organised a powerful march. the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a
z Dharasana: Sarojini Naidu led the weak Centre with Provincial autonomy,
campaign. essentially proposing a federal
z Nagaland: Rani Gaidinliu at the age of structure of government.
13 years raised the banner against the British. The Princely Legislatures would then
64. (a) Sub-Theme: Cabinet Mission elect a Constituent Assembly or a
Statement 1 is correct: On 22nd January Constitution making body with each
1946, the decision to send Cabinet Mission province being allotted a specified
was taken and on 19th February 1946, the number of seats proportionate to its
British PM C.R Attlee Government announced population.
in the House of Lords about the mission and The proposed Constituent Assembly was
the plan to quit India. A high-powered mission
to consist of 292 members from British
of three British Cabinet members- Lord
India and 93 from Indian States.
Pethick-Lawrence(the Secretary of State
The Mission proposed an immediate
for India), Sir Stafford Cripps(President of
the Board of Trade) and A. V. Alexander(the formation of Interim Government at the
First Lord of the Admiralty) reached Delhi on centre, enjoying the support of major
24th March 1946. All subjects other than political parties and with the Indians
Union subjects and residuary power would holding all the portfolios.
Modern History 69
65. (d) Sub-Theme: Cripps Mission Non-Cooperation Movement against the
Cripps Mission (1942): Japanese Invasion.
z In March 1942, a mission headed by z The resolution was accepted in the CWC
Stafford Cripps was sent to India with meeting in Wardha on July 14, 1942.
constitutional proposals to seek Indian Royal Indian Naval Mutiny (1946):
support for World War II. z On February 18, 1946, a mutiny started
z Proposals: among the ratings of HMIS Talwar due
Indian union with a Dominion status to poor pay, inadequate food, and racial
would be set up and it would be free to discrimination.
decide its relation with the UN and the z The Muslim League, Congress, and CPI’s red
Commonwealth. flags were raised.
After the war, the Constituent Assembly z The intervention of Sardar Patel put an end
would be formed with members from to the rebellion. The mutineers faced trials
Provinces (elected through proportional despite promises.
representation) and Princely states z This led to Violence in Bombay, with the loss
(nominated). of 200 lives.
z Conditions of accepting the New z Significance: On February 19, 1946, a
Constitution: Cabinet Mission was sent to India.
Any Province not willing to join the
Union can have a separate Constitution NOTE: this question underscores the
and form a separate union. importance of understanding chain of
events and remembering relative timeline.
New Constitution-making Body and the
In 2021, UPSC asked what happened on the
Government would negotiate a treaty
8th Aug 1942. So it is advisable to remember
for Transfer of Power.
the chronology of important events.
66. (c) Sub-Theme: Last phase of Indian Freedom 67. (b) Statement 1 is correct: During the early 1900s,
Struggle/RIN Movement Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in getting
Second Round Table Conference (1931): the indentured labour system abolished in
z In London, between September 7, 1931 to the British Empire. He also supported Manilal
December 1, 1931. Doctor’s campaign to get a resolution passed
z Result of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. in the INC meeting condemning the indentured
z Gandhi was the sole representative of the labour system in all British territories.
INC. Statement 2 is incorrect: Lord Chelmsford,
z Madan Mohan Malviya and A. Rangaswami the then Viceroy of India, invited Gandhi to
Iyengar were also there. Delhi at a War Conference. In order to gain the
z Muslim league represented by Aga Khan III, trust of the empire, Gandhi agreed to move
Maulana Mohammad Jinnah. people to enlist in the army for WW-I.
Statement 3 is correct: Indian National
z Depressed classes by B. R. Ambedkar,
Congress was declared illegal upon breaking of
Rettamalai Srinivasan, Sardar Sampuran
salt law. But this did not deter the satyagrahis
Singh etc.
who continued the movement.
z Sarojini Naidu participated to represent
68. (b) Sub-Theme: Phases of Mahatma Gandhi/Gandhi-
women.
Irwin Pact
z Lord Willingdon was the viceroy of India.
(UPSC didn’t give any answer in official key)
z A Communal Award for representing Possible ans (b)
minorities in India by providing for separate Statement 1 is correct: The Gandhi–Irwin
electorates for minority communities. Pact was a political agreement signed by
Gandhi was against this. Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of
z The government refused Indian demands India, on 5 March 1931 before the Second
and talks failed. Round Table Conference in London, where
Quit India Movement/August Revolution the Indian National Congress was invited to
(1942): participate.
z After the failure of Cripps’s Mission, Statement 2 is correct: Withdrawal of all
a Resolution was framed by Gandhiji ordinances issued by the Government of India
for British withdrawal and non-violent imposing curbs on the activities of the Indian

National Congress was agreed by the Viceroy. z By holding open trials in the Red Fort,
Statement 3 is incorrect: The demand for a Claude Auchinleck, the commander-in-chief
public enquiry of excesses committed by police of the British-Indian army, hoped to sway
during the civil disobedience movement was public opinion against the INA.
rejected by the Viceroy. z Major General Shah Nawaz Khan,
Statement 4 is correct: Release of all political Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal and Colonel
prisoners, except those guilty of violence was
Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were three of the
also agreed.
senior-most officers of INA and trusted
NOTE: if we read Ncert, statement 1 is colleagues of Netaji.
general and common. Securing participation z After considerable demonstrations and
by the Indian National Congress in the
unrest in India, they were forced to be
Second Round Table Conference was an
released after the British court-martialed
important agenda of pact inter-alia. We also
them at Red Fort in 1945 and sentenced
know that viceroy rejected commutation of
the death sentence of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru them to death.
and Sukhdev to a life sentence, which was z Congress leader and the country’s first
criticised by several leaders. This underlines Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, also got
that prisoners with violence charges on board the INA officers’ legal defence
were not released. This reasoning makes team, along with party colleague Bhulabhai
statement 4 correct. Option (b) i.e 1, 2 and Desai and barrister Tej Bahadur Sapru.
4 only is the only option with statement 1
and 4 in it !! NOTE: As we have already discussed,
the trend of personality based questions
69. (a) Sub-Theme: Quit India Movement
continues !!
Option (a) is correct: Quit India Resolution was
ratified in a Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank 71. (a) Sub-Theme: Reforms in Education during the
on 8th August 1942. Apart from QIM, other British Time
resolutions involved the Civil Disobedience Wood’s Dispatch (1854):
Movement against British Rule. Mantra of “Do z Magna Carta of English Education in India.
or Die” was adopted in this Session by Gandhiji. z Government to take up the responsibility for
Option (b) is incorrect: More Indians were the Education of masses.
added to Viceroy’s executive council by the
z Hierarchy of Educational Institutions
Government of India Act 1919. First time,
an Indian was added in this council by the z Emphasise on Female, Vocational
Government of India act 1909. Education and teachers’ training.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Congress z Secular Education in Government
Ministries resigned from seven provinces in Institutions.
1939 in protest because the then Viceroy Lord z Grants-in-aid to encourage private
Linlithgow’s (1936-1944) action declared India education.
to be belligerent in the WW-II without even z Recommended English as the Medium
consulting the Indian people.
of Instruction in higher studies and
Option (d) is incorrect: Though Cripps
vernaculars in school level.
proposed a dominion status to India and the
failure of the cripps mission resulted in a z Universities with affiliations in three
nationwide Quit India Movement, this was not presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay,
related to 8 August 1942. and Madras.
70. (d) Sub-Theme: Indian National Army/Netaji Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Grants-in-aid
Subhash Chandra Bose/Red Fort Trial to encourage private education and affiliating
Indian National Army (INA) Trials/ Red Fort universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta,
Trials: Bombay and Madras were recommended in the
z Between November 1945 and May 1946, Wood’s Despatch.
the INA officers were brought before a court Statement 3 is incorrect: The Woods Dispatch
martial at the Red Fort in Delhi. At the Red recommended English as the Medium of
Fort in Delhi, about ten court-martials were Instruction in higher studies and vernaculars
held in public. in school level.
Modern History 71
English language or Anglicist as the medium
NOTE: Grants-in-Aid system and
of instruction and the rest were supporters
Establishment of universities was very
of oriental or classic language or Classicists
popular recommendations of Woods
as a medium of instruction.
Dispatch, so option 1 and 2 are correct.
However, if you look carefully at option z This is the famous Anglicist and Classicist
3, it talks about English as a medium controversy.
of instruction at all levels of education. z On February 2, 1835, Lord Macaulay, who
Dispatch was in 1854, at that time introducing served as head of the General Committee
English as a medium of instruction at all of Public Instruction, penned a minute in
levels sounds unconvincing. By applying which he stated his position on the issue.
this crude logic, and taking the risk of z Through his minute, Lord Macaulay
eliminating option 3, we can get the answer. emphasised the use of the English language
as a medium of instruction. He believed
72. (d) Sub-Theme: Reforms in Education during the
that English was the ideal language for
British Time instruction.
Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of Orientalist-Anglicist controversy:
1813 permitted Christian missionaries to
propagate English and preach their religion. z Exclusively suggested for
Statement 2 is correct: As a president of the spending on modern
General Committee of Public Instruction, studies.
Lord Macaulay wrote a minute, where he z Even the Anglicists were
Macaulay stressed the implementation of the divided over the question
English language as a medium of instruction Anglicists of medium of instruction,
through his minute. opinion where one faction was for
Statement 3 is correct: One faction of the English language as the
Anglicists was in favour of English language medium, while the other
as the medium, while the other faction was in faction was for Indian
favour of Indian languages (vernaculars). languages (vernaculars)
Charter Act of 1813: for the purpose.
z The idea of supporting educated Indians z In order to prepare
and promoting knowledge of contemporary students for careers,
sciences in the country was enshrined into Western sciences and
the Charter Act of 1813. Orientalists
literature should be
opinion
z The Act required the Company to yearly taught, with a focus on
approve one lakh rupees for this purpose. advancing traditional
Even this meagre sum, though, was not Indian education.
made accessible until 1823, mostly due to 73. (b) Sub-Theme: Reforms in Education during the
the disagreement over the most appropriate British Time
strategy for this investment. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sanskrit
z The Charter Act of 1813 gave Christian College was established by Jonathan Duncan,
missionaries the right to spread the English the resident, at Benaras in 1791 for study of
language and practise their religion. Hindu law and philosophy.
General Committee on Public Instruction Statement 2 is correct: The Calcutta
Madrasah was established by Warren
(1823):
Hastings in 1781 for the study of Muslim law
z A “General Committee of Public
and related subjects.
Instruction” was established by the
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fort William
Governor-General-in-Council in 1823 with College was set up by Lord Richard Wellesley
the task of allocating one lakh rupees for in 1800 for training of civil servants of the
educational purposes. Company in languages and customs of Indians
z The General Committee of Public Instruction (closed in 1802).
also was not able to decide the medium 74. (d) Sub-Theme: Reforms in Education during the
of instruction by vote; due to lack of British Time
majority. Fort William College (1800):
z Out of ten members of which Lord Macaulay z Fort William College was founded on
was the president, five were supporters of 10 July 1800 in Calcutta, British India.

z Fort William College was set up by Lord z It was signed by Madan Mohan Malviya
Richard Wellesley in 1800 on behalf of Gandhi, and B. R. Ambedkar
z It was set up for the training of civil servants signed it on behalf of the depressed classes.
of the Company in languages and customs z The background to the Poona Pact was the
of Indians. Communal Award of August 1932, which,
z The court of directors of the British East among other things, reserved 71 seats in
India Company was not in support of a the central legislature for the depressed
training college in Kolkata. classes.
z Then it got closed in 1802 and a separate z Gandhi, who opposed the Communal Award
and believed it was a British effort to divide
College was established in 1807 in England.
Hindus, started a fast unto death in order
NOTE: Question on Fort William College to have it overturned.
came in 2018. By simply reading solutions z He rejected the concept of a special
of that question, it was possible to attempt electorate for the depressed classes.
this question correctly, simply earning z However, the number of seats set aside for
2 marks !! This underscores the importance them in provincial legislatures was increased
of solving and analysing PYQs. to 147, and in the Central Legislature, they
75. (c) Sub-Theme: Reforms in Education during the now make up 18% of all seats.
British Time z The findings of the Indian Franchise
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-1891) Committee, also known as the Lothian
was appointed as the secretary of Bethune Committee, served as the foundation for
School/College established in 1849. Bethune the communal award.
School began as Hindu Female School in 1849 78. (c) Sub-Theme: Important Personalities
was renamed Bethune School in 1856. In 1856, Annie Besant 1847-1933:
the Government took charge of the Hindu z She fought for the freedom of thought,
Female School, later renamed Bethune School. secularism, women’s rights, birth control,
NOTE: Details of Annie Besant has already workers’ rights and Fabian socialism.
been covered in PYQs under Prominent z Following her encounter with Helena
Personalities in Modern History. Blavatsky in 1889, Besant became a
76. (b) Sub-Theme: Important Personalities Theosophist.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Peasants and z In 1893, she made her first trip to India with
Workers Party of India was founded in 1947. the Theosophical Society.
The party was founded in Maharashtra by z She and Henry Steel Olcott co-founded the
Tulsidas Jadhav, Keshavrao Jedhe and others. Theosophical Society - Adyar.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Both The z She was the society’s president from 1907
Independent Labour Party (1936) and All to 1933.
India Scheduled Castes Federation (1942) z In Benares, Besant founded the Central
were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Hindu College (CHC).
77. (c) Sub-Theme: Phases of Mahatma Gandhi z She joined the Indian National Congress
Communal Award (1932): (INC) and demanded government action
z The Prime Minister of Britain Ramsay towards self-rule. She became the President
MacDonald, announced the Communal of the Calcutta Session of INC, AD 1917.
Award in August 1932 to pursue the British z In 1916, Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak
policy of divide and rule. founded the All-India Home Rule League.
z The Communal Award recognised the z She did not attend the AD 1920 Session at
depressed classes as minorities and Nagpur due to growing differences with
provided them separate electorates. Gandhiji as she felt that the Government of
India Act, 1919 was a means to free India.
z Earlier the British had already given separate
electorates to Muslims, Christians and Sikhs. z Newspapers: New India and Commonweal.
Poona Pact 1932: z She wrote the ‘Lotus Song’, an English
z B.R. Ambedkar negotiated the Poona Pact version of the Gita.
with Mahatma Gandhi in late September Statement 1 is correct: Annie Besant fought
1932. for the freedom of thought, secularism,
Modern History 73
women’s rights, birth control, workers’ rights 3. The United States of America: A Hindu’s
and Fabian socialism. In 1916, Annie Besant Impression, 1916.
and Tilak started the Home Rule Leagues at 4. The problem of National Education in
Madras and Belgaum respectively. India, 1920
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Theosophical 5. Unhappy India, 1928.
Society was founded by Madame H. P.
Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in New York in 6. England’s Debt to India, 1917.
1875. In 1882, the headquarters of the Society 7. Autobiographical Writings
were established in Adyar, near Madras (now 8. He also wrote biographies of Mazzini,
Chennai) in India. Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna.
Statement 3 is correct: Annie Besant became 82. (b) Sub-Theme: Literary Work during Indian
the President of the INC in Calcutta Session, National Movement
1917.
Option (a) is incorrect: The Arya samaj was
79. (b) Sub-Theme: Important Personalities/ Important founded by the Dayananda Saraswati on
sessions of INC 7 April 1875.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first woman Option (b) is correct: Neel Darpan is a
President of the Indian National Congress was Bengali play, written by Dinabandhu Mitra in
Annie Besant in the 1917 Calcutta Session. 1858–1859.
Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman Option (c) is incorrect: Anandamath the
President of INC in 1925 Kanpur Session. famous Bengali novel written by Bankim
Statement 2 is correct: Badruddin Tyabji Chandra Chatterjee in 1882.
became the first Muslim President of the
Option (d) is incorrect: Satyendranath
Indian National Congress in the 1887 Madras
Tagore was selected for Indian Civil Service in
Session.
June 1863. He was the first Indian to succeed
80. (b) Sub-Theme: Social Movement Organisations in the ICS Exam in 1863.
Pair 1 is correct: Raja Radhakanta Deb was
the first President of the British Indian NOTE: As we have mentioned earlier, a
Association while Debendranath Tagore was chronology of events is important. This is
its secretary. another question on the same theme, earlier
z Pair 2 is incorrect: In 1884 Madras questions were asked in 2017 and 2021.
Mahajan Sabha was established by 83. (d) Sub-heme: Important Organisations
M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Pair 1 is correct: On 30 September, 1932,
Iyer and P. Anandacharlu. Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India
z Pair 3 is correct: Surendranath Banerjee Anti Untouchability League, to remove
and Anand Mohan Bose founded the untouchability in society.
Indian Association of Calcutta in 1876. Pair 2 is correct: Sahajanand Saraswati
81. (c) Sub-Theme: Important Personalities was the first President of the All India Kisan
Lala Lajpat Rai: Sabha.
z Popularly known as Punjab Kesari. A Pair 3 is correct: The self-Respect Movement
member of the Lal Bal Pal trio. was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in
Tamil Nadu in 1925 with the aim of destroying
z The INC’s president at the 1920 Calcutta
Special Session. the contemporary Hindu social order in its
totality and creating a new, rational society
z In 1921, he founded Servants of the People
without caste, religion and god.
Society, a non-profit welfare organisation,
in Lahore. 84. (d) Sub-Theme: Important Personalities/ Important
Organisations
z Lajpat Rai travelled to the US in 1917.
Pair 1 is correct: All India Liberal Federation
z Led a non-violent march in protest to
the Simon Commission. Brutally assaulted was founded by Surendra Nath Banarjea
by the police and later succumbed to his and some of its prominent leaders were Tej
injuries. Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri and
M. R. Jayakar and Tej Bahadur Sapru were
z Along with founding Arya Gazette as its
the presidents of Indian National Liberal
editor, authored:
Federation.
1. The Story of My Deportation, 1908.
Pair 2 is correct: K.C. Neogy was a member of
2. Arya Samaj, 1915. the Constituent Assembly of India, a member

of the first Cabinet of independent India and 87. (c) Sub-Theme: Major events/Major places of Indian
the chairman of the first Finance Commission Freedom Struggle
of India. Option (a) is incorrect: The Indian tricolour
Pair 3 is correct: P.C. Joshi was one of the was designed by Pingali Venkayya, who was a
early leaders of the communist movement in freedom fighter and was a follower of Mahatma
India, he was the first general secretary of Gandhi. Pingali Venkayya had designed the flag
the Communist Party of India from 1935–47. of India and presented it to Mahatma Gandhi
85. (a) Sub-Theme: Literary Work during Indian in 1921 during the session of the All India
National Movement Congress Committee in Vijayawada.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: In Option (b) is incorrect: During the QIM in
overwhelming detail, the book “Desher Katha” Andhra the Provincial Congress Committee
summarised the work of M. G. Ranade and had issued a circular popularly known as the
D. Naoroji in a popular idiom and warned in its ‘Kurnool Circular’ as the police seized the
concluding chapter against the colonial state’s copy when they rode ‘Kurnool Congress Office.
“hypnotic conquest of the mind”. “Desher This was drafted by Kala Venkat Rao, on 29th
Katha” had an immense repercussion in Bengal, July 1942 and was sent for the approval of
captured the mind of young Bengal and assisted the Congress Working Committee through Dr.
more than anything else in the preparation of Pattabhi Sitaramaiah, a member of the working
the Swadeshi Movement. committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Deuskar uses the Option (c) is correct: Rabindranath Tagore
word ‘desh’ in the context of the whole country. translated the National Anthem from Bengali
86. (a) Sub-Theme: Literary Work during Indian to English here.
National Movement Option (d) is incorrect: The Theosophical
Society was founded by Madame H. P.
Gopal Baba Walangkar (1840-1900):
Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in New York in
z He was also known as Gopal Krishna, born
1875. In 1882, the headquarters of the Society
into a family of the untouchable Mahar caste
were established in Adyar, near Madras (now
in Maharashtra.
Chennai) in India.
z Gopal Baba Walangkar is an early example
88. (c) Sub-Theme: Important Personalities/Phases of
of a social activist working to untrammel
Mahatma Gandhi
the untouchable people of India from their
Quit India Movement planned an all-out
historic socio-economic oppression and he
campaign to compel British withdrawal from
is generally considered to be the pioneer of
India, after the failure of the Cripps Mission
that movement.
to reach a compromise. At the historic August
z He also developed a racial theory to explain meeting at Gowalia Tank in Bombay, Gandhi
the oppression and also published the first proclaimed his mantra—’do or die’. He was
journal targeted at the untouchable people. arrested on August 9, 1942. He undertook a
z The first publication to have the untouchable 21-day fast in February 1943 to protest against
people as its target readership was the Government actions against Indians involved
Walangkar’s Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer in the movement. Mahatma Gandhi wrote
of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), “Songs of Prison” during his imprisonment
which he started publishing in 1888. in Yerwada Jail, Poona. He translated hymns
z He also wrote articles for Marathi-language from the Upanishads and poems by Indian
newspapers such as Sudharak and saint poets into English and that collection was
Deenbandhu, as well as composed couplets published as Songs from the prison.
in Marathi that were intended to inspire the 89. (c) Sub-Theme: Constitutional Development
people. The idea of a constituent assembly was put
z In 1889, he published Vital Viduvansan forward for the first time by MN Roy. The
(Annihilation of Ceremonial Pollution), Indian National Congress (INC) first formally
which protested the position of untouchables requested a constituent assembly to draft an
in society and raised consciousness Indian constitution in 1935. Representatives
regarding what those people should expect. of each community were to be elected by
z He addressed this pamphlet, which was members of that community in the provincial
crafted as a collection of 26 questions, to legislative assembly and voting was to be by
the elites of Maharashtrian society. the method of proportional representation
Modern History 75
by means of single transferable vote. 292 seats allocated for British India were
Composition of the Constituent Assembly: to be from eleven governor’s provinces
z C.A. constituted in Nov 1946 under CMP and four from Chief commissioner’s
(Cabinet Mission Plan). provinces.
z Seats allotted as per population proportion. Seats were allocated based on proportion
z Voting using a single transferable vote and to their respective population.
the proportional representation system Muslims, Sikhs, and general voters were
when a province is represented. to determine which of the three major
populations in each British province
z Mahatma Gandhi was not part of C.A.
would hold the seats up for election in
z Strength of the assembly: the provincial legislative assembly.
Total strength of the assembly: 389 The heads of these princely states
296 seats for British India and 93 seats were supposed to nominate the
to princely states representatives.
v v v

Section C
3 Art and Culture

Art & Culture : PYQs Analysis
25
20
Art & Culture
15 16
10
5 6
5 5 5
4
3 3 3
2
0 1
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
Art And Culture: PYQs Analysis
Sr. No Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
1 Indian Architecture 2 1 1 1 2 1 8
2 Temple Architecture 1 1 1 1 1 1 6
3 Indian Paintings 1 1 1 1 4
4 Indian Music 1 1 2
5 Indian Dance Forms 1 2 1 1 5
6 Martial Arts in India 1 1
Culture In India/
7 Philosophies/Jainism 4 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 10 5 2 1 35
& Buddhism
Total 6 3 4 2 5 5 3 3 16 8 5 1 61
(a) 1 and 2 only
INDIAN ARCHITECTURE
(b) 3 only
1. Consider the following pairs: (2022) (c) 1 and 3 only
Site of Ashoka’s Location in the (d) None of the statements given above is correct
major rock edicts State of 6. With reference to the Indian history of art and culture,
Dhauli Odisha consider the following pairs. (2014)
Erragudi Andhra Pradesh Famous works of sculpture Site
Jaugada Madhya Pradesh A grand image of Buddha’s
Kalsi Arnataka Mahaparinirvana with
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? numerous celestial musicians Ajanta
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs above and the sorrowful
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs figures of his followers below
2. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new A huge image of Varaha Avatar
Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which (boar incarnation) of Vishnu,
of the following statements are correct regarding as he rescues Goddess Earth Mount Abu
Somnath Temple? (2022) from the deep and chaotic
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. waters, sculpted on the rock
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by “Arjuna’s Penance”/“Descent of
Al-Biruni. Ganga” sculpted on the surface Mamallapuram
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of huge boulders
of the present day temple) was done by President
S. Radhakrishnan.
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Which one of the following statements is correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(2021) 7. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was: (2014)
(a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. (a) The mosque for the use of Royal Family
(b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river.
(b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber.
(c) Pandu-Lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of the
(c) The hall in which Akbar held discussions with
Narmada river.
scholars of various religions.
(d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari
river. (d) The room in which the nobles belonging to
different religions gathered to discuss religious
4. With reference to the cultural history of India,
consider the following statements: (2018) affairs.
1. White marble was used in making Buland 8. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut
Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. architecture, consider the following statements:
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making (2013)
Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? cut caves in India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
5. What is/are common to the two historical places 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram? (2016)
1. Both were built in the same period.
(a) 1 only
2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Both have rock-cut monuments.
(c) 3 only
below. (d) 1, 2 and 3

TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE INDIAN PAINTINGS
9. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated 15. The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the
near Morena, consider the following statements: (2018)
(2021) (a) Bundi school (b) Jaipur school
1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the (c) Kangra school (d) Kishangarh school
Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. 16. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the
2. It is the only circular temple built in India. most famous for illustrated paintings at: (2017)
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the (a) Ajanta (b) Badami
region. (c) Bagh (d) Ellora
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it 17. Kalamkari painting refers to: (2015)
was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament (a) A hand-painted cotton textile in South India
building. (b) A handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in
Which of the statements given above are correct? NorthEast India
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) A block-painted woollen cloth in the Western
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Himalayan region of India
(d) A hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-
10. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the:
Western India
(2012)
18. Consider the following historical places: (2013)
(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian
subcontinent 1. Ajanta Caves 2. Lepakshi Temple
(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the 3. Sanchi Stupa
languages of India can be classified. Which of the above places is/are also known for
mural paintings?
(c) Three main styles of Indian Temple Architecture (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Three main musical gharanas were prevalent in (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
India.
11. Building ‘Kalyana Mandapam’ was a notable feature INDIAN MUSIC
in the temple construction in the kingdom of (2019)
19. With reference to the cultural history of India,
(a) Chalukya (b) Chandela
consider the following statements: (2018)
(c) Rashtrakuta (d) Vijayanagara 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs
12. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples? in praise of Lord Krishna.
(2017) 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
1. Arasavalli 2. Amarkantak 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
3. Omkareshwar 4. Annamacharya Keertanas are devotional songs in
Select the correct answer using the code given praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
below: Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
20. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions
13. With reference to the art and archaeological history
of India that has been kept alive for centuries, Which
of India, which one among the following was made of the following statements are correct? (2012)
earliest?(2015)
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput
(a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar kingdoms during the Mughal period
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli 2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual
(c) Rock-cut Monuments Mahabalipuram music
(d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri 3. Dhrupad alap uses Sanskrit syllables from
Mantras.
14. With reference to the cultural history of India, the
term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to: (2014)
below:
(a) An assembly of village elders (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) A religious sect (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) A style of temple construction (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) An administrative functionary (d) None of the above is correct.
Art and Culture 81

25. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and
INDIAN DANCE FORMS Bharatanatyam dances? (2012)
21. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the 1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found
following statements: (2017) in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam
1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet
on its edges is a feature of Bharatnatyam but
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used
Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of
in the performance.
movements.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Lord Krishna. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 or 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only MARTIAL ARTS IN INDIA
22. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider
26. With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what
the following statements: (2014)
is ‘Kalaripayattu’? (2014)
1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still
drama.
prevalent in some parts of South India.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still
of Assam.
found in the southern part of the Coromandel
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of area.
devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir (c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living
and Mirabai. tradition in the northern part of Malabar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only in some parts of South India.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following pairs: (2014) CULTURE IN INDIA
1. Garba : Gujarat
27. Which one of the following statements about Sangam
2. Mohiniattam : Odisha literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022)
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka (a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly material culture.
matched? (b) The social classification of Varna was known to
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Sangam poets.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior
24. In the context of the cultural history of India, a pose ethics.
in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been (d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as
a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till irrational.
today.(2013) 28. “Yoga Vasistha” was translated into Persian by
Which one of the following statements best Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of: (2022)
describes this pose? (a) Akbar
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but (b) Humayun
oppositely curved at the waist and neck (c) Shahjahan
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up (d) Aurangzeb
are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic
characters 29. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’
pertain to: (2021)
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to
(a) Dance forms of Northwest India
express oneself or to tell a story
(b) Musical instruments
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain
hand gestures are emphasized to express the (c) Prehistoric cave paintings
feelings of love or eroticism (d) Tribal languages

30. With reference to the cultural history of India, which 35. Consider the following pairs: (2018)
one of the following is the correct description of the
term Paramitas? (2020) Tradition : State
(a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in 1. Chapchar Kut festival : Mizoram
aphoristic (sutra) style. 2. Khongjom Parba ballad : Manipur
(b) Philosophical schools that did not accept the 3. Thang-Ta dance : Sikkim
authority of Vedas. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
Bodhisattva path. (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
(d) Powerful merchant guilds of early Medieval South
36. Which reference to the religious practices in India,
India. the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to (2018)
31. With reference to the religious history of India, (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
consider the following statements: (2020) (c) Vaishnavism (d) Shaivism
1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
37. Which reference to Indian history, who among the
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the
Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism. world?(2018)
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas (a) Avalokiteshvara (b) Lokesvara
fostered Mahayana Buddhism. (c) Maitreya (d) Padmapani
38. With reference to the religious history of India,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only consider the following statements: (2017)
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of
32. With reference to the history of India, consider the Jainism.
following pairs: (2020) 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of
phenomena were not wholly momentary, but
Famous Place : Present State
existed forever in a latent form.
1. Bhilsa : Madhya Pradesh Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Dwarasamudra : Maharashtra (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Girinagar : Gujarat (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Sthanesvara : Uttar Pradesh 39. Consider the following pairs: (2017)
Which of the pairs given above are correctly Traditions : Communities
matched?
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival : Sindhis
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra : Gonds
33. With reference to the cultural history of India, 3. Wari -Warkari : Santhals
consider the following pairs: (2020) Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
1. Parivrajaka : Renunciant and Wanderer
(a) 1 only
2. Shramana : Priest with a high status
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Upasaka : Lay follower of Buddhism
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(d) None of the above
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 40. With reference to the religious history of India,
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 consider the following statements: (2016)
1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the
Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to
2. Trading the path of Bodhisattvas enlightenment.
3. Image worship and rituals 3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation
Which of the above is/are the features/features of to help all sentient beings on their path to it.
Mahayana Buddhism? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Art and Culture 83

41. Which one of the following books of ancient India 47. Consider the following statements: (2014)
has the love story of the son of the founder of the 1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint
Shunga dynasty? (2016) Dadu Dayal.
(a) Swapnavasavadatta 2. The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded
(b) Malavikagnimitra by Madhvacharya.
(c) Meghadoota Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Ratnavali (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
42. Which of the following kingdoms were associated
with the life of the Buddha? (2014, 2015) 48. A community of people called Manganiyars is well-
known for their (2014)
1. Avanti 2. Gandhara
(a) Martial arts in North-East India
3. Kosala 4. Magadha
(b) Musical tradition in North-West India.
(c) Classical vocal music in South India.
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Pietra dura tradition in Central India
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only 49. Consider the following languages: (2014)
43. In Medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada
‘Pattakila’ were used for (2014) 3. Telugu
(a) Military officers Which of the above has/have been declared as
‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government?
(b) Village headmen
(c) Specialists in Vedic rituals (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Chiefs of craft guilds
50. Which one of the following pairs does not form part
44. Every year, a month-long ecologically important of the six systems of Indian Philosophy? (2014)
campaign/festival is held during which certain (a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
trees. Which of the following are such communities/
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
tribes?(2014)
(d) Sankhya and Yoga
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha
(b) Gond and Korku 51. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’
inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from:
(c) Irula and Toda (2014)
(d) Sahariya and Agariya (a) Katha Upanishad
45. Chaitra, one of the national calendars based on the (b) Chandogya Upanishad
Saka Era, corresponds to which one of the following (c) Aitareya Upanishad
dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of (d) Mundaka Upanishad
365 days? (2014)
52. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: (2013)
(a) 22nd March (or 21st March)
1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
3. Tyagaraja
(c) 21st March (or 30th March)
Who among the above was/were preaching when
(d) 21st April (or 20th April) the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
46. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
culture in India, consider the following pairs: (2014) (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Famous Shrine : Location 53. With reference to the history of philosophical thought
in India, consider the following statements regarding
1. Tabo monastery and : Spiti Valley Sankhya school: (2013)
temple complex
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang : Zanskar Valley transmigration of the soul.
3. Alchi Temple : Ladakh 2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that
Complex leads to liberation and not any exterior influence
Which of the above pairs given is/are correctly or agent.
matched? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, 58. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created
while the others are called Viharas. What is the and maintained by: (2011)
difference between the two? (2013) (a) Universal law (b) Universal Truth
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the (c) Universal Faith (d) Universal Soul
dwelling place of the monks.
59. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the
the hand gesture called “Bhumisparsha mudra”. It
dwelling place of the monks.
symbolises:(2012)
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while
(a) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over
Vihara is the hall axial to it
Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his
(d) There is no material difference between the two.
meditation.
55. Which one of the following describes best the concept (b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity
of Nirvana in Buddhism? (2013) and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
(a) The extinction of the flame of desire (c) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they
(b) The complete annihilation of self all arise from Earth and finally dissolve into the
(c) A state of bliss and rest Earth, and thus this life is transitory.
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension (d) Both statements (a) and (b) are correct in this
56. Which of the following statements is/are applicable context.
to Jain doctrine? (2013) 60. With reference to Indian history, consider the
1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practise following texts: (2022)
penance. 1. Nettipakarana
2. Every object, even the smallest particle, has a soul. 2. Parishishta Parvan
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended. 3. Avadanasataka
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
below:
Which of the above are Jaina texts?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
57. With reference to the history of Ancient India, which
of the following was/were common to both Buddhism 61. With reference to Indian history, consider the
and Jainism? (2012) following pairs: (2022)
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and Historical person Known as
enjoyment
1. Aryadeva Jaina scholar
2. Indifference to the authority of Vedas
2. Dignaga Buddhist scholar
3. Denial of the efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Nathamuni Vaishnav a scholar
below: How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (a) None of the pairs
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only one pair
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only two pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All three pairs
Answer Key
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (c)
Art and Culture 85

Explanation
1. (b) Sub-Theme: Ashoka’s Rock Edicts and Inscription Pair 3 is incorrect: Jaugada is situated on
Pair 1 is correct: Dhauli Rock edict is the northern bank of Rushikulya river, Ganjam
located in dhauli hills, close to 10 kms from district, Odisha. It was part of the ancient
Bhubaneswar in Odisha. The edicts are kingdom of Kalinga as suggested by separate
engraved on a large piece of rock, written rock edicts 1 and 2.
in Pali. The rock edict is located near the Pair 4 is incorrect: Kalsi is a small town
historical site of the Kalinga war which is located in between Chakrata and Dehradun on
said to transform Samrat Ashok. the banks of Yamuna River in Uttarakhand.
Pair 2 is correct: Erragudi or Yerragudi rock The site of Ashoka’s inscriptions at Kalsi is
edict is located in Kurnool district in Andhra singularly unique as it is the only place in
Pradesh. The inscriptions were one of the North India where the great Mauryan emperor
important treasures of Mouryan king Ashoka has inscribed the set of the 14 rock edicts.
(269-231 BCE) falling under major and minor Ashoka inscribed a rock edict here to preach
rock inscriptions. the principle of Dhamma to maximum people.

2. (a) Sub-Theme: Temple Architecture Stupa built by Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE
Statement 1 is correct: Somnath Temple is one has been a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for the Option (c) is incorrect: Pandu-Lena cave
Hindus. They believe it to be the first among shrines also known as Nasik Caves are located
the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. It is at Gomai river, about 6 kilometres north of
located in Prabhas Patan, Veraval in Gujarat, Shahada, Maharashtra.
India. Option (d) is incorrect: Amaravati stupa lies in
Statement 2 is correct: A description of the the gorge of the Krishna river. It is the largest
temple by Al-Biruni, an Arab traveller, was one in the state of Andhra Pradesh, with a
so glowing that it prompted a visit in 1024 by diameter of about 50 metres and a height of
Mahmud of Ghazni. about 27 metres.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The contemporary
NOTE: Earlier Questions came on Ajanta
Somnath temple’s reconstruction was started
under the orders of the first Home Minister of in 2014 and 2016. This underlines the
India Vallabhbhai Patel and completed in May importance of revising PYQ and related
1951 after his death. Then President of India, research. Hence, for a detailed explanation
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, did the Pran-Pratistha at of Ajanta Cave please refer to the PYQ.
the existing temple on 11 May 1951. 4. (d) Sub-Theme: Medieval Architecture/Islamic
Somnath Temple: Architecture
z The Somnath temple, also called Somanātha Statement 1 is incorrect: Buland Darwaza
temple or Deo Patan, is located in Prabhas is situated at Fatehpur sikri. It was built
Patan, Veraval in Gujarat, India. by Akbar to commemorate his victory over
z One of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Gujarat. Red sandstone has been used in its
the Hindus, they believe it to be the first construction and white and black marble in its
among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of decoration. According to the UPSC answer
Shiva. key, this statement is incorrect. Therefore,
z It was reconstructed several times in the we will go by the UPSC answer.
past after repeated destruction by several Statement 2 is incorrect: Bada Imambara,
Muslim invaders and rulers. located in Lucknow was built by Asaf-ud-
z A description of the temple by Al-Biruni, doula in 1784. This structure has been made
an Arab traveller, was so glowing that it by interlocking bricks without the use of
prompted a visit in 1024 by Mahmud of mortar in its construction. Rumi Darwaza is
Ghazni. also located in Lucknow, built by Nawab of
z After India’s independence, those ruins Awadh Asaf-ud-doula. It is built using bricks,
were demolished and the present Somnath coated with lime.
temple was reconstructed in the Māru- NOTE: Reference to the question came
Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture. from an Article featured in The Hindu
z The contemporary Somnath temple’s titled “Buland Darwaza and Rumi Darwaza:
reconstruction was started under the Gateways to Heaven” back in 2017.
orders of the first Home Minister of India
5. (b) Sub-Theme: Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/
Vallabhbhai Patel and completed in May
Ajanta Cave
1951 after his death.
z Then President of India, Dr. Rajendra Statement 1 is incorrect: Ajanta Caves are
Prasad, did the Pran-Pratistha at the 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments
existing temple on 11 May 1951. that date from the 2nd century BCE to 480
or 650 CE. Mahabalipuram has a group of
z Presently the Prime Minister of India
sanctuaries, which was carved out of rock
Narendra Modi is the chairman of Shree
along the Coromandel coast in the 7th and 8th
Somnath Mandir trust.
centuries.
3. (a) Sub-Theme: Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/ Statement 2 is incorrect: Ajanta caves are
Ajanta Cave mostly dedicated to Buddhist denominations
Option (a) is correct: The famous Buddhist while Mahabalipuram has more inclination
site of Ajanta lies in the Sahyadri hills by the towards the Vaishnavite sect.
gorge of the Waghora river. Statement 3 is correct: Both Mahabalipuram
Option (b) is incorrect: Sanchi lies to the west and Ajanta are one of the finest examples of
of the Betwa river. Madhya Pradesh’s Sanchi rock-cut monuments.
Art and Culture 87

z Hence, he resolved to construct a debating
NOTE: UPSC has repeatedly asked
questions from this particular topic, esp. hall that could accommodate a large number
Ajanta in 2014, 2016 and 2021. This of Muslim theologians.
underlines the importance of revising z The construction of the Ibadat Khana started
PYQ and related research. Question on in the early 1575 CE at Fatehpur Sikri (City
Mahabalipuram as an option came in of Victory) and was completed in 1576 CE.
2015 as well. Reading Fine Art NCERT for
NOTE: This was a simple question
the art and culture section is very important.
direct hit from Class 7th History NCERT
The glossary of the same book must be read
(pg.55). NCERTs are important for prelims.
and revised thoroughly.
Attaching a screenshot here to convey to
6. (c) Sub-Theme: Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/ you the importance of reading and revising
Ajanta Cave sidebars, chars and image texts from
Pair 1 is correct: The image of Mahaparinirvana NCERTs.
of Buddha is in cave 26 of Ajanta caves in 8. (c) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Architecture
the Sahyadri range on Waghora river in Statement 1 is incorrect: Badami caves were
Aurangabad, Maharashtra. They were built constructed in the 6th century by the Chalukya
under the patronage of Vakataka rulers. dynasty, in their capital Badami, which was
Pair 2 is incorrect: A huge image of the Varaha earlier known as Vatapinagar. Barabar caves
Avatar of Lord Vishnu, rescuing Goddess are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in
Earth from the deep and chaotic waters is India.
in Udayagiri caves near Vidisha, Madhya Statement 2 is incorrect: Barabar caves were
Pradesh. They were built under the patronage constructed by Emperor Ashoka. These are
of Gupta rulers around the 5th century AD. located in Jehanabad district, Bihar.
Pair 3 is correct: Arjuna’s penance/Descent Statement 3 is correct: Ellora caves are a
of Ganga is the monolithic sculpture built under complex of Hindu (Caves 13-29), Buddhist
the reign of Pallava King Mahendravarman and (Caves 1-12) and Jain (Caves 30-34)
is located in Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), monuments. These were built during the
Tamil Nadu. This site was also included in Rashtrakuta dynasty. It was designated as a
UNESCO World heritage sites. World heritage site By UNESCO.
9. (c) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Temple Architecture
NOTE: UPSC asked this question directly
from Class 11 NCERT (An Introduction of
Indian Art and Culture). Hence, it underlines
the importance of reading NCERT. Also, it is
advisable to read the newspaper and always
be observant about various developments.
7. (c) Sub-Theme: Mughal Architecture/Islamic
Architecture
Option (c) is correct: Ibadat Khana was used
for discussions with various spiritual leaders
of different religious grounds and to conduct
a discussion on teachings of various religious
leaders. Also known as the Hall of prayer.
Ibadat Khana:
z It was a meeting house built by Akbar at
Fatehpur Sikri in 1575 AD.
z The emperor increasingly indulged in
intellectual pursuits and came in contact
with ascetics and disciples of Sufi saint Statement 1 is correct: The Chausath Yogini
Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti. temple is in Morena district in Madhya
z He also expected to receive Mirza Suleiman Pradesh. According to an inscription dated 1323
of Badakhshan, a Sufi with a strong taste CE, this temple was built by Kachachapaghata
for theological discussions. king Devapala (1055-1075).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The temple with a
directly be solved by reading Fine Art
circular design pattern is situated on top of NCERT. This underlines the importance of
a small hill. It is not the only circular temple NCERTs. Every alternative year, UPSC gives
in India. some phrases/names/terminologies and
Statement 3 is incorrect: Originally 64 yoginis asks about their corresponding meaning,
were placed in 64 subsidiary shrines around type or sort of explanation. A careful
the central shrine of Maha Shakti. Today reading of terminologies and their meaning
Shiva linga have taken their place in shrines. is advisable.
The central shrine also holds a Shivalinga.
11. (d) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Temple Architecture
Statement 4 is correct: This temple’s circular
design has given rise to the popular idea that Option (d) is correct: A prominent aspect of the
the Indian parliament’s design was taken Vijayanagara kingdom’s temple construction
from here. was the construction of “Kalyana Mandapas.”
Vijayanagara Architecture:
NOTE: If we observe the statement carefully, z In 1336 AD, Harihara and Bukka
it claims that it is the “only circular established the Vijayanagar Empire.
temple built in India” which seems
extreme and absolute. If it is so, it should z The chief characteristics of the
come across in Fine art NCERT. If we take Vijayanagara architecture were:
risk of eliminating statement 2, we can get The construction of tall gateways or
the correct answer. It should be noted that Raya Gopurams,
extreme statements are always not wrong. The carved-pillared Kalyana
In many instances, UPSC gave an extreme mandapam inside the temple grounds,
and exclusive statement as the correct one. The Garbhagriha,
So choose options logically and wisely.
The Amman shrine.
Under the central vista project, a new
parliament building is constructed. The z The horse was the most prevalent animal on
existing parliament building is a replica of the pillars where sculptures were engraved.
Chausath Yogini Temple. Thus it is also z A prominent aspect of this kingdom’s
important to cover the daily newspaper temple construction was the construction
thoroughly. of “Kalyana Mandapas.”
10. (c) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Temple Architecture
Note: UPSC has asked a question from
Option (c) is correct: Three main styles of Themes in Indian History ll - An
temple architecture are the Nagara (Northern Imperial Capital Vijayanagara (pg.144).
style), the Dravida (the southern style), and This underlines the importance of reading
the Vesara style (Mixed style). NCERTs between the lines with special
Temple Architecture: emphasis on sidebars, charts, boxes and
z Three main styles of temple architecture images.
are the Nagara (Northern style), the Dravida
12. (a) Sub-Theme: Ancient Indian Temple Architecture
(the southern style), and the Vesara style
(Mixed style). z Arasavalli Sun temple is located in Andhra
Pradesh. The temple dates back to the 7th
z In Nagara style the entire temple is built on
century and a Kalinga king is said to have
a platform with multiple steps.
constructed it.
z In Dravida style, the temple is enclosed
z Amarkantak is a pilgrim town in Madhya
within a compound wall with features like
Pradesh and the origin of the Narmada river.
Gopuram and Vimana.
Lord Shiva is worshipped as Narmadeswar
z The Vesara temple architecture is a blend
Amranath here.
of temple architecture from the Nagara and
Dravidian traditions. z Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple dedicated
to Lord Shiva. It is located in Madhya
NOTE: Reading Glossary from Fine Art Pradesh and is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas.
NCERT for the art and culture section is List of famous Sun temples in India:
very important. Reading that much only The Dakshinaarka temple at Gaya, Bihar:
was enough to solve this question. The z There is an ancient Sun temple at Gaya in
simple and straightforward question can
the state of Bihar.
Art and Culture 89

z Offerings to the ancestors are made at the z This dates back to the 13th century and
Surya Kunda or the Dakshina Maanas tank it represents the highest point in Orissan
in front of the temple. temple architecture.
The Bhramanya Dev Temple at Unao in z Konark is situated 20 miles to the northeast
Madhya Pradesh: of Puri.
z The Brahmana Dev (Baramju) temple z The word Konark means corner sun.
dedicated to the Sun is located at Unao near 13. (b) Sub-Theme: Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/
Jhansi in Madhya Pradesh. Rock cut Cave
z It is a well-visited temple. Option (b) is correct: The rock-cut elephant
z Local belief is that worshippers find relief situated in Dhauli was constructed during
from ailments such as blindness and leprosy the reign of Ashoka, who ruled from 272-231
and other skin diseases. BCE. On the other hand, the Lingaraj Temple
Sun Temple at Surya Pahar in Assam: was built in the 11th century AD, while the
z This relatively modern Sun temple in the rock-cut monuments in Mahabalipuram were
constructed during the 7th and 8th centuries
vicinity of the Surya Pahar Hill near Goalpara
AD. Additionally, the Varaha Image was built in
in Assam.
the 5th century AD.
z This temple enshrines a circular stone tablet z The rock-cut elephant at Dhauli was built
having 12 images of Aditya in a circle with during the reign of Ashoka (272-231 BCE).
an image of Kashyapa the father of Aditya z Lingaraj temple in Bhubaneshwar: The
in the centre. largest temple in the city of Bhubaneswar
Suryanar Temple near Kumbakonam in (Odisha), Lingaraj Temple, was constructed
Tamil Nadu: in the 11th century AD and dedicated to
z This ancient temple dedicated to the Sun Lord Shiva.
is located near Kumbakonam in Tamil z Mahabalipuram: The rock-cut monu-
Nadu. Kumbhakonam and its surroundings ments at Mahabalipuram were built by
abound in huge temples. the Pallava king Narasimha in the 7th and
z This well-known temple enshrines the 8th centuries.
Sun - Surya, Kasi Viswanatha and Visalakshi, z Varaha Image at Udayagiri was built in the
and the other eight celestial bodies namely 5th century AD. This image was engraved by
Chandran, Angarakan, Budhan, Brihaspati, Chandragupta on the hill of Udayagiri to
Sukran, Saniswaran, Rahu and Ketu. commemorate the victory over the foreign
Suryanarayana Swamy temple at Arasavalli Shaka kings.
in Andhra Pradesh: Note: Question on Varaha Avatar (boar
z This is a shrine of the Sun in a well-preserved incarnation) of Vishnu at Udayagiri caves
state. earlier asked in 2014. The same theme was
z The temple dates back to the 7th century and repeated in 2015.
a Kalinga king is said to have constructed it.
14. (c) Sub-Theme: Temple Architecture
z The image of worship is a 5 ft tall one of
black granite holding lotus buds - flanked 9 9
by Usha and Chhaya. 8
z Padmapani is the name of this Sun God - the 7 7
Padma stands for wisdom Usha and Chhaya
stand for eternity 6 5 4 3 2 1
The Sun Temple at Modhera - Gujarat:
z This is a grand temple to the Sun God 7 7
conceived and built-in 1026.
8
z As in the Sun Temple at Konark, this temple 9 9
was so designed that the rays of the Sun
would fall on the image of Surya at the time 1. Ardha mandapa 6. Pradakshina
of the equinoxes. 2. Mandapa 7. Transepts
3. Maha mandapa 8. Jagatl
The Sun Temple at Konarak, Orissa:
4. Antarala 9. Subsidiary
z The Konark temple in Orissa is the largest
5. Garba griha shrines
and most well-known of all Sun temples in
India. Plan of Kandariya Mahadeva Temple

Correct answer is Option (c): 16. (a) Sub-Theme: Rock cut painting
Panchayatan Style: Correct answer is Option (a): The painting of
z Panchayatan is a style of temple Bodhisattva Padmapani is in Ajanta cave no
construction. 1, which dates back to the 5th century AD.
z The main shrine is surrounded by four
subsidiary shrines.
z The origin of the name is the Sanskrit words
Pancha which mean five and ayatana means
containing.
z Dashavatara Vishnu Temple, Deogarh (in
Lalitpur District, Uttar Pradesh) was built
in the early sixth century CE.
z That is, about a hundred years or so after
the small temples we just learnt about in
Mural of Padmapani in Ajanta cave
Sanchi and Udaygiri.
z Other paintings of Bodhisattvas include
z The main shrine of this temple is constructed
Vajrapani (protector and guide, a symbol
on a rectangular plinth in the panchayatana
of Buddha’s power) and Manjusri
architectural style, and four additional
subsidiary shrines are located at each of the (manifestation of Buddha’s wisdom).
four corners making it a total number of five z In this painting, Bodhisattva is holding a
shrines, hence the name, panchayatana. lotus in his hand in a tribhanga pose.
NOTE: This question was a direct hit from NOTE: Reading pages no 54-55 from Fine
Fine Art NCERT. It is also mentioned in Art NCERT will help you to solve this
the glossary of the same NCERT. Temple question. Also, details of Ajanta has already
architectural styles are always important been discussed in earlier PYQs, where the
from prelims perspective. There were question was on Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana.
repeated questions on circular temples, 17. (a) Sub-Theme: Indian Painting Schools
Nagara style, Dravida style, Vesara style and Correct answer is Option (a):
Panchayatana. Kalamkari:
15. (d) Sub-Theme: Indian Painting Schools z This particular cotton textile is made in
Correct answer is Option (d): Bani Thani Andhra Pradesh and is either hand-
painting belongs to the Kishangarh school of painted or block-printed.
paintings. z In this style, the kalam(pen) is used for
freehand drawing of the subject and filling
in the colours and is entirely done by hand.
z The present states of Telangana and
Andhra Pradesh are where kalamkari first
appeared.
z Kalamkari was first used to depict scenes
from sacred texts such as the Mahabharata,
Ramayana and Bhagavatam.
z It was painted by an artist named Nihal 18. (b) Sub-Theme: Mural Paintings
Chand. Option 1 is correct: The paintings on the caves
z Bani Thani was a singer and a poetess in of Ajanta, Ellora and Elephanta are truly
the court of Raja Samant Singh (1748-1764). magnificent.
z It is frequently said that the small portrait Option 2 is correct: Lepakshi temple is in
is as beautiful as the Mona Lisa. Andhra Pradesh. It is a good repository of
mural paintings of the Vijayanagar kings. A
NOTE: This school of painting was in the tableau on Lepakshi temple has been selected
news as the Kishangarh airport displayed for the Republic Day parade to be held in
the Bani-Thani paintings in the galleries New Delhi, representing Andhra Pradesh. The
and halls to welcome passengers. Hence, tableau showcases the rich, monolithic rock
reading the newspaper is very important. architecture of the Lepakshi temple.
Art and Culture 91

Option 3 is incorrect: Sanchi is known for z It is an ancient form, probably developing
sculptures whose designs are similarly painted from the Prabandha.
in Ajanta. Sanchi Stupa is one of the oldest z In the traditional singing style, Prabandh
Buddhist monuments in India. is known as a “Nibadha Geetprakaar”
(singing within a definite framework).
NOTE: By reading page no 60 from Fine
It means, ‘A song bound by a specific
Art NCERT, we came to know that Lepakshi
framework of rules’.
Temple is known for Mural paintings. Hence
z Traditionally, a tanpura and pakhawaj were
option (a) and (d) got eliminated. With
used to perform the dhrupad style of singing.
reading of any basic book, we know sanchi
z Dhrupad’s lyrics are performed generally
stupa is Buddhist monument and famous
in Braj Basha and involve veera and sringar
for sculpture and mural paintings. Also,
rasas and frequently include a heroic theme
please refer to the earlier PYQ for detailed or adoration of a particular god.
explanation on Stupa and Sanchi Stupa.
z It is a type of devotional music that can be
19. (b) Sub-Theme: Cultural Tradition of India traced back to the Samveda, an ancient text.
z Tyagaraja is known for his life and his z The emphasis on preserving the Raga’s purity
exemplary devotion to Lord Rama, via the is one of Dhrupad’s notable characteristics.
path of soulful music. Born in Thanjavur in z Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior and
1767, Tyagaraja is credited with creating Emperor Akbar played a significant part in
thousands of devotional compositions the growth and development of Dhrupad
mostly in praise of Lord Rama. z Other personalities who contributed to
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rama- an the development of Dhrupad are: Tansen,
incarnation of Lord Visnu, was the focus and Baiju bawra, Swami Haridas
main theme of most of the songs of Tyagaraja. z Some of the major gharanas of Dhrupad
Statement 2 is correct: Tyagaraja innovated are– dagarvani gharana, bishnupur gharana,
the technique of structural variations of darbhanga gharana, mallik gharana, bettiah
musical lines within the performance. gharana.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Annamacharya 21. (b) Sub-Theme: Indian Folk or Local Dances
belonged to the 15th century whereas Statement 1 is correct: Manipuri Sankirtana
Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century. involves ritual singing, drumming and
Statement 4 is correct: Annamacharya was dancing. It was also inscribed in the
a 15th-century Hindu saint who composed Representative List of the UNESCO Intangible
songs called Sankeertanas in praise of Lord Cultural Heritage Of Humanity in 2013.
Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu. Statement 2 is incorrect: Not only Cymbals
NOTE: It was the 250th birth anniversary of but Drums are also used in the performance.
Tyagaraja, hence, UPSC asked this question. In a typical performance, two drummers and
about ten singers-dancers perform in a hall
20. (b) Sub-Theme: Hindustani Classical Music encircled by devotees.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dhrupad traces its Statement 3 is correct: Lord Krishna life and
origin to the chanting of Vedic hymns and deeds are the main theme of this performance.
mantras (Samveda). It is practised primarily by the Vaishnavite
Statement 2 is correct: It is a form of community.
devotional music and spiritual music that Sankirtana:
emphasises the purity of ragas. z It includes a wide range of artistic
Statement 3 is correct: Dhrupad music expressions carried out to commemorate
evolved with Sanskrit language scripts in special religious occasions and different
itself. Dhrupad emphasizes a slow, meditative phases in the lives of the Vaishnava people
rendition of the alap using sacred Sanskrit of the Manipur plains.
syllables derived from Sanskrit mantras. z Sankirtana rituals are centred on the temple,
Dhrupad: where dancers and singers narrate stories
z The word Dhrupad is derived from of Lord Krishna’s life and actions through
Dhruva, the steadfast evening star that dance and song.
travels through the galaxy, and Pada, which z A typical performance of a drum and dance
means poetry. ensemble features two drummers and ten

singer-dancers who perform in a hall or Statement 3 is incorrect: It is based on
domestic courtyard surrounded by seated the songs composed by Sankaradeva and
devotees. Madhvadeva.
z The artists’ humility and the flow of their 23. (c) Sub-Theme: Indian Folk or Local Dances/
artistic and spiritual energy are unmatched, Performing Arts
bringing audience members to tears. Pair 1 is correct: Garba is a famous dance form
z Sankirtana has two main social functions: of Gujarat, performed in October to honour the
1. It acts as a unifying factor within Hindu Deity of Divinity, Goddess Durga. It is
Manipur’s Vaishnava community by a sacred practice in Gujarat to perform this
bringing them together on festive events joyful folk dance on practically all important
throughout the year; occasions.
2. Through life-cycle rites, it creates Pair 2 is incorrect: Mohiniattam is a classical
dance form of Kerala. It belongs to the Lasya
and strengthens bonds between the
type, which presents a more elegant, soft, and
individual and the community.
feminine manner of dancing, despite having
z Thus, it is viewed as the visible roots in the ancient Sanskrit Hindu scripture
manifestation of God. on performing arts known as “Natya Shastra”.
z The Sankirtana of Manipur is an active Pair 3 is correct: Yakshagana is a musical
practice that fosters a natural connection dance theatre form of Karnataka. The dance
with people; the entire society is involved form includes players dressed in costumes
in preserving it, and the unique knowledge with vivid colours and shapes, singing,
and abilities are customarily passed down drumming, and dancing, as well as players who
from mentor to disciple. interpret words with gestures.
z The myriad ceremonies of Sankirtana 24. (a) Sub-Theme: Indian Classical Dances
acknowledge the presence of natural world Option (a) is correct: The Tri-bent pose, also
while fostering harmony with it. known as Tribhanga, is a standing position
z The Sankirtana is a ritual dance and music where the body is bent in three parts, creating
form of Manipur. three curves at the neck, waist, and knee. This
z The performance is carried out in a circle results in a gentle “S” shape, with the body
in an east-facing square performance space. oppositely curved at the waist and neck.
z In 2013, UNESCO added Manipur’s
distinctive cultural legacy to its
Representative List of Intangible Cultural
Heritage of Humanity.
22. (b) Sub-Theme: Indian Classical Dances
z Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts

break, where the body bends in one
direction at the knees, the other direction
at the hips and then the other again at the
shoulders and neck.
z This pose goes back at least 2000 years in
Statement 1 is correct: This dance form is Indian art and sculpture.
a combination of music, dance and drama. NOTE: Reading of Fine Art Ncert can
Sattriya dance tradition is governed by strictly help us to solve these simple questions
laid down principles in respect of hasta with confusing options. We know that
mudras, footwork, aharyas, music etc. “Tribhanga” means three bents. To make
Statement 2 is correct: The Sattriya dance options more close and complex, the
form was introduced in the 15th century A.D
examiner added mention of three distinct
by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer
poses in option (b), (c) and (d). Question on
of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankaradeva as a
a similar line was asked in Modern history -
powerful medium for the propagation of the
about “Tebhaga”.
Vaishnava faith.
Art and Culture 93

25. (a) Sub-Theme: Indian Classical Dances Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh
z Kuchipudi is a classical Indian dance from
Odissi Odisha
Andhra Pradesh and Bharatnatyam is a
classical dance from Tamil Nadu. Kathakali Kerala
Statement 1 is correct: Dancers speak Sattriya Assam
dialogue in between in Kuchipudi but in Manipuri Manipur
Bharatnatyam dancers do not speak dialogues. Mohiniyattam Kerala
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dancing on the
brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is 26. (d) Sub-Theme: Indian Martial Art
a feature of Tarangam-a solo performance of Option (d) is correct: Kalaripayattu, which
Kuchipudi. Sometimes dancers also balance a originated in present-day Kerala, is a form of
pot of water on their heads. But Bharatnatyam Indian martial arts known as Kalari. It has a
dance does not have such a form of movements. rich history and is considered to be the oldest
Differences between Bharatanatyam and surviving martial art in India.
Kuchipudi: Kalaripayattu:
Bharatanatyam Kuchipudi
Ancient in origin Relatively younger than
Bharatnatyam
Tamil Nadu Andhra Pradesh
Precise and Rounded Steps
Rhythmic steps
Lot of focus on Dancers don’t sit low on
‘Aramandi’ the ground z It is a martial dance practised in Kerala/
South India.
Theme: Religious Theme: Religious
z The art also bases medical treatments
and Spiritual Bhagat Purana
upon concepts found in the ancient Indian
Performed Performed earlier by medical text, the Ayurveda.
earlier by Male Brahmins, now z Practitioners of Kalaripayattu possess
devadasis, now both male and female intricate knowledge of pressure points
both male and on the human body and healing techniques
female dancers
that incorporate the knowledge of Ayurveda
Dancers do not Dancers speak dialogue and Yoga.
speak dialogues z This is taught in accordance with the Indian
Transitional The solo items of guru-shishya system.
movements of Kuchipudi dance are: z It differs from many other martial arts
the leg, hip and z Manduka Shabdam systems in the world in that weapon based
arm. Excessive (the story of frog techniques are taught first, and barehanded
eye movements maiden) techniques are taught last.
and hand z Balgopala Taranga 27. (b) Sub-Theme: Sangam Literature
gestures are (dances on the
used to convey Option (b) is correct: Sangam literature does
edges of brassplate
emotions. make references to the social classification of
with a pitcher full of
Varna, which was a system of social classification
water on the head)
in ancient India based on occupation and birth.
z Tala Chitra Nritya Sangam Literature:
(drawing pictures
z Sangam Literature provides valuable
with dancing toes)
details about the Sangam society and
polity.
List of Classical
State of Origin The social classification of varna was
dances in India z
known to Sangam poets.
Bharatnatyam Tamil Nadu
z There is mention of the Arashar (kings),
Kathak Uttar Pradesh Vaishiyar (traders), and Velalar (farmers).

z Tamil Epics: The two epics z Paramitas are qualities to be perfected in
Silappathikaram is written by Elango order to attain a state of self enlightened
Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Universal Buddha (a samma sambuddha)
Sattanar. a term prevalent in Eastern and Northern
28. (a) Sub-Theme: Mughal Literature/Translation work traditions.
under Mughals z These are similar to the 4th Noble truth to
Option (a) is correct: The “Yoga Vasistha” was attain the state of Bodhisattva.
translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati z Following are the Ten Paramitas: Generosity,
during the reign of Akbar. Morality, Patience, Energy, Meditation,
z Akbar had commissioned the translation Wisdom, Skillful means, Resolution, Power,
of many Sanskrit works into the Persian Knowledge.
language. NOTE: Bodhisattva concept (either in
z A Maktab Khana (translation bureau) was option or questions) was earlier asked by
also established at Fatehpur Sikri for this UPSC in 2016, 2017 and 2019. By referring
purpose. to PYQs and doing research on them always
z The Mahabharata, Ramayana, Lilavati, and fetch rich dividends.
Yogavashisht were some of the important 31. (b) Sub-Theme: Buddhism
Sanskrit works that were translated during Statement 1 is incorrect: After the 2nd
his reign. Buddhist council in Vaishali (Bihar),
z Nizamuddin Panipati translated Buddhism got bifurcated into two factions-
Yogavasistha (a treatise on Vedantic sthaviravada and mahasanghika. These two
philosophy) in the late 16th century. factions became the basis of Hinayana (The
29. (d) Sub-Theme: Tribal Culture lesser vehicle) and Mahayana (The greater
vehicle) respectively in future.
Option (d) is correct: Halbi, Ho, and Kui
z Hinayana followers stayed true to Buddha’s
are the tribal languages. Halbi is an Eastern
teaching, never practised idol worship and
Indo-Aryan language, Kui is a South-Eastern
Mahayana followers started believing in the
Dravidian language spoken by the Kandhas and
heavenliness of Buddha and idol worship in
Ho language is spoken by tribal communities
Buddhism began.
of Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, West
Bengal, and Assam. Statement 2 is correct: Mahasanghika was
z Halbi, Ho and Kui are languages spoken by further subdivided into lokottarvadin, kavya
variks, kaukkitikas in coming years.
tribes of India.
z Lokottarvadin was based on the philosophy
z Halbi is spoken in the states of Madhya
of lokottar buddha or supernatural
Pradesh and Maharashtra. It belongs to the Buddha.
group of Indo Aryan tribal languages.
Statement 3 is correct: The deification of
z Ho and Kui are important Dravidian Buddha by Mahasanghika fostered Mahayana
languages along with Kolami, Konda, Koya, Buddhism. They attributed divinity to Buddha
Gondi, Kudukh, Parji. and worship of Buddha in Statue form started
NOTE: Now, even if you don’t know the which is still prevalent in modern days.
exact answer you can still reach the correct NOTE: Questions on Mahayana and
answer if you have read about ‘Ho and Hinayana theme earlier asked by UPSC in:
Munda Uprisings’ in Modern Indian History. 2016 - asked if Bodhisatva concept belongs
Therefore, it is advisable to read each and to Hinayana sect
every subject with clear understanding and 2017 - checked knowledge of Sautantrika
also try to interlink the subject with the and Sammitiya being sect of Jainism
other subject. 2019 - asked if deification of Buddha was
30. (c) Sub-Theme: Buddhism done by Mahayana
Option (c) is correct: Paramitas are qualities 2020 - checked whether Staviravadins
to be perfected in order to attain a state of belongs to Mahayana Buddhism
self enlightened Universal Buddha (a samma 2020 - asked if deification of Buddha
sambuddha) a term prevalent in Eastern and by Mahasanghikas fosterd Mahayana
Buddhism.
Northern traditions.
Art and Culture 95

Pair 2 is incorrect: Dwarasamudra was the
Given the high repeating frequency of
Jainism and Buddhism, it is recommended capital of the Hoysala kingdom in the 11th
to read A L Basham’s “The wonder that was century. Today it is known as Halebidu - a
India” from page 261-294. These themes town located in Hassan district in Karnataka.
have been covered in detail over there. Pair 3 is correct: Girinagar also known
as Girnar or Revatak Parvat is a group of
32. (a) Sub-Theme: Places of historical importance
mountains in the Junagadh district of Gujarat.
Pair 1 is correct: Bhilsa is the medieval name Temples situated on Mount Girnar are sacred
of the modern day Vidisha city of Madhya to both Digambar and Swetambars branches of
Pradesh. Vidisha was also known as Besnagar Jainism.
in ancient times. This city lies east of the Betwa Pair 4 is incorrect: Thanesar ( Thaneshwar)
river and was renamed Vidisha in 1956. King is an old Hindu pilgrimage town of Haryana
Ashoka of the Mauryan dynasty served as that was famous as Sthanesvara in ancient
the Governor of Vidisha during his father’s times. Thaneshwar was ruled by the great
regime. King Harsha of the Vardhan dynasty.

z Mahayana sect of Buddhism emerged
Note: Practicing the map of Ancient India
might come handy for solving this type of during the Fourth Buddhist council held
factual question. In this way, try to practice at Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka.
the map and learn the old and new names z Worship of images of Buddha and
of every important empire, Ashokan Edicts, Bodhisattvas was a distinctive feature of
etc.
this sect.
33. (b) Sub-Theme: Keywords of Ancient India/ z A Bodhisattvas is someone who has
Buddhism compassion within himself or herself and
Pair 1 is correct: The Sanskrit word who is able to make another person smile or
Parivrajaka means renunciant & wanderer help someone suffer less. Every one of us is
in English. Ajita Keshkambalin, Makhkhali capable of this ~ Thich Nhat Hanh.
Goshala, Gauthama Buddha, and Vardhamana z They accumulated knowledge through their
Mahavira are a few well-known examples for hard work, delayed their passing to heaven,
Parivrajaka. and helped others to attain Buddhahood.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Brahmins were privileged z Deification of the Buddha, Trading the
as intermediaries between God and its path of Bodhisattvas and Image worship
followers, making them socially dominant and rituals are all features of Mahayana
groups of the society. There have been many Buddhism.
movements that tried to distance themselves 35. (b) Sub-Theme: Cultural tradition of India
from this practice and belief. Shramanas were Pair 1 is correct. Chapchar Kut is a spring
one such group. festival of Mizo people in Mizoram. It is
z Famous among them were Buddhists, Jains, celebrated in March after they complete their
lokayats, and Ajivikas. The Shramanas jhum cultivation (Jungle clearing).
included a variety of ascetics, monks and Pair 2 is correct. Khongjom Parba is a
lay followers of various sects. traditional musical art of Manipur that involves
z They renounced worldly life to search for ballad singing accompanied by the sounds of
the truth about life and the universe. The dholak or drum. It is one of the most popular
music art forms of the state and incites the
main feature of Shramana was their equal
spirit of patriotism and nationalism in the
treatment. They lived as an equal member
heart and minds of the audience.
of the order, without any caste distinctions.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Thang-Ta - is an ancient
Pair 3 is correct: Lay followers of Buddhism Manipuri Martial Art dance developed from
were known as Upsakas or Upasikas. This the war environment of Manipur & created
title is used for the followers of Buddhism who by the Meitei. Thang-Ta was also known as
were not monks, nuns and took certain vows. Huyen Lallong which means ‘The art of
NOTE: Question on similar theme came sword and the spear’.The art developed from
in 2016, where Parivrajaka and Shramana the war environment of Manipur. It played an
were given incorrect options. This question important role in the geopolitical environment
could be answered by reading the solution of medieval times in between India and China
of 2016 question. Hereby reading PYQ along with many independent states at war with each
with solutions stands important.
other.
34. (d) Sub-Theme: Buddhism/Protest Religion 36. (b) Sub-Theme: Buddhism/Jainism/Protest Religion
Option (d) is correct: All three statements Option (b) is correct: The “Sthanakvasi” sect
are features of Mahayana Buddhism. Mahayana belongs to Jainism.
Buddhism involves the deification of the Sthanakvasi:
Buddha, the path of the Bodhisattva, and the z It is a branch of Svetambara Jainism that
use of images and rituals in worship. was started in 1653 AD by a merchant
Mahayana Buddhism: named Lavaji.
Art and Culture 97

z It holds that the path to soul purification z Well-known in Gujarat and Sindh during the
and achieving Nirvana/Moksha does not Maitraka dynasty
include idol worship.
z Speaks Apabhraṃśa as their primary
z Sthanakvasi acknowledges 32 of the
language
Svetambara canonical Jain Agamas (text
detailing Mahavira’s teachings z Replaced Sarvastivadins as Sarnath’s most
illustrious institution by the 4th century CE
37. (c) Sub-Theme: Buddhism/Bodhisattva
Option (c) is correct: Maitreya is a future z Split into two sub-schools: Avantakas and
Buddha, yet to come to save the world. Kurukulas
z According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya 39. (a) Sub-Theme: Cultural Traditions of India
is a Bodhisattva who will appear on earth
Pair 1 is correct: Chalia sahib is the festival
in future, attain enlightenment and teach
pure dharma. of the Sindhis which involves devotees fasting
z He will be the future Buddha. He is also for days.
known as Ajit Bodhisattva (Amitabha Pair 2 is incorrect: The Nanda Devi Jat
sutra and Lotus sutra).[ Avalokiteshvara is celebrated every year in the Nanda Devi
(“The Lord Who Looks Down”), also called temples spread across Garhwal and Kumaon
Padmapani (“The Lotus-Bearer”) also called regions.
Lokesvara in Sanskrit (The Lord of the
Pair 3 is incorrect: Wari-Warkari is an annual
World).]
pilgrimage to Pandharpur - the seat of the god
38. (b) Sub-Theme: Buddhism
Vithoba in Maharashtra for the Warkari sect.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Sautrantika and
Sammitiya were the sects of Buddhism. NOTE: Here from our basic knowledge
we can easily infer that neither Gonds are
Statement 2 is correct. Sarvastivadin
native to Uttarakhand nor Santhals are
considers everything empirical to be native to Maharashtra. So these festivals
impermanent, they maintain that the dharma cannot be associated with these two tribes.
factors are eternally existing realities.
40. (b) Sub-Theme: Buddhism
Sarvastivadin:
z Believes in the eternal existence of dharma Statement 1 is incorrect: A Bodhisattva is
factors literally a living being(Sattva) who aspires to
z Considers empirical phenomena as illusory attain enlightenment(Bodhi). The concept of
but exist beyond the empirical world Bodhisattva is central to the Mahayana sect
z Affirms the presence of past, present, and of Buddhism.
future Statement 2 is correct: Compassion, an
z Criticized by Sautrantikas for violating the empathetic sharing of the sufferings of others,
Buddhist idea of impermanence
is Bodhisattva’s greatest characteristic.
Sautrantika:
Statement 3 is correct: Bodhisattva delays
z Descended from the Sarvastivadins
achieving his own salvation to help others on
z Relies on sutras rather than Abhidharma
the same path. It is held that the Bodhisattva
commentaries
makes four vows expressing a determination
z Adheres to extreme momentariness,
believing only the current moment exists to work for the happiness of others; “ However
z Criticizes Sarvastivadin’s belief in the innumerable sentient beings are, I vow
existence of past, present, and future to save them; however inexhaustible the
phenomena passions are, I vow to master them; However
Sammitiya and other sub-schools: limitless the teachings are, I vow to study
z Branches off from Vatsiputriya, a parent them, However infinite The Budha-truth is,
school I vow to attain it.”

z Mahattara was a non-official and possibly
NOTE: UPSC loves this theme and multiple
times asked questions from this particular a representative of the people.
theme. Therefore, for detailed explanation 44. (b) Sub-Theme: Tribal Culture
aspirants are requested to go through the
Option (b) is correct: The Gond and Korku
earlier PYQ solution
tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees
41. (b) Sub-Theme: Literary work of ancient India during a month-long festival called “Bhooma”
Option (b) is correct: The love story of the son or “Bhoomi” in India. This festival is a part of
of the founder of the Shunga dynasty is found their traditional ecological practices aimed
in the book “Malavikagnimitra”. at promoting the conservation of natural
Malavikagnimitra: resources.
z The Malavikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play by z Gond and Korku tribes of Madhya Pradesh
Kalidas. celebrate the festival of Hari Jiroti in Betul
z The play tells the love story of Agnimitra and Harda districts. It is a month-long
festival of Greenery during which tribals
the son Of Pushyamitra Shunga- the
plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees.
founder of the Shunga dynasty.
z Bhutia and Lepcha- Indigenous tribes of
z He falls in love with the picture of an exiled
Sikkim
servant girl named Malavika.
z Irula and Toda- Tribes found in Nilgiri hills
42. (d) Sub-Theme: Buddhism in Tamil Nadu
Option (d) is correct: Kosala and Magadha z Sahariya and Agariya- Mostly found in
were the two kingdoms associated with the life Madhya Pradesh.
of the Buddha.
45. (a) Sub-Theme: Basic Observation
z Buddha travelled through the kingdoms
Option (a) is correct: Chaitra, one of the
of Kosala, Magadha, Vaishali and Vajji in
national calendars based on the Saka Era,
order to preach his philosophy.
corresponds to 22nd March (or 21st March)
z Avanti had no direct connection to of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of
Buddha’s life. 365 days.
z Gandhara received Buddhist influence Saka samvat Gregorian calendar
during the time of Ashoka When the
Chaitra March 21- April 20
Mauryan empire expanded up to Gandhara.
Vaisakha April 21- May 21
z As per various Pali texts, it is known that
Jyestha May 22- June 21
Prasenjit, king of Kosala was a contemporary
of Buddha. Ashadha June 22- July 22
Shravana July 23- August 22
NOTE: Same question came in consecutive
years i.e 2014 and 2015. Here comes the Bhadra August 22- September 22
advantage of reading PYQs, bonus of 2+ Ashwin September 22- October 22
marks !! Jainism and Buddhism are all-time Kartika October 23- November 21
favourite topics of UPSC, preparing them in
Agrahayana November 22-December 21
details always reap rich dividends.
Pausha December 22- January 20
43. (b) Sub-Theme: Keywords from the Medieval India
Magha January 21- February 19
Option (b) is correct: The designations
Phalguna February 20- March 20/21
‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for
village officers in medieval India. 46. (c) Sub-Theme: Famous Shrines in India
z Mahattara and pattakila were the village Pair 1 is correct: Tabo Monastery is located
headmen. in Spiti valley, Himachal Pradesh.
z Pattalika is generally identified with the Pair 2 is incorrect: Lhotsava Lhakhang
modern Patel, believed to be the king’s temple is in Nako village in the Kinnaur
representative in the village. region of Himachal Pradesh. Zanskar
Art and Culture 99

valley is in the Kargil district of Ladakh. z He founded the philosophy of
It has been identified as one of the hundred Shuddhadvaita which believed in the
most endangered heritage sites by the World absolute union.
Monuments Fund.
z He prescribed Pushtimarg as the means for
Pair 3 is correct: Alchi temple complex is
salvation (extreme devotion to God).
situated in Alchi village of Leh district, Ladakh.
It was constructed by Guru Rinchen Zangpo 48. (b) Sub-Theme: Tribes
around the 10th century. Option (b) is correct: The community of
47. (d) Sub-Theme: Bhakti Movement people called Manganiyars is well-known for
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bijak is the their musical tradition in North-West India.
collection of ideas and teachings of Kabir. He They are a Muslim community of hereditary
was a 15th-century Indian mystic poet and musicians who live in the desert regions of
saint, whose writings influenced Hinduism Rajasthan and parts of Pakistan.
is Bhakti movement and his verses are found
Manganiyars:
in Sikhism’s scripture Guru Granth Sahib.
z Manganiyars are a Muslim community of
He was a disciple of Ramananda. He began
a strong campaign against the superficial North-West India. They, along with the
religious rituals of both Muslims and Hindus. Langham community, are known for their
Statement 2 is incorrect: Vallabhacharya’s folk music.
philosophy came to be known as Pushti Marga. z They have been professional musicians for
He was also known as ‘Achinitabhadra’. He was generations supported by wealthy landlords
the first to advocate for Krishna Bhakti using of the area.
the Maha Bhagavata Purana as a foundation.
z Pietra Dura is the art of carving the stone
Kabir:
from a general point of view. This is an Inlay
z He was a 15th-century Indian mystic
poet and saint, whose writings influenced technique. The words “Pietra dura” come
Hinduism’s Bhakti movement and his verses from Italian, it means “hard stone”, but also
are found in Sikhism’s scripture Guru Granth “semi-precious stone”.
Sahib. 49. (c) Sub-Theme: Indian Languages
z He was a disciple of Ramananda. He began
Option (c) is correct: Both Kannada and
a strong campaign against the superficial
Telugu have been declared as ‘Classical
religious rituals of both Muslims and Hindus.
Language/Languages’ by the Government.
z According to Kabir, the individual who is
z Gujarati has not been declared as a classical
following the path of righteousness, sees
language by the government of India.
all living things as his own, and is passively
detached from worldly affairs is the one z There are six classical languages in our
who is closest to the truth. country- Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit
z Through the Kabir Panth (“Path of Kabir”), (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008),
a religious group that claims him as its Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014).
founder and is one of the Sant Mat sects, z All the classical languages are listed in the
Kabir’s legacy continues on and is preserved 8th schedule of our constitution.
by them.
50. (c) Sub-Theme: Indian School of Philosophy
z He wrote- Sabad, Bijak, Doha, Holi, and
Rekhtal. He propagated Ram Bhakti. Option (c) is correct: Lokayata and Kapalika
Vallabhacharya: are not part of these six systems. Lokayata
z He was also known as ‘Achinitabhadra’. refers to the materialist school of thought
z He was the first to advocate for Krishna that originated in ancient India, while Kapalika
Bhakti using the Maha Bhagavata Purana is a tantric sect that emerged in the medieval
as a foundation. period.

School of Philosophy Founder Central Theme
Nothing is acceptable unless it is in accordance

Nyaya Gautama Rishi with reason and experience. Nyaya is considered a
technique of logical thinking.
It is a form of atomism in natural philosophy. believes

Vaisheshika Kannada Rishi in the complete authority of Vedas.
Everything, in reality, stems from Purusha (self, soul

Samkhya Acharya Kapila or mind) and Prakriti (matter, creative agency, energy)
Yogic techniques control body, mind & sense organs,

Yoga Rishi Patanjali thus considered as a means of achieving freedom or
mukti.
Purva Mimansha Rishi Jamini Emphasis on the power of yajnas and mantras.
Vyasa Advaita by Shankara Monistic school of philosophy that believes the world
Vishishtadvaita by Ramanuja is unreal and the only reality is Brahman
Vedanta Dvaita by Madhvacharya
(Uttara Mimansa) Dvaitadvaita by nimbarka
Shuddhadvaita by
Vallabhacharya
51. (d) Sub-Theme: Indian School of Philosophy 52. (b) Sub-Theme: Bhakti Movement
Option (d) is correct: Satyameva Jayate Option (b) is correct: Guru Nanak was
means “Truth alone Triumphs”. It is taken preaching during the time when the Lodi
from Mundaka Upanishad. Mundaka Upanishad dynasty fell and Babur took over. Tyagaraja, on
is listed as no. 5 in the list of 108 Upanishads the other hand, lived in the 18th-19th century,
of Hinduism. much later than the fall of the Lodi dynasty.
z Satyameva Jayate means “Truth alone z Guru Nanak was born in 1469. Babur
Triumphs”. It is taken from Mundaka defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the First battle
Upanishad. Mundaka Upanishad is listed of Panipat in 1526.
as no. 5 in the list of 108 Upanishads of
z So when Babur was strengthening the
Hinduism.
Mughal dynasty in India Guru Nanak was
z The Mundaka Upanishad is a collection preaching Sikhism in India.
of philosophical poems used to teach
z Tyagaraja, a Carnatic music composer was
meditation and spiritual knowledge
born in 1767.
regarding the true nature of Brahma and
the Self (Atman). z Daddu Dayal was a poet-saint of Gujrat
born in 1544.
z It is composed of the three main parts
(Mundaka): Guru Nanak:
1. The first part expounds on the science z Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi near
of higher and lower knowledge. Lahore.
2. The second part describes the true z Sikhs commemorate Guru Nanak’s birth
nature of the Self (Atman) and Brahman. anniversary with Guru Nanak Gurpurab.
3. The third part further builds on the z He went on spiritual trips through India,
previous two parts and attempts to Tibet, and Arabia for nearly 30 years.
describe the state of knowing Brahman, z Guru Nanak spent his final years in Kartarpur,
which is one of bliss and fearlessness. Punjab, where he taught his pupils.
Art and Culture 101

z He preached the idea of one God and direct z Viharas were dwelling places used by
access to God without the aid of priests or wandering monks during the rainy season
ceremonies. but eventually, they evolved into centres
z Guru Nanak condemned the caste system of learning and Buddhist architecture
and advocated for equality for all people, through the donations of wealthy lay
regardless of gender or caste. Buddhists.
z He introduced the concept of “Vahiguru,” Note: Careful reading about similarities and
a formless, timeless, omnipresent, and differences among Mahayana and Hinayana,
invisible being. Jainism and Buddhism is advisable. This
question was a direct hit from Fine Art
z The Sikhs’ most sacred book, Guru Granth NCERT.
Sahib, comprises 974 of Guru Nanak’s
55. (a) Sub-Theme: Buddhism
poetic hymns.
Option (a) is correct: Buddhism defines
Daddu Dayal:
Nirvana as being free from desire, pain,
z He was born into Ahmedabad’s weaving
pleasure etc. It is like the extinction of flame
community.
z Buddhism defines Nirvana as being free
z He preached Nirgunabhakthi from desire, pain, pleasure etc. It is like the
z His instructions were collected into a book extinction of flame.
called “Dadu Dayaram ki Bani.” z In Buddhist traditions, nirvana is often
53. (b) Sub-Theme: Indian School of Philosophy described as the extinction of three
Statement 1 is incorrect. Samkhya fires- greed(raga), aversion(dwesha) and
philosophy believes in the theory of rebirth. ignorance(moksha). When these flames are
Samkhya is an Orthodox Indian philosophical extinguished, the cycle of rebirth is skipped.
system. Orthodox Indian philosophical system 56. (d) Sub-Theme: Jainism
believes in soul and karma theory. For Karma Option (d) is correct: Jainism advocates
theory to hold, the soul has to undergo the practice of penance as the surest way of
rebirth or transmigration. Therefore, without annihilating Karma. According to Jainism,
liberation, no soul can be free from the cycle of every object, including the smallest particle,
rebirth or transmigration. has a soul. Karma is considered the bane of the
Statement 2 is correct. Samkhya Philosophy soul and must be ended to achieve liberation.
is dualistic and not monistic because it has z As per Jain doctrine, the surest way of
two entities, Purush (spirit) and Prakriti annihilating Karma is to practise penance.
(nature). Samkhya emphasises the attainment Every thing has a soul, even the smallest
of knowledge of the self by means of particle.
concentration and meditation. It believes z Karma is the bane of the soul and must be
that after you have ‘died’ in this life you will go ended.
through a process of rebirth where depending z Three Jewels of Jainism are Right Faith,
on your actions in your former life your status right knowledge and Right Action.
will be decided. z Five doctrines of Jainism are -
54. (b) Sub-Theme: Basic Understanding of Buddhism 1. Ahimsa: Non-injury to all living beings;
Option (b) is correct: Chaitya is a place of 2. Satya: Do not speak a lie;
worship, while Viharas is the dwelling place
3. Asteya: Do not steal;
of the monks.
4. Aparigraha: Do not acquire property;
z Chaitya is a place of worship, while Viharas
5. Brahmacharya: Observe continence.
is the dwelling place of the monks.Chaitya
was a rectangular prayer room with a stupa 57. (b) Sub-Theme: Buddhism/Jainism
in the middle, where people might offer Statement 1 is incorrect. Buddhism professed
prayers. a middle path, and avoidance of extremities

of penance and enjoyment whereas Jainism z The second Dhyani Buddha Akshobhya is
advocated extreme penance and asceticism. depicted in this mudra.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Buddhism z He is believed to transform the delusion
and Jainism rejected the idea of grand of anger into mirror-like wisdom.
rituals along with the authority of Vedas and 60. (b) Sub-Theme: Jain and Buddhist Literature/Text
Priests. They both believe in the concept of
z Buddhist Literature/Texts: The earliest
reincarnation. Buddhist works were written in Pali,
58. (a) Sub-Theme: Jainism which was spoken in Magadha and South
Option (a) is correct: Jain philosophy holds Bihar. The Buddhist works can be divided
that the world is created and maintained by into the canonical and non-canonical texts.
Universal laws. Canonical texts are believed to be the
z Jain philosophy holds that the world is actual words of the Buddha. Canonical
created and maintained by Universal laws. texts are books which lay down the basic
Jainism does not support belief in the tenets and principles of Buddhism such as
creator deity. According to Jain doctrine, the the Tripitakas. Non-canonical texts or
universe and its constituents (soul, matter, semi-canonical texts are commentaries
and observations on canonical texts,
space, time and motion) have always existed.
quotes, definitions, historical information,
All the constituents and actions have always
grammars and other writings in Pali,
existed.
Tibetian, Chinese and other East Asian
59. (b) Sub-Theme: Buddhism languages.
Option (a) is correct: The “Bhumisparsha z Jain Literature/Text: The sacred books
mudra” hand gesture shown in Lord Buddha’s of the Jainas are collectively known as the
image symbolises his calling of the Earth to Siddhanta or Agama. Both the Shvetambara
witness his purity and chastity despite the and Digambara schools accept and give
temptations of Mara. prime importance to the Angas. Agamas is
Bhumisparsha Mudra: a term used for Jaina canonical literature. It
z Bhumisparsha means ‘touching the earth’ includes: 14 Purvas; 12 Angas; 12 Upangas;
in Sanskrit. 10 Prakirnas; 6 Cheda Sutras; 4 Mala Sutras;
z It is more commonly known as the ‘earth Niryuktis; Kalpasutra; Acharang Sutras;
Nandi Sutra; Anuyogadvara.
witness’ mudra.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Netti Pakarana
z This mudra, formed with all five fingers of
is a Buddhist scripture containing methods
the right hand extended to touch the ground,
that were taught by the Buddha’s disciple
symbolises the Buddha’s enlightenment
Kaccana as approved by the Buddha and that it
under the bodhi tree, when he summoned
was recited at the First Buddhist Council.
the earth goddess, Sthavara, to bear witness
Statement 2 is correct: The Parishishta
to his attainment of enlightenment. Parvan (12th century) by Hemachandra
z The right hand, placed upon the right gives a history of the earliest Jaina teachers
knee in earth-pressing mudra, and and also mentions certain details of political
complemented by the left hand-which is history.
held flat in the lap in the dhyana mudra of Statement 3 is incorrect: Avadana literature
meditation, symbolises the union of method (Avadana means ‘Legends’) is a type of
and wisdom, samsara and nirvana, and also Buddhist literature correlating past lives’
the realisations of the conventional and virtuous deeds to subsequent lives’ events.
ultimate truths. Statement 4 is correct: Trishashthilkshana
z It is in this posture that Shakyamuni Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed
overcomes the obstructions of Mara while largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of
Rashtrakutas.
meditating on Truth.
Art and Culture 103

61. (c) Sub-Theme: Scholars and Thinkers of Ancient Pair 2 is correct: Dignāga, Buddhist logician
India and author of the Pramāṇasamuccaya
Pair 1 is incorrect: Ā� ryadeva was a Mahayana (“Compendium of the Means of True
Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a Knowledge”), a work that laid the foundations
Madhyamaka philosopher. After Nagarjuna, of Buddhist logic. Dignāga gave a new definition
he is considered to be the next most important of “perception”: knowledge that is free from all
figure of the Indian Madhyamaka school. His conceptual constructions, including name and
writings are important sources of Madhyamaka class concepts. Dignāga’s tradition was further
in both East Asian Buddhism and in Tibetan developed in the 7th century by Dharmakī�rti.
Buddhism. Ā� ryadeva is also known as Pair 3 correct: Sri Ranganathamuni,
Kanadeva, recognized as the 15th patriarch in popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni (823
Chan Buddhism and some Sinhalese sources CE–951 CE), was a Vaishnava theologian
also mention an elder (thera) called Deva which who collected and compiled the Nalayira
may also be the same person. He is known for Divya Prabandham. Considered the first of
his association with the Nalanda monastery in Sri Vaishnava āchāryās, Nathamuni is also the
modern-day Bihar, India. author of Yogarahasya, and Nyāyatattva.
v v v

Section D
4 Polity

Polity : PYQs Analysis
25
20 22
18
15 17 17
15
Polity
13 12
10 11 11
10 10
5
5
0
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
Polity: Topic Wise Pyqs Analysis

Sr. No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
1 Historical Background 1 1 2
2 Basic Concepts 3 2 1 6
Salient Features of The
3 1 1 1 2 4 1 1 1 12
Constitution
4 Preamble 1 1 1 1 2 1 7
5 Citizenship 1 1
6 Fundamental Rights 1 2 2 1 2 4 1 13
7 DPSP 1 4 2 2 1 1 2 13
8 Fundamental Duties 1 1 1 2 5
9 Constitutional Amendment 1 2 1 4
10 Emergency Provisions 1 1 2
Funds With Government of
11 2 2
India
107
12 Systems of Government 2 2 1 1 1 7
13 President 1 1 1 1 4
14 Vice-President 1 1
15 Prime Minister 1 1
16 Parliament 3 1 5 2 3 4 2 2 3 4 7 2 38
17 Supreme Court 2 1 2 1 2 2 10
18 Judicial Review 1 1
19 Subordinate Court 1 1
20 State Legislature 1 1 2
21 Governor 1 1 1 1 1 5
22 Centre-State Relations 1 1 2
Local Government:
23 Panchayats And 1 2 1 2 1 2 9
Municipalities
24 Anti Defection Law 1 1
25 Constitutional Bodies 1 1 1 1 2 1 7
26 Non-Constitutional Bodies 1 3 4
27 Governance 1 1
Total 11 15 17 13 10 22 5 11 12 17 18 10 161
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND BASIC CONCEPTS

1. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of 3. In the context of any country, which one of the
Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” following would be considered as part of its social
and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following capital?(2019)
were treated as “Reserved” subjects? (2022) (a) The proportion of literates in the population
1. Administration of Justice (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure
2. Local Self-Government and machines
3. Land Revenue (c) The size of population in the working age group
4. Police (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the
society
below: 4. One common agreement between Gandhism and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Marxism is (2020)
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) the final goal of a stateless society
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) class struggle
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism
2. The distribution of powers between the Centre and
the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the 5. In the context of India, which one of the following
scheme provided in the: (2012) is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
(2020)
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
democracy
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 federalism

(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the
economic growth Parliament.
(d) An Agency for the implementation of public policy 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence
in the Parliament.
6. Which one of the following best defines the term
‘State?(2021) 3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
definite territory independent of external control
and possessing an organised government
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) A politically organised people of a definite
territory and possessing an authority to govern 11. Which one of the following Schedules of the
them, maintain law and order, protect their Constitution of India contains provisions regarding
natural rights and safeguard their means of anti-defection?(2014)
sustenance (a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a (c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
definite territory for a very long time with their 12. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth
own culture, tradition and government Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory order to: (2015)
with a central authority, an executive responsible (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
to the central authority and an independent (b) determine the boundaries between States
judiciary (c) d e t e r m i n e t h e p o w e r s , a u t h o r i t y a n d
7. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best responsibilities of Panchayats
safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021) (d) protect the interests of all the border States
(a) A committed judiciary 13. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)
(b) Centralization of powers (a) Fundamental Right
(c) Elected government (b) Natural Right
(d) Separation of powers (c) Constitutional Right
8. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (d) Legal Right
(2021) 14. Out of the following statements, choose the one that
(a) Legal right available to citizens only brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form
(b) Legal right available to any person of Government: (2017)
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only (a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against
the Government whose responsibilities are
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction
of all.
SALIENT FEATURES OF THE (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the
CONSTITUTION Government whose responsibilities are increasing
day by day.
9. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy
of the Constitution of India, which one of the following
for ensuring collective responsibility of the
statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Government to the people.
(2022)
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal of the Government whose hold over the people is
people to non-tribal people. in a state of decline.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in
15. Which one of the following is not a feature to Indian
that area.
federalism?(2017)
(c) This would convert that area into the Union
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
Territory.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Centre and the States.
Special Category State.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal
10. In the context of India, which of the following representation in the Rajya Sabha.
principles is/are, implied institutionally in the (d) It is the result of an agreement among the
parliamentary government? (2013) federating units.
Polity 109
16. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of 22. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied
governments is that: (2017) in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017)
(a) the executive and legislature work independently. (a) Liberty of thought (b) Economic liberty
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more (c) Liberty of expression (d) Liberty of belief
efficient. 23. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India
(c) the executive remains responsible to the is reflected in which of the following? (2017)
legislature. (a) The Preamble
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed (b) The Fundamental Rights
without election. (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
17. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India (d) The Fundamental Duties
can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for
24. Which one of the following reflects the most
mining be declared null and void? (2019)
appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule (2018)
(c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule (a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
18. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
of India during the prime ministership of: (2019) (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru people.
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
(c) Indira Gandhi 25. In the context of polity, which one of the following
(d) Morarji Desai would you accept as the most appropriate definition
of liberty? (2019)
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
1. The Constitution of India defines its structure
in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental (b) Absence of restraint
rights and democracy. (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to 26. The Preamble to the Constitution of India, is: (2020)
preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is (a) part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
based.
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? effect either
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 effect as any other part
20. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
essential feature that indicates that it is federal in independently of other parts
character?(2021) 27. What was the exact constitutional status of India on
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded. 26th January, 1950? (2021)
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives (a) A democratic Republic
from constituent units. (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
from regional parties. (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts
of Law. CITIZENSHIP
PREAMBLE 28. With reference to India, consider the following
statements:(2021)
21. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
Indian Constitutional has been provided in: (2013)
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights State.
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be
Policy deprived of it under any circumstances.
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and the Directive Principles of State Policy (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) None of the above (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

33. One of the implications of equality in society is the
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS absence of: (2017)
29. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in (a) Privileges (b) Restraints
India, consider the following statements: (2022) (c) Competition (d) Ideology
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private 34. Which one of the following statements is correct?
organisation unless it is entrusted with a public (2017)
duty.
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in
though it may be a Government Company.
the Constitution of a State.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo
Warranto. (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the
Which of the statements given above are correct? many.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 35. Consider the following statements: (2018)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law
30. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
status of a national minority, what special advantages 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth
is it entitled to? (2011) Schedule cannot be examined by any court and
1. It can establish and administer exclusive no judgement can be made on it.
educational institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The President of India automatically nominates (a) 1 only
a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. (b) 2 only
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s (c) Both 1 and 2
15-Point Programme. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 36. Which of the following are regarded as the main
(a) 1 only features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018)
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Limitation of Powers
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Equality before law
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
31. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right 4. Liberty and civil rights
against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
(2017)
below:
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
labour
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities 37. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part
of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories
following in the Constitution of India correctly and
and mines
appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)
below: (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Amendment to the Constitution
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State
Policy in Part IV
32. In the context of India, which one of the following is
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in
the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(2017) Part III
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties. (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th
Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of
society and Duties. 38. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
advancement of the personality of the citizen. (2019)
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21
of the State. (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29
Polity 111
39. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Select the correct answer using the codes given
Rights incorporate protection against untouchability below:
as a form of discrimination? (2020) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Right against Exploitation (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) Right to Freedom 45. According to the Constitution of India, which of the
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies following are fundamental for the governance of the
(d) Right to Equality country?(2013)
40. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the (a) Fundamental Rights
following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/ (b) Fundamental Duties
reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
1. Preamble
46. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international
2. Directive Principles of State Policy peace and security is included in the (2014)
3. Fundamental Duties (a) Preamble to the constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Fundamental Duties
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Ninth Schedule
41. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of 47. Consider the following statements regarding the
the Constitution of India? (2021) Directive Principles of State Policy: (2015)
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 19 1. The principles spell out of the socio-economic
democracy in the country.
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 29
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are
42. A legislation which confers on the executive not enforceable by any court.
or administrative authority an unguided and
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of
application of law violates one of the following Articles
of the Constitution of India? (2021) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 28 48. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 44 is enshrined in its (2015)
(a) Preamble
DPSP (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
43. Consider the following provisions under the Directive
Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the (d) Seventh Schedule
Constitution of India: (2012) 49. Which principle among the following was added to
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code. the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd
2. Organizing village Panchayats. Amendment to the Constitution? (2017)
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas. (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure (b) Participation of workers in the management of
and cultural opportunities. industries
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles (c) Right to work, education and public assistance
that are reflected in the Directive Principles of (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of
State Policy? work to workers
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only 50. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 With reference to the Constitution of India, the
44. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
of India have a bearing on Education? (2012) limitations upon (2017)
1. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. legislative function.
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 2. executive function.
3. Fifth Schedule Which of the above statements is/are correct?
4. Sixth Schedule (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
5. Seventh Schedule (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the 57. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental
ideal of a Welfare State? (2020) Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy (2012)
(b) Fundamental Rights 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite
(c) Preamble culture.
(d) Seventh Schedule 2. To protect the weaker sections from social
injustice.
52. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of
of the Constitution of India, which of the following inquiry.
statements is/are correct? (2020)
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of
1. They shall be enforceable by courts. individual and collective activity.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. The principles laid down in this part are to below:
influence the making of laws by the State. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below:
58. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and
(a) 1only (b) 2 only
Integrity of India” is a provision made in the: (2015)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
53. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
is enjoined by [2020]
(c) Fundamental Rights
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(d) Fundamental Duties
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
59. Which of the following statements is/are true of the
(c) the Seventh Schedule
Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? (2017)
(d) the conventional practice
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce
54. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal these duties.
services to which of the following types of citizens? 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
(2020) Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. below:
1,00,000. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rs. 2,00,000.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS
an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000.
4. All Senior Citizens 60. Consider the following statements: (2022)
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior
below: recommendation of the President of India.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only to the President of India, it is obligatory for the
President of India to give his/her assent.
55. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of
wealth violates (2021) 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed
by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a
(a) the Right to Equality special majority and there is no provision for joint
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy sitting.
(c) the Right to Freedom Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) the Concept of Welfare (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES 61. Consider the following statements: (2013)
56. Under the constitution of India, which one of the 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can
following is not a fundamental duty? (2011) be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok
Sabha only.
(a) To vote in public elections
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes
(b) To develop the scientific temper
in the federal character of the Constitution, the
(c) To safeguard public property amendment also requires to be ratified by the
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals legislature of all the States of India.
Polity 113
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 67. All revenues received by the Union Government by
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Government business are credited to the: (2011)
62. Consider the following statements: (2019) (a) Contingency Fund of India
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India (b) Public Account
introduced an article placing the election of the (c) Consolidated Fund of India
Prime Minister beyond judicial review. (d) Deposits and Advances Fund
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th
Amendment to the Constitution of India as being SYSTEMS OF GOVERNMENT
violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 68. Consider the following statements: (2014)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A Constitutional Government is one which:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty
63. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider in the interest of State Authority.
the following statements: (2019) 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to the State in the interest of individual liberty.
declare any central law to be constitutionally Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
invalid. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
be called into question by the Supreme Court of
India. 69. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? India because the (2015)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok
Sabha
64. Which of the following are not necessarily the
consequences of the proclamation of the President’s 70. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it
rule in a State? (2017) calls into activity (2017)
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State and women.
3. Dissolution of the local bodies (b) the methods for strengthening executive
Select the correct answer using the code given leadership.
below: (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) a band of dedicated party workers.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 71. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in
65. If the President of India exercises his power as which:(2020)
provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of a (a) all political parties in the Parliament are
particular State, then (2018) represented in the Government
(a) The Assembly of the State is automatically (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament
dissolved.
and can be removed by it
(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can
be exercisable by or under the authority of the
Parliament. be removed by them
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. (d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but
cannot be removed by it before completion of a
(d) The President can make laws relating to that State.
fixed term
66. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from
the Consolidated Fund of India must come from: 72. A constitutional government by definition is a
(2011) (2020)
(a) The President of India (a) government by legislature
(b) The Parliament of India (b) popular government
(c) The Prime Minister of India (c) multi-party government
(d) The Union Finance Minister (d) limited government

73. Constitutional government means: (2021) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a representative government of a nation with (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
federal structure (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers 78. With reference to the election of the President of
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers India, consider the following statements: (2018)
(d) a government limited by the terms of the 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from
Constitution State to State.
74. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is
British model, but how does our model differ from more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya
that model? (2021) Sabha.
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the Parliament to legislate is limited. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality
of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are VICE-PRESIDENT
referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme
Court. 79. Consider the following statements: (2013)
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the
below. Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the Parliament have no voting right in the
presidential election, they have the right to vote
in the election of the Vice President.
PRESIDENT
75. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of the President of India to cause to be laid before (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Parliament which of the following? (2012)
1. The Recommendation of the Union Finance PRIME MINISTER
Commission.
80. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
appointment: (2012)
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the
General.
Houses of the Parliament but must become a
4. The Report of the National Commission for member of one of the Houses within six months
Scheduled Castes.
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given Houses of the Parliament but must become a
below: member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Parliament
76. Consider the following statements: (2014) (d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha
1. The President shall make rules for the more
convenient transaction of the business of the PARLIAMENT
Government of India, and for the allocation among
Ministers of the said business. 81. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,
2. All executive actions of the Government of India consider the following statements: (2022)
shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
Prime Minister. Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy
Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker
may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of
a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall
77. Consider the following statements: (2015) be from either the principal opposition party or
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is the ruling party.
vested in the Prime Minister. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of
2. The Prime Minister is the ex Officio Chairman of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the
the Civil Services Board. House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
Polity 115
4. The well-established parliamentary practice 86. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker,
regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is consider the following statements: (2012)
that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duty 1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the
seconded by the Prime Minister. President.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. He/she need not be a member of the House at
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 the time of his/her election but has to become a
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only member of the House within six months from the
82. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) date of his/her election.
of Lok Sabha? (2022) 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy
Speaker.
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the
Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. To impeach the President of India (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
below: 87. Which of the following special powers have been
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only India?(2012)
83. Consider the following statements: (2022) (a) To change the existing territory of a State and to
change the name of a State.
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers
into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament
State with Independent Charge, Minister of State to make laws in the State List and to create one
and Deputy Minister. or more All India Services.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union (c) To amend the election procedure of the President
Government, including the Prime Minister, shall and to determine the pension of the President
not exceed 15 percent of the total number of after his/her retirement.
members in the Lok Sabha. (d) To determine the functions of the Election
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Commission and determine the number of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Election Commissioners.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 88. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during
84. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an
the passage of (2012)
adjournment motion is [2012]
1. Ordinary Legislation
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent
public importance. 2. Money Bill
(b) to let opposition members, collect information 3. Constitution Amendment Bill
from the ministers. Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amounts in below:
demand for grants. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part 89. Which reference to the Delimitation Commission,
of some members. consider the following statements: (2012)
85. Consider the following statements: (2012) 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya be challenged in a Court of Law.
Sabha. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative
Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes. Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in
3. According to the Constitution of India, the the orders.
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Rajya Sabha only. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these (d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the
Lok Sabha: (2011) President about the proposals for legislation.
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
suggestions (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
95. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of
amended by the Rajya Sabha? (2013)
Council of Ministers
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill,
91. What is the difference between “vote-on-account”
accepting or not accepting the recommendations
and “interim budget”? (2011)
of the Rajya Sabha
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a
regular Government, while an “interim budget” (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
is a provision used by a caretaker Government. (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the Sabha for reconsideration
expenditure in the Government’s budget, while (d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing
an “interim budget” includes both expenditure the Bill
and receipts.
96. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any
part of India for implementing international treaties:
(2013)
(a) with the consent of all the States
92. Which of the following are the methods of
Parliamentary control over public finance in India? (b) with the consent of the majority of States
(2012) (c) with the consent of the States concerned
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the (d) without the consent of any State
Parliament. 97. Consider the following statements regarding a No-
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of Confidence Motion in India: (2014)
India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on
in the Constitution of India.
accounts.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of 2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in
programme macroeconomic forecasts and the Lok Sabha only.
expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
below: 98. Which one of the following is the largest Committee
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
of the Parliament? (2014)
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The committee on Estimates
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok
Sabha. (d) The committee on Petitions
2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts 99. Which of the following is/are the function/functions
of the Government. of the Cabinet Secretariat? (2014)
3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
Auditor General of India.
2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be
collectively responsible to the Parliament. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during (c) 1 and 2 only
the pleasure of the President of India. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Polity 117
100. Consider the following statements: (2015) 105. Consider the following statements: (2017)
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly,
to amend a Money Bill. the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
Grants. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the
Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual
post goes to the majority party and the Deputy
Financial Statement.
Speaker’s to the Opposition.
101. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the 106. The Parliament of India exercises control over the
Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by functions of the Council of Ministers through (2017)
(2015) 1. Adjournment motion
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting 2. Questions hour
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and 3. Supplementary questions
voting Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses below:
(d) absolute majority of the Houses (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
102. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate
on any item in the State List in the national interest 107. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider
if a resolution to that effect is passed by the: (2016) the following statements: (2017)
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a
membership Member of Parliament who is not elected but only
nominated by the President of India.
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed
of its total membership
in the Parliament of India for the first time in its
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total history.
membership Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two- (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
thirds of its members present and voting (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
103. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 108. Consider the following statements: (2018)
(2016) 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its the opposition was the Swatantra Party
prorogation. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not recognised for the first time in 1969.
been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a
dissolution of the Lok Sabha. minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be
Select the correct answer using the code given recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
below. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 109. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinise
and report to the House whether the powers to make
104. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred
can be filed by: (2017) by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament
(a) anyone residing in India. are being properly exercised by the Executive within
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the the scope of such delegation? (2018)
election is to be contested. (a) Committee on Government Assurances
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
electoral roll of a constituency. (c) Rules Committee
(d) any citizen of India. (d) Business Advisory Committee

110. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following 114. Consider the following statements: (2020)
statements is not correct? (2018) 1. The President of India can summon a session of
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks it.
contains only provisions relating to imposition, 2. The Constitution of India provides for three
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not
any tax. mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the 3. There is no minimum number of days that the
Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of
115. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee
(2020)
by the Government of India.
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
111. Consider the following statements: (2019) (b) amending the Constitution
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) (c) the removal of the government
A c t , 1 9 5 9 exe m p t s s eve ra l p o s t s f ro m
(d) making cut motions
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five 116. Along with the Budget, the finance minister also
times. places other documents before the Parliament which
include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement”.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the
The aforesaid document is presented because this is
Constitution of India.
mandated by: (2020)
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of India
112. In India, which of the following review the independent (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
regulators in sectors like telecommunications,
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
insurance, electricity, etc.? (2019)
Management Act, 2003
1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing
Committee 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates
from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from
3. Finance Commission
three constituencies.
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal
5. NITI Aayog contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in
below. one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2 and 5 to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the
113. Consider the following statements: (2020) event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
1. According to the Constitution of India a person Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
who is eligible to vote can be made a minister (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
in a State for six months even if he/she is not a (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
member of the Legislature of that State 118. With reference to the funds under Members
2. According to the Representation of People Act, of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence (MPLADS), which of the following statements are
and sentenced to imprisonment for five years correct?(2020)
is permanently disqualified from contesting an 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable sets
election even after his release from prison like physical infrastructure for health, education,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? etc.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 SC/ST populations.
Polity 119
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and 122. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the disputes between the Centre and the States falls under
next year. its:(2014)
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% (a) advisory jurisdiction
of all work under implementation every year. (b) appellate jurisdiction
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) original jurisdiction
below: (d) writ jurisdiction
123. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only the Supreme Court of India? (2012)
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the
SUPREME COURT President of India has to consult the Chief Justice
119. Consider the following statements: (2022) of India.
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the
the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. Chief Justice of India only.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on
Court and the High Court to punish for contempt the Consolidated Fund of India to which the
of themselves. legislature does not have to vote.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt 4. All appointments of officers and staff of the
and Criminal Contempt. Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief Justice
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers
of India.
to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the above statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only 124. The power to increase the number of judges in the
Supreme Court of India is vested in (2014)
120. With reference to India, consider the following
(a) The President of India
statements:(2022)
(b) the Parliament
1. Government law officers and legal firms
are recognised as advocates, but corporate (c) The Chief Justice of India
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from (d) the Law Commission
recognition as advocates. 125. Consider the following statements: (2019)
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme
relating to legal education and recognition of law Court of Indian cannot be rejected by the Speaker
colleges. of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1968.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved
misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court
121. Which of the following are included in the original
of India.
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (2012)
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the
1. A dispute between the Government of India and
Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in
one or more States.
the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is
the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.
taken up for voting, the law requires the motion
3. A dispute between the Government of India and to be backed by each House of the Parliament and
a Union Territory. supported by a majority of total membership of
4. A dispute between two or more States. that House and by not less than two-thirds of total
Select the correct answer using the codes given members of that House present and voting.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4

126. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibition SUBORDINATE COURT
or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary
laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on 130. With reference to National Legal Services Authority
the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could consider the following statements: (2013)
mean which one of the following. (2019) 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal
services to the weaker section of the society on
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission
the basis of equal opportunity.
of India while discharging its duties cannot be
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services
challenged in any court of law.
Authorities to implement the legal programmes
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in and schemes throughout the country.
the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Parliament. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor
country, the President of India can declare a
Financial Emergency without the counsel from STATE LEGISLATURE
the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain
matters without the concurrence of the Union 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be
larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly
Legislature.
of that particular State.
127. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman
following statements: (2021) of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
permission of the President of India. 132. Consider the following statements: (2018)
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall
own judgement as the Supreme Court does. vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? member of the assembly.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
128. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the
(a) 1 only
Constitution of India? (2015)
(b) 2 only
(a) The President of India
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(d) Neither 1 nor
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of Indi GOVERNOR
JUDICIAL REVIEW 133. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(2013)
129. In India, Judicial Review implies: (2017) (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the Governor for two or more States at the same time.
constitutionality of laws and executive orders. (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India
are appointed by the Governor of the State just as
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom
the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by
of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
the President.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the (c) No procedure has been laid down in the
legislative enactments before they are assented Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor
to by the President. from his/her post.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative
judgements given earlier in similar or different setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt.
cases Governor on the basis of majority support.
Polity 121
134. Which of the following are the discretionary powers 139. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste
given to the Governor of a State? (2014) is a (2014)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for (a) Tax imposed by the Central Government
imposing the President’s rule (b) Tax imposed by the central Government but
2. Appointing the Ministers collected by the State Government.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State (c) Tax imposed by the State Government but
Legislature for consideration of the President of collected by the Central Government.
India (d) Tax imposed and collected by the State Government.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the
State Government LOCAL GOVERNMENT: PANCHAYATS AND
Select the correct answer using the code given MUNICIPALITIES
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 140. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act,
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj
Institutions in the country, provides for which of the
135. Consider the following statements: (2016) following?(2011)
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
Governor of that State. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure. panchayat elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Establishment of state Finance Commissions.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
136. Consider the following statements: (2018) (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted
against the Governor of a State in any court during 141. Consider the following statements: (2011)
his term of office. In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor 1. Is constituted under the provisions of the
of a State shall not be diminished during his term constitution of India.
of office. 2. Prepares the draft development plans for the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? metropolitan area.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Government sponsored schemes in t he
metropolitan area.
137. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
in India, consider the following statements: (2019) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
1. The Governor makes a customary address to (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Members of the House at the commencement of
the first session of the year. 142. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension
to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on power of Gram Sabha? (2012)
a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule
on that matter. 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation
of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest
produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for
granting prospecting licence or mining lease for
CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
138. Which one of the following suggested that the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Governor should be an eminent person from outside
the State and should be a detached figure without (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
intense political links or should not have taken part 143. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to
in politics in the recent past? (2019) Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) the following is not identified as its objective? (2013)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969) (a) To provided self-governance
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) (b) To recognize traditional rights
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
the Constitution (2000) (d) To free tribal people from exploitation

144. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional 2. The law does not provide any timeframe within
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, which the presiding officer has to decide a
2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process defection case.
for determining the nature and extent of individual Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
or community forest rights or both? (2013) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) State Forest Department (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha 150. Consider the following statements: (2022)
145. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of
is to ensure which among the following? (2015) India are the only officers of the Government who
1. People’s participation in development are allowed to participate in the meetings of the
2. Political accountability Parliament of India.
3. Democratic decentralisation 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
4. Financial mobilisation Attorney General of India submits his resignation
when the Government which appointed him
resigns.
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to 151. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable
be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature Finance Commission? (2012)
dissolution continues only for the remainder 1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a
period. compensation package linked to adherence to the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? proposed design.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ten years in consonance with India’s demographic
147. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of dividend.
the following statements is/are correct? (2016) 3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only local bodies as grants.
civil cases and not criminal cases. Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/ below:
re-conciliators. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below. 152. With reference to the Finance Commission of India,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only which of the following statements is correct?(2011)
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for
148. Local self-government can be best explained as an infrastructure development
exercise in (2017) (b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances
(a) Federalism among the Public Sector Undertakings
(b) Democratic decentralisation (c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(c) Administrative delegation (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
(d) Direct democracy is correct in this context
153. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are
ANTI DEFECTION LAW used efficiently and for the intended purposes, what
149. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and
the following statements: (2022) Auditor General (CAG)? (2012)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the
cannot join any political party within six months Parliament when the President of India declares
of being appointed to the House. a national emergency/financial emergency.
Polity 123
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or preparation of plans for economic development
programmes by the ministries are discussed by and social justice.
the Public Accounts Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
investigating agencies to press charges against (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
those who have violated the law while managing
public finances. 158. Who among the following constitute the National
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of Development Council? (2013)
government companies, CAG has certain judicial 1. The Prime Minister
powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only 4. Chief Ministers of the States
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes given
154. Consider the following statements: (2013) below.
Attorney General of India can- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 159. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find
3. speak in the Lok Sabha mention in the Constitution? (2013)
4. vote in the Lok Sabha 1. National Development Council
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Planning Commission
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4
3. Zonal Councils
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
155. Consider the following statements: (2017) below:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five- (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
member body. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the
160. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’
election schedule for the conduct of both general
in India? (2014)
elections and bye-elections.
1. The Finance Commission
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
relating to splits/mergers of recognized political 2. The National Development Council
parties. 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 5. The Parliament
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
156. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal below:
agency to ensure effective implementation of the (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(2021) 161. With reference to the Union Government, consider
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change 1. The N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee
suggested that a minister and a secretary be
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
designated solely for pursuing the subject of
(c) Ministry of Rural Development administrative reform and promoting it.
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was
constituted on the recommendation of the
NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966,
157. Consider the following statements: (2013) and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s
charge. Which of the statements given above is/
1. The National Development Council is an organ of
are correct?
the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the (a) 1 only
Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. (b) 2 only
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that (c) Both 1 and 2
Panchayats should be assigned the task of (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Key
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (d)
141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (b) 150. (d)
151. (c) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (d) 160. (c)
161. (b)
Explanation
1. (c) Sub-Theme: Acts and Regulations under the Local Self-Government, industry, agriculture,
Crown Rule (1858–1947) excise, etc.
The Government of India Act 1919, also Other Important Provisions of Government of
known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms came India Act (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) Act,
into force in 1921 with the sole purpose to 1919:
ensure Indians of their representation in the z Relaxed the central control over the
Government. The Act divided the provincial provinces by demarcating and separating
subjects into two parts – transferred and the central and provincial subjects.
reserved, this dual scheme of governance was z Introduced Bicameralism and Direct
known as ‘dyarchy’. Elections in the country.
Options 1, 3 and 4 are “Reserved Subjects”: z It required 3 out of 6 members in the
The reserved list includes subjects such as Viceroy’s Executive Council to be Indian.
Law and Order, Finance, Land Revenue, z It extended the principle of communal
Administration of Justice, Police, irrigation representation among the Sikhs, Indian
etc. and the subjects were to be administered Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
by the governor through his executive council z Establishment of a Public Service
of bureaucrats. All-important subjects were Commission.
kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial z Separated the provincial budgets from
Executive. the Central budget.
Option 2 is “Transferred Subjects”: The
transferred subjects were to be administered NOTE: Earlier question came on ‘Dyarchy’
by ministers nominated from among the in 2017 and in every alternate year, in one
elected members of the legislative council and way or another there is question on acts
and policies of colonial times
it included subjects such as education, health,
Polity 125
2. (c) Sub-Theme: Acts and Regulations under The Additional Information:
Crown Rule (1858–1947) z Karl Marx: State is an instrument of
The distribution of powers between the Centre oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie
and the States in the Indian Constitution is given that only works for maintaining class
under 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. dominance. Therefore, he strives for
The 7th Schedule divides the powers into 3 class struggle and revolution which will
lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. ultimately result in a stateless society.
This division of powers is based on the z Mahatma Gandhi: According to Gandhiji,
Government of India Act, 1935. It divided the even minimal state will require to use
powers between the Centre and provinces in force. This was against non-violence
terms of three lists – Federal List (for Centre, philosophy. Instead, Gandhiji was in favour
with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, of strengthening of local self-governments,
with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for 5. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic Understanding of Executive.
both, with 36 items).
Permanent Executive: Bureaucracy
Other Important Features of Government of
Bureaucracy is the executive arm of the
India Act, 1935:
government, where the elected government
z It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
employs competent state officials to run
and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in
after state matters. They are selected by the
its place, while adopting the dyarchy at the
government through the merit-based process.
Centre.
The major objective of bureaucracy in India
z It introduced Bicameralism in six out of has not been Parliamentary democracy’s
eleven provinces. expansion but rather the implementation of
z It further extended the principle of the decisions taken by the executive.
communal representation to the Parliamentary democracy results often in
depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), change at the helm of executive, the static and
women and labour (workers). permanent bureaucracy provides continuity
It also abolished the Council of India, of policies and execution rather than political
established by the Government of India stability.
Act of 1858. 6. (a) Sub-Theme: Basic Understanding.
3. (d) Option (d) is correct: The term social capital was The State refers to a political institution that
popularised by Robert Putnam. As per OECD, it represents a sovereign people organised
can be defined as “networks together with shared under one independent government within a
norms, values and understandings that facilitate definite territory and subject to no outside
co-operation within or among groups”. It consists control. Thus, a community of persons
of trust, mutual understanding, shared values permanently occupying a definite territory
and behaviour that bind together the members independent of external control and possessing
of a community and make cooperative action an organised government.
possible. Such interaction enables people to 7. (d) The doctrine of Separation of Powers
build communities, to commit themselves to each entails the division of the legislative, executive,
other, and to knit the social fabric. and judicial functions of government among
Option (a) is incorrect: The proportion of different organs. This demarcation prevents the
literates in the population and the size of concentration of excessive power by any branch
population in the working age group are the of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard
examples of human capital. the liberty and rights of the people in a
Option (b) is incorrect: The stock of its democracy. In the Directive Principles of State
buildings, other infrastructure and machines is Policy, Article 50 mentions separation of judiciary
the example of physical capital. from the executive.
4. (a) Sub-Theme: Major Political Theories Additional Information:
The common agreement between Gandhism z Committed Judiciary: It means a judiciary
and Marxism is the final goal of stateless and committed to the policies of the
classless society. But means to achieve these government or ruling party; thus, it can’t
final goals differ under Gandhism and Marxism. protect the liberty of all people.
A stateless society refers to a society that z Centralization of Power: Liberal-
lacks formal institutions of government. democratic theory assumes that

decentralisation promotes democratic provides for a parliamentary form of
participation, especially local self- government, both at the Centre and in the
government. States. The Parliamentary Government is also
z Elected Government: Only having an known as Cabinet Government/Responsible
elected government doesn’t safeguard Government/Westminster Model. Some of its
liberty in liberal democracy. E.g., Pakistan. features are as follows:
8. (b) Sub-Theme: Right outside FR/Legal Rights. z In the Parliamentary System of Government
members of the Cabinet are members of the
z Earlier, the Indian Constitution recognized
Parliament. (Statement 1 is correct).
the ‘Right to Property’ as a fundamental right
under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. Later, z The ministers in the Parliament hold the
Right to Property as a fundamental right office till they enjoy the confidence of the
was abolished by the 44th Constitutional Parliament. (Statement 2 is correct)
Amendment Act, 1978 and made it a legal z The Head of the state is President, and
right under Article 300-A. he/she does not head the cabinet, he is
z Article 300-A of the Constitutions states considered to be the nominal executive.
that “No person shall be deprived of his (Statement 3 is incorrect)
property save by Authority of Law”. 11. (d) Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian
z Thus, Right to Property in India is a legal Constitution
right available to any person. Tenth Schedule:
9. (a) Sub-Theme: Scheduled and Tribal Areas/Articles z It deals with the provisions as to
and Schedules of Indian Constitution disqualification on grounds of defection.
Fifth Schedule: z In 1985, the 52nd Amendment Act added
z The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution.
with the provisions as to the Administration z On the basis of a petition by any other member
and Control of Scheduled Areas and of the House, it lays out the procedure by
Scheduled Tribes. Article 244 (1) of the which a legislator may be removed from
Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the office on the grounds of defection by the
areas defined so by the President of India Presiding officer of a legislature.
and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of
z The Chairman or Speaker of that House is
the Constitution.
tasked with making the final determination
z Governors can make regulations for peace regarding disqualification due to
& good government of Scheduled Areas defection.
after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council
z Both the Parliament and state legislatures
(TAC).
are subject to the statute.
z Such regulations may prohibit or restrict
z The Presiding Officer’s decision is not
the transfer of land by or among members of
the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment subject to judicial review, according to
of land to members of the scheduled tribes the original law.
and regulate the business of moneylending z This condition was struck down by the
in relation to the scheduled tribes. Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan
z The provisions regarding the administration judgement (1992), thereby allowing
and control of Scheduled and Tribal Areas appeals against the Presiding Officer’s
of any state except the four states are decision in the High Court and Supreme
mentioned under this schedule: Assam, Court. Judicial review is a basic feature of
Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram. the constitution.
12. (a) Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian
NOTE: Earlier questions on ‘Fifth
Constitution
Schedule’ came in 2015 and 2019.
Therefore, it is advisable to prepare the The fifth and the sixth schedule of the
theme and sub-theme very holistically. Constitution of India deals with the provisions
related to the protection of the interests of the
10. (a) Sub-Theme: Forms of Government
Scheduled Tribes.
Parliamentary System entails the Executive z Fifth Schedule: Deals with the provisions
responsible to the legislature for its policies relating to the administration and control
and legislations. The Constitution of India
of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes
Polity 127
in any state except 4 states of Assam, z It is through these powers that the
Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram (AMTM). Parliament enforces the responsibility of
z Article 244 (1) of the Constitution defines the executive to itself and to the people in
Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the ultimate analysis.
the President of India and are mentioned in 15. (d) Sub-Theme: Forms of Government
the 5th schedule of the Constitution. z Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct: The
z Sixth Schedule: It deals with the provisions Indian Constitution adopts the federal
as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in system of Government, but with more tilt
4 NE states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & towards a unitary system of government.
Mizoram (Not Manipur). So, every state government does not have
13. (c) Sub-Theme: Universal Adult Franchise power of its own. Thus, it is considered as
Constitutional Right: a quasi-federal system.
z While framing the Indian Constitution the z The features of a federation are:
framers and makers of our Constitution Two Government,
took the decision to guarantee every adult Division of powers,
Indian citizen to franchise their vote i.e., Written Constitution,
the Right to Vote.
Supremacy of Constitution,
z In India, the Right to Vote is provided
Rigidity of Constitution,
both by the Indian Constitution and the
Independent judiciary,
Representation of People’s Act, 1951.
Bicameralism
z Article 326: ensures that every individual
above the age of 18 has the right to vote. z Option (d) is incorrect: The phrase ‘Union
z Section 62 of the Representation of of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation
Peoples Act (RoPA), 1951: the right to of States’ for two reasons: One, unlike the
vote will be available to every person on the American Federation (“Indestructible
electoral roll of that constituency. union of indestructible states”), the
Indian Federation (“Indestructible union
z 61st Constitutional Amendment: lowered
of destructible states”) is not the outcome
the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha
of an agreement among the states; and two,
and to the Legislative Assemblies of States
the states are not permitted to secede the
from 21 years to 18 years.
federation.
14. (c) Sub-Theme: Forms of Government z Due to its invincibility, the federation is a
Parliamentary System: Union. The country is a union that cannot
z The Parliamentary System is also referred be broken, although states can be split up
to as Cabinet Government. It establishes and reorganised by changing their borders.
a system of collective responsibility State names and borders may be changed
between the executive and the legislative. by the central government without their
z Parliamentary system is part of the basic consent. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described India
structure of the constitution. as an “indestructible Union of destructible
z The characteristics of India’s parliamentary states” for this reason.
system are: 16. (c) Sub-Theme: Forms of Government
Presence of nominal and real executives Parliamentary System:
i.e., President and Prime minister z The Parliamentary system is also known
respectively, as the Cabinet Government/Responsible
Majority party rule, government/Westminster model of
Collective responsibility (Swim or government. It provides for collective
Sink together) of the executive to the responsibility of the executive to the
legislature, legislature.
Membership of the ministers in the z The features of parliamentary
legislature, government in India are:
Leadership of the prime minister or the Presence of nominal and real executives.
chief minister, Majority party rule,
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Collective responsibility of the

Sabha or State Assembly). executive to the legislature,

Membership of the ministers in the (1951) to protect the laws included in
legislature, it from judicial scrutiny on the ground
Leadership of the prime minister or the of violation of fundamental rights. At
chief minister, this time, Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime
Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Minister of India. He remained in the office
Sabha or Assembly). from the year 1947 to 1964.
17. (b) Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian z This schedule deals with the provisions
Constitution as to validation of certain Acts and
Fifth Schedule: Regulations of the state legislatures
z Deals with the provisions as to the dealing with land reforms and abolition of
Administration and Control of Scheduled the zamindari system and of the Parliament
Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Article 244 (1) dealing with other matters.
of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas Additional Information:
as the areas defined so by the President of Prime Ministership of the following leaders
India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule are as follows:
of the Constitution. z Lal Bahadur Shastri: 1964 - 1966
z In the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh z Indira Gandhi: 1966 - 1971 and 1980 - 1984
& Ors (1997) judgment the Supreme Court
z Morarji Desai: 1977 - 1979
held that the transfer of tribal land to private
parties for mining was null and void under NOTE: Question on Ninth Schedule came
the Fifth Schedule. in 2018.
z Under the fifth Schedule, the Governors 19. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic Structure of Indian Constitution
can make regulations for peace & good
Statement 1 is incorrect: Basic Structure
government of Scheduled Areas after
encompasses basic and core values like
consulting the Tribal Advisory Council
federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and
(TAC).
democracy which forms bedrock of the Indian
z Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the
Constitution.
transfer of land by or among members of
z Basic Structure cannot be amended by
the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment
of land to members of the scheduled tribes parliament under Art 368.
and regulate the business of moneylending z Basic Structure Doctrine is a Judicially
in relation to the scheduled tribes. innovative doctrine, and it was neither
Additional Information: defined under Constitution nor it was
Third Schedule: The third schedule of Indian defined by the Supreme Court or any
Constitution is related with the Forms of Oaths other court.
or Affirmations for - The Union and the State z Various judgments of the Supreme Court
ministers, The candidates for election to the form the bedrock of Basic Structure Doctrine
Parliament and State Legislature, Members like: Kesavananda Bharati Case (24 April
of the Parliament and State Legislature, The 1973) and IR Coelho vs State of Tamil
judges of the SC and HC, CAG. Nadu, 2007.
Ninth Schedule: Provisions as to validation
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 13 of the
of certain Acts and Regulations of the state
Indian Constitution though gives the power of
legislatures dealing with land reforms and
abolition of the zamindari system and of judicial review but the word ‘judicial review‘
the Parliament dealing with other matters. is nowhere mentioned. The Union or the
Twelfth Schedule: This schedule was added by States shall not make any law that takes away
the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 and it specifies or abridges any of the fundamental rights,
the powers, authority and responsibilities of and any law made in contravention of the
Municipalities. aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of
18. (a) Sub-Theme: Articles and Schedules of Indian the contravention, be void.
Constitution 20. (a) Sub-Theme: Forms of Government
Ninth Schedule: The Indian Constitution adopts the federal
z The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution system of Government, but with more tilt
was added by the 1st Amendment towards a unitary system of government. So,
Polity 129
every state government does not have power of Economic Justice: It calls for the non-
its own. Thus, it is considered as a quasi-federal discrimination between people on the
system. The features of a federation are: basis of economic factors.
z Two Government, division of powers, Political justice: It calls for equal access
z Written Constitution, to political office, equal political rights,
z Supremacy of Constitution, and equal voice in the government for
z Rigidity of Constitution, all citizens.
z Independent Judiciary and 23. (a) Sub-Theme: Significance of the Preamble
z Bicameralism. Option (a) is correct: The Preamble:
21. (b) Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble and z Though India followed the practice of the
Socialistic principles of DPSP American Constitution, the preamble to
the Indian Constitution embodies the basic
“Economic Justice” as one of the objectives
philosophy and the fundamental values
of the Indian Constitution has been provided
on which our constitution is based.
both in the Preamble of the Constitution and
the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). z It is not only the outcome of the grand and
This is evident as follows: noble vision of the Constituent Assembly,
Preamble: but also the reflection of the dreams and
z The ideal of ‘justice’ mentioned in the aspirations of the founding fathers of the
preamble embraces three distinct forms- Constitution.
social, economical and political, where z In the Berubari Union case (1960), the
economic justice denotes the non- Supreme Court opined that the Preamble is
discrimination between people on the basis “a key to the minds of the makers of the
of economic factors. Constitution.”
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): Option (b) is incorrect: Fundamental Rights:
z The Socialistic principles of DPSP reflect z The framers and makers of the Constitution
the ideology of socialism. It aims to provide derived inspiration of ‘fundamental rights’
social and economic justice and set the path from the Constitution of the USA (Bill of
towards a welfare state. Rights) and also from the Motilal Nehru
z The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added committee Report 1928. It was meant for
the Article 38 in DPSP, which requires the promoting the ideal of political democracy.
State to minimise inequalities in income, Option (c) is incorrect: Directive Principles
status, facilities and opportunities. of State Policy (DPSP):
22. (b) Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble z It resembles the ‘Instrument of
Liberty as mentioned in the Preamble: Instructions’ enumerated in GoI Act 1935.
z This ideal of ‘liberty’ in the Preamble to the They are intended to fill in the vacuum in
Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Part III by providing for social and economic
French revolution. rights.
z It means the absence of restraints on the Option (d) is incorrect: Fundamental Duties:
activities of individuals and at the same z Inspired from the erstwhile USSR, the
time, it provides opportunities for the Fundamental Duties were added to the
development of individuals. Constitution by 42nd Constitutional
z The preamble to the Indian Constitution Amendment Act, 1976.
assures to all citizens- 24. (b) Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble
liberty of thought, z Where there is no Law, there is no Freedom.
liberty of expression, liberty of belief, For liberty is to be free from restraint and
liberty of faith and worship violence from others, which cannot be
Justice as mentioned in the Preamble: where there is no law.
z The ideal of justice in the Indian Constitution z If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
embraces three distinct forms- social, Liberty:
economical and political: Liberty can be seen from two perspectives
Social Justice: the equal treatment – negative and positive.
of all citizens without any social z Negative liberty: It is concerned with the
discrimination. inviolable area of non-interference and not

with the conditions in society, i.e. absence of within the limitations mentioned in the
obstacles, barriers or constraints. Constitution itself.
z Positive liberty: Recognizes that one can 26. (d) Sub-Theme: Preamble as Part of the Constitution
be free only in society and not outside it, The question as to whether the Preamble is a
therefore it is the possibility of acting or the part of the Constitution leads to three landmark
fact of acting in such a way as to take control SC judgement and those are -
of one’s life and realise one’s fundamental In the Berubari Union Case (1960):
purposes. z The Preamble explains the overall rationale
Safeguards of Liberty: behind several provisions of the constitution.
z Declaration of rights of the individuals: It z If terms used in articles are ambiguous,
is an important safeguard of liberty. In this some assistance of the preamble could be
manner, the government can be prevented taken for interpretation.
from interfering with citizens’ liberty. z SC ruled that Preamble is not a part of the
z The independent and impartial judiciary Constitution.
is aptly referred to as the watchdog of liberty. Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):
z Decentralisation of powers: History is z The Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
witness to the fact that concentration of LIC of India Case (1995):
power has very often led to despotism. z SC again held that the preamble is an
z Separation of powers, i.e., the executive, the integral part of the Constitution, and it can
legislature and the judiciary being separate, also be amended subject to the condition
is a great ally of liberty. Montesquieu said, that no amendment is done to the ‘basic
“Power should be a check on power.” features.
z Rule of law or equality in the eyes of the 27. (b) Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble
law is also an important safeguard of liberty. z The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is a
This is the bulwark against discrimination brief introductory statement that reflects
based on caste, class, colour, creed, etc. the hopes and aspirations of the people.
Law: z The ideals behind the Preamble to Indian
z It works as the aggregate of legislation, Constitution is based on ‘Objective
judicial precedents, and accepted legal Resolution’ which were drafted by
principles; the body of authoritative grounds Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted by the
of judicial and administrative action; esp., Constituent Assembly on January 22,
the body of rules, standards, and principles 1947.
that the courts of a particular jurisdiction z The original Preamble, adopted by the
apply in deciding controversies brought Constituent Assembly in 1949, declared
before them. India a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”.
NOTE: John Locke in one of his treatises Later, it was amended by the 42nd
of civil government wrote- “Where there is Constitutional Amendment Act (1976),
no law, there is no freedom”. and added three new words– “Socialist,
Secular and Integrity”.
25. (d) Sub-Theme: Key Words in the Preamble
28. (a) Sub-Theme: Acquisition of Citizenship
“Opportunity to develop oneself fully” covers
liberty fully, therefore, one may surmise that Statement 1 is correct: The Indian
the purpose of ensuring ‘liberty’ is that one has Constitution has the provision for single
citizenship only, i.e., the Indian citizenship.
no obstacles or hindrances to realise one’s full
India’s citizens only owe allegiance to the
potential.
Indian Union. Additionally, the citizenship of
Additional Information:
an Indian citizen immediately expires when
z “Protection against the tyranny of political
he or she voluntarily obtains the citizenship of
rulers” is a partial definition and has a
another nation. In India, only one domicile is
connotation more towards fundamental
permitted. A single State or UT may only issue
rights rather than liberty.
a Domicile Certificate.
z “Absence of restraint” only covers part of the Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, the Head
definition of liberty. of the State is the President and as per the
z Liberty does not mean ‘licence’ to do Indian constitution both a citizen by birth as
whatever one likes; it is to be enjoyed well as a naturalised citizen are eligible for
Polity 131
the office of President. Thus, a naturalised 31. (c) Sub-Theme: Right against Exploitation
citizen can also become the Head of the State Statement 1 is correct: As under article
in India. 23 (Right Against Exploitation) of the
Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreigner who has constitution, the expression ‘traffic in human
previously received Indian citizenship, can be beings’ includes: Selling and buying of men,
deprived of his citizenship. Indian citizenship can women and children like goods, Immoral traffic
be terminated by the Central government, if:
in women and children, including prostitution,
z obtained the citizenship by fraud. Devadasis, Slavery.
z shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India Statement 2 is incorrect: Abolition of
z unlawfully exchanged goods or information Untouchability is provided in the constitution
with the enemy while at war. of India, but it comes under Right to Equality,
z two years of imprisonment in any country under article 17.
within five years of registration or Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cultural and
naturalisation. Educational Rights (under articles 29 and
z been ordinarily resident out of India for 30) cover protection of interests of minorities;
seven years continuously. they don’t come under Rights Against
29. (d) Sub-Theme: Writ Type and Scope Exploitation.
Statement 1 is correct: The word Mandamus Statement 4 is correct: Article 24 (Right
means “we command”. It directs activity and Against Exploitation) ensures prohibition
commands issued by the court to public of employment of children in factories
officials asking them to perform. It is issued etc. The Commissions for Protection of Child
against any public body, corporation, inferior
Rights Act, 2005 was enacted to provide for
court, tribunal, or government for the same
purpose. Mandamus cannot be issued against the establishment of a National Commission
a private individual or body. and State Commissions for Protection of Child
Statement 2 is correct: Mandamus won’t Rights and Children’s Courts for providing
be granted against private individuals and speedy trial of offences against children or of
companies that have no public duty to perform. violation of child rights.
It cannot be issued against a legislature,
NOTE: Here option 4 is present in all
commanding or preventing it to enact
given options. Observing such things will
legislation.
Statement 3 is correct: The meaning of the save your time and lessen the chances of
word Quo Warranto is “By what authority or error.
warrant”. Quo Warranto is issued by the court 32. (a) Sub-Theme: Correlation between Rights and
to inquire into the legality of the claim of a Duties
person to a public office. Unlike the other writs, z In the context of India, Rights are correlative
this can be sought by any interested person and
with duties, considering the Indian political
not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
set up.
30. (c) Sub-Theme: Cultural and educational rights
z In a constitutional democracy (such as
Statement 1 is correct: Though the Constitution
of India does not define the term ‘minorities. India), the State provides rights and lays
Article 30 of the Constitution mandates that down duties for the citizenry, so that society
all minorities have the right to establish and can peacefully coexist. However, sometimes
administer educational institutions of their the State imposes such duties on its citizens
choice. that infringes the rights of the marginalised
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the sections of society.
constitution, there is no provision of communal z Rights and duties have an organic
representation in Lok Sabha.
relationship. If others do not carry out
Statement 3 is correct: The objective of the
their duties, one cannot enjoy a right.
Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme is to
enhance opportunities for education and ensure z For Example: One’s right to life implies
an equitable share for minorities in economic that others should give protection and
activities and employment, through existing security to the former’s life. Similarly,
and new schemes, enhanced credit support One cannot enjoy their Right to a clean
for self-employment, and recruitment to State environment if others do not perform
and Central Government jobs in those districts their duty of protecting and conserving
which have substantial minority populations. the environment.

33. (a) Sub-Theme: Right to Equality Schedule and is thus exempt from judicial
Equality in the society can be maintained by review.
ending the formal system of inequality and Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of
ensuring absence of privileges. The lack of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but
any special privileges for any individual is a according to the Kesavananda Bharati Case,
concept related to Equality Before Law (which 1973, any violation with the ‘basic structure’
is an American Concept and denotes positive of the Constitution is open to challenge. Laws
notion). This concept entails equal subjection after 24 April 1973 are open for judicial
of all persons to the ordinary law of the land review by courts.
administered by ordinary law courts, and no z IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007:
one is above the law, regardless of their status the SC ruled that all laws (including those
(rich or poor, high or low, official or not). in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to
Additional Information: Judicial Review if they violated the basic
z Absence of Restraint does not necessarily structure of the constitution.
imply equality in society as restraining the 36. (c) Sub-Theme: Rule of Law
actions of the society curtails the liberty of Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Rule of
the individual. law: The concept of ‘equality before law’ as
z Absence of Competition in society may enshrined in Article 14 of Indian Constitution
result in monopoly, which would not imply is taken from the concept of ‘Rule of Law’
equality, rather inequality in the society. propounded by A.V. Dicey.
z Absence of ideology does not imply equality z Rule of law is a legal principle that states
in society. Ideology is a set of principles or that a country should be ruled by the law
beliefs of a group/institution in the society. rather than by the arbitrary actions of
particular government officials.
34. (c) Sub-Theme: Rights of Citizen
z The ‘Rule of Law’ has 3 fundamental
Option (a) is incorrect: Rights are claimed by
principles:
the citizens against the state and not the vice
versa. 1. Absence of arbitrary power
Option (b) is incorrect: Rights are not privileges 2. Equality before law
either, they are one of the quintessential 3. Primacy of individual rights
requirements for the formation of a democratic Statement 3 is incorrect: The government is
state. Thus, the constitution has no concept of responsible/accountable to the people and not
special privileges which will create inequality the vice versa.
in the society. 37. (c) Sub-Theme: Right to Privacy
Option (c) is correct: The philosophy of rights Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with
is grounded in preventing the exploitation of the protection of life and personal liberty. In
the citizen by the state. It inherently belongs to the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme
the citizens. So, essentially it is the claim of an Court held that privacy is a natural right that
individual against the state. inheres in all natural persons, and that the
Option (d) is incorrect: As per Article 18, right may be restricted only by state action that
except for military and academic distinctions, passes each of the three tests:
no other citizens have titular privileges. Hence, z Such state action must have a legislative
Rights are not the privileges of a few citizens as mandate.
they are equally available to all. z It must be pursuing a legitimate state
35. (a) Sub-Theme: Judicial Review purpose; and
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and z It must be proportionate.
Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution was added Additional Information:
by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the z Article 14 (Right to Equality): the state
laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the shall not deny to any person equality before
ground of violation of fundamental rights. the law or the equal protection of the laws
z A law receives protection under Article 31-B within the territory of India.
(validation of certain Acts and Regulations) z Right to Equality = Equality before Law +
once it is passed and inserted into the Ninth Equal Protection of laws.
Polity 133
z The concept of ‘equality before law’ as Prohibition of employment of children
enshrined in Article 14 of Indian Constitution in factories etc. (Article 24)
is taken from the concept of ‘Rule of Law’ z Article 19 - 21 deals with ‘Right to
propounded by A.V. Dicey. Freedom’ -
z Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability): Article 19: Protection of six rights
This Article forbids untouchability (not regarding freedom of:
defined in Constitution or in the act) in any 1. Speech and Expression
form. 2. Assembly
38. (b) Sub-Theme: Right to Privacy 3. Association
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with 4. Movement
the protection of Life and Personal Liberty. This 5. residence &
very article safeguards one’s right to marry the
6. Profession
person of one’s choice. In the famous Hadiya
Protection in respect of conviction for
Case (2017), the Supreme Court held that, “The
offences (Article 20)
right to marry a person of one’s choice is
integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) Protection of life and personal liberty
of the Constitution”. (Article 21)

Additional Information: z Article 32 deals with the ‘Right to
z Article 19: This article is related to the Constitutional Remedies’.
protection of six rights regarding freedom NOTE: Question on Untouchability earlier
of: came in 2017.
(i) Speech and expression
40. (d) Sub-Theme: Universal Declaration of Human
(ii) Assembly Rights
(iii) Association Statement 1 is correct: The objectives of
(iv) Movement Preamble such as Justice (social, economic, and
(v) Residence political), Equality and Liberty also reflect the
(vi) Profession principles of UDHR. The Article 3 of Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) (1948)
z Article 25: This article deals with the
says that “Everyone has the right to life, liberty
freedom of conscience and free profession,
and security of person.”
practice and propagation of religion.
Statement 2 is correct: DPSPs are the
z Article 29: This article is related to the principles that aim at providing social and
protection of language, script and culture economic justice and set the path towards the
of minorities. welfare state. These DPSP act as an obligation
39. (d) Sub-Theme: Right to Equality on state and are in consonance with human
Articles 14 to 18 deals with ‘Right to rights, which has a resemblance with UDHR
Equality’– Article 22. The article 22 of UDHR 1948 says
z Equality before Law (Article 14) that “Everyone, as a member of society, has the
right to social security.”
z Prohibition of discrimination based
Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental duties
on grounds of religion, race, caste etc.
(Article 51A) are basically civic and moral
(Article 15)
obligations of all citizens of India. As of now,
z Equality of opportunity in matters of public there are 11 fundamental duties in India, which
employment (Article 16) are to provide opportunities for education to
z Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17) the child between the age of 6 and 14 years by
z Abolition of titles (Article 18) the parents or guardian.
Hence, Protection against untouchability as a Additional Information:
form of discrimination is a Fundamental Right z UDHR Article 26:
under Right to Equality. Everyone has the right to education.
Additional Information: Education shall be free, at least in the

z Article 23 & 24 deals with the ‘Right elementary and fundamental stages.
Against Exploitation’ – z UDHR Article 27:
Prohibition of traffic in human beings Everyone has the right freely to
and forced labour (Article 23) participate in the cultural life of the

community, to enjoy the arts and to z Rule of law is part of the basic structure of
share in scientific advancement and its the constitution.
benefits. z The ‘Rule of Law’ has 3 fundamental
Everyone has the right to the protection principles:
of the moral and material interests Absence of arbitrary power
resulting from any scientific, literary or Equality before law
artistic production of which he is the Primacy of individual rights
author.
z From the above concept we came to know
NOTE: Questions related to UDHR have that ‘equality before law’ under Article
been asked earlier in 2012. Earlier they 14 connotes the absence of arbitrary
gave a list of rights and asked whether they power with the authorities. Therefore,
are included in UDHR. Thus, keeping note of when a legislation confers uncontrolled
PYQs is important. discretionary powers on any authority,
it tends to violate Article 14 of the
41. (c) Sub-Theme: Right to Privacy
constitution.
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with
43. (b) Sub-Theme: Gandhian Principles and Liberal-
the protection of life and personal liberty. In
Intellectual Principles
the KS Puttaswamy Case (2017), the Supreme
Court held that privacy is a natural right that z The Directive Principles of State Policy
inheres in all natural persons, and that the (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to
51 of the Indian Constitution. The DPSPs
right may be restricted only by state action that
have been borrowed from the Constitution
passes each of the three tests:
of Ireland.
z Such state action must have a legislative
mandate. z Though the Indian Constitution does
not specify classification of Directive
z It must be pursuing a legitimate state
Principles of State Policy, but on the basis
purpose; and of content, these are classified into Socialist,
z It must be proportionate. Gandhian and Liberal-Intellectual.
NOTE: There are very much-repeated z Article 40 of the Constitution deals with
questions around and about Right to Organising Village Panchayats and
Privacy (among other provisions from FR as endows them with necessary powers and
well) in one way or another. It is advisable authority to enable them to function as
to read Fundamental Rights very carefully units of self-government. This is one of the
and from a broader perspective. Gandhian Principles in DPSP.
z The idea of Promoting Cottage Industries
42. (a) Sub-Theme: Rule of Law
on an individual or co-operation basis
A legislation which confers on the executive in rural areas is based on Gandhian
or administrative authority an unguided and Principles and the same is mentioned under
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter Article 43.
of application of law violates Article 14 of the Additional Information:
constitution. z Article 44 one of the directive principles
The Article 14 of the Indian Constitution of the Constitution deals with securing for
denotes that the State shall not deny to any citizens of India a Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
person equality before the law or the equal for the citizens throughout the territory of
protection of the laws within the territory of India. This article comes under the Liberal-
India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an Intellectual Principles, which represent the
element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. ideology of liberalism. A UCC is one that would
Rule of Law: provide for one law for the entire country,
z The concept of ‘equality before law’ applicable to all religious communities in
as enshrined in Article 14 of Indian their personal matters such as marriage,
Constitution is taken from the concept of divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
‘Rule of Law’ propounded by A.V. Dicey. z This section of Article 43 comes under the
z Rule of law is a legal principle that states Socialistic Principles of DPSP which says,
that a country should be ruled by the law to secure a living wage, a decent standard
rather than by the arbitrary actions of of life and social and cultural opportunities
particular government officials. for all workers.
Polity 135
44. (d) Sub-Theme: Combination of DPSP and schedules of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable
Various provisions in the Constitution of India by any court, but the principles therein
have a bearing on Education. These include laid down are nevertheless fundamental
Directive Principles of State Policy, Rural and in the governance of the country and it
Urban Local Bodies and Seventh Schedule of shall be the duty of the State to apply these
the Constitution: principles in making laws.
Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP): z DPSP constitutes a comprehensive socio
z Under Article 45 of Liberal-Intellectual economic and political programme for a
Principles lays down the provision of early modern democratic State. DPSP are ‘positive
childhood care and education for all in nature’, which embodies the concept of a
children until they complete the age of six ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’.
years. DPSP are the constitutional instructions or
z With a view of making the right to free and recommendations to the State in legislative,
compulsory education a fundamental executive and administrative matters.
right, the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 Additional Information:
changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and Fundamental Rights and Duties are related
made elementary education a fundamental to the role, responsibility and rights of the
right under Article 21 A, conferring on all people (citizens/aliens).
children in the age group of 6 to 14 years. 46. (b) Sub-Theme: Liberal-Intellectual Principles
z The Act amends in Part-III, Part–IV and The Directive Principles of State Policy
Part-IV(a) of the Constitution. (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36
Rural and Urban Local Bodies: to 51 of the Indian Constitution. The DPSPs
z The Schedule 11 added by the 73rd have been borrowed from the Constitution
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, of Ireland. Article 51 is clear in dealing with
specifies the powers, responsibilities and the international peace and security and for
authority of Panchayat and under Article achieving the same it directs the State to focus
243-G the Panchayati Raj Institutions have on:
allowed 29 subjects to work in their local z Maintaining just and honourable relations
areas and Education was one of them. with the nations.
z The Schedule 12 added by the 74th z Foster respect for international law and
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, treaty obligations.
specifies the powers, responsibilities and z Encourage settlement of international
authority of Municipalities and under the disputes by arbitration.
Article 243-W the Constitution provides 47. (c) Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles
for 18 subjects to the Municipalities and
Statement 1 is correct: The Directive
education is included here too.
Principles deals with a very comprehensive
z Fifth and Sixth Schedules are related to economic, social and political programme for a
Scheduled and Tribal regions, which also modern democratic State. They aim at realising
deal with education. the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and
z Seventh Schedule: The Seventh Schedule of fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the
the Constitution contains three lists- Union Constitution.
List, State List and Concurrent List. z Article 38: Deals with the promotion
z The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 shifted of the welfare of the people by securing
the following subjects from State list to and protecting a social order by ensuring
Concurrent list – social, economic and political justice and by
Education minimising inequalities in income, status,
Forests
facilities and opportunities.
Weights & Measures
z B.R. Ambedkar opined that the Directives
have great value because they lay down
Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
that the goal of Indian polity is ‘economic
Administration of Justice
democracy’ as distinguished from ‘political
45. (c) Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles democracy’.
z According to Article 37 of the Indian Statement 2 is correct: According to Article
Constitution, though Directive Principles 37 Directive Principles are not enforceable

by any court, but the principles therein laid 50. (d) Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles
down are nevertheless fundamental in the z DPSP: The directive principles are in the
governance of the country. nature of instruments of instruction to
48. (b) Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles the government of the day to achieve certain
z The Directive Principles of State Policy ends by their actions. Directive Principles
(DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to of State Policy does not impose any
51 of the Indian Constitution. limitations on any organ of the State. It
z The DPSPs have been borrowed from the is a guideline that the government of the
Constitution of Ireland. It constitutes a day can use for the welfare of the socially
comprehensive socio economic and political and economically backward classes while
programme for a modern democratic State. framing any rules.
DPSP embodies the concept of a ‘welfare z Fundamental Rights: It is the fundamental
state’ and not that of a ‘police state’. rights that constitute limitations upon state
z Article 38 (1): The State shall strive to action (whether legislative or executive).
promote the welfare of the people by 51. (a) Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles
securing and protecting as effectively as it z The Directive Principles of State Policy
may a social order in which justice, social, (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to
economic and political, shall inform all the 51 of the Indian Constitution.
institutions of the national life.
z The DPSPs have been borrowed from the
Constitution of Ireland. It constitutes a
z Fundamental Rights: It is the basic human
comprehensive socio economic and political
rights enshrined in Article 12 -35 of Part III
programme for a modern democratic State.
of Indian Constitution. They are enforceable
DPSP embodies the concept of a ‘welfare
by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
state’ and not that of a ‘police state’.
z Preamble: It is the ideals and philosophy of
z Welfare state refers to a concept of
the constitution. The Preamble gives an idea
government in which the state plays a key
about the following:
role in the economic and social well-being
Source of the constitution
of its citizens.
Nature of Indian state
z Article 38 (1): The State shall strive to
Statement of its objectives promote the welfare of the people by
Date of its adoption securing and protecting as effectively as it
z Seventh Schedule: The seventh schedule may a social order in which justice, social,
under Article 246 in Part XI of the economic and political, shall inform all the
Constitution deals with the division of institutions of the national life.
powers between the union and the states. NOTE: This question is a repeated question
It contains three lists- Union List, State List from 2015.
and Concurrent List.
52. (d) Sub-Theme: Features of the Directive Principles
49. (b) Sub-Theme: Amendments to Constitution
The Provisions contained in the Part IV of the
z 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four Indian Constitution deals with the Directive
new Directive Principles to the original list, Principles of State Policy (DPSP). Under Part
and they are – IV, Articles 36 to 51 relates to DPSP.
Article 39: To secure opportunities for Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution lays
healthy development of children down certain Directive Principles of State Policy,
Article 39 A: To promote equal justice which is non-justiciable in nature. DPSPs were
and to provide free legal aid to the poor. made non-justiciable on the recommendations
Article 43 A: To take steps to secure of the Tej Bahadur Committee Report.
the participation of workers in the Statement 2 is correct: The DPSPs are not
management of industries. legally enforceable by the courts for their
Article 48 A: To protect and improve the violation.
environment and to safeguard forests Statement 3 is correct: The ‘Directive
and wildlife. Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals
Polity 137
that the State should keep in mind while Statement 2 is correct: Limit for Transgender
formulating policies and enacting laws. Rs. 2,00,000.
These are the constitutional instructions or Statement 3 is incorrect: Though there is a
recommendations to the State in legislative, provision for free aid to members of SC and ST
executive and administrative matters. community, the Legal Services Authority does
not mention Other Backward Classes (OBC)
NOTE: Question on enforceability of DPSP
while providing free legal services.
by court came in 2015, it underlines
Statement 4 is incorrect: The provision of free
importance of solving PYQs. Moreover,
legal services to Senior Citizens is dependent
questions on the same subject matter have
on the rules framed by the respective state
been asked in 2017.
governments who can prescribe income limits.
53. (b) Sub-Theme: Liberal-Intellectual Principles As a result, not all elderly people qualify for
z Part IV of the Constitution of India, spanning free legal assistance.
article 36 to 51, deals with the Directive
NOTE: In 2013, UPSC asked about the
Principles of State Policy.
objectives and functions of NALSA. This
z In the chapter on the Directive Principles time they have asked about criteria for free
of State Policy, Article 50 mentions legal services by NALSA.
separation of judiciary from the executive.
55. (b) Sub-Theme: Socialist Principles
z This article comes under the Liberal-
Option (b) is correct: Part IV of the Constitution
Intellectual Principles, which represent
of India, spanning article 36 to 51, deals with the
the ideology of liberalism.
Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 39
z The doctrine of Separation of powers of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
entails the division of the legislative, clearly says that the operation of the economic
executive, and judicial functions of system does not result in the concentration
government among different organs. of wealth and means of production to the
z This distinction prevents any branch of the common detriment.
government from concentrating too much Additional Information:
authority. As a result, it supports preserving z Right to Equality: Articles 14 to 18 deals
the liberties and rights of the populace in with ‘Right to Equality’ –
democracies. Equality before Law (Article 14)
NOTE: In respect to India the separation Prohibition of discrimination based
of judiciary from the executive is not a on grounds of religion, race, caste etc.
conventional practice. The Preamble and (Article 15)
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution have Equality of opportunity in matters of
already been explained in previous sections. public employment (Article 16)
54 (a) Sub-Theme: Application part of DPSPs Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17)
Statement 1 is correct: Free legal services Abolition of titles (Article 18)
are available to the groups of society that are z Right to Freedom: Article 19 - 21 deals
listed under Section 12 of the Legal Services with ‘Right to Freedom’ - Protection of six
Authorities Act, they are: rights regarding freedom of: (Article 19)
z Women and children 1. Speech and Expression
z Members of SC/ST 2. Assembly
z Industrial workmen 3. Association
z Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, 4. Movement
drought, earthquake industrial disaster 5. Residence
z Disabled persons 6. Profession
z Persons in custody z Protection in respect of conviction for
z Persons whose annual income does not offences (Article 20)
exceed ₹1 lakh or may be prescribed by z Protection of life and personal liberty
the State Government (Article 21)
z Beggars or those who have fallen victim to z Concept of Welfare: It itself is a part of
human trafficking. DPSP.

56. (a) Sub-Theme: List of Fundamental Duties z In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were
Option (a) is correct: first recommended by the Swaran Singh
z Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Committee, its need was felt during
Constitution deals with the Fundamental the internal emergency (1975-77) and
Duties. These duties are the moral and civic were added to the Constitution by 42nd
obligations that all citizens of a nation have. Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
z To vote in public elections is not a z Later, one more Fundamental Duty was
fundamental duty as it is not included in added by 86th Constitutional Amendment
article 51A. Act, 2002.
z Only the Fundamental Rights, not the List of Fundamental Duties are -
Fundamental Duties, were included in the z To abide by the Constitution and respect
original constitution. National Flag and National Anthem (Not
national song)
z In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were
first recommended by the Swaran Singh z To follow the noble ideals that inspired the
Committee, its need was felt during struggle for freedom.
the internal emergency (1975-77) and z To protect the sovereignty, unity and
were added to the Constitution by 42nd integrity of India.
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. z To render national service when called upon
z Later, one more Fundamental Duty was to do so.
added by 86th Constitutional Amendment z To promote the common spirit of
Act, 2002. brotherhood amongst all Indians and to
List of Fundamental Duties: renounce practices derogatory to the dignity
z To abide by the Constitution and respect of women.
National Flag and National Anthem (Not z To preserve the rich heritage of the
national song) country’s culture.
z To follow the noble ideals that inspired the z To protect the national environment
struggle for freedom. including forests, lakes, wildlife, etc.
z To protect the sovereignty, unity and z To develop scientific temper, humanism
integrity of India. and spirit of reform and inquiry.
z To render national service when called upon z To safeguard public property and to abjure
to do so. violence.
z To promote the common spirit of z To strive towards excellence in all spheres
brotherhood amongst all Indians + to of individuals.
renounce practices derogatory to the dignity z To provide opportunity for education to his
of women. child between the age 6 and 14 years
z To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s Thus, Protecting the weaker sections
culture. from social injustice is more relevant to
z To protect the national environment Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), not
including forests, lakes, wildlife, etc. Fundamental Duties.
z To develop scientific temper, humanism 58. (d) Sub-Theme: List of Fundamental Duties
and spirit of reform and inquiry. z Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian
z To safeguard public property and to Constitution deals with the Fundamental
abjure violence. Duties. These duties are the moral and civic
obligations that all citizens of a nation have.
z To strive towards excellence in all spheres
z In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were
of individuals.
first recommended by the Swaran Singh
z To provide opportunity for education to his Committee, its need was felt during
child between the age 6 and 14 years the internal emergency (1975-77) and
57. (c) Sub-Theme: List of Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by 42nd
z Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Constitution deals with the Fundamental z One of the Fundamental Duties is to “To
Duties. These duties are the moral and civic protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity
obligations that all citizens of a nation have. of India” among the 11 Fundamental Duties.
Polity 139
59. (d) Sub-Theme: Basics of Fundamental Duties Both the houses need to
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties Bill in houses pass the bill with special
are enumerated in Part IV-A and consists of majority
single Article 51A with 11 sub-articles. These There is no provision for
duties should guide the legislative and executive Joint seating a joint sitting in case of
actions of elected or non-elected institutions (Art. 108) disagreement between the
and organisations of the citizens including the two Houses.
municipal bodies. But no legislative process has
Special majority + ratification
been provided to enforce these duties. These Amending
by the legislatures of half
duties are thus non-enforceable and non- federal
of the states by a simple
justiciable in nature. provisions
majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The fundamental
Duties are not correlative of the legal duties. 24th constitutional
Parliament may provide legislation for the amendment: It also
imposition of penalty or punishment for non- amended Article 368 to
observance or infringement of duties. provide expressly that
Parliament has power to
NOTE: Fundamental Duties are confined to Role of
amend any provision of the
citizens only & not to foreigners. President in
Constitution.
assenting the
60. (b) Sub-Theme: Procedure for the Amendment The amendment further
bill
Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior permission of made it obligatory for
the President to give his
the President is not required to introduce the
assent, when a Constitution
bill amending the Constitution in India.
Amendment Bill was
Statement 2 is correct: The 24th
presented to him.
constitutional amendment made it obligatory
for the President to give his assent, when a Role of state State legislature cannot
Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to legislature in introduce such a bill.
him. introducing
Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 of bill
the Indian constitution requires that the
NOTE: Earlier in 2013 a question on such a
constitution of India can be amended by
basic concept of Constitutional Amendment
both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority
came from M. Laxmikanth. Therefore, it
(special majority). In case of disagreement
is advisable to read M. Laxmikanth very
between both houses, there is no provision to
minutely and analyse the PYQs.
summon a joint session of parliament.
Procedure for the Amendment (Article 368): 61. (d) Sub-Theme: Procedure for the Amendment
Statement 1 is incorrect: An amendment
Borrowed Constitution of South
of the Constitution can be initiated by the
from Africa
introduction of a bill in either house of the
Amendment bill can be Parliament.
Introduction
introduced only in either Statement 2 is incorrect: If the bill seeks
of bills
house of Parliament to amend the Federal provisions of the
Who can Either by a minister or Constitution, then it must also be ratified by
introduce? private member. the legislatures of half of the states by a
President’s Prior permission of the simple majority.
role in President is not required to NOTE: In this question focus on extreme/
introduction introduce the bill. absolute words such as “Only” in sentence
of bill 1 and “All” in sentence 2 to pinpoint your
Special Majority: Majority of thinking on given statements. Not all the
the total membership of that time, but most of the time such reasoning
Type of house (50%) + by a majority will help you out.
Majority of not less than 2/3 of the 62. (b) Sub-Theme: Important and Major Constitutional
needed members of that house Amendments
present and voting (2/3 of Statement 1 is incorrect: The 44th
Present and Voting). amendment of the Indian Constitution

was significant as it removed partially the 64. (b) Sub-Theme: State Emergency/President’s Rule
distortions that were introduced into the Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation of
Constitution by 42nd Amendment, but it had no the President’s Rule is also known as ‘State
proposal of an article placing the election of Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’. As
the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. per article 356 of the Constitution of India,
The 39th Amendment of the Constitution of the president has the authority to declare if he
India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the is satisfied that the state government cannot
election of the President, the Vice President, function in accordance with the Constitution’s
the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the
provisions. (The President can act on the
Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian
report of the governor or otherwise). But the
courts. It was passed during the Emergency of
ground for Dissolution of the State Legislative
1975–1977.
Assembly is not necessarily the consequence of
Statement 2 is correct: The 99th
proclamation.
Constitutional Amendment Act would have
Statement 2 is incorrect: When the President’s
established the National Judicial Appointments
Rule is imposed in a state, the President
Commission (NJAC). But, in 2015, a five judge
dismisses the state council of ministers headed
Constitution Bench of SC by 4:1 majority
by the chief minister.
upheld the collegium system and struck down
Statement 3 is correct: There is no mention
the NJAC as unconstitutional.
of Dissolution of the local bodies during the
In this regard, Justice Khehar stated that proclamation of President’s Rule.
the proposed NJAC violated the judiciary’s
65. (b) Sub-Theme: State Emergency/ President’s Rule
independence because the expectation from the
judiciary is to protect the rights of the citizens of z The proclamation of the President’s Rule
this country, and that this expectation can only is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or
be ensured by maintaining absolute isolation ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
and independence from the other organs of z When the President’s Rule is imposed in a
government. state, the President dismisses the state
63. (d) Sub-Theme: Final Interpreter and Guardian of council of ministers headed by the chief
minister and parliament passes the state
the Constitution
bills and budgets.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Though the 42nd
z Ground for declaration of President’s Rule
Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the power
in a State:
of HC in judicial review and debarred the HC
Article 356: The president has the
from considering the constitutional validity of
any central law. authority to declare if he is satisfied that
However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1978 the state government cannot function
restored the original position of the HC and in accordance with the Constitution’s
moreover now the HC is considered as the provisions. (The President can act on
principal civil courts of original jurisdiction the report of the governor or otherwise).
in each state and union territory, thus they shall Article 365: If a state fails to give effect
have the jurisdiction to declare any central or comply with any direction from the
law to be constitutionally invalid. Centre, then it is lawful for the president
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of to impose president’s rule.
India has conferred a very extensive jurisdiction Additional Information:
and vast powers on the Supreme Court. As the z Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
SC is the final interpreter and guardian of is not necessarily the consequence of
the Constitution and also the guarantor of the proclamation.
fundamental rights of the citizens. z When the President’s Rule is imposed in a
Moreover, in the Kesavananda Bharati case state, the President dismisses the state
(1973), SC laid down a new doctrine of the council of ministers headed by the chief
‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Therefore, minister and parliament passes the state
any constitutional amendment that is ultra bills and budgets.
vires or goes against the ‘basic structure’ z In case of President’s Rule or State Emergency
of the Indian Constitution can be nullified by there is no effect on Fundamental Rights like
the SC. Article 19.
Polity 141
z According to the 44th Constitutional z Thus, the authorization for the withdrawal
Amendment only when National Emergency of funds from the Consolidated Fund of
is declared on the grounds of “war or India must come from the Parliament of
external aggression” & not the ground of India.
“armed rebellion” the Fundamental Rights 67. (c) Sub-Theme: Different Funds
like Article 19 gets suspended with effect Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266)
of Article 358. z All receipts are credited to the Consolidated
z The Parliament passes the state legislative fund of India, and all payments are debited
bills and the state budget during President’s from it. Thus, all revenues received by the
Rule. Union Government by way of taxes and other
66. (b) Sub-Theme: Consolidated Fund of India receipts for the conduct of Government
business are credited to it.
Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266)
z All receipts are credited to the Consolidated z All the legally authorised payments on
fund of India, and all payments are debited behalf of the Government of India are made
from it. out of this fund.
z All the legally authorised payments on Additional Information:
The accounts of Government are kept in three
behalf of the Government of India are made
parts: -
out of this fund.
1. Consolidated Fund of India
z No money out of this fund can be issued
2. Contingency Fund of India and
except in accordance with a parliamentary
law. 3. Public Account
Different Funds with GoI

Consolidated Fund Of India Public Account Of India Contingency Fund Of India
(Article 266) (Article 266) (Article 267)
z It is a fund to which all z All public money other than z Amounts determined by
receipts are credited, and all those which are credited to parliament by law are paid from
payments are debited. the CFI shall be credited here. time to time into this fund.
z All the legally authorised z Includes provident fund z Fund is placed at the disposal
payments on behalf of the deposits, judicial deposits, of the president, and he can
Government of India are savings bank deposits, make advances out of it to meet
made out of this fund. departmental deposits, unforeseen expenditure.
z No money out of this remittances and so on. z Held by the finance secretary
fund can be issued except z Operated by executive action. on behalf of the president. It is
in accordance with a operated by executive action.
parliamentary law.
68. (b) Sub-Theme: Constitutional Government is applicable to both Union and State level. The
The Constitutional Government is defined by Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
the existence of a constitution. The idea behind (CoM) are responsible to the Lok Sabha.
constitutionalism is to place restrictions on the This is called Collective Responsibility, which
authority of the state so that it does not become is considered as the bedrock of Parliamentary
autocratic. Thus, the Constitutional Government Government. Article 75 of the Constitution of
places restrictions on the Authority of the State India states that CoM is collectively responsible
to protect the interest of individual liberty to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can remove
(Example: Fundamental Rights). CoM by passing no confidence motion.
69. (d) S u b -T h e m e : Pa r l i a m e n t a r y Sy s t e m o f 70. (a) S u b -T h e m e : B a s i c I d e a o f D e m o c ra c y
Government (Conceptual)
India has a parliamentary system of The basic idea of democracy is the desire,
government. The Union Parliament is the approval and participation of people. A
supreme legislative body in the country and democratic government is created, and its
in a Parliamentary system, the executive is operations are decided by the will of the
responsible for Parliament. In India, this system people. It is the decision of people that creates

a democratic government and decides about authority of state so that it does not become
its functioning. Therefore, democracy requires autocratic and also to protect the interest of
voters’ decision making - hence, intelligence individual liberty. In India the powers of the
and character are called in. government are limited by means of the
71. (b) Sub-Theme: System of Government Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part III
A parliamentary system of government is one of the Indian Constitution, which are essentially
in which the executive is accountable to the given to us against the state actions.
electorate through a legislature which in turn Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect: A
is periodically elected by the electorate. This constitutional government may not have a
responsibility means that the executive stays legislature, could be a bi-party government
in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of and need not be a popular government and can
the house. India has a parliamentary system of instead be a monarchy.
government. The Prime Minister and his Council
of Ministers (CoM) are responsible to the Lok NOTE: Question on the same theme has
been asked by UPSC in 2014 - “Definition
Sabha. This is called Collective Responsibility.
of a constitutional government”.
z Parliamentary system functions irrespective 73. (d) Sub-Theme: System of Government
of whether all parties have representation The Constitutional Government is defined by
in the government. the existence of a Constitution The idea behind
z The government in the Parliamentary constitutionalism is to place restrictions on the
system is not directly elected by the people authority of state so that it does not become
but indirectly through their representative autocratic and also to protect the interest of
in Parliament. Therefore, the instrument to individual liberty. In India the powers of the
remove the government through public vote government are limited by means of the
is not available in the parliamentary system. Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part III
z It goes against the fundamental principle of of the Indian Constitution, which are essentially
parliamentary democracy which requires given to us against the state actions.
an executive responsible to the legislature. NOTE: Also asked in 2014 and 2020,
NOTE: Observe thematic approach by therefore please do refer to the earlier
UPSC here. Questions on “parliamentary solution/ explanations.
government theme” have been asked as 74. (c) Sub-Theme: System of Government
follows: Statement 1 is correct: Indian Parliamentary
z 2013: principles of parliamentary
system is based on constitutional supremacy,
government
hence power of the Parliament to legislate is
z 2015: basics of parliamentary limited. Whereas the British Model is based on
government
Parliamentary sovereignty. So, as regards the
z 2017: advantage of parliamentary legislation, the British Parliament is supreme.
government Statement 2 is correct: According to the
z 2017: principles cabinet government, Constitution, Parliament and the state
also known as parliamentary government legislatures in India have the power to make
z 2020: basics of parliamentary laws within their respective jurisdictions.
government This power is not absolute in nature. The
72. (d) Sub-Theme: System of Government Constitution vests in the judiciary, the
The Constitutional Government is defined by power to adjudicate upon the constitutional
the existence of a Constitution The idea behind validity of all laws.
constitutionalism is to place restrictions on the Additional Information:
DIFFERENCE BETWEEN INDIAN & BRITISH MODELS
Indian Model British Model

z Republican system: Head of State z Monarchical system: Head of State (King/Queen) is
(President) is indirectly elected. hereditary.
Polity 143
z Constitutional supremacy z Parliamentary sovereignty
z The PM may be a member of any of the z The PM should be a member of the Lower House.
houses. z Usually, members of parliament are appointed as
z A person who is not a member of any house ministers.
can be appointed as minister, but only for z System of legal responsibility of the minister.
six months. Ministers are required to countersign the official
z No system of legal responsibility of acts.
ministers. Ministers are not required to z Shadow Cabinet by opposition: to balance the
countersign the official acts. ruling cabinet and prepare its members for future
z No Shadow Cabinet ministerial office.
75. (c) Sub-Theme: Legislative Powers of President India and he/she is the ex-officio head of the
India follows a Parliamentary type of Civil Services Board.
Government in which the President is the 78. (a) Sub-Theme: Election of President
constitutional head of the state. He is the Statement 1 is correct: The President of
Executive head of India, and all the executive India is elected indirectly by the Electoral
powers of the Union shall be vested in him. College and it is conducted in accordance with
The President lays Reports and Statements the system of proportional representation
before the parliament of the following bodies: by means of single transferable vote. The
z Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor President of India is elected by an electoral
General college consisting of:
z Annual report of UPSC z Elected members of the two Houses of
Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of
z Reports of Finance Commission.
the States
z Reports of Special officers of SC & ST
z States includes national capital territory of
z Report of the National Commission for Delhi and the Union territory of Pondicherry.
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Do not participate: Nominated members of
z Report of the National Commission of both the houses of the parliament & of state
Backward Classes. legislative assemblies and all the members of
76. (a) Sub-Theme: Powers of President legislative councils of states.
Statement 1 is correct: India follows a Value of Vote: The value of votes of MLAs
would differ from State to State as it is based
Parliamentary type of Government in which
on population criterion and population of each
the President is the constitutional head of
state has a different value.
the state. He is the Executive head of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of vote of
Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution says
each MP is the same whether it is Lok Sabha or
that the President shall make rules for the
Rajya Sabha. There shall be uniformity in the
more convenient transaction of the business of scale of representation of the different states at
the Government of India, and for the allocation the election of the President as follows:
among Ministers of the said business. Value of vote of an MLA of a state: (Population
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) of of state/Total number of elected members of
the Indian Constitution lays down all executive state legislative assembly) * 100
action of the Government of India shall be Value of vote of an MP: (Total value of votes
expressed to be taken in the name of the of MLA’s of all states/Total number of elected
President. members parliament) * 100
77. (d) Sub-Theme: Powers of President/Executives 79. (b) Sub-Theme: Election of the Vice President
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Statement 1 is incorrect: In accordance with
Article 53(1), the executive power of the Article 64 of the Constitution of India, the Vice
Union shall be vested in the President and shall President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of
be exercised by him either directly or through Rajya Sabha. The House also elects a Deputy
officers subordinate to him in accordance with Chairman from among its members. Hence,
this Constitution. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cabinet member of that house.
Secretary is the top-most executive official and Statement 2 is correct: Vice President elected
senior-most civil servant of the Government of indirectly by an electoral college consisting

of all members of parliament (Both elected Houses of Parliament within one month from
& nominated). The election is conducted in the date of its issue. If approved by both
accordance with the system of proportional the Houses of Parliament, the emergency
representation by means of single transferable continues for six months, and can be extended
vote. State government does not participate in to an indefinite period with an approval of the
the Vice President’s election. Parliament for every six months.
80. (a) Sub-Theme: Appointment of PM Statement 2 is correct: No confidence Motion
z As per the article 75 (1) of the Indian can only be initiated and passed in LS.
Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article
by the President, who also appoints other 61, when a President is to be impeached for
ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. violation of the Constitution, the charges can
be initiated by either House of Parliament.
z A person who is not a member of
The impeachment resolution needs to be
the Parliament/State legislature can be
passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total
appointed as PM/CM for six months,
membership in each house.
within which time, he should be elected
to the Parliament/State legislature. This is 83. (b) Sub-Theme: Council of Ministers
provided by a Supreme Court in one of the Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution
judgments. mentions the word ‘council of ministers’,
however it doesn’t classify ministers into 4
81. (a) Sub-Theme: People’s Representative/Speaker
and Deputy Speaker categories. Generally, the Prime Minister and
other Ministers are collectively known as the
Statement 1 is correct: The date of election
Council of Ministers.
of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
Statement 2 is correct: As per 91st CAA, the
While on the other hand the date of election of
total number of Central Council of Ministers/
the Speaker is fixed by the President.
State Council of Ministers including Prime
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such
Minister/Chief Minister should not be more
mandatory provision that the election of a
than 15% of total strength of Lok Sabha. It
candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall
stated that the number of ministers in the state
be from either the principal opposition party or
legislature, including the CM, in a state shall not
the ruling party. It is only by convention that
be less than 12. A member who is disqualified
the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the
on the ground of defection shall also be
opposition party in India.
disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence
of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides 84. (a) S u b -T h e m e : D ev i c e s o f Pa rl i a m e n t a r y
over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts Proceedings
the business in the house, during such time z Adjournment Motion: Adjournment
he/she enjoys the same power as the Speaker Motion is one of the devices of Parliamentary
when presiding over the sitting of the House. Proceedings. It is introduced to draw
Statement 4 is incorrect: Regarding the attention of the House to a definite matter
appointment of Deputy Speaker, there is no of urgent public importance which is a
such parliamentary practice of moving motion definite, factual, urgent matter of recent
by Speaker and duty seconded by the Prime occurrence.
Minister. Additional Information:
NOTE: Be attentive while attempting this z Question Hour: In the First Hour of
type of question here in statement 2 and parliamentary sitting usually members
4 you can see the use of extreme words ask questions and ministers give answers
such as ‘mandatory’ and over emphasising but sometimes questions can be asked to
words such as ‘well established’, so it private members too.
is a red flag, not all time but most of the z Three types of Question are asked
time such types of statements are generally namely:
wrong. Before marking, at least think and 1. Starred Question: Require oral answer
then mark the answer, otherwise you may and Supplementary question can be
lose 2 marks in haste!! asked.
82. (b) Sub-Theme: Exclusive powers of LS &RS 2. Unstarred Question: Require written
Statement 1 is incorrect: The proclamation answer and Supplementary question
of Emergency must be approved by both the cannot be asked.
Polity 145
3. Short Notice Question: Answered 2. It can authorise the Parliament to create
orally and asked on short notice of less new All-India Services common to both
than 10 days. the Centre and states (Article 312).
85. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic Provisions of Parliament 3. Resolution for the removal of the vice-
Statement 1 is incorrect: Union Territories president can be introduced only in the Rajya
like Delhi and Pondicherry are represented in Sabha not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67).
the Rajya Sabha. Also, The union territory will 4. A proclamation for imposing national
get its representation as soon as the Union emergency or president’s rule or financial
Territory of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative emergency (Articles 352, 356 and 360) can
Assembly is elected. remain effective even if it is approved by the
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court Rajya Sabha alone if Lok Sabha is dissolved
and High Court adjudicate on the election before or during the emergency period.
disputes. It is not within the purview of the 88. (a) Sub-Theme: Joint Session of Parliament
Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate
Joint sitting (Article 108) of two house:
election disputes. As per article 323 (b) of the
z The Constitution offers extraordinary
Constitution of India - to resolve all matters
mechanisms to break a deadlock between
related to election disputes of parliament
the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
or state legislature, union parliament can
constitute a tribunal. It also excludes judiciary z Summon: The president can summon joint
jurisdiction to look into these matters. sitting for the purpose of deliberating and
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the voting on the bill.
Constitution of India, the Parliament consists z Bills: Applicable to ordinary bills or
of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the financial bills only and not to money bills
President of India. or Constitutional amendment bills.
86. (b) Sub-Theme: Speaker of Lok Sabha z Quorum: The quorum to constitute a joint
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker is the sitting shall be one-tenth of the total number
presiding officer or the Chairman of the Lok of members of the Houses.
Sabha. Article 93 to 97 of the Constitution of z Presides: The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides
India deals with the provisions of Presiding over a joint sitting and the Deputy Speaker,
officer of the Lok Sabha. Usually, the Speaker in his absence. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
remains in office during the life of the Lok does not preside over a joint sitting
Sabha. as he is not a member of either House of
Statement 2 is incorrect: Elected by the Lok Parliament but deputy chairman of Rajya
Sabha from amongst its members and the date Sabha can.
of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is
89. (c) Sub-Theme: Delimitation
fixed by the President.
Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker of the Statement 1 is correct: The act of Delimitation
Lok Sabha has to vacate his office earlier in is redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and
any of the following three cases: Assembly constituencies to represent changes
z If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha; in population and done on the basis of the
preceding Census. Its objective is to ensure that
z If he resigns by writing to the Deputy
all population groups are fairly represented,
Speaker; and
with equitable geographic distribution so that
z If he is removed by a resolution passed by no political party benefits. A Delimitation
a majority of all, then members of the Lok
Commission is in charge of carrying out this
Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only
exercise, and its decisions are binding and
after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
cannot be challenged in court.
87. (b) Sub-Theme: Special Power of Rajya Sabha Statement 2 is correct: When the orders of the
The Rajya Sabha has been given four Delimitation Commission are laid before the
exclusive or special powers that are not Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they
enjoyed by the Lok Sabha: cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
1. It can authorise the Parliament to make a Additional Information:
law on a subject enumerated in the State z The Delimitation Commission is appointed
List (Article 249). by the President of India and works in

partnership with the Election Commission of the government’s budget while an Interim
of India. Budget is a complete set of accounts i.e. it
z Members: A serving or retired Supreme includes both expenditure and receipts.
Court judge, Chief Election Commissioner 92. (a) Sub-Theme: Union Budget/Annual Financial
or an Election Commissioner nominated Statement
by CEC and Election Commissioners of the Statement 1 is correct: Article 112 of the
respective state. Indian Constitution deals with placing annual
z Function: To determine the number and financial statements in Parliament.
boundaries of constituencies, to identify Statement 2 is correct: Article 114 mandates
that the government can withdraw money from
seats reserved for SC/ST.
it only after receiving approval from Parliament.
z Power: It is a high power body whose orders Statement 3 is correct: Votes on account, votes
have the force of law and cannot be called in on credit and exceptional grants are specified
question before any court. in Article 116 of the constitution.
z Delimitation Commissions have been Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such
set up four times: 1952, 1963, 1973 and Parliamentary budget office to review programs
2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 of Government. Though there is an Estimate
and 2002. Committee of parliament to review policies and
continuous examination of estimates from time
90. (d) Sub-Theme: Union Budget/Annual Financial to time throughout the year.
Statement/Provision of Resignation for PM/CoM Statement 5 is correct: The Finance Bill is a
According to Article 112 of the Constitution, part of the Union Budget, stipulating all the
the Finance Minister must present the Budget legal amendments required for the changes in
or annual financial statement each year. It taxation proposed by the Finance Minister.
is a statement of estimated receipts and 93. (b) Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committee
expenditure of the Government of India that Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliamentary
has to be laid before the Parliament in respect Committee on Public Accounts consists of
of every financial year. 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha
Provision of Resignation for PM/CoM: and 7 from Rajya Sabha. It is formed every
z When the annual Union Budget is not year with its members serving one-year terms
passed by the Lok Sabha, the PM and in office.
Council of Ministers submits their Statement 2 is correct: It scrutinises
resignation. appropriation and finance accounts of the
Government.
z If the money bill has not been passed in Statement 3 is correct: It’s chief function is
Lok Sabha, it leads to the dissolution of Lok to examine the report of the Comptroller and
Sabha i.e. it questions the majority of the Auditor General of India.
Lok Sabha and therefore the government 94. (b) Sub-Theme: Functions of Parliament
needs to pass a confidence motion to prove
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 75(3)
the majority in the house. of the constitution “the Council of Ministers
z The PM and the Council of Ministers resign shall be collectively responsible to the House
if a Vote of No Confidence has been passed of the People” not to the whole parliament as
in the Lok Sabha. it includes Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha both.
91. (b) Sub-Theme: Interim Budget vis-a-vis Vote On Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(2) of
the Constitution of India mandates that the
Account
Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure
Statement 1 is incorrect: During the time of the President.
of approaching elections, it is not practical to Statement 3 is correct: According to
present a full budget, therefore the government Article 78, it is the duty of the Prime Minister
presents an interim budget. Interim Budget to communicate to the President all decisions
can be presented by all governments whether of the Council of Ministers relating to the
incumbent or regular or caretaker. administration of the affairs of the union and
Statement 2 is correct: Vote-on-Account is proposals for legislation.
a provision by which the government seeks 95. (a) Sub-Theme: Money Bill
Parliament’s approval for funds that are Money Bill (Article 110):
sufficient to bear the expenditure till the z Matter concerned with financial matters
formation of a new government takes place. A like the imposition, abolition, remission,
vote-on-account contains only the expenditure alteration or regulation of any tax.
Polity 147
z Can be introduced Only in Lok Sabha. Additional Information:
z Introduced only on the recommendation of No confidence Motion Censure Motion
the President. z Art. 75: Council z Moved to
z Cannot be amended or rejected by the of ministers shall seek the
Rajya Sabha should return the bill with or be collectively disapproval
without recommendation Lok Sabha may responsible to of certain
accept or reject recommendation. the Lok Sabha. policies of the
z Rajya Sabha can keep it for a maximum This principle is government.
period of 14 days. the bedrock of z Need to
z Requires the certification of the Speaker. parliamentary state the
z Rajya Sabha has limited power with democracy. reasons for its
respect to money bills so no chance of any z Not mentioned in adoption.
disagreement. the Constitution, z Can be moved
z The President can reject or approve is moved under against an
but cannot return it to parliament for Rule 198 of rules of individual
reconsideration. procedure and can minister or
96. (d) Sub-Theme: Functions of Parliament be moved only in a group of
Lok Sabha. ministers or
Legislative Power
z The Parliament is empowered to make laws z Ministry stays in the entire
on all matters listed in the Union List and office till they enjoy council of
the Concurrent List of the Constitution. confidence of the ministers.
z As per Article 250, it can also formulate laws majority of the If it is passed in
over the State List when an Emergency is members of the Lok the Lok Sabha,
declared in the country, or President’s Rule Sabha the CoM need
is declared in any State. z Needs support of not resign from
z Article 253 says that it can also formulate 50 members, no the office but
laws on any matter pertaining to the need to state the the government
State List if it is deemed necessary for the reasons for its to seek the
implementation of international treaties or adoption. confidence
agreements concluded with foreign nations. Moved only against of the house
the entire CoM (Not immediately.
97. (c) Sub-Theme: No-Confidence Motion
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution against individual/
of India does not mention about either a group of ministers) and
Confidence or a No Confidence Motion. A if passed, the CoM must
motion of “No Confidence Motion” against the resign from office.
Government can be introduced only in the 98. (b) Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committees
Lok Sabha under rule 198. If the motion is The Estimates Committee was set up in 1950,
accepted, then the party in power has to prove on the recommendation of John Mathai. It
its majority in the House. The member need consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha
and it is the largest committee. The minister
not give a reason for moving the no-confidence
cannot be the members of the estimates
motion. committee. Its function is to examine the
Statement 2 is correct: The party can remain budget and also suggest economies of public
in power when it shows its strength through expenditure. It also suggests an alternative
a floor test which is primarily taken to know policy of bringing policy of economies.
whether the executive enjoys the confidence Additional Information:
of the legislature. If any member of the House Parliamentary Committee
feels that the government in power does not z The Constitution of India mentions these
committees at different places, but without
have a majority then he/she can move a no-
making any specific provisions regarding
confidence motion. A government can function their composition, tenure, functions, etc. as
only when it has majority support in the Lok it has been dealt in detail in the rules of two
Sabha. Houses.

z Public Accounts Committee 100. (b) Sub-Theme: Annual Financial Statement / Money
z Origin: set up first in 1921 under Govt. of Bill
India Act 1919 Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha can
z Composition: 22 (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya keep the Money Bill for a maximum period of
Sabha) Elected for one year – proportional 14 days. The house cannot amend or reject
representation by single transferable vote. the Money Bill, it should return the bill with
The Chairman – from Opposition Minister or without recommendation to Lok Sabha,
cannot be a member. after that Lok Sabha may accept or reject
z Function: To examine CAG Audit report and recommendation.
discover the irregularities Statement 2 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has
Committee on Public Undertakings no power to vote on the demand for grants; it is
z Origin: set up on the recommendations of the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
Krishna Menon Committee 1964 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha
enjoys equal status with the Lok Sabha on
z Composition: 22 (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya
Sabha) Elected for one year – proportional the matter of discussion of Annual Financial
representation by single transferable vote. Statement.
The Chairman – the opposition minister NOTE: In previous years, many questions
cannot be a member. have been asked on Money bill, Annual
z Function: To examine reports and accounts Financial Statement and role of Rajya Sabha
of public sector undertakings. Don’t involve and President in this regard. These are
day to day affairs of PSU. highly important topics.
z The Committee on Petitions 101. (a) Sub-Theme: Joint Session of Parliament
z Origin: It owes its origin to a resolution Joint sitting (Article 108) of two house:
moved by a member in the then Council of z It is extraordinary machinery provided
State on 15 September 1921. by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock
z Composition: 25 members (15 from Lok between the two Houses over the passage
Sabha + 10 from Rajya Sabha) Nominated of a bill -
by Speaker/Chairman as the case may be. 1. If the bill is rejected by the other House.
z Function: To estimate every petition 2. If the Houses have finally disagreed as to
referred to it and if the petition complies the amendments to be made in the bill;
with the rules to direct that it be circulated. or
99. (c) Sub-Theme: Executive Functions 3. If more than six months have elapsed
Statement 1 is correct: A cabinet secretary from the date of the receipt of the bill by
is appointed for a fixed period of time, usually the other House without the bill being
two years. The All India Services (Death-Cum- passed by it.
Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958 state that the z Summon: The president can summon joint
government may extend a cabinet secretary’s sitting for the purpose of deliberating and
tenure as long as the overall length of service voting on the bill.
does not exceed four years. A Cabinet Secretary
102. (d) Sub-Theme: Legislative Power of Parliament
holds the responsibility of preparation of
agenda for Cabinet Meetings. Legislative Power
Statement 2 is correct: The prime minister z In accordance with the Constitution the
has direct control over the cabinet secretariat. Parliament has the authority to enact
The cabinet secretary, who serves as the ex- legislation on all matters listed in the Union
officio chairman of the civil services board, is List and Concurrent List.
the administrative head of the secretariat. It z If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to
also gives secretary assistance to the Cabinet that effect with not less than two-thirds of
Committees. the members present and voting, the Union
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Secretariat Parliament may legislate on any item on the
facilitates government decision-making by State List in the interest of the country.
providing interministerial coordination. The z As per Article 250, it can also formulate laws
Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure over the State List when an Emergency is
is entrusted with the allocation of financial declared in the country, or President’s Rule
resources to the Ministries. is declared in any State.
Polity 149
z Article 253 says that it can also formulate Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian
laws on any matter pertaining to the constitution adopts the first-past-the-post
State List if it is deemed necessary for the (FPTP) system of elections where the majority
implementation of international treaties or of votes is sufficient to get elected, even if it is
agreements concluded with foreign nations. less than 50% of the total votes polled.
z Apart from these legislative powers the Statement 2 is incorrect: Speaker and Deputy
Parliament also enjoys the Executive Power, speaker are elected by the house. This is a
Financial Powers, Constituent Powers, convention (not constitutional provision)
Judicial Powers, Electoral Powers, and other that usually the Speaker’s post goes to the
powers. majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the
103. (b) Sub-Theme: Legislative Procedure of Parliament Opposition.
Statement 1 is incorrect: No bill lapses on 106. (d) S u b -T h e m e : D ev i c e s o f Pa rl i a m e n t a r y
prorogation. Prorogation does not affect the Proceedings
bills or any other business pending before the Devices Of Parliamentary Proceeding
House. z Adjournment Motion: It is introduced to
Statement 2 is correct: A Bill pending in the draw attention of the House to a definite
Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the matter of urgent public importance which
Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the is definite, factual, urgent, matter of recent
Lok Sabha. occurrence.
Additional Information: z Question Hour: In the First Hour of
Bill lapses:
parliamentary sitting usually members
z Bills pending in the Lok Sabha (whether
ask questions and ministers give answers
originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted
but sometimes questions can be asked to
to it by the Rajya Sabha)
private members too.
z Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending
z Three types of Question are asked namely–
in the Rajya Sabha. (Note – A bill originating
in Lok Sabha lapses) 1. Starred Question: Require oral answer
Bills does not lapse: and Supplementary question can be
z Bill not passed by the two Houses due to asked.
disagreement and if the president has 2. Unstarred Question: Require written
notified the holding of a joint sitting before answer and Supplementary question
the dissolution of Lok Sabha. cannot be asked.
z Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not 3. Short Notice Question: Answered
passed by the Lok Sabha. orally and asked on short notice of less
z Bill passed by both Houses but pending than 10 days.
assent of the president. Thus, Adjournment Motion, Question Hour
z Bill passed by both Houses but returned by and Supplementary Question, all constitutes
the president for reconsideration of Houses. devices of the Parliament of India through
104. (c) Sub-Theme: Qualification of Lok Sabha which it exercises control over the functions of
the Council of Ministers.
There are some qualification criteria
mentioned in the Indian Constitution for filing 107. (d) Sub-Theme: Legislative Procedure of Parliament
the nomination for Lok Sabha election and Statement 1 is incorrect: A Private Member
those are – bill can be introduced by any member of the
1. The candidate must be a citizen of India. Parliament other than a minister. Whereas, a
2. The age of the candidate should not less bill introduced by a Minister in the Parliament
than 25 years of age is called a public bill. A Private member bill
3. The candidate must be registered generally reflects the stand of the opposition
as an elector for a parliamentary party on public matters. There is less likelihood
constituency. that the Parliament will adopt it. Its rejection
by the House has no implication on the
NOTE: This a straightforward question, a parliamentary confidence in the government
proper reading of M. Laxmikanth could help or its resignation.
in giving the answer. Statement 2 is incorrect: As of now around
105. (d) Sub-Theme: People’s Representative/Speaker 14 private member’s bills have been passed
and Deputy Speaker since independence in Indian Parliament.

108. (b) Sub-Theme: Leader of Opposition z Rajya Sabha has limited power with
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Communist respect to money bills so no chance of any
Party of India (CPI) was the single largest disagreement.
opposition party in the First general Election. z The President can reject or approve
CPI won in 16 seats. The Indian National but cannot return it to parliament for
Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning reconsideration.
364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes 111. (a) Sub-Theme: Qualification and Disqualification
polled. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first of Parliament
democratically elected PM of the country. Statement 1 is correct: There is no bar on
Statement 2 is correct: In 1969, an official how many offices can be exempted from the
leader of the opposition was recognized for purview of the law. In the past the Supreme
the first time. However, it was given statutory Court also held that the Parliament (Prevention
recognition in 1977. of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006
Statement 3 is incorrect: In order to receive exempting 55 offices occupied by members
the status of opposition party and Consequent of Parliament from disqualification was
Leader of Opposition Tag a party should secure constitutionally valid.
10% of the total strength of the House i.e., Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has also
55 seats in the Lok Sabha. enacted the Parliament (Prevention of
109. (b) Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committees Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been
amended five times to expand the exempted
Committee on Subordinate Legislation:
list.
z Composition: 15 members from the Lok
Statement 3 is incorrect: Though the
Sabha are nominated by the Speaker. A expression ‘office of profit’ is mentioned in
Minister is not nominated to this Committee. the Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of
z Functions: Scrutinizes and reports to Constitution, however, it has neither been
the House whether the powers to make ‘defined’ in the Indian Constitution nor in
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
conferred by the Constitution or delegated According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a)
by Parliament are being properly exercised of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can
by the executive within the scope of such be barred from holding office of profit under
delegation. Central Government or state government as
it can put them in position to gain financial
NOTE: Simple yet confusing description benefit.
based question by UPSC. Trick to mark
112. (a) Sub-Theme: Parliamentary Committees
such description based questions correctly
z Parliamentary Committee: The purpose
is to keep focus on keywords. For instance,
of the parliamentary committees is to study
in the above question key words rules, sub-
and address a wide range of issues that the
rules, by-laws, delegated by the Parliament
legislature cannot directly address owing to
hints towards option (b) Committee on
their magnitude. They also keep an eye on
Subordinate Legislation.
how the executive branch is operating. There
110. (c) Sub-Theme: Money Bill are two types of parliamentary committees:
Money Bill (Article 110): permanent or standing committees and ad
z Matter concerned with financial matters hoc committees.
like the imposition, abolition, remission, z Department Related Standing Committee:
alteration or regulation of any tax. They are elected or appointed periodically,
z Can be introduced Only in Lok Sabha. and they work on a continuous basis to
z Introduced only on the recommendation of secure more accountability of the Executive
the President. to the Parliament, particularly financial
accountability. The latter are created on an
z Cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya ad hoc basis as the need arises and they
Sabha should return the bill with or without are dissolved after they complete the task
recommendation Lok Sabha may accept or assigned to them.
reject recommendation.
z Ad hoc committees: These committees are
z Rajya Sabha can keep it for a maximum created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises
period of 14 days. and they are dissolved after they complete
z Requires the certification of the Speaker. the task assigned to them.
Polity 151
z Both the Parliamentary committees Additional Information:
are responsible to review the z Rajya Sabha enjoys exclusive powers in the
independent regulators in sectors like matter of creating new All India Services.
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, z In the matter of removal of government,
etc. Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect
113. (d) Sub-Theme: People’s Representative to Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is
responsible only to Lok Sabha and not to the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian
Rajya Sabha. Thus, a no-confidence motion
Constitution lays down the following four
cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
qualifications for a person to be chosen as a
z Rajya Sabha has less or no powers in the
member of the state legislature, such as -
matters of finance like making cut motions,
z He must be a citizen of India.
passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha.
z He must take an oath or affirmation before
the person the Election Commission has 116. (d) Sub-Theme: Annual Financial Statement
designated for this purpose. In his oath or Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
affirmation, he swears. Management (FRBM) Act, 2003: The Macro-
Economic Framework Statement, presented to
z To bear true faith and allegiance to the
Parliament as per the Fiscal Responsibility and
Constitution of India
Budget Management Act, 2003. The Framework
z To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of Statement includes assessments of the GDP
India growth rate, Central Government fiscal balance,
z He must be not less than 30 years of age and the economy’s external sector balance.
in the case of the legislative council and 117. (b) Sub-Theme: People’s Representation
not less than 25 years of age in the case This Question was cancelled by UPSC.
of the legislative assembly. Probable Solution: (b)
z He must possess other qualifications Statement 1 is incorrect: The amendment of
prescribed by Parliament. RPA in 1996 restricted the number of seats one
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of candidate could contest in one election to two
RPA, 1951, a person convicted of any offence constituencies. And whenever they have won
and sentenced to imprisonment for not less more than one, the candidates have retained
than two years shall be disqualified from the only one, forcing bypolls in the rest.
date of such conviction and shall continue to be Statement 2 is correct: In 1991 Lok Sabha
disqualified for a further period of six years Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok
since his release not permanently disqualified. Sabha constituencies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such
114. (c) Sub-Theme: Sessions of Parliament provision. If a candidate is contesting from
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 85(1), more than one constituency, he has to lodge a
the Constitution gives the power to the separate return of election expenses for every
President to summon each House of Parliament election which he has contested. In every case,
to meet. The gap between two sessions must the Election Commission of India (ECI) bears
not exceed 6 months. the cost of elections/bye-elections in all the
Statement 2 is incorrect: By convention, constituencies in Lok Sabha and assembly
Parliament meets for three sessions in a year elections as well.
not by Constitution. 118. (d) Sub-Theme: MPLADS
Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the
of the minimum number of days that the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works
Parliament is required to meet in a year. of developmental nature with emphasis on the
115. (b) Sub-Theme: Rajya Sabha creation of durable community assets based
The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their
Sabha in matters like – Constituencies.
z The impeachment of the President, Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend
every year, works costing at least 15% of the
z Removal of the vice-president,
MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas
z Constitutional amendments, and inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and
z Removal of the judges of the Supreme Court 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
and the High Courts. Statement 3 is incorrect: The released funds

under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable State Bar Councils to do so are one of the
i.e., if the money is not utilised, it gets carried functions of BCI.
to the next year. 121. (c) Sub-Theme: Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme
Statement 4 is correct: The district authority Court
should visit and inspect at least 10% of the Statement 1 is correct: According to Article
works every year. It is also expected to involve 131, a dispute between the Government of
the MPs in such activities. India and one or more States.
119. (b) Sub-Theme: Contempt of Court Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 329 (b),
Statement 1 is correct: Pursuant to the no election to either House of Parliament or to
recommendations made by the H N Sanyal the House or either House of the Legislature of
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 a State shall be called in question except by an
was passed to bring transparency and more election petition presented to such authority
clarity in the concept of contempt of court. and in such manner as may be provided for
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and by or under any law made by the appropriate
the High Courts of India have been empowered Legislature.
with the power to penalise Contempt of Court Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 131 doesn’t
under Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution mention UT anywhere. Further, the original
of India. jurisdiction mentioned in 131 is regarding
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of issues between the federal units; UTs being
India does not define Civil Contempt and/or part of the Central Government in one way or
Criminal Contempt. However, the expression the other.
has been defined by the Contempt of Court Statement 4 is correct: According to Article
Act of 1971. 131, a dispute between two or more states
Statement 4 is correct: Article 142 (2) of comes under the original jurisdiction of the
the Indian Constitution states that “subject to Supreme Court.
the provisions of any law made on this behalf 122. (c) Sub-Theme: Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme
by Parliament” the Supreme Court shall have Court
all and every power to make any order on the According to Article 131, a dispute between
punishment of any contempt of itself. two or more states comes under the original
NOTE: Even if you don’t have any idea jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Other
about the H N Sanyal Committee, you can disputes which comes under the jurisdiction of
still reach the answer by deducing the other the Supreme Court are:
with your knowledge, which is possible if z State and other states
you have thoroughly read M. Laxmikanth. z Centre and state on one side and other state
In Laxmikanth it is clearly mentioned that on other side
the Constitution of India does not define z Original jurisdiction of the SC extends to any
Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt. dispute between the GoI and one or more
However, the expression has been defined states
by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme
Now if you eliminate statement 3 you’ll be Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.
left with two options i.e. (a) and (b). Now 123. (a) Sub-Theme: Independence of Supreme Court
you know that statement 4 is correct as per
Statement 1 is correct: The judges of the SC
Article 142(2), hence it has to be option (b)
are appointed by the President(which means
1, 2 and 4.
the cabinet) in consultation with the members
120. (b) Sub-Theme: Functions of Judiciary of the judiciary itself (i.e. judges of the SC and
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Advocates the HC).
Act, 1961 Advocates to be the only recognized Statement 2 is incorrect: SC judge can
class of persons entitled to practice law. be removed from his office by an order of
Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, President. The President can order for removal
are too recognized as advocates and there’s no of SC Judge only after an address by Parliament
prohibition on their recognition as advocates. has been presented to him in the same session
Statement 2 is correct: To recognize for such removal.
universities that offer a law degree as a Statement 3 is correct: The salaries,
prerequisite for becoming an advocate and allowances and pensions of the judges and the
inspect and visit universities, or to direct the staff as well as all the administrative expenses
Polity 153
of the SC are charges on the Consolidated Fund is necessary for doing complete justice in any
of India. Thus, they are non-votable by the cause or matter pending before it. This is often
Parliament. termed as ‘judicial activism’. Also in the Union
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chief Justice of Carbide Case, 1989, the Supreme Court while
India can appoint officers and servants of the SC overriding the laws made by the Parliament
without any interference from the executive. He invoked Article 142 to provide relief awarding
can also prescribe their conditions of service. the compensation to victims affected in the
124. (b) Sub-Theme: Constitutional Provisions Pertaining Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
to Supreme Court Additional Information:
z Article 124(1) mandates that there shall be z The ECI has the power to administer the
a Supreme Court of India constituting of a election to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State
Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament Legislative Assemblies in India, and the
by law prescribes a larger number, of not offices of the President and Vice President
more than seven other Judges. in the country. The decision of the election
commissions can be challenged by the
z The power to increase the number of judges
petitions in the High Court and Supreme
in the SC is vested in the Parliament.
Court.
z In the Indian Constitution, Parliament is
z Article 360 empowers the president to
authorised to regulate judges.
proclaim a financial emergency if he is
z In the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) satisfied that a situation has arisen due to
Amendment Bill, 2019, the number of which the financial stability or credit of India
judges in the SC was increased by 3 judges. or any part of its territory is threatened but
As a result, there are now 34 judges in total, the proclamation should be approved by
including the Chief Justice, as opposed to 31 the Parliament through a simple majority
before. within two months.
125. (c) Sub-Theme: Removal of Judges z According to Article 196 the state legislature
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Judges can make laws on State List as well as on
(Inquiry) Act, 1968, a removal motion signed Concurrent List.
by 100 members (Lok Sabha) or 50 members 127. (a) Sub-Theme: Constitutional Provisions Pertaining
(Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ to Supreme Court/Jurisdiction and Powers of
Chairman. The speaker has the discretion to High Court
accept or reject the motion.
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 128
Statement is 2 incorrect: The Constitution
of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India
of India does not define and gives details
may, at any time, with the previous consent of
of the expression ‘incapacity and proved
the President, can request a retired judge of
misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme
the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high
Court of India which are the ground for the
court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme
impeachment of the Judges.
Court for a temporary period. Such a judge is
Statement 3 is correct: The details of the
entitled to such allowances as the president
process of impeachment of the Judges of the
may determine. He will also enjoy all the
Supreme Court of India is governed by the
jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge
Judges Enquiry Act (1968).
of the Supreme Court.
Statement 4 is correct: If the motion for the
Statement 2 is incorrect: High Court does
impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting,
not has power to review and correct its own
the law requires that the motion be passed by
judgement. Thus, it is bound by its previous
a ‘special majority’ i.e. majority of the total
decision.
membership of the House and majority of not
less than two thirds members present and 128. (d) Sub-Theme: Interpretation of Constitution
voting. The Supreme Court as the Custodian of the
126. (b) Sub-Theme: Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme Indian Constitution:
Court z Indian Judiciary is an integrated, powerful
and independent judiciary.
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution deals
with the Enforcement of decrees and orders of z The Legislature and Executive works on
the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery, making laws and implementation of the laws,
etc. The SC in the exercise of its jurisdiction but the Judiciary works on safeguarding the
may pass such decree or make such order as public interest by checking into overreach,
misuse and error of law.

z Therefore, the authority to amend the provide free legal services to weaker sections of
constitution lies with the Parliament, but society for securing justice and are not denied
the SC has the authority to examine the to any citizen by reasons of economic or other
validity of those amendments. disabilities.
z SC has the power of Judicial Review. Statement 2 is correct: In every State, there
is a State Legal Service Authority to give effect
z According to Article 32, the SC is the
to the policies and directions of the NALSA and
guardian of Fundamental Rights.
to give free legal services to the people and
z The SC also an interpreter and Guardian of conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
the Constitution.
131. (d) Sub-Theme: Composition of Legislative
129. (a) Sub-Theme: Judicial Review Assembly/Legislative Council
Judicial Review: Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article
z In general terms, judicial review refers 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative
to the power and ability of High Courts Council of the state cannot be more than one
and Supreme Court to review laws or third of total strength of assembly. However,
judgments to ensure that they do not violate the size of the Legislative Council cannot be
constitutional or legal provisions. less than 40 members. The constitution has
Article 13: states that, Courts can review fixed the maximum and minimum limits but
government orders, legislations, byelaw, actual strength is fixed by Parliament.
rule, regulation, notification or any law Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the
in force in Indian Territory. Legislative Council are indirectly elected. The
Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected
Article 32/Article 226: allows a person
by the members from amongst itself.
to move to SC/HC in case of violation of
fundamental rights. Thus, SC & HC can 132. (a) Sub-Theme: Speaker & Deputy Speaker of
Assembly
issue writs as constitutional remedies
against the wrongdoer. Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker of the
Legislative Assembly vacates his office in three
Article 137: empowers SC to review
cases: 1. If he ceases to be a member of the
judgments or orders made by the
assembly; 2. Speaker Resigns by writing to the
Supreme Court itself. The review will
deputy speaker and vice versa and 3. Removed
be done by a larger bench of SC. by the resolution passed by a majority of all the
Article 142: allows the Supreme Court members of the assembly.
to pass such a decree or make such Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 179 provided
order as is necessary for doing complete that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved,
justice in any cause or matter pending the Speaker shall not vacate his office until
before it. immediately before the first meeting of the
z Primarily, Article 13, 32 and 226 forms the Assembly after the dissolution.
core of judicial review, of which Article 13 133. (c) Sub-Theme: Appointment of Governor/
and 32 forms part of Fundamental Right. Administration of Union Territories
z Further judicial review has also been Articles 153 to 167 of Part VI of the Indian
considered as part of basic structure of Constitution deals with the provisions relating
the Indian Constitution and hence cannot to the Governor of the States. The Governor of
be amended. the state is the Chief executive head of the state.
z Thus, the Courts are empowered to declare He is also the constitutional (nominal) head.
a statute ultra vires the constitution He is the agent of the Central Government.
and to nullify an executive action as The Indian Constitution does not lay down
unconstitutional if they violate constitutional any grounds upon which a governor may be
provisions or alter fundamental rights. removed by the President.
z These powers of judicial review are given z Usually, there is a governor for each state,
not to make the judiciary superior, but to but the 7th Constitutional Amendment
ensure a system of checks and balances Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment
between the legislature and the executive of the same person as a governor for two
on one hand, and the judiciary on the other. or more states. The 7th Constitutional
130. (c) Sub-Theme: Legal Services Authority/Legal Aid Amendment also provided for the:
Statement 1 is correct: The objective of Appointment of additional and acting
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is to judges of the high court.
Polity 155
Establishment of a common high court proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted
for two or more states; or continued against the President, or the
Extension the jurisdiction of high Governor of a State, in any court during his
courts to union territories. term of office’.
z As per Article 217(1) the Chief Justice and Statement 2 is correct: As per Article
Judges of the High Courts are to be appointed 158, which deals with the ‘Conditions of
by the President. Governor Office’, states that ‘the emoluments
z Section 45 in The Government of Union and allowances of the Governor shall not be
Territories Act, 1963 states that the CM of diminished during his term of office’.
the UT(Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and NOTE: Provisions in relation to allowances,
Kashmir) is appointed by the President of privileges, emoluments of Governor are
India, while the oath is administered by the mentioned in Second Schedule of Indian
Lt. Governor of the respective UT. Constitution.
134. (b) Sub-Theme: Discretionary Power of Governor 137. (a) Sub-Theme: Legislative Powers of Governor
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) states
President’s Rule is imposed if the President, that, through the legislative powers of the
upon receipt of the report from the Governor Governor, he can address the state legislature
of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a at the commencement of the first session after
situation has arisen in which the government
each general election and the first session of
of the State cannot be carried on in accordance
each year.
with the provisions of the Constitution. This
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State legislature
comes under the discretionary power of the
is a constitutional body and derives its power
Governor.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 164 (1) from the Constitution itself and as per Article
states that the Chief Minister and the other 208 (1) of the Constitution, a house of the
Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister Legislature of a State may make rules for
shall be appointed by the Governor. regulating subject to the provisions of this
Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 200 Constitution, its procedure and the conduct
the Governor of a state can use his legislative of its business. This implies that the state
power to reserve the bill for the consideration legislature does not follow Lok Sabha rules, no
of the President. such provision exists.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Making the rules to 138. (c) Sub-Theme: Centre’s Control Over State
conduct the business of the State Government Legislation
does not come under Governor’s discretionary z 1st ARC Recommendation (1966): The
power. In the Nabam Rebia judgement first ARC recommended the appointment
(2016), the Supreme Court held that the of persons having long experience in public
exercise of Governor’s discretion under Article
life and administration and non-partisan
163 is limited and his choice of action should
attitude as governors.
not be arbitrary or fanciful.
z Rajamannar Committee (1969): The
135. (d) Sub-Theme: State Executives
Rajamannar Committee recommended the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Secretary
provision that the state ministry holds office
is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister. As the
during the pleasure of the governor should
appointment of Chief Secretary is an executive
be omitted.
action of the Chief Minister, it is taken in the
name of the Governor of the State. z Sarkaria Commission (1983): The
Statement 2 is incorrect: Though the “Sarkaria Commission” recommended that
Administrative Reforms Commission, in its the Governor should be a distinguished
report on State Administration in 1969, had outsider without intense political links, that
recommended that a Chief Secretary should he should not have recently participated in
have a minimum tenure of three to four years, politics, and that he should not be a member
there is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief of the ruling party.
Secretary of a State. z National Commission to Review the
136. (c) Sub-Theme: Emoluments, Allowances and Working of the Constitution (2000): The
Privileges of Governor. committee recommended that the president
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 361, should appoint the governor of a state only
which deals with the ‘Protection of President after consultation with the chief minister of
and Governors’, states that ‘no criminal that state.

139. (d) Sub-Theme: Financial Relations b/w Centre and z The payment of sales Tax was made to the
State Sales Tax Authority in the state from where
z Earlier taxes on toothpaste used to come the goods are moved.
under CST Act, which is administered by z Now the sales taxes on toothpaste comes
the State Government. under GST.
Distribution of Tax Revenues

Article Levy Collection Appropriation Various Taxes
Stamp duties on shares, cheques, promissory notes,
268 Centre State State
insurance etc.
Taxes on interstate trade and commerce. Revenues do not
269 Centre Centre State
form part of the consolidated fund of India.
Shared between All taxes in the union list –income tax (other than
270 Centre Centre
Centre and states agricultural income), corporate tax, etc.
271 Centre Centre Centre Surcharge on taxes under Art 268,269,270.
Sales tax, excise duty on liquor and Narcotics, octroi,
N.A. State State State professional tax (max of Rs 2500 – limit kept by
constitution)
Article Levy Collection Appropriation Various Taxes
140. (d) Sub-Theme: Salient features of 73rd Amendment members are proportionate to the rural: urban
Act population ratio.
Statement 1 is correct: The 74th Constitutional Statement 2 is correct: MPC prepares the draft
Amendment Act provides for a District development plans for the metropolitan area.
Planning Committee to consolidate the plans Statement 3 is incorrect: MPC helps in draft
prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities planning and not in implementing the Govt
(Article 243ZD) not 73rd Amendment. The sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 NOTE: In statement 3, after reading the
added a new part IX to the Constitution of extreme/absolute phrase “sole”, we can
India. This part is entitled as “The Panchayats” take the calculable risk of marking it as
and contains articles 243 to 243 O. incorrect. This logic is also supported
Statement 2 is correct: According to the 73rd by reasoning that MPC is a “planning
Constitutional Amendment Act, the conduct body” and statement 3 is talking about
of Panchayati Raj elections is vested in the “implementation functions”.
state election commission consisting of a
142. (b) Sub-Theme: PESA Act
state election commissioner appointed by the
Governor of the state. Statement 1 is correct: Gram Sabha has the
Statement 3 is correct: 73rd Amendment Act power to prevent alienation of land and to
also mandates for the establishment of State restore any unlawfully alienated land of a
Finance Commissions. scheduled tribe.
Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Sabha, in
141. (a) Sub-Theme: Metropolitan Planning Committee
the PESA Act, was granted wide ranging powers
Statement 1 is correct: Article 243 ZE of starting from consultation on land acquisition
Part IX A provides for establishment of the to that of ownership over minor forest products
Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC). and leasing of minor minerals.
The Constitution under Article 243P Statement 3 is incorrect: Gram Sabha can
mandates formation of Metropolitan Planning grant prospecting licence for mining lease for
Committees (MPCs) in all metropolitan areas minor minerals and concessions for such
where population is above 10 Lakh. The activities and not all/any minerals.
elected officials of the municipalities and the
heads of the panchayats in the metropolitan NOTE: UPSC has replaced words “minor
area elects 2/3rd of the MPC members from mineral” by “any mineral” to create
among themselves. 1/3rd is nominated. Elected confusion.
Polity 157
143. (c) Sub-Theme: PESA Act Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj
Option (c) is correct: The PESA act is for System in India. The Panchayati Raj was
5th schedule areas whereas creation of constitutionalized in India through the 73rd
autonomous regions in tribal areas comes Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. As per
under ambit of 6th schedule. the act, no person shall be disqualified on the
ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he
144. (d) Sub-Theme: Power of Gram Sabha
has attained the age of 21 years. Therefore, the
Forest Rights Act, 2006: minimum age is 21.
z The act recognizes and vests the forest Statement 2 is correct: Panchayat reconstituted
rights and occupation in Forest land to forest after premature dissolution does not enjoy the
Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and
full period of five years but remains in office
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD)
only for the remaining period.
who have been residing in such forests for
generations. 147. (b) Sub-Theme: Judicial Power of Panchayat
z The act further enjoins upon the Statement 1 is incorrect: The establishment,
Gram Sabha and rights holders the jurisdiction, and process in civil and criminal
responsibilities and authority for sustainable proceedings are all outlined in the Gram
use, conservation of biodiversity and Nyayalayas Act. As per the Gram Nyayalaya Act,
maintenance of ecological balance of FDST the Gram Nyayalayas can hear both the civil
and OTFD. and criminal cases.
Statement 2 is correct: The Court shall try
z While protecting the FDST and OTFD’s way
to settle disputes via conciliation between
of life and food security, it strengthens the
the parties and the court can make use of the
conservation regime for the forests.
conciliators (social workers) to be appointed
z It aims to rectify the historical wrongs
for this purpose.
committed against the OTFD and FDST, who
are crucial to the sustainability and survival 148. (b) Sub-Theme: Objective of Local Governance
of the forest ecosystem. Option (b) is correct: The main idea behind
the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) or Local
145. (c) Sub-Theme: Objective of Local Governance
Self-Government is to promote grass root
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The main democracy and development. The main aim is to
idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions evolve a system of democratic decentralisation
(PRIs) is to promote grass root democracy and people’s participation with a view to
and development. The main aim is to evolve ensure rapid socio-economic progress and
a system of democratic decentralisation and provide adequate justice.
people’s participation with a view to ensure
rapid socio-economic progress and provide NOTE: Phrase to emphasis here is
adequate justice. “Best”. Democratic decentralisation is the
Statement 2 is incorrect: Political best description of Local self-government.
accountability can be achieved in any system Balwant Rai Mehta committee (on
with democratic rule. Community Development Program) in
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial 1957 recommended the establishment of a
mobilisation was never the basis for the scheme of Democratic decentralisation with
establishment of PRI. 3-tiered structure of PRI.
NOTE: In this question, the catch word is 149. (b) Sub-Theme: Provisions of the Anti-Defection Law
“Fundamental object”. We must stress on Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated
this phrase and apply this litmus test to member of a House becomes disqualified for
each given sentence. Political accountability being a member of the House if he joins any
is never a Fundamental objective of political party after the expiry of six months
the Panchayati Raj system. Moreover, from the date on which he takes his seat in
People’s participation in development and the House. This means that he may join any
Democratic decentralisation are correlative political party within six months of taking his
to each other. Financial mobilisation is seat in the House.
meant for financial autonomy of PRI, but Statement 2 is correct: The law does not
not a fundamental objective. specify any time period for the Presiding Officer
146. (b) Sub-Theme: Basics of Panchayati Raj System to decide on a disqualification plea under the
Statement 1 is incorrect: Part IX of the Tenth Schedule.

150. (d) Sub-Theme: Attorney General six months after the emergency has ceased to
Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney General operate.
has the right to speak and to take part in the Statement 2 is correct: PAC’s chief function
proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting is to examine the audit report of Comptroller
and any committee of the Parliament of which and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in
he is a member, but without a right to vote. the Parliament. CAG acts as a guide, friend and
He enjoys all the privileges and immunities philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee
that are available to a Member of Parliament. of the Parliament.
While Solicitor General of India and Additional Statement 3 is correct: Information from CAG
Solicitor General of India have no such rights reports can be used by investigating agencies to
or privilege. press charges against those who have violated
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of office the law while managing public finances.
of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution Statement 4 is incorrect: While dealing
and also, the Constitution does not contain with the audit and accounting of government
the procedure and grounds for his removal. and PSUs, CAG does not have certain judicial
He holds office during the pleasure of the powers for prosecuting those who violate the
president and conventionally, he resigns when law. CAG is merely an advisory body and has
CoM resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed some quasi-judicial powers.
on its advice. 154. (c) Sub-Theme: Attorney General of India
151. (c) Sub-Theme: Finance Commission Article 76 of the Constitution of India deals with
Statement 1 is correct: The Thirteenth Finance the provisions of the Attorney General of India.
Commission of India was constituted by the The Attorney General of India is appointed by
President of India under the chairmanship the President of India. He is a Qualified to be
of Vijay L. Kelkar on 13 November 2007. The Judge of Supreme Court (i.e. Citizen of India and
13th FC recommended that both the Centre and must have been a judge of some high court for
the States should conclude ‘Grand Bargain’ to 5 years or an advocate of some high court for
implement the model Goods and Services Act 10 years) or an eminent jurist, in the opinion
(GST). To incentivise the states, the commission of the president.
recommended a sanction of the grant of He has the Right to speak and to take part in
Rs 500 billion.
the proceedings of Parliament or their joint
Statement 2 is incorrect: There was no such
sitting and any committee of the Parliament of
mention for a design for the creation of lakhs
which he is a member, but without a right to
of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with
vote.
India’s demographic dividend.
Statement 3 is correct: State Government 155. (d) Sub-Theme: Election Commission of India
should appropriately strengthen their local Statement 1 is Incorrect: Strength of ECI is
fund audit departments. As per Article 243I, not specified in the Constitution, it is at the
it mandates the establishment of a Finance discretion of the President. Currently, there
Commission in each State to determine the are 3 Members.
principles on the basis of which adequate Statement 2 is Incorrect: The most important
financial resources would be ensured for function of the commission is to decide the
panchayats and municipalities. election schedules for the conduct of periodic
152. (d) Sub-Theme: Finance Commission and timely elections, whether general or bye-
Option (d) is correct: The correct option is ‘(d) elections.
None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given Statement 3 is Correct: It grants recognition
above is correct in this context’ as explained in to political parties & allot election symbols to
the previous question. them along with settling disputes related to it.
153. (c) Sub-Theme: CAG 156. (d) Sub-Theme: National Commission for Scheduled
Statement 1 is incorrect: During the Financial Castes, Scheduled Tribes & Backward Classes
Emergency, Executive authority of Centre Option (d) is correct: The Ministry of Tribal
extends to directing any state to observe such Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for the
canons of financial propriety as are specified implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and
by it. Similarly, during national emergency Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The ministry deals
of a state Legislative Assembly by one year with forest and livelihood objectives at the
each time, subject to a maximum period of national level.
Polity 159
157. (b) Sub-Theme: NDC / Planning Commission / NITI 1956. The act divided the country into five
AAYOG zones- Northern, Central, Eastern, Western
Statement 1 is correct: National Development and Southern and provided a zonal council
Council (NDC) and Planning Commission (PC) for each zone.
have been abolished now. NDC was an advisory 160. (c) Sub-Theme: NDC / Planning Commission / NITI
body and used to advise the Planning Ayog
Commission on planning and included all CMs Statement 1 is incorrect: It is constituted by
and union ministers etc. the President under Article 280 to give its
Statement 2 is correct: The Economic and recommendations on the distribution of tax
Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List revenues between the Union and the States.
in the Constitution of India. It defines the financial relations between the
Statement 3 is correct: Preparation of plans Centre and the States.
and implementation of plans for economic Statement 2 is correct: Earlier, NDC served as
development and social justice are one of the “the highest decision-making authority” in the
major powers and functions that comes under country on development matters. NDC used to
Panchayat Raj Institution. advise the Planning Commission on planning.
158. (b) Sub-Theme: NDC/Planning Commission/NITI Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Ministry
AAYOG of Rural Development is entrusted with
Option (b) is correct: NDC comprises the the task of accelerating the socio-economic
Prime Minister, all the Union Cabinet Ministers, development of rural India.
the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Statement 4 is incorrect: The Union Ministry
Territories and the Members of the Planning of Urban Development is entrusted with the
Commission. It does not include the chairman formulation and administration of the rules and
of the Finance Commission. regulations and laws relating to the housing
and urban development in India.
159. (d) Sub-Theme: NDC / Planning Commission / NITI
Statement 5 is correct: Parliament is the
Ayog
supreme legislative institution of the Republic
The National Development Council, the Planning of India. It is directly responsible to make laws
Commission and the Zonal Councils do not find for the welfare of the society.
its mention in the Constitution. They are the 161. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect: In the report
Non-Constitutional Bodies. Few details about ‘Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central
the same are as follows: Government’ (1950) Sh. N. Gopalaswamy
z The National Development Council Ayyangar, suggested the grouping of ministries,
(NDC) was set up on 6 August 1952 by improvement in the capabilities of the personnel,
an executive order of the government. and also in the working of the Organisation and
It served as “the highest decision-making Method (O&M) Division. It nowhere mentions
authority” in the country on development that a minister and a secretary be designated
matters. The National Development Council solely for pursuing the subject of administrative
used to advise the Planning Commission on reform and promoting it. Moreover, it was the 1st
planning. Currently, there is no existence of ARC that suggested a minister and a secretary
NDC and Planning Commission, it has been be designated solely for pursuing the subject of
replaced by NITI AAYOG. administrative reform and promoting it.
z The Planning Commission of India was set Statement 2 is correct: In 1970, on the basis
up by a Resolution of the Government of of the recommendations of the Administrative
India in March 1950. Reforms Commission, the Department of
z The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and Personnel was set up under the charge of
not the constitutional) bodies. They are Cabinet Secretariat. In 1985, it was placed
established by an Act of the Parliament, under the overall charge of the Prime Minister
that is, the States Reorganisation Act of assisted by a Minister of State.
v v v

Section E
5 Indian Economy

Indian Economy : PYQs Analysis
25
20
19
18 18 18
17
Indian Economy
15 16
15
14
12 11
10
9
5 6
0
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
PYQs ANALYSIS
Sr. No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
1 Economic Growth 1 1 2
Planning in India and
2 1 1 1 1 1 5
Economic Reforms
3 Agriculture 5 4 2 1 1 5 18
4 Industry 2 1 2 3 8
5 Inflation 3 1 1 2 1 8
6 Money Market 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 10
7 Banking Sector in India 4 3 5 5 4 1 3 4 3 5 3 3 43
8 Taxation 1 1 1 1 1 5
9 Public Finance 2 1 1 1 3 3 11
10 External Sector of India 3 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 2 4 28
11 Security Market in India 2 2 1 5
Human Development and
12 1 1 2 1 6 11
Sustainable Development
13 Important Index and Reports 1 1 1 1 1 5
Important Concepts in
14 1 1 1 5 6 14
Economy
Total 12 14 19 16 11 6 15 18 9 17 18 18 173
3. In the Fifth Five -Year Plan, for the first time, the
ECONOMIC GROWTH financial sector was included as an integral part
of the Plan.
1. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP does not
connote a higher level of economic development, if: Select the correct answer using the code given
(2018) below.
(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with 5. Which of the following has/have occurred in India
industrial output. after its liberalisation of economic policies in 1991?
(2017)
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
2. In the context of Indian economy, consider the
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in enormously.
the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily below:
increased in the last five years. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (2014)
(a) Inclusive growth and poverty reduction.
PLANNING IN INDIA AND (b) Inclusive and sustainable growth.
ECONOMIC REFORMS (c) Sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce
unemployment.
3. With reference to the Indian economy after the
1991 economic liberalisation, consider the following (d) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.
statements: (2020) 7. Which of the following can be said to be essentially
1. Worker productivity (Rs. per worker at the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’? (2012)
2004 -05 prices) increased in urban areas while 1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies
it decreased in rural areas. to do banking.
2. The % age share of rural areas in the workforce 2. Establishing effective District Planning
steadily increased. Committees in all the districts.
3. In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm 3. Increasing government spending on public health.
economy increased. 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme.
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. With reference to India’s Five -Year Plans, which of AGRICULTURE
the following statements is/are correct? (2019)
1. From the Second Five -Year Plan, there was a 8. Which of the following factors/policies were affecting
determined thrust towards substitution of basic the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020)
and capital good industries. 1. Minimum Support Price
2. The Fourth Five -Year Plan adopted the objective 2. Government’s trading
of correcting the earlier trend of increased 3. Government’s stockpiling
concentration of wealth and economic power. 4. Consumer subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given 12. Consider the following statements: (2020)
below. 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only unlimited in any State/UT of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 in any State/UT at a level to which the market
price will never rise.
9. With reference to chemical fertilisers in India,
consider the following statements: (2020) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilisers
is market-driven and not administered by the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government. 13. The economic cost of food grains to the Food
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and
from natural gas. bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus: (2019)
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric (a) Transportation cost only.
acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. (b) Interest cost only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Procurement incidentals and charges for
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 godowns.
10. In India, which of the following can be considered as 14. Among the agricultural commodities imported by
public investment in agriculture? (2020) India, which one of the following accounts for the
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural highest imports in terms of value in the last five
produce of all crops. years? (2019)
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit (a) Spices (b) Fresh fruits
Societies. (c) Pulses (d) Vegetable oils
3. Social Capital development. 15. With reference to land reforms in independent India,
4. Free electricity supply to farmers. which one of the following statements is correct?
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system (2019)
6. Setting up cold storage facilities by the (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings
governments. and not individual holdings.
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing
below. agricultural land to all the landless.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only predominant form of cultivation.
(c) 2, 3 and 6 only (d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 ceiling limits.
11. Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term 16. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter
credit support is given to farmers for which of the of rice in the world in the last five years? (2019)
following purposes? (2020) (a) China (b) India
1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets (c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam
2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini 17. Consider the following statements: (2018)
trucks.
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than
3. Consumption requirements of farm households the domestic production of edible oils in the last
4. Post-harvest expense five years.
5. Construction of a family house and setting up a 2. The Government does not impose any customs
village cold storage facility. duty on all the imported edible oils as a special
Select the correct answer using the code given case.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3 4 and 5 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indian Economy 165

18. Consider the following: (2018) 23. Consider the following statements: (2015)
1. Areca nut 2. Barley 1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme
3. Coffee 4. Finger millet was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan
5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum assistance to poor farmers.
7. Turmeric 2. The Command Area Development Programme
was launched in 1974-75 for the development of
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has
water-use efficiency.
announced the Minimum Support Price for which
of the above? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only 24. The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 agricultural production is an example of (2015)
19. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing (a) Labour-augmenting technological progress
the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme? (2017) (b) Capital-augmenting technological progress
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for (c) Capital-reducing technological progress
agricultural commodities. (d) None of the above
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide 25. Which one of the following best describes the main
markets, with prices commensurate with the objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’? (2015)
quality of their produce. (a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm
Select the correct answer using the code given seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds
below: from others
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 production and thereby to make available quality
20. Which of the following is/are the advantage/ seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable
advantages of practicing drip irrigation? (2016) cost
1. Reduction in weed (c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the
2. Reduction in soil salinity production of certified seeds
3. Reduction in-soil erosion (d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and
providing them technology and finance to set up
seed companies
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
INDUSTRY
(c) 1 and 3 only 26. The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’, sometimes found
(d) None of the above is an advantage of practising in news, refers to a grade of (2020)
drip irrigation (a) Crude oil
21. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane (b) Bullion
is approved by the: (2015) (c) Rare earth elements
(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. (d) Uranium
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices. 27. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures
(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are
of Agriculture. correct? (2020)
(d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee. 1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign
22. In India, markets in agricultural products are investors are prohibited.
regulated under the (2015) 2. They apply to investment measures related to
(a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955 trade in both goods and services.
(b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of
enacted by States foreign investment.
(c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, Select the correct answer using the code given
1937 below:
(d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
Products Order, 1973 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

28. Consider the following statements: (2019) Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. Coal sector was nationalised by the Government below:
of India under Indira Gandhi. (a) 1 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the 33. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India
shortages of domestic supply, but now India is import millions of tons of coal? (2012)
self-sufficient in coal products.
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? for the future, and import it from other countries
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only for the present use.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based
29. Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’, and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of
a scheme of the Government? (2016) coal from within the country.
(a) Providing technical and financial assistance to 3. Steel companies need a large quantity of coking
startup entrepreneurs in the field of renewable coal which has to be imported.
sources of energy
(b) Providing electricity to every household in the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
countries by 2018
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with
natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power
plants over a period of time INFLATION
(d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of 34. Which one of the following is likely to be the most
power distribution companies inflationary in its effects? (2021)
30. What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral (a) Repayment of public debt
Foundations’ in India? (2016)
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget
1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in deficit
mineral-rich districts
(c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected deficit
by mining operations
(d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses
for mineral exploration 35. Which of the following steps is most likely to be taken
Select the correct answer using the code given at the time of an economic recession? (2021)
below. (a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only interest rate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
31. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of (c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction
Government of India to promote the growth of the of interest rate
manufacturing sector? (2012) (d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects
1. Setting up of National Investment and
36. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull
Manufacturing Zones.
inflation can be caused/increased by which of the
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’. following? (2021)
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and 1. Expansionary policies
Development Fund.
2. Fiscal stimulus
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Inflation-indexing wages
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Higher purchasing power
32. In India, in the overall index of Industrial Production, 5. Rising interest rates
the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined Select the correct answer using the code given
weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among below.
those Eight Core industries? (2012) (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Cement 2. Fertilizer (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
3. Natural Gas 4. Refinery products (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
5. Textiles (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Indian Economy 167

MONEY MARKET
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index
(CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index 42. Consider the following statements: (2021)
(WPI). Other things remaining unchanged, market demand
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices for a good might increase if
of services, which CPI does. 1. price of its substitute increases
3. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI 2. price of its complement increases
as its key measure of inflation and to decide on 3. the good is an inferior good and the income of the
changing the key policy rates. consumer increases
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. its price falls
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
38. With reference to inflation in India, which of the (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements is correct? (2015)
43. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to: (2020)
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the
(a) A loan system of the World Bank
responsibility of the Government of India only
(b) One of the operations of a Central Bank
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in
controlling the inflation (c) A credit system granted by WTO to its members
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling (d) A credit system granted by IMF to its members
the inflation 44. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling following statements: (2020)
the inflation 1. ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured
promissory note.
2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
corporation.
3. ‘Call Money’ is a short term finance used for
interbank transactions.
4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds are the interest-bearing
40. Which one of the following is likely to be the most short term bonds issued by the Scheduled
inflationary in its effect? (2013) Commercial Banks to corporations.
(a) Repayment of public debt Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only
deficit (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Borrowings from banks to finance a budget deficit 45. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit news, which of the following statements is/are
41. India has experienced persistent and high food correct? (2016)
inflation in the recent past. What could be the 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the
reasons? (2011) countries.
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of 2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and
commercial crops, the area Under cultivation of receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin
food grains has steadily decreased in the last five address.
years by about 30%. 3. Online payments can be sent without either side
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, knowing the identity of the other.
the consumption patterns of the people have Select the correct answer using the code given
undergone a significant change. below.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

46. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s 51. With what purpose is the Government of India
‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?
Scheme’? (2016) (2011)
1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the
into the economy.
food processing industry.
2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports. 2. To increase the processing of perishable items
and reduce wastage.
below. 3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given
47. What does venture capital mean ? (2014) below:
(a) A short-term capital provided to industries (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
entrepreneurs
(c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring BANKING SECTOR IN INDIA
losses.
(d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation 52. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
of industries following statements: (2022)
48. A rise in the general level of prices may be caused 1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of
by: (2013) India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
1. An increase in the money supply 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely
2. A decrease in the aggregate level of output to sell dollars in the market.
3. An increase in the effective demand 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union
Select the correct answer using the codes given were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy
below: dollars.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
49. Which of the following measures would result in an (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
increase in the money supply in the economy?
(2012) 53. Consider the following statements: (2022)
1. Purchase of government securities from the public 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by
by the Central Bank. the Reserve Bank of India.
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a
public. public limited company.
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating
Bank. agency.
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Central Bank.
below: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only 54. With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’,
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 which of the following statements are correct?
50. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity (2022)
in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
(2011)
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for
1. The Government intends to use the revenue Public Sector Banks.
earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back
the external debt. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the strategies and capital raising plans.
management control of the CPSEs. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian Economy 169

55. In India, which one of the following is responsible for Select the correct answer using the code given
maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? below:
(2022) (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Expenditure Management Commission 60. If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your
Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council
effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will
(d) Reserve Bank of India be: (2020)
56. Consider the following statements: (2021) (a) To reduce it by Rs. 1,00,000
1. The Governor of the Reserve bank of India (RBI) (b) To increase it by Rs. 1,00,000
is appointed by the Central Government. (c) To increase it by more than Rs. 1,00,000
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India (d) To leave it unchanged
give the Central Government the right to issue 61. What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage
directions to the RBI in public interest. Ratio” of a firm in India? (2020)
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from 1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm
the RBI Act. that a bank is going to give a loan to.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm
that a bank is going to give a loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service
57. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative banks’ in India its debt.
consider the following statements: (2021) Select the correct answer using the code given
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards below.
set up by the State Governments. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. They can issue equity shares and preference
shares. 62. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary
policy, which of the following would it not do?
3. They were brought under the purview of
(2020)
the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an
1. Cut and optimise the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Amendment in 1966.
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 below:
58. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
last resort’ usually refers to which of the following? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(2021) 63. Consider the following statements: (2020)
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they 1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the
fail to borrow from other sources agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison
to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional
temporary crisis
Rural Banks.
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary 2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is
deficits to provide funds to the Primary Agriculture Credit
Select the correct answer using the code given Societies.
below. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. If another global financial crisis happens in the near 64. The Service Area Approach was implemented under
the purview of (2019)
future, which of the following actions/policies are
most likely to give some immunity to India? (2020) (a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
2. Opening up to more foreign banks Guarantee Scheme
3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility (d) National Skill Development Mission

65. The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by 71. Consider the following statements: (2018)
the: (2019) 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services
(a) Banks Board Bureau Government of India Securities but not any State
(b) Reserve Bank of India Government Securities.
(c) Union Ministry of Finance 2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of
(d) Management of concerned bank India and there are no treasury bills issued by the
state Governments.
66. Which of the following is not included in the assets
3. Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the
of a commercial bank in India? (2019)
par value.
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Investments (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Money at call and short notice
72. With reference to the governance of public sector
67. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign banking in India, consider the following statements:
portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to (2018)
be part of the Indian stock market without registering 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the
themselves directly? (2019) Government of India has steadily increased in the
(a) Certificate of Deposits last decade.
(b) Commercial Paper 2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger
(c) Promissory Note of associate banks with the parent State Bank of
(d) Participatory Note India has been affected.
68. Which one of the following is not the most likely
measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide
of the Indian rupee? (2019) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Curbing imports of nonessential goods-and 73. Which of the following statements is/are correct
promoting exports regarding the ‘Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee (2017)
denominated Masala Bonds 1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor
borrowing of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union
Finance Minister.
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that
below:
banks have to maintain in the form of their own
funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. 74. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed
in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the
following statements is/are correct in this context?
(2016)
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket
70. Which one of the following statements correctly chains that are owned and controlled by residents
describes the meaning of legal tender money? are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
(2018) 2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to debit cards.
defray the fee of legal cases 3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion activities.
to accept in settlement of his claims Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, below.
bills of exchange etc. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian Economy 171

75. The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes seen 79. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’ often seen in
in the news. Which of the following statements best the new, seeks to: (2015)
describes/describe this term? (2016) (a) Develop national strategies for the conservation
1. It is a network of a bank’s branches which enables and sustainable use of biological diversity
customers to operate their accounts from any (b) Improve banking sector’s ability to deal with
branch of the bank on its network regardless of financial and economic stress and improve risk
where they open their accounts. management
2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over (c) Reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places
commercial banks through computerization. a heavier burden on developed countries
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with (d) Transfer technology from developed countries
to poor countries to enable them to replace the
huge non-performing assets is taken over by
use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with
another bank.
harmless chemicals
80. With reference to Indian economy, consider the
below.
following: (2015)
1. Bank rate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Open market operations
76. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal 3. Public debt
Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced
4. Public Revenue
by RBI? (2016)
Which of the above is/are component/components
1. These guidelines help improve the transparency of Monetary Policy?
in the methodology followed by banks for (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
determining the interest rates on advances.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
2. These guidelines help ensure availability of
81. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net
bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the
Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing
borrowers as well as the banks. in news, are used in relation to: (2014)
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Banking operations
below.
(b) Communications networking
(a) 1 only
(c) Military strategies
(b) 2 only
(d) Supply and demand of agricultural products
(c) Both 1 and 2
82. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 can get from the services of Business Correspondent
77. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? (2014)
for: (2015) 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies
(a) Providing housing loans to poor people at cheaper and social security benefits in their villages.
interest rates. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to
(b) Promoting women’s Self-help Groups in backward make deposits and withdrawals.
areas. Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Promoting financial inclusion in the country. below.
(d) Providing financial help to the marginalized
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 4
communities.
83. In the context of the Indian economy, which of the
78. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory
following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory
Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the Reserve Requirements’? (2014)
following is likely to happen? (2015)
1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount
(a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically of advances the banks can create.
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe
capital into our country and liquid.
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making
lending rates excessive profits.
(d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to
banking system meet their day-to-day requirements.

Select the correct answer using the code given The correct sequence of these assets in the
below. decreasing order of liquidity is
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2
84. Supply of money remaining the same when there is 90. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’
an increase in demand for money, there will be: bank. This would imply which of the following?
(2013) (2012)
(a) A fall in the level of prices 1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
(b) An increase in the rate of interest 2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in
(c) A decrease in the rate of interest times of need.
(d) An increase in the level of income and employment 3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on
monetary matters.
85. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Operations’ refers to: (2013)
(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Lending by commercial banks to industry and
91. The basic aid of Lead Bank Scheme is that: (2012)
trade
(a) Big banks should try to open offices in each
(c) Purchase and sale of government securities by
district.
the RBI
(b) There should be stiff competition among the
(d) None of the above
various nationalized banks.
86. Priority Sector Lending by banks in Indian constitutes (c) Individual banks should adopt a particular district
the lending to: (2013) for intensive development.
(a) Agriculture (d) All the banks should make intensive efforts to
(b) Micro and small enterprises mobilise deposits.
(c) Weaker sections 92. Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial
(d) All of the above banks a cause of economic concern? (2011)
87. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit 1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect
assistance to rural households? (2013) of subprime lending and banks may be exposed
1. Regional Rural Banks to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural 2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given
Development to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up
manufacturing or export units.
3. Land Development Banks
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 93. In India, which of the following have the highest share
in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied
88. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial activities? (2011)
banks in matters of: (2013)
(a) Commercial Banks
1. Liquidity of assets
(b) Cooperative Banks
2. Branch expansion
(c) Regional Rural Banks
3. Merger of banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions
4. Winding-up of banks
94. Which of the following can aid in furthering the
Government’s objective of inclusive growth?
below:
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (2011)
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
89. Consider the following liquid assets: (2013) 3. Implementing the Right to Education Act.
1. Demand deposits with the banks Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Time deposits with the banks below:
3. Savings deposits with the banks (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Currency (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian Economy 173

95. Microfinance is the provision of financial services (a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of
to people of low-income groups. This includes both taxation
the consumers and the self-employed. The service/ (b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of
services rendered under microfinance is/are: transaction in the production distribution chain
(2011) (c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or
1. Credit facilities services and must ultimately be borne by the
2. Savings facilities consumer
3. Insurance facilities (d) It is basically subject of the Central Government
and the State Governments are only a facilitator
4. Fund Transfer facilities
for its successful implementation
below the lists: PUBLIC FINANCE
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 100. With reference to the expenditure made by an
organization or a company, which of the following
TAXATION statements is/are correct? (2022)
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures.
96. The money multiplier in an economy increases with 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure,
which one of the following? (2019/2021) while equity financing is considered revenue
(a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks expenditure.
(b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the Select the correct answer using the code given
banks below.
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the people (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Increase in the population of the country (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 101. With reference to Indian economy, consider the
‘Goods and Services Tax’ (GST)? (2017)
1. A share of the household financial savings goes
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple
towards government borrowings.
authorities and will thus create a single market in
India. 2. Dated securities issued at market related rates in
auctions form a large component of internal debt.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its
foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of
the economy of India and will enable it to overtake 102. Which one of the following effects of the creation
China in the near future. of black money in India has been the main cause of
worry to the Government of India? (2021)
below: (a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real
estate and investment in luxury housing
(b) Investment in unproductive activities and
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
98. Under which of the following circumstances may (c) Large donations to political parties and growth
‘capital gains’ arise? (2012) of regionalism
1. When there is an increase in sales of product. (d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of evasion
the property owned. 103. In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial
3. When you purchase a painting, there is a growth debt includes which of the following? (2020)
in its value due to an increase in its popularity. 1. Housing loans owed by households
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
below: 3. Treasury bills
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 below:
99. Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Added Tax”? (2011) (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

104. Consider the following statements: (2017) 109. With reference to the Union Government, consider
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has the following statements: (2015)
steadily increased in the last decade. 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has preparation of the Union Budget that is presented
steadily increased in the last decade. to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated
Fund of India without the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
105. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account
year. Which action/actions of the following can be
taken by the Government to reduce the deficit? also need the authorization from the Parliament
(2016) of India.
1. Reducing revenue expenditure Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Introducing new welfare schemes (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Rationalising subsidies (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Reducing import duty 110. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates
Select the correct answer using the code given which of the following? (2015)
below.
1. Slowing economic growth rate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Less equitable distribution of national income
106. Which of the following is/are included in the capital Select the correct answer using the codes given
budget of the Government of India? (2016) below.
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
buildings, machinery, etc. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Loans received from foreign governments
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and EXTERNAL SECTOR OF INDIA
Union Territories
Select the correct answer using the code given 111. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit
below. Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only which one of the following? (2022)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Asian Development Bank
107. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development (b) International Monetary Fund
Council’, consider the following statements: (c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance
(2016) Initiative
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
(d) World Bank
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the 112. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the
economy. following statements: (2022)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate
108. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, (REER) indicates an improvement in trade
which of the following statements is/are correct? competitiveness.
(2015) 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative
1. It has increased the share of States in the central to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an
divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector- Which of the statements are correct?
specific grants.
(a) 1 and 2 only
below. (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian Economy 175

113. Consider the following statements: (2022) 1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
1. Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve 2. Increasing the government expenditure
could lead to capital flight. 3. Remittances from Indians abroad
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost Select the correct answer using the code given
of firms with existing External Commercial below.
Borrowings (ECBs). (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
currency risk associated with ECBs.
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by
governmental entities.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in
114. Consider the following statements: (2021) US dollars.
The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
it necessarily: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Improves the competitiveness of domestic exports (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in the foreign markets.
2. Increases the foreign value of the domestic
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates
currency
are calculated by comparing the prices of the
3. Improves the trade balance same basket of goods and services in different
Which of the above statements is/are correct? countries.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 economy in the world.
115. Consider the following: (2021) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
conditions 120. India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods
3. Global depository receipts (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to
4. Non-resident external deposits comply with the obligations to: (2018)
Which of the above can be included in Foreign (a) ILO (b) IMF
Direct Investments? (c) UNCTAD (d) WTO
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only 121. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
116. With reference to the international trade of India at (2017)
present, which of the following statements is/are 1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha
correct? (2020) Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
merchandise imports. is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual
2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, property rights in India.
fertilisers and machinery have decreased in Which of the above statements is/are correct?
recent years. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. India’s exports of services are more than its (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
imports of services. 122. Which of the following best describes the term ‘import
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current cover’, sometimes seen in the news? (2016)
account deficit. (a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross
Select the correct answer using the code given Domestic Product of a country
below: (b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only year
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) It is the ratio between the value of exports and
117. In the context of India, which of the following factors that of imports between two countries
is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk (d) It is the number of months of imports that could
of a currency crisis? (2019) be paid for by a country’s international reserves

123. In the context of which of the following do you 129. With reference to the Union Budget, which of
sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and the following is/are covered under Non-Plan
green box’ in the news? (2016) Expenditure? (2014)
(a) WTO affairs 1. Defence expenditure 2. Interest payments
(b) SAARC affairs 3. Salaries and pensions 4. Subsidies
(c) UNFCCC affairs Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA below.
124. With reference to the International Monetary and
Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None
statements: (2016) 130. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of
1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the the following constitutes/constitute the Current
global economy, and advises the International Account? (2014)
Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work. 1. Balance of trade
2. The World Bank participates as an observer in 2. Foreign assets
IMFC’s meetings. 3. Balance of invisibles
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. Special Drawing Rights
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 below.
125. With reference to Indian economy, consider the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
following statements: (2015) (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product 131. Which of the following constitute a Capital
has steadily increased in the last decade. Account? (2013)
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices 1. Foreign Loans
(in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment
126. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after below:
year. Which of the following actions can be taken by (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
the government to reduce the deficit? (2015)
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes 132. Which one of the following groups of items is included
in India’s foreign-exchange reserves? (2013)
3. Rationalising subsidies
(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights
4. Expanding industries
(SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI
below.
and SDRs
(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Bank and SDRs
127. Convertibility of rupee implies: (2015) (d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI,
(a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold. and loans from the World Bank
(b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market 133. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct
forces. Investment in India? (2012)
(c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other 1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India.
currencies and vice versa.
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian
(d) developing an international market for currencies companies.
in India.
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign
128. The problem of international liquidity is related to companies.
the nonavailability of: (2015) 4. Portfolio investment.
(a) Goods and services Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) Gold and silver below:
(c) Dollars and other hard currencies (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(d) Exportable surplus (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Indian Economy 177

134. Consider the following statements: (2012) SECURITY MARKET IN INDIA
The price of any currency in international market
is decided by the 139. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the
1. World Bank advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
(2022)
2. Demand for goods/services provided by the
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its
country concerned
borrowing by way of IIBs.
3. Stability of the government of the concerned
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from
country
uncertainty regarding inflation.
4. Economic potential of the country in question
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on
Which of the statements given above are correct? IIBs are not taxable.
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
135. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
to witness the XIX common Wealth Games in India
140. Which of the following activities constitute a real
amounted to: (2011) sector in the economy? (2022)
(a) Export 1. Farmers harvesting their crops
(b) Import 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
(c) Production 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading
(d) Consumption company
136. Consider the following actions which the government 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated
can take: (2011) Bonds overseas.
1. Devaluing the domestic currency. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Reduction in the export subsidy. below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater
FDI and more funds from FIIs. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the above action(s) can help in reducing 141. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by
the current account deficit? which of the following? (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 2. Actions of the Reserve bank of India
137. Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates
one of the following statements is correct? (2011) Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) It can grant loans to any country below.
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) It grants loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country 142. With reference to India, consider the following
statements: (2021)
138. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign
1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest
Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment
in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt
in a country. Which one of the following statements
Bonds’ in the primary market.
best represents an important difference between the
2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’
two? (2011)
is a government securities trading platform of the
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and Reserve Bank of India.
technology, while FDI only brings in capital
3. ‘Central Depository Services Ltd’ is jointly
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the
general, while FDI only targets specific sectors Bombay Stock Exchange.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
FII targets primary market (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3

143. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, 148. To obtain full benefits of the demographic dividend,
which one of the following is considered its major what should India do? (2013)
characteristic? (2020) (a) Promoting skill development
(a) It is the investment through capital instruments
(b) Introducing more social security schemes
essentially in a listed company.
(b) It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow. (c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(c) It is an investment that involves debt-servicing. (d) Privatisation of higher education
(d) It is the investment made by foreign institutional 149. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek
investors in the Government Securities. to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
(2012)
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT AND 1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT industries and agribusiness centres in rural
144. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the areas.
following statements: (2021) 2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water skill development.
and sanitation sector. 3. By supplying seeds, fertilisers, diesel pump-sets
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to
of the World Health Organization and the World farmers.
Bank.
3. It aims to enable poor people to meet their water
below:
needs without depending on subsidies.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 150. With reference to the National Rural Health Mission,
145. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained
higher in some States than in others because: community health worker? (2012)
(2019) 1. Accompanying women to the health facility for
(a) Poverty rates vary from State to State antenatal care check-up.
(b) Price levels vary from State to State 2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State pregnancy.
(d) Quality of public distribution varies from State to 3. Providing information on nutrition and
State immunisation.
146. Consider the following statements: (2018) 4. Conducting the delivery of a baby.
Human capital formation as a concept is better
explained in terms of a process which enables:
1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more below:
capital. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
2. Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
capacities of the people of the country. 151. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme
3. Accumulation of tangible wealth. is (2012)
4. Accumulation of intangible wealth. 1. To promote institutional deliveries.
2. To provide monetary assistance to the mother to
meet the cost of delivery.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
3. To provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and
147. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation
confinement.
may not result in significant increase in output
due to: (2018) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Weak administrative machinery (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Illiteracy (b) 2 only
(c) High population density (c) 3 only
(d) High capital-output ratio (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian Economy 179

152. Consider the following: (2012) (a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and
1. Hotels and restaurants Development (OECD)
2. Motor transport undertakings (b) World Economic Forum
3. Newspaper establishments (c) World Bank
4. Private medical institutions (d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
The employees of which of the above can have the 156. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of
‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State the following is given the highest weight? (2015)
Insurance Scheme? (a) Coal production
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (b) Electricity generation
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Fertiliser production
153. If the National Water Mission is properly and (d) Steel production
completely implemented, how will it impact the
157. Which of the following organisations brings out the
country? (2012)
publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met
through recycling of waste-water. (2014)
(a) The International Monetary Fund
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with
inadequate alternative sources of water will be (b) The United Nations Development Programme
met by adopting appropriate technologies that (c) The World Economic Forum
allow for the use of ocean water. (d) The World Bank
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked 158. Disguised unemployment generally means (2013)
to the rivers of peninsular India. (a) Large number of people remain unemployed
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging (b) Alternative employment is not available
bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-
(c) Marginal productivity of labour is zero
sets to draw ground-water will be completely
reimbursed by the Government. (d) Productivity of workers is low
Select the correct answer using the codes given 159. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by
below: ‘Oxford Poverty and Human Development’ initiative
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only with UNDP support covers which of the following?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (2012)
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and
154. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs)
services at household level.
help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
2. Purchasing power parity at national level.
(2012)
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in 3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at
certain specified backward regions of the country. national level.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study Select the correct answer using the codes given
of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and below:
prepare detailed remedial measures. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and interdepartmental (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
coordination and cooperation for effective
implementation of anti-poverty programmes. IMPORTANT CONCEPTS IN ECONOMY
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective
160. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the
utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty
programmes.
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for
equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
interest.
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. The option to convert to equity affords the
bondholder a degree of indexation to rising
IMPORTANT INDEX AND REPORTS consumer prices.
155. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
has declared that ranking? (2016) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

161. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the 168. Economic growth is usually coupled with: (2011)
Government, then (2018) (a) Deflation (b) Inflation
(a) The opportunity cost is zero. (c) Stagflation (d) Hyperinflation
(b) The opportunity cost is ignored.
169. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of
(c) The opportunity costs are transferred from the
India leads to: (2011)
consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(a) More liquidity in the market
(d) The opportunity cost is transferred from the
consumers of the product to the Government. (b) Less liquidity in the market
162. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, (c) No change in the liquidity in the market
it will: (2014) (d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial
(a) Decrease the consumption expenditure in the banks
economy. 170. Which one of the following statements appropriately
(b) Increase the tax collection of the Government. describes the “fiscal stimulus”? (2011)
(c) Increase the investment expenditure in the (a) It is a massive investment by the Government
economy. in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of
(d) Increase the total savings in the economy. goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid
163. Economic growth in country X will necessarily have economic growth
to occur if: (2013) (b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government
(a) There is technical progress in the world economy to boost economic activity in the country
(b) There is population growth in X (c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial
(c) There is capital formation in X institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to
(d) The volume of trade grows in the world economy agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater
food production and contain food inflation
164. The national income of a country for a given period
is equal to the: (2013) (d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the
(a) Total value of goods and services produced by the Government to pursue its policy of financial
nationals inclusion
(b) Sum of total consumption and investment 171. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes
expenditure attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?
(c) Sum of personal income of all individuals (2011)
(d) Money value of final goods and service produced (a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due
165. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic to failure of crops
record of: (2013) (b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to
(a) All import and export transactions of a country rapid economic growth
during a given period of time, normally a year (c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year
(b) Goods exported from a country during a year on the calculation of inflation rate
(c) Economic transaction between the government (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
of one country to another is correct in this context
(d) Capital movements from one country to another
172. India is regarded as a country with a “Demographic
166. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates Dividend”. This is due to: (2011)
that the: (2013)
(a) Its high population in the age group below
(a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall 15 years
(b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to
(b) Its high population in the group of 15-64 years
commercial banks
(c) Its high population in the age group above
(c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
65 years
(d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy
(d) Its high total population
167. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources
for: (2013) 173. A “closed economy” is an economy in which: (2011)
(a) Economic development (a) The money supply is fully controlled
(b) Redemption of public debt (b) Deficit financing takes place
(c) Adjusting the balance of payments (c) Only exports take place
(d) Reducing the foreign debt (d) Neither exports or imports take place
Indian Economy 181

Answer Key
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (a)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (d) 104. (d) 105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (a) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (c) 130. (c)
131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (d) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (a) 140. (a)
141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (d) 153. (b) 154. (b) 155. (c) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (a) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (c) 163. (c) 164. (d) 165. (a) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (b) 169. (a) 170. (b)
171. (c) 172. (b) 173. (d)
Explanation
1. (c) Sub-Theme: Economic Growth Economic Development occurs when
Option (c) is correct: It is possible that an a country undergoes different economic
increase in absolute and per capita Gross developments that enhance quality of
National Product (GNP) will only reflect the life, such as a decline in poverty and
economic growth of a small portion of society, unemployment, a narrowing of wealth
leaving the rest of the population in poverty and income disparities, a rise in literacy
and unemployment. This is because the rates, and improvements in health and
concept of per capita real income or per capita sanitation.
GDP are not able to capture the true picture in An essential aspect of development is to
terms of non-monetary social indicators. Thus, enable the maximum number of people
an increase in absolute and per capita real GNP to experience the fruits of development.
does not connote a higher level of economic This component of progress cannot be
development, if poverty and unemployment captured by ideas of per capita income
increase. (per capita GDP or per capita NSDP).
Additional Information: Economic Growth
Non-financial social indicators with
and Economic Development:
multiple dimensions are better
z Economic Growth: A rise in real national
indicators of a society’s overall economic
income or national output is known as
Economic Growth. progress.
z Economic Development: It includes raising 2. (d) Sub-Theme: GDP and per capita income
living standards and the quality of life, as Option (d) is correct: The growth rate of
seen in indicators like literacy rates, life GDP and Per capita income has not steadily
expectancy, and access to healthcare. increased.

z Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the 3. (b) Sub-Theme: Economic Reforms
standard measure of the value-added z “Changing Structure of Rural Economy
created through the production of goods of India: Implications for Employment
and services in a country during a certain and Growth 2017,” is a report published
period. It is the sum of gross value added by by NITI Aayog, which made the following
all resident producers in the economy plus observations:
any product taxes and minus any subsidies Statement 1 is incorrect: Both rural and urban
not included in the value of the products. regions have seen an improvement in worker
z The growth rate of GDP in India is as follows: productivity as well as the absolute level of
2016- 8.26% 2017- 7.04% income per worker. For rural areas, it was
2018- 6.12% 2019- 4.18% Rs. 37273 in 2004 -05 and Rs. 101755 in
2020- -10.29% 2011-12, while for urban areas it was Rs. 120419
in 2004-05 and Rs. 282515 in 2011-12.
z With respect to 2016-2020, we can clearly
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the 2011
see that it has not been rising for five years.
Census, 68.8% of India’s population and
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
72.4% of the workforce resided in rural areas.
z Per Capita Income: The average income However, the steady transition to urbanisation
per person in a particular location during a over the years has led to a decline in the rural
given year is measured by per capita income share of the workforce, from 77.8% in 1993-94
or total income. The amount is determined to 70.9% in 2011-12.
by dividing the area’s overall income by its Statement 3 is correct: About two-thirds
whole population. of rural income is now generated in non-
z Growth Rate in Per Capita Income in India agricultural activities. Non-farm economy
is as follows: has increased in rural areas. The share of
2016-2017: 7.1% 2017-2018: 6.8% agriculture in the rural economy has decreased
2018-2019: 6.1% 2019-2020: 4.2%. from 57% in 1993-94 to 39% in 2011-12.
Statement 4 is correct: After 2004-05, the
NOTE: This question came in 2011 so data rural areas have witnessed negative growth in
and facts of that period is not important. employment in spite of high growth in output.
However, we can try to attempt and analyse The growth rate of rural employment was
the same question in light of recent data
1.45% during 1994-2005, which fell to -0.28%
i.e., from 2016-2020
between 2005-12.
ECONOMIC REFORMS
Meaning and Need of New Economic

Economic Reforms Policy (N.E.P.)
Meaning: Set of Need: Stabilisation Structural Reform

policies, rules and 1. Poor performance of public Measures Measures
regulations to achieve sector
economic growth. 2. Adverse balance of payment 1. C orrecting Adverse 1. I mprove Efficiency
3. Fall in foreign exchange Balance of Payment 2. Removing Trade
reserves 2. Tackling with Restrictions
4. Huge debts on government inflation
5. Inflationary pressure
6. Terms and conditions
of World Bank and IMF
(International Monetary
Fund)
Indian Economy 183

4. (a) Sub-Theme: Economic Planning target was 8%. Later, the government dissolved
Statement 1 is correct: From the Second Five the Planning Commission with the NITI Aayog.
Year Plan (1956-61), there was determined Twelfth Five-Year Plan objectives:
thrust towards substitution of basic and z To remove gender and social gaps in school
capital goods industries. This plan focused enrolment.
on Rapid Industrialization with an emphasis z To enhance access to higher education.
on capital goods and heavy industries. It was z To reduce malnutrition among children
based on the PC Mahalanobis Model. aged 0–3 years.
Statement 2 is correct: The Fourth Plan z To provide electricity to all villages.
(1969-74) provided a necessary corrective z Create 50 million new job opportunities in
to the earlier trend which helped particularly non-agricultural sectors.
the stronger sections in agriculture as well as
7. (c) Sub-Theme: Inclusive growth
in industry to enable them rapidly to enlarge
and diversify the production base. It has Statement 1 is incorrect: Permitting the NBFCs
adopted the objective of correcting the earlier to do banking cannot be a part of Inclusive
trend of increased concentration of wealth and Governance. The prime motive of Banks is
economic power. Thus, it targeted Growth with to earn profits; for an inclusive governance
Stability and progressive achievement of self- concept to be successful, the government has
to focus more on support being provided to
reliance.
all citizens irrespective of their economic and
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Fifth plan
social status, rather than allowing entities to
(1974-78) aimed at removal of poverty and
churn out profits out of them.
attaining self-reliance. The financial sector
Statement 2 is correct: According to
became an integral part of the plan in the Ninth
Article 243ZD of the Indian Constitution,
five -year plan (1997-2002).
the District Planning Committee (DPC) must
5. (b) Sub-Theme: Economic Reform have been established at the district level to
Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s agriculture oversee planning at the district and below.
sector has shown a gradual decline in The committee in charge of each district
contribution to the Indian economy post-reform. shall compile the district’s Panchayat and
India’s traditional occupation, agriculture, Municipality development plans and create a
currently makes up only 15% of the GDP, down draft development plan for the district.
from 29% in 1991. Statement 3 is correct: The Government aims
Statement 2 is correct: India is seen as a to increase public health expenditure to 2.5%
successful exporter of IT software, auto parts, of GDP by 2025. The 15th Finance Commission,
textiles, and engineering goods in the reform the Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan,
period. Thus, the share of India’s exports in highlighted that the government aims at
world trade increased after its liberalisation of gradually increasing the public health
economic policies in 1991. expenditure to 2.5% of the nation’s GDP by the
Statement 3 is correct: The Foreign year 2025.
investments including FDI and FII have Statement 4 is correct: The Mid-Day
increased from about US $ 100 million in Meal Program or MDMP is a program of,
1990-91 to US $ 467 billion in 2012-13. “Nutrition Support to Primary Education” and
Statement 4 is correct: The opening up of is considered as a means of mitigating the
the economy has led to rapid increase in classroom hunger to all children below the age
foreign direct investment and foreign exchange of 14 years who are enrolled in schools. It was
reserves. aimed at improving enrolment, attendance,
and retention, while simultaneously improving
NOTE: This question came verbatim from the nutritional status of students in primary
Economics NCERT Class 11 Pg. 48. This classes.
highlights the importance of reading and
8. (d) Sub-Theme: Government Policies
understanding the concepts from NCERTs.
Factors/Policies Affecting the Price of Rice
6. (d) Sub-Theme: Economic Planning in recent past are:
Twelfth FYP (2012-2017): z Minimum Support Price: MSP is a type of
The Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017) market intervention that the government
was launched with the objective of faster, uses to protect farmers against a sudden
sustainable, and more inclusive growth. It drop in farm prices. Rice is included in MSP
was the last five-year plan. Its growth rate and thus impacts the price of rice.

z Governments Trading: The Government’s 10. (c) Sub-Theme: Public investment in agriculture
Trading and Minimum Support Price of rice Public Investment: It is an investment by the
results in the diversion of stocks from the State (Central, state and local governments or
open market hence driving up the price for through publicly owned companies) to build
the ultimate consumers. Though factors like the nation’s capital stock by devoting resources
climatic shocks determine rice production to the basic physical infrastructure (such as
and prices in the short run, the future roads, bridges, rail lines, airports, and water
scenario of rice prices must be based on distribution), research and development, etc.
long-term projections of rice demand and that leads to increased output and/or living
supply. standards.
z Government’s Stockpiling: Low stock The following can be considered as Public
levels constrain the ability to buffer the Investment in Agriculture.
price rise resulting from other factors. z Computerization of Primary Agricultural
z Consumer Subsidies: Subsidies given to Credit Societies: Computerization of
consumers lower the prices for the ultimate Primary Agricultural Credit Societies will
enhance productivity in the agricultural
consumer. These subsidies are generally
sector, as there will be easy and timely
provided by the government.
access of credit.
9. (b) Sub-Theme: Agriculture Fertilizer z Social Capital Development: Building
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union social capital for smallholders can also
Government subsidizes fertilizers to ensure positively impact the adoption of new
that fertilizers are easily available to farmers at technologies such as the use of improved
reasonable prices and the county remains self- seeds, soil and water conservation practices,
sufficient in agriculture. Thus, the fertilizer price and agroforestry.
in India is administered by the government. z Setting up cold storage facilities by the
Statement 2 is correct. Ammonia’s chemical governments: Setting up cold storage
formula is NH3. It is a colourless gas and is used facilities will enhance productivity in the
as an industrial chemical in the production of agricultural sector as agricultural products
fertilizers, plastics, synthetic fibers, dyes and are generally perishable in nature and the
other products. It occurs naturally in the facility of cold storage may help in increasing
environment from the breakdown of organic the shelf life of the products.
waste matter and may also find its way to Additional Information:
ground and surface water sources through z Fixing Minimum Support Price for
industrial effluents, contamination by sewage Agriculture for agricultural products of all
or through agricultural runoff. In the Haber– crops and free electricity supply to farmers
Bosch process, the atmospheric nitrogen (N2) are subsidies, hence they are not categorized
is converted to ammonia (NH3) by reacting it as public investment in agriculture.
with hydrogen (H2), (this Hydrogen is provided z Subsidies and incentives are not considered
by breaking methane (CH4) from natural gas) as public investment.
while maintaining the high temperatures and
11. (b) Sub-Theme: Agricultural credit
pressures.
Statement 3 is correct. In India, the domestic Announced in the 1998–1999 budget, the
production of elemental sulphur is limited Kisan Credit Card Scheme aims to provide
to by-product recoveries from petroleum farmers with the institutional credit they
refineries and fuel oil used as feedstock for need to meet their financial needs at various
manufacturing fertilizer. phases of farming. It is implemented by all
public sector banks, regional rural banks, and
NOTE: This particular question is a multi- cooperative banks across the nation. Under the
dimensional one that covers the aspect Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit
of Economy, Government policies, and support is given to farmers for the following
sound knowledge in chemistry, preferably purposes:
Environmental chemistry. Here, by asking z Working Capital for Maintenance of Farm
this question UPSC might have wanted to Assets: To provide Working capital for
check the analytical ability of aspirants from maintenance of farm assets and activities
a multi-dimensional perspective. allied to agriculture.
Indian Economy 185

z Consumption Requirement of Farm Costs and Prices (CACP) was established in
Households: To fulfill the consumption 1965.
requirements of farmers is one of the main z The Economic Cost of food grains to the
objectives of KCS. FCI is the Minimum Support Price and
z Post Harvest Expenses: Supporting the bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the
farmer in their post-harvest expenses. procurement incidentals and distribution
Additional Information: cost.
z The Kisan Credit Cards are issued to the z Procurement incidentals are expenses
farmers so that they may use them to incurred during procurement till the food
purchase agriculture inputs such as seeds, grains reach the first point of godown.
fertilizers, pesticides etc. and draw cash for z Distribution costs are now included in
their production needs. economic costs, whilst buffer carrying costs
z Construction of a family house is covered are now included in buffer subsidies.
under PMAY and setting up a village cold
storage facility is not covered under KCC 14. (d) Sub-Theme: Agricultural commodity Trading
either. Import of Agricultural commodities:
z Vegetable oils account for the highest
NOTE: Statement 2 talks about “Purchase import in terms of value in the last five
of combine harvesters, tractors and years. India relies on imports for 70% of
mini trucks” which is not a short term its edible oil consumption.
investment. It needs heavy capital and is
z Pulses account for second-most highest
not possible with short-term credit support
while fresh fruits account for third highest
provided under KCC. By this reasoning
and spices account for least imports in terms
and general understanding if we eliminate
statement 2, we will get correct answer i.e., of value in the last five years among the
‘Option (b) 1, 3 and 4 only’ above-mentioned agricultural commodities
imported in India.
12. (d) Sub-Theme: MSP
15. (b) Sub-Theme: Land Reforms
Statement 1 is incorrect: Procurement of
all cereals, pulses and oilseeds at Minimum Land Reforms in Independent India:
support price is open-ended. It is limited z The Land Reforms in India aimed at the
redistribution of ownership holdings and
since our buffer stock is limited. Open ended
reorganizing operational holdings from the
procurement means whatever foodgrains are
view point of optimum utilization of land.
offered by the farmers, within the stipulated
procurement period and which conforms to the z It was a major aim of land reforms to provide
quality specifications prescribed by Government agricultural land to all the landless.
of India, are purchased at MSP (and bonus/ z The Objectives of the Land Reforms are as
incentive, if any) by the Government agencies follows:
including FCI for central Pool. Removing institutional discrepancies of
Statement 2 is incorrect: Market price has no the agrarian structure.
link with minimum support price and it can go Providing agricultural land to all the
below or above the MSP, depending upon the landless.
demand of the crop in the market. Issues of socio-economic inequality.
13. (c) Sub-Theme: Government Policies/Food Security In order to address the interconnected
Food Corporation of India (FCI): issues of poverty, hunger, and food
z Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a Public insecurity, agricultural productivity
Sector Undertaking that falls under the must be increased.
Ministry of Consumer Affairs’ Department Additional Information:
of Food and Public Distribution. z Land Ceiling laws were applied to family
z In 1965, the Food Corporations Act of holdings as well as individual holdings
1964 created the FCI, a statutory body. It depending upon the region/state.
was founded in the midst of a severe grain z The outcome of Land reforms: (i) abolition
crisis, particularly in wheat. of intermediaries, (ii) fixation of ceilings
z In order to suggest remunerative pricing on land holdings, and (iii) redistribution of
to farmers, the Commission on Agricultural surplus land among landless or semi-landless

peasants. Cultivation of cash crops requires portal which networks the existing APMC
much more other inputs rather than the mere mandis to create a unified national market for
availability of holdings. Commercialization agricultural commodities.
of agriculture, and not land reforms, led to Statement 2 is correct: NAM promises more
an increase in the cultivation of cash crops. options for sale. It would increase farmers’
z Certain exemptions to the ceiling limits access to nationwide markets (with prices
were allowed for plantations of crops like commensurate with the quality of their
tea and coffee. produce) through warehouse based sales and
thus obviate the need to transport his produce
16. (b) Sub-Theme: Agricultural commodity Trading
to the mandi.
In recent years (2014-18), Vietnam’s rice National Agriculture Market (NAM):
exports were between 13 and 16 percent, A national market for agricultural commodities
Thailand’s between 22 and 25 percent, and is created by connecting the current APMC
India’s between 25 and 26 percent. Since the mandis through the pan-Indian electronic
beginning of this decade, India has been the trading portal known as the National
leading exporter of rice worldwide (2011-12). Agriculture Market (NAM).
17. (a) Sub-Theme: Agricultural commodity Trading Advantages of e-NAM:
Statement 1 is correct: India occupies a For the Farmers: NAM promises more options
prominent position in the world oilseeds for sale. It would increase farmers’ access to
industry with contribution of around 10% nationwide markets (with prices commensurate
in worldwide production. But the demand of with the quality of their produce) through
edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition warehouse based sales and thus obviate the
to palm oil) is significantly higher than the need to transport his produce to the mandi.
domestic production, leading to dependence For the Local Trader: NAM provides access to
on imports (60% of requirement). a bigger national market for secondary trading
Statement 2 is incorrect: Government imposes in the mandi/market.
customs duty on edible oils to safeguard the By participating directly in trading at the local
interests of the domestic oil crushing industry. mandi/market level through the NAM platform,
The duty on two major edible oils, namely bulk buyers, processors, exporters, etc. benefit
crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/ from lower intermediation costs.
rapeseed/mustard is 25% while crude soybean All of the major mandis in the States will
oil attracts 30% duty. gradually be incorporated into NAM, ensuring
18. (b) Sub-Theme: MSP uniform processes for issuing licences,
z The Commission on Agricultural Costs and collecting fees, and moving products.
Prices’ (CACP) recommendations serve as The NAM will also aid in the development of
the foundation for the MSP. Being a statutory value chains for the nation’s most important
agency, the CACP provides separate reports agricultural commodities and support the
outlining its suggested pricing for the Kharif movement and storage of agricultural products
and Rabi seasons. Initially, MSP covered in a scientific manner.
paddy, rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, 20. (c) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture
ragi (Finger Millet), barley, gram, tur, Drip Irrigation:
moong, urad, sugarcane, groundnut, z It is a form of irrigation where water
soybean, sunflower seed, rapeseed and is applied near the plant root through
mustard, cotton, jute and tobacco. emitters or drippers, on or below the soil
z Along with the edible oilseeds previously surface, at a low rate varying from 2-20
covered by the Commission, Niger seed and litres per hour. Frequent watering helps to
Sesame were included in the MSP Scheme maintain the optimum level of soil moisture.
of CACP as of 1994-1995. Similar to this, z The most effective irrigation technique is
in 2001-2002, the government expanded drip irrigation, which may be used for a
the Commission’s mandate by adding wide range of crops, including vegetables,
lentil (masur). orchard crops, flowers, and plantation crops.
19. (c) Sub-Theme: Government Policies/e-technology Advantages of Drip Irrigation:
to aid farmers. z Maximum use of available water.
Statement 1 is correct: National Agriculture z No water being available to weeds.
Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading z Maximum crop yield.
Indian Economy 187

z High efficiency in the use of fertilizers. z No person or organisation is permitted to
z Weed growth is reduced and restricts the engage in wholesale marketing operations
population of potential hosts. after a certain area is designated as a
z Low labour and relatively low operation market area and comes under the control
cost. of a Market Committee. In order to transact,
buyers must also get unique licences from
z No soil erosion.
each APMC.
z Improved infiltration in soil of low intake.
z It is a component of government policy
z Ready adjustment to sophisticated automatic aimed at ensuring food security, paying
control. remunerative prices to the farmers, and
z No runoff of fertilizers into groundwater. providing fair prices to consumers.
z Less water is lost to evaporation than during 23. (b) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture
surface irrigation.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Accelerated
z Improves seed germination. Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched
z Decreased tillage operations. in 1996-97 to give loan assistance to the states
Disadvantages of Drip Irrigation: to help them to develop their major irrigation
z Sensitivity to clogging projects which are in an advanced stage of
z Moisture distribution problem completion. Its objective was to expedite
z Salinity hazards completion of ongoing irrigation projects.
Statement 2 is correct: The command area
z High cost compared to furrow.
development programme was launched in
z For design, installation, and operation, high 1974-75 to bridge the gap between irrigation
competence is needed. potential and actual utilized major and medium
21. (a) Sub-Theme: Government Policies irrigation schemes. Delivery of irrigation water
Fair and Remunerative Prices (FRP): to the fields is the ultimate objective of this
z The Sugarcane Control Order, 1966, scheme. The plan includes the creation of
published under the Essential Commodities field channels, land contouring, and rotational
Act (ECA), 1955, specifies that FRP must be water supply to ensure equitable distribution.
paid nationwide within 14 days of the cane’s It was restructured into the Command Area
delivery date. Development and Water Management
Program 2004.
z The Cabinet Committee on Economic
Affairs (CCEA) announced the decision 24. (b) Sub-Theme: Agricultural Infrastructure
following the Commission on Agricultural z Labour Augmenting is technology that
Costs and Prices’ (CACP) recommendation. increases skills and productivity of the
z The report by the Rangarajan Committee on existing labour force (example - teaching
restructuring the sugarcane sector serves as people how to use the computer).
the foundation for the FRP. z Capital Augmenting technology enhances
the productivity of existing capital goods.
22. (b) Sub-Theme: Government Policies
In this case, replacement of wood by steel,
Agricultural Produce Market Committee increases the productivity of plough.
(APMC):
z Agricultural Produce Market Committee 25. (b) Sub-Theme: Government Policies
(APMC) under the State Government Seed village Concept:
regulates the notified agricultural produce z A village is referred to as a “seed village” if
and livestock. a trained group of farmers produces seeds
z The State Government’s Agricultural Produce for a variety of crops and provides for the
Market Committee (APMC) oversees the requirements of themselves, their fellow
listed agricultural products and livestock. villagers, and villagers in nearby villages at
an affordable price.
z According to Schedule 7 of the Indian
Constitution, agriculture is a state subject. z Major focus areas are:
Clustering or concentrating seed
z The entire state’s area has been divided
up and designated as a market area (Yard production in a small area
Mandis), and market management is carried Introducing new, high-yielding types to
out by Market Committees established by replace the current local ones.
the state governments. Increasing the seed production

To meet the local demand, timely supply 28. (a) Sub-Theme: Coal Sector
and reasonable cost Statement 1 is correct: The nationalisation
Self-sufficiency and self-reliance of the was done in two phases, the first with the
village coking coal mines in 1971-72 and then with the
Increasing the seed replacement rate non -coking coal mines in 1973. Indira Gandhi
This allows seed to be available at the served as the Prime Minister of the country
door steps of farms at an appropriate from 1971-1973.
time and at an affordable cost. It also Statement 2 is incorrect: After the Supreme
facilitates fast spread of new cultivars of Court cancelled the coal block allocations in
different kinds. 2014. To manage and reallocate the cancelled
26. (a) Sub-Theme: Crude oil Trade blocks in a transparent and accountable
manner, the Coal Mines (Special Provisions)
Crude Oil Trade:
Act, 2015 enabled the provisions for ‘allocation
z There are about 160 crude oils that are
traded internationally. of coal mines by way of auction and allotment
for the sale of coal’.
z They vary in terms of their characteristics
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has the
& quality.
5th largest coal reserves in the world, but due
z The two main benchmarks for crude to the monopolies of some firms, it cannot
oil used internationally are West Texas
produce enough coal to meet the shortages. It
Intermediate and Brent Crude.
imports coal to meet the shortages. Domestic
Difference of WTI and Brent Crude oil: coal has been able to meet only 75% of our
WTI Brent annual coal demand. About 200 mt of imports
are used to make up for the shortage of local
Benchmark for Benchmark for crude
coal supply.
oil extracted from oil obtained from
America the North Sea near NOTE: Even if we don’t know the exact
Norway, Sweden, answer, we can still attempt the questions
and UK through elimination method. For example,
observing the third statement, ‘self
Benchmark used by Benchmark used for
sufficient in coal products’ sounds absurd.
US oil prices OPEC oil prices
Now if we have covered daily newspapers
Traded on New York Traded on and NCERTs (geography) then we know that
Mercantile Exchange International India holds the 5th biggest coal reserves
Exchange in London in the world but due to incapacity of coal
Low share at Two-third of the production by monopolistic firms, it imports
international trade world’s crude coal to meet the shortages of domestic
but futuristic contracts are signed supply.
opportunities Brent oil Benchmark Hence, statement 3 is wrong and by
eliminating this single statement we can
27. (c) Sub-Theme: WTO Agreements arrive at the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Trade-Related
29. (d) Sub-Theme: Government Policies
Investment Measure (TRIMs) provides
quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign UDAY Scheme
investors. TRIMs agreement stipulates that z It is the Government of India’s financial
certain measures adopted by Governments to recovery and revival package for India’s
regulate FDI can cause trade-restrictive and electricity distribution firms (DISCOMs),
distorting effects. which aims to permanently fix the financial
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 1 crisis of the power distribution industry.
of the TRIMs agreement, it applies only to z Objectives:
investment measures related to trade in goods Improving operational efficiencies of
and not in services. discoms,
Statement 3 is correct: TRIMs are not intended
Reduction of cost of power,
to deal with the regulation of investment as such
Reduction in interest cost of discoms and
and does not impact directly on WTO members’
ability to regulate and place conditions upon the Enforcing financial discipline on discoms
entry and establishment of foreign investment. through alignment with state finances.
Indian Economy 189

30. (b) Sub-Theme: Government policies 32. (c) Sub-Theme: Core Industry
Statement 1 is incorrect: DMFs don’t work Eight Core Industries:
in promotion of mineral exploration activities z Eight Core Industries measures
in mineral rich districts, rather it work on combined and individual performance
the benefit of the persons and areas affected of production in selected eight core
mining related operations. industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural
Statement 2 is correct: The main objective of Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers,
DMFs is to work for the interest of the benefit Steel, Cement and Electricity. The
of the persons and areas affected mining Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27%
related operations in such manner as may be (2021) of the weight of items included in
prescribed by the State Government. the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Statement 3 is incorrect: It does not authorise z These industries have a major impact
states to issue a licence for mineral exploration. on general economic activities and also
Additional Information: industrial activities.
District Mineral Foundations (DMFs):
z They significantly impact most other
z DMFs were instituted under the Mines and
industries as well. The capital basis of the
Minerals (Development and Regulation)
economy is represented by the core sector.
(MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
z The IIP provides the economic growth
z They are non-profit trusts created to
rates for various industrial categories over
operate in the interest of those impacted
a certain time period.
by mining activities and for their own gain.
z Miners’ contributions provide the funding 33. (b) Sub-Theme: Coal Sector
for it. Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no such
z Objective: To work for the interest of the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for
benefit of the persons and areas affected the future and import it from other countries
mining related operations in such manner as for the present use.
may be prescribed by the State Government. Statement 2 is correct: Coal based power
plants, cement plants, captive power plants,
z Jurisdiction: Its manner of operation comes
sponge iron plants, industrial consumers and
under the jurisdiction of the relevant State
coal traders are importing non-coking coal.
Government.
Statement 3 is correct: The production of
NOTE: Through our general understanding steel requires 0.8 tonnes of coking coal to
we know that DMFs work for the interest produce one tonne of Steel. And about 85% of
and benefit of persons and areas affected the coking coal requirement of the domestic
by mining related operations, hence, with steel industry is presently being met through
this simple understanding we can rule out imports.
statement 3 easily and by eliminating Additional Information:
this single statement we can easily arrive Import of Coal:
at the correct answer. z According to the current import policy,
31. (d) S t a te m e n t 1 i s co r re c t : T h e N a t i o n a l consumers themselves may freely import
manufacturing Policy provides for the promotion coal (under Open General Licence) based
of clusters and aggregation, especially through on their own requirements and business
the creation of National Investment and discretion.
Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs). z Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and
Statement 2 is correct: Initiating the process other steel-making facilities import coking
of simplification and rationalization of coal primarily to fill the gap between
state-level business regulations and developing demand and supply domestically and to
single-window clearance. raise the level of production quality. About
Statement 3 is correct: Advisory to States 85% of the coking coal requirement of the
on simplification & rationalization of business domestic steel industry is presently being
regulations and skill Development. Constitution met through imports.
of the approval/monitoring mechanism under z Coal based power plants, cement plants,
the policy. Scheme prepared under NMP on captive power plants, sponge iron plants,
Technology Acquisition and Development Fund industrial consumers and coal traders are
(TADF). importing non-coking coal.

z Coke is imported mainly by pig-Iron in the economy outgrows the supply in the
manufacturers and Iron & Steel sector economy. It can be summed up as a condition
consumers using mini-blast furnace. of “too much money chasing too few goods”.
34. (d) Sub-Theme: Inflation With reference to the Indian economy, demand-
pull inflation can be caused/increased by the
Inflation is the rise in prices of goods and following:
services within a particular economy wherein, 1. Expansionary Policies: Money in the
the purchasing power of consumers decreases, market rises when the government spends
and the value of the cash holdings erode. In more freely. It leads to an increase in
India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme demand for the goods and fuels demand-
Implementation (MoSPI) measures inflation. pull inflation.
Some causes that lead to inflation include the
2. Fiscal Stimulus: It also increases the money
creation of new money to finance a budget
in the market which leads to an increase in
deficit. A Budget Deficit refers to a situation
demand for the goods and fuels demand-
where total expenditure exceeds the total
pull inflation.
revenue.
3. Inflation-Indexing Wages: It means
Other Causes that lead to inflation are: Increase
wages are linked to the inflation which
in demand, reduction in supply, demand-supply
means wages move as inflation changes in
gap, excess circulation of money, increase in
the economy. Such indexing is provided to
input costs, devaluation of currency, rise in
reduce the effect of inflation on wages. It
wages among others.
can not lead to demand pull inflation in the
NOTE: This question came verbatim from economy.
PYQ 2013. Therefore, it underlines the 4. Higher Purchasing Power: Consumers feel
importance of solving and analysing PYQs. more confidence and spend more when they
35. (b) Sub-Theme: Recession have a better income. As a result, demand
increases, driving up inflation.
z A fall in the gross domestic product (GDP)
for two or more consecutive quarters is 5. Rising Interest Rates: It will reduce the
often regarded as an economic recession. money supply in the market. Borrowing
money will become costlier, creating a credit
z Recessions are brought on by high interest crunch in the economy. So, it cannot cause
rates because they reduce liquidity, or the demand to pull inflation in the economy.
quantity of money available for investment.
z An increase in expenditure on public projects z Effective change in the wages is zero and
will lead to an increase in investments, it does not increase/decrease purchasing
leading to an increase in GDP and income power. So, it cannot lead to a demand to pull
in the economy and in turn increase in inflation in the economy.
demand, completing the virtuous cycle of
z Rising interest rates decrease the money
investment.
supply in the economy. Also, due to this
Additional Information: borrowing money becomes costly. So, it
z Recession is a situation when an economy cannot cause demand-pull inflation in the
faces negative growth of GDP in two economy.
successive quarters. Cut in tax rates
37. (a) Sub-Theme: Inflation
accompanied by an increase in interest rate
can create a credit crunch in the economy, Statement 1 is correct: The Wholesale
which will not be favourable at the moment Price Index (WPI) measures wholesale price
for the economy. changes. The Wholesale goods or services sold
by businesses to smaller businesses for selling
z When income is falling in the economy then
further. The WPI does not include services. The
an increase in tax rates accompanied by a
weightage for food is lower in WPI whereas the
reduction of interest rate is not desirable at
weightage of food in the CPI is close to 50%.
the moment. Statement 2 is correct: WPI indicates the
z Reduction of expenditure on public projects wholesale price, whereas CPI shows the retail
in the time of recession will not be favourable price i.e., the price at which people make
as it will reduce the output of the economy. purchases from the retail market. WPI does
36. (a) Sub-Theme: Types of Inflation not show the impact of inflation on the people.
Demand-pull inflation is caused by an Any policy should consider the impact on the
increase in demand and when the demand people. WPI does not account for the price of
Indian Economy 191

services. It is an international best practice - z Reserve Bank of India is the authority to
most of the countries have shifted to CPI. control inflation through monetary policies
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Reserve bank which it does by increasing bank rates, repo
of India adopted the new Consumer Price
rates, cash reserve ratio, buying dollars,
Index (CPI) (combined) as the key measure
of inflation in 2014. The Consumer Price Index regulating money supply and availability of
measures retail-level price changes. It includes credit.
services as well. z Controlling Inflation: Decreased money
38. (c) Sub-Theme: Inflation Measures to Combat circulation helps in controlling the inflation.
Inflation
z Causes that Lead to Inflation are: Increase
z Inflation is the rise in prices of goods
in demand, reduction in supply, demand-
and services within a particular economy
wherein, the purchasing power of consumers supply gap, excess circulation of money,
decreases, and the value of the cash holdings increase in input costs, devaluation of
erode. currency, rise in wages among others.
Monetary Policy Measures Fiscal Policy Measures Other Measures
z Increase of the Bank rate. z Reduces the private spending by z Price control by government as a
increasing taxes short -term measure
z Make borrowing costly by z Reduces the government spending z Import controls imposed by the
increasing interest rates. government.
z Increasing tendency to save z Bringing more people under tax z Restricting the wage increase by
coverage companies
z Controlling the credit-creation z Introducing new taxes and cess
z Conducting open market
operations
z Increasing the Repo Rate, Bank Rate,
CRR, SLR and other policy rates.
from the public to finance a budget deficit

NOTE: This is absolutely a straightforward
and easy question. Anyone with a thorough will lead to a decrease in the money supply
reading of NCERTs and Ramesh Singh could in the market. Creating new money to finance
easily answer this question. a budget deficit will have more inflationary
effect than Repayment of public debt, as it will
39. (a) Sub-Theme: Inflation lead to an increase in total money supply in the
Statement 1 is correct: Inflation is the rise in market.
prices of goods and services within a particular Budget Deficit:
economy wherein, the purchasing power of z It refers to a situation where total expenditure
consumers decreases, and the value of the cash exceeds the total revenue.
holdings erode. Inflation redistributes wealth
z A tool for raising money to create a budget
from creditors to debtors i.e. lenders suffer and
deficit is known as deficit financing.
borrowers benefit out of inflation. Bondholders
have lent money (to debtors) and received a z There are three ways to finance a budget:
bond in return. So he is a lender, he suffers 1. Creating new currency
(Debtor benefits from inflation). 2. Borrowing from internal sources like
Statement 2 is incorrect: The statement RBI, issuing bonds, etc.
has not used specifically the word “inflation- 3. Borrowing from External sources like
indexed bonds”, hence we cannot say Inflation WB, IMF, etc.
benefits the bond-holders. z Inflation won’t occur if the government
40. (d) Sub-Theme: Inflation borrows money from the public by issuing
Option (d) is correct: Borrowing from banks bonds with lower interest rates. In a similar
to finance a budget deficit and Borrowing manner, bank loans won’t cause inflation.

41. (b) Sub-Theme: Inflation/Types of Inflation is the case with other compliments. With
Inflation: the increase in the price of complement,
z It is the rise in prices of goods and services demand reduces.
within a particular economy wherein, the z Statement 3 is incorrect: Inferior goods
purchasing power of consumers decreases, are those goods demanded for which move
and the value of the cash holdings erode. in the opposite direction as the income
z Inflation measures the average price change of the consumer. As the income of the
in a basket of commodities and services customer increases, the demand for inferior
over time. goods falls, and as the income decreases, the
z The opposite and rare fall in the price index demand for them rises. E.g. coarse cereals.
of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’. z Statement 4 is correct: As per Law of
z In India, the Ministry of Statistics and demand, When the price of the commodity
Programme Implementation (MoSPI) decreases, demand for it rises.
measures inflation. 43. (d) Sub-Theme: Functions of IMF
z Some causes of inflation: Increase in Option (d) is correct: A Reserve Tranche is a
demand, reduction in supply, demand-supply portion of the required quota of currency each
gap, excess circulation of money, increase in member country must provide to the IMF that
input costs, devaluation of currency, rise in can be utilized for its own purposes without a
wages, among others. service fee or economic reform conditions.
COBWEB PHENOMENON Gold or Reserve Tranche:
z Explains large scale fluctuations in the z The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
prices of Pulses in the Indian Market. is funded through its members and their
z If prices were higher in the previous year, quota contributions.
more farmers would sow pulses in the z A reserve tranche is a component of the
current year leading to its over-production required quota of currency that each member
and subsequent decline in the prices. nation must contribute to the IMF and can
z The lower prices in the current year be used for its own needs free of charges or
disincentive the farmers from growing requirements for economic reform.
crops in the next cropping season, leading to z Essentially, the reserve tranche serves as an
underproduction and subsequent increase emergency account that IMF members can
in the prices. use whenever necessary.
NOTE: This particular question came back z The reserve tranches that nations have with
in 2011, thus all the facts and data w.r.t. the IMF are regarded as their facilities of
the question becomes irrelevant in present last resort, which means they will use the
times. However, covering the Inflation topic reserve tranche urgently before requesting
holistically still stands very important a formal credit tranche.
both in terms of UPSC Prelims and Mains There are no interest costs for the initial 25%
perspective. reserve tranche. Any additional items would
42. (a) Sub-Theme: Functions of Money Market incur a service charge.
z Statement 1 is correct: In the case of 44. (c) Sub-Theme: Instruments of Money Market
Substitute goods, demand for a good usually Statement 1 is correct: Commercial Paper
moves in the direction of the price of its is a money market instrument for financing
substitutes. Since tea is a substitute for working capital requirements of companies. It
coffee, if the price of coffee increases, the is an unsecured instrument issued in the form
consumers can shift to tea, and hence, the of promissory notes which can be issued for a
consumption of tea is likely to go up. period ranging from 15 days to one year.
z Statement 2 is incorrect: Goods that Statement 2 is incorrect: Certificate of
are consumed together are called Deposit are short term money market
Complementary goods such as tea and instruments issued by Commercial Banks and
sugar, pen and ink etc. Since Pen and ink special financial institutions which are freely
are used together, an increase in the price of transferable between parties. Its maturity
pens is likely to reduce the demand for ink period ranges from 91 days to 1 year. These
and a decrease in the price of ink is likely can be issued to individuals, cooperatives and
to increase the demand for pens. Similar companies.
Indian Economy 193

Statement 3 is correct: Call money is a Gold Monetization Scheme and Sovereign
money market instrument used by the banks Gold Bond Scheme:
to meet their temporary requirement of cash. z The government had introduced three
They borrow and lend money from each other ambitious plans to lower the physical
normally on a daily basis. It has a maturity demand for gold and remove 20,000 tonnes
period of one day to fifteen days and is used by of the precious metal from households
banks for adjusting to their short-term liquidity where it was sitting inert and worth
imbalances. $800 billion.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Zero coupon Bond z PM launched the maiden sovereign gold
is a type of bond which is issued at a discount bond, gold monetisation and the Indian gold
to its face value, at which it will be redeemed. coin scheme.
There are no intermittent payments of interests
z Objective: To reduce India’s gold imports
and they are generally issued for long tenure.
and bring all the gold lying idle with
45. (b) Sub-Theme: Cryptocurrency individuals and households. Sovereign Gold
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bitcoin is a Bond Scheme was launched under the Gold
digital currency that is not tied to a bank or Monetisation Scheme in November 2015.
government and allows users to spend money z Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are
anonymously. government securities denominated in
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Bitcoins grams of gold issued by the RBI on behalf
have become popular because transactions of the Government.
can be made anonymously, making the
z The Gold Monetization Scheme aims
currency popular with libertarians as well as
to minimise the nation’s dependency on
tech enthusiasts, speculators and criminals.
Also, anyone with a Bitcoin address can send gold imports by enabling the use of gold
and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a held by households and facilitating their
Bitcoin address. mobilisation for productive uses.
Bitcoin: z Except for RRBs, all Scheduled Commercial
z Bitcoin is a digital currency that is not Banks may implement the Scheme. Both
tied to any formal institution like bank programmes are not meant to encourage FDI
or government and it also allows users to in the gold and jewellery industry.
transact anonymously. 47. (b) Sub-Theme: Business Funding
z Generally the coins are created by users Option (b) is correct: Venture capital (VC) is
who “mine’’ them by lending computing a form of private equity and a type of financing
power to verifying other users’ transactions. that investors provide to startup companies
z They receive bitcoins in exchange. The and small businesses that are believed to have
buying and selling of coins also can be done long-term growth potential.
on exchanges with U.S. dollars and other Venture Capital:
currencies. z Venture capital (VC) is a form of private
z Bitcoins became popular due to its equity and a type of financing that investors
anonymous transactions, making the provide to startup companies and small
currency popular with libertarians as well as businesses that are believed to have long-
tech enthusiasts, speculators and criminals. term growth potential.
z Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send z The majority of venture capital is often
and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with provided by wealthy individuals, investment
a Bitcoin address. banks, and other financial organisations.
46. (c) Sub-Theme: Government policies However, it is not always in the form of
money; it can also come in the form of
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The primary
managerial or technological know-how.
objectives of these schemes were to reduce
India’s gold imports and bring all the gold lying z Venture capital is often given to startups
idle with individuals and households. with outstanding growth potential or to
Statement 2 is incorrect: All Scheduled businesses that have had rapid growth and
Commercial Banks excluding RRBs are eligible seem well-positioned to keep growing.
to implement the Scheme. Both the schemes z The possibility of above-average profits is
are not intended to promote FDI in the gold an alluring payout, even though it might be
and jewellery sector. risky for investors who put up money.

z Venture capital is gradually becoming a (or corporate bonds) people who are holding
popular—even necessary—source for the bonds have more money to spend. Banks
obtaining funds for new businesses or see illiquid assets become liquid. Therefore,
projects with a brief working history (under in certain circumstances, this can lead to an
two years), especially if they do not have increase in the money supply.
access to capital markets, bank loans, or Statement 2 is incorrect: Deposit of currency
other debt instruments. in commercial banks by the public does not
z The main downside is that the investors increase, instead decreases the supply of money
usually get equity in the company, and, in the market.
thus, a say in company decisions. Statement 3 is correct: Borrowing by the
48. (d) Sub-Theme: Inflation government from the Central Bank leads to the
There are several factors that can contribute to release of money to the Central Bank which
a rise in overall prices, including an influx of eventually releases money in the market via
money into the economy, a decrease in the total loans etc.
amount of goods and services being produced, Statement 4 is incorrect: Sale of the
an uptick in demand for those goods and government securities to the public by the
services, an increase in people’s earnings, and Central Bank leads to more flow of money in
a rapid expansion of the population. the market.
Statement 1 is correct: An increase in the 50. (d) Sub-Theme: Disinvestment
money supply will cause Inflation. Statement 1 is incorrect: External debt is the
Statement 2 is correct: A decrease in output portion of a country’s debt that is borrowed
will cause Inflation. from foreign lenders, including commercial
Statement 3 is correct: An increase in demand banks, governments, or international financial
will cause Inflation.
institutions. The Government does not
Inflation:
necessarily intend to use the revenue earned
z It is the rise in prices of goods and services
from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the
within a particular economy wherein, the
external debt.
purchasing power of consumers decreases,
Statement 2 is incorrect: From time to time,
and the value of the cash holdings erode.
the Government takes the decision to disinvest
z Inflation measures the average price change
the CPSEs but largely it decides to retain the
in a basket of commodities and services
management control on a case to case basis.
over time.
z Central Public Sector Enterprises: These
z The opposite and rare fall in the price index are the businesses where the Central
of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’. Government or other CPSEs directly own
z In India, the Ministry of Statistics and 51% or more. The Ministry of Heavy
Programme Implementation (MoSPI) Industries and Public Enterprises is in
measures inflation. charge of managing these. Additionally,
z Some causes of inflation: Increase in these are divided into strategic and non-
demand, reduction in supply, demand-supply strategic CPSE.
gap, excess circulation of money, increase in
51. (d) Sub-Theme: Food Processing
input costs, devaluation of currency, rise in
wages, among others. Mega Food Park Scheme 2008-09:
z It was introduced in 2008–09 with the
z In India, inflation is primarily measured by
goal of significantly boosting the food
two main indices: Wholesale Price Index
(WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI). processing industry by increasing value and
(Refer PYQ for detailed and comparative lowering food waste at every point in the
explanation on WPI and CPI). supply chain, with a focus on perishables.
The Mega Food Park Scheme is being carried
NOTE: This is a direct, application based out in the nation by the Ministry of Food
question. Details on inflation have been Processing Industries.
covered in earlier PYQs. z Through a cluster-based approach, mega
49. (c) Sub-Theme: Money Supply food parks build cutting-edge infrastructure
Statement 1 is correct: The Central facilities for food processing along the value
Bank pays investors holding bonds. If the chain from farm to market with strong
Central Bank buys Government securities forward and backward connections.
Indian Economy 195

Aim: To provide a method for connecting decreasing the value of India’s currency against
agricultural production to the market by the US dollar. Therefore, if interest rates in the
bringing together producers, processors, USA or EU were to fall, then it is likely to induce
and retailers in order to maximise value RBI to buy dollars.
addition, reduce wastage, boost farmers’ 53. (b) Sub-Theme: Credit Rating
incomes, and create jobs, particularly in Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, credit
the rural sector. rating agencies are regulated by Securities and
Approach: The “Cluster” approach- Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
based Scheme plans to build state- Statement 2 is correct: ICRA (Investment
of-the-art support infrastructure in Information and Credit Rating Agency of
a clearly defined agri/horticultural India Ltd.) was set up in 1991 by IFCI, LIC, SBI
zone to facilitate the establishment of and select banks as well as financial institutions
contemporary food processing units on to rate debt instruments.
the industrial plots offered in the park Statement 3 is correct: In India there are
with a well-established supply chain. six credit rating agencies registered under
Components: A Mega Food Park Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
normally includes cold chain, collection namely, CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, SMERA, Fitch India
centres, primary processing centres, and Brickwork Ratings.
central processing centres, and about Credit Rating
25 to 30 fully completed plots for z A credit rating is an assessment of the
entrepreneurs to build food processing creditworthiness of a borrower.
units.
z Individuals, corporations and governments
Financial Assistance: The central
are assigned credit ratings, whoever wants
government provides financial
to borrow money.
assistance up to Rs. 50 Crore per Mega
Food Park (MFP) project. The MFP z Individuals are given ‘credit scores’, while
project is implemented by a Special corporations and governments receive
Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a ‘credit ratings’.
Body Corporate registered under the z International credit rating agencies:
Companies Act, 2013. Fitch Ratings, Moody’s Investors Service
Present Status: Presently, 22 Mega Food and Standard & Poor’s (S&P) are controlling
Parks are operational. It is in line with approximately 95% of global ratings
the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Atma Nirbhar business.
Bharat’ vision of the Government of z In India: six credit rating agencies registered
India. under Securities and Exchange Board of
52. (b) Sub-Theme: Qualitative Tools to control inflation. India (SEBI) namely, CRISIL, ICRA, CARE,
Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is SMERA, Fitch India and Brickwork Ratings.
too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely 54. (b) Sub-Theme: Bank Board Bureau
to reduce the money supply in the economy to Statement 1 is incorrect: Banks Board Bureau
control inflation. Thus, RBI sells the government comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio
securities so as to suck the excess money supply members i.e. Secretary of the Department of
from the economy and to control the inflation. Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department
Statement 2 is correct: RBI intervenes in the of Financial Services and Deputy Governor
currency market to support the rupee because of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert
if it becomes a weak domestic unit then it can members, two of which are from the private
increase a country’s import bill. It can intervene sector. The Chairman is selected by the central
directly in the currency market by buying and government and the RBI governor does not
selling dollars. If RBI wishes to prop up rupee head it.
value, then it can sell dollars and when it needs Statement 2 is correct: Banks Board Bureau
to bring down rupee value, it can buy dollars. recommends for the selection of head for
Statement 3 is correct: When the US raises Public Sector Banks and other key personnel if
its domestic interest rates, this tends to make required.
India less attractive for the currency trade. As Statement 3 is correct: BBB develops
a result, it pulls some money from the Indian strategies for raising capital and improving
market out and flows back to the US, thereby performance of PSBs.

Banks Board Bureau z Objectives:
z The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) has its Accelerating economic growth.
genesis in the recommendations of ‘The Price stability
Committee to Review Governance of Boards
Exchange rate stabilisation
of Banks in India, May 2014 (Chairman -
Balancing savings and investment.
P. J. Nayak)’.
Employment generation.
z It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
z It will make recommendations for 56. (c) Sub-Theme: Role and Functions of RBI/Banking
appointment of whole-time directors as Appointment
well as non-executive chairpersons of Statement 1 is correct: According to Section
Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state owned 8 of RBI ACT 1934, A Governor and (not
financial institutions. more than four) Deputy Governors are to be
z The Ministry of Finance takes the final appointed by the Central Government.
decision on the appointments in consultation Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Section 7
with the Prime Minister’s Office. of RBI ACT 1934, The Central Government
may from time to time give such directions to
z Composition: Banks Board Bureau
the Bank as it may, after consultation with the
comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio
Governor of the Bank, consider it necessary in
members i.e. Secretary, Department of Public the public interest. There is no such provision
Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of in the constitution of India.
Financial Services and Deputy Governor of Statement 3 is correct: The Governor of the
the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert RBI draws his power from the RBI Act 1934.
members, two of which are from the private RESERVE BANK OF INDIA:
sector. z Before RBI: The functions of a central bank
z The Chairman is selected by the central were virtually done by the Imperial Bank
government. of India.
55. (d) Sub-Theme: Monetary Policy z It was established via the RBI act 1934, and
Option (d) is correct: In India, the responsibility started its operations from April 1, 1935 →
for maintaining price stability and controlling statutory body. Similarly, SBI is also a
inflation lies with the Reserve Bank of India statutory body deriving its legality from SBI
(RBI). The RBI is the central bank of India and is Act 1955.
responsible for regulating the supply of money z The RBI was initially a privately held bank
in the economy through various monetary rather than a government-owned institution.
policy measures such as adjusting interest z Following independence, the government
rates, controlling the reserve ratios of banks, enacted the Reserve Bank (Transfer to Public
and buying or selling government securities in Ownership) Act of 1948, which allowed it to
the open market. acquire the RBI from private owners after
MONETARY POLICY providing fair compensation.
z It is the policy under which RBI uses z The RBI was nationalised in 1949, and
monetary instruments (interest rate and as of January 1, 1949, it operated as a
other instruments) under the RBI Act, 1934, government-owned bank.
to influence money supply in the economy z It oversees the Indian financial sector and
to achieve certain macroeconomic goals. is the top monetary and banking authority
z Various instruments of Monetary Policy: in the nation.
Repo rate; Reverse Repo Rate; CRR; SLR; z Since it holds the reserves of all commercial
LAF; MSF; Bank Rate; MSS; etc. banks, it is known as the “Reserve Bank.”
Functions of RBI
z Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
Monetary Authority
z Maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
z Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country’s banking
Regulator and and financial system functions.
Supervisor of the z Regulation and supervision of banks under Banking Regulation Act 1949.
Financial System z Regulation and supervision of non-banking financial companies.
z Protecting depositors’ interest
Indian Economy 197

Manager of z Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
Foreign z It facilitates external trade and payment
Exchanges z Promote development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
z RBI has the sole right to issue currency notes in India.
Issuer of z Besides exchanges and destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
Currency z To give the public an adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in
good quality.
z Performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives such as
Developmental Role
making institutional arrangements for rural or agricultural finance.
z The Reserve Bank has selected a bank led model for financial inclusion in India.
Financial Inclusion z RBI has undertaken a series of policy measures. E.g. Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account”
(BSBDA), JAM Trinity, etc.
z Devices such as ATMs, handheld devices to identify user accounts through a card and
Use of Technology biometric identifier, Deposit taking machines and Internet banking and Mobile banking
facility to provide the banking services to all sections of society with more ease.
z It maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks. It also acts as a lender of last resort
Banker to Banks
by providing funds to banks.
z It performs merchant banking functions for the central and the state governments.
Banker to
z It is entrusted to the central govt. ‘s money, remittances, exchange and manages its public
Government
debt as well.
z Appointment: Appointed after the proposal made by the Financial Sector Regulatory
Appointments Search Committee (FSRASC), headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
z Term: According to Section 8 (4) of the RBI Act, the Governor and Deputy Governors
shall hold office for such term not exceeding 3 years as the Central Government may fix
Governor of RBI when appointing them.
z Re-Appointment: They are eligible for re-appointment.
z Qualification: The RBI Act does not provide for any specific qualification for the
governor.
z Removal: The governor can be removed by the central government.
z With a minimum value of government-held gold of ₹ 200 crores (₹ 115 cr rupee should
Minimum Reserve be in the form of gold or gold bullion and rest ₹ 85 cr should be in the form of foreign
System of RBI currencies) and the remaining is backed by the government securities issued and held
by RBI.
z Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)
z Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL)
Subsidiaries of RBI
z Reserve Bank Information Technology Private Ltd. (ReBIT)
z Indian Financial Technology and Allied Services (IFTAS)
INCOME EXPENDITURE
z Returns from foreign currency z Printing of currency
assets z Staff expenditure
z Interest on rupee-denominated z Commission given to commercial banks.
Income and government bonds z Commission to primary dealers
Expenditure of RBI z Interest on overnight lending to
commercial banks
z Management commission on
handling the borrowings of central
and state governments.

ASSETS LIABILITIES
z Foreign currency assets z Currency held by Public
z Bill purchases and discounts z Vault cash held by commercial banks
Assets and
Liabilities of RBI z Collaterals by commercial banks z Government securities
z Loan and advances z Other liabilities
z Rupee securities
z Gold coin bullion
57. (b) Sub-Theme: Cooperative Bank and are unable to meet their obligations. The
Statement 1 is incorrect: After Banking Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can lend money to
Regulation (Amendment) Act 2020 was passed, these banks, either directly or through other
all the powers were transferred to RBI from the channels, to help them meet their short-term
Registrars of the cooperative societies. Even liquidity needs and avoid a crisis. This function
some powers are left with the registrar but RBI is important for maintaining financial stability
powers will override them. in the banking system and ensuring that banks
Statement 2 is correct: RBI has issued can continue to serve their customers even in
guidelines allowing cooperative banks to raise times of stress.
funds through the issuance of equity shares, Lender of Last Resort
preference shares and debt instruments. z A “lender of last resort” means that the RBI
Statement 3 is correct: Large cooperative (also called banker of banks) offers loans
banks with paid-up share capital and reserves to banks or other eligible institutions that
of Rs.1 lakh were brought under the purview of are experiencing financial difficulty or are
the Banking Regulation Act 1949 with effect considered highly risky or near collapse.
from 1st March 1966. z This helps to protect individuals who have
CO-OPERATIVE BANKS deposited funds and to prevent customers
z A Co-operative bank belongs to its from withdrawing out of panic from banks
members, who are at the same time the with temporarily limited liquidity.
owners and the customers of their bank. z Commercial banks usually try not to borrow
z Under dual control of the RBI and Registrar from the “lender of last resort” i.e. RBI
of Cooperative Societies. because such action indicates that the bank
z The board of members are elected with is experiencing a financial crisis.
each member having one vote. 59. (a) Sub-Theme: Mechanism to counter Financial
z Agriculture, some small-scale businesses, crisis
and independent contractors primarily Statement 1 is correct: Due to the global
receive funding from cooperative banks. economic crisis, both creditor and debtor
z These banks are cooperative credit nations face hardships to keep the economy
institutions that are registered under the afloat. Various political and economic
Cooperative Societies Act 1912. These considerations make it difficult to come to
banks work according to the cooperative the rescue of a distressed nation. Hence India
principles of mutual assistance. should not depend on short term borrowings.
z Co-operative banks have a three-tier Statement 2 is incorrect: Opening up to more
structure: foreign banks would lead to enhanced exposure
1. Primary Credit Societies-PCSs to the global economy, and hence an increased
(agriculture or urban). risk. Strengthening the domestic banks would
2. District Central Co-Operative Banks- prove more helpful in a situation like a global
DCCBs. economic crisis.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Capital account
3. State Co-Operative Banks-SCBs (at the
convertibility means no restriction on the
apex level).
amount you can convert into foreign currency
58. (b) Sub-Theme: RBI to enable you to acquire any foreign assets and
Option (b) is correct: In India, the central vice versa. In a situation of a financial crisis, it
bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ will be a big mistake. It can create a situation
usually refers to providing liquidity to banks of “Capital flight” where a foreign investor can
that are facing temporary financial difficulties withdraw all his money at once.
Indian Economy 199

60. (d) Sub-Theme: Demand and Supply of Money Statement 2 is correct: With the increase
Demand Deposit of MSF Rate, cost of borrowing increases for
z Demand deposit accounts consist of funds banks resulting in reduced available resources
held in a bank account from which deposited to lend.
funds can be withdrawn at any time while Statement 3 is incorrect: Under expansionary
a term deposit account restricts access monetary policy, RBI reduces repo rate and
for a predetermined time (Fixed deposits bank rate to increase liquidity in the banking
accounts, Recurring deposits accounts). sector.
Current accounts and savings accounts are RBI Monetary Policy:
demand deposits. z When the government reduces spending and
z Money = total currency with the public + raises taxes simultaneously in the nation, it
demand deposits of the public with banks. is said to be implementing a contractionary
In this given situation when you withdraw fiscal policy, but when the government
Rs. 1,00,000 from the bank, it goes to the increases expenditure and lowers tax rates
currency in hand from demand deposits in to spur economic growth, it is said to be
banks but it does not change the value of implementing an expansionary fiscal policy.
the money supply. z Contractionary policy slows the rate of
61. (a) Sub-Theme: Banking Interest growth in the money supply to control
inflation.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The interest
coverage ratio is a debt and profitability ratio z When the government reduces spending and
used to determine how easily a company can raises taxes simultaneously in the nation, it
is said to be implementing a contractionary
pay interest on its outstanding debt.
fiscal policy, but when the government
Lenders, investors, and creditors often use this
increases expenditure and lowers tax rates
formula to determine a company’s riskiness
to spur economic growth, it is said to be
relative to its current debt or for future
implementing an expansionary fiscal policy.
borrowing.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The higher the Contractionary Expansionary
Tool
coverage ratio, the easier it should be to make Policy Policy
interest payments on its debt or pay dividends. Cash Increase Decrease
Interest Coverage Ratio: Reserve
z The interest coverage ratio is a debt and Ratio (CRR)
profitability ratio used to determine how Repo Rate Increase Decrease
easily a company can pay interest on its Statutory Increase Decrease
outstanding debt. Liquidity
Ratio (SLR)
z The interest coverage ratio is calculated
Marginal Increase Decrease
by dividing a company’s earnings before
Standing
interest and taxes (EBIT) by its interest
Facility Rate
expense during a given period. Lenders, (MSF)
investors, and creditors often use this
63. (b) Sub-Theme: Cooperative Banking
formula to determine a company’s riskiness
relative to its current debt or for future Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the focus
borrowing. of rural cooperative lending is agriculture,
the share in credit flow to the agriculture of
z A coverage ratio, broadly, is a metric intended
rural cooperatives is only 12.1%, as compared
to measure a company’s ability to service
to 76% of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs),
its debt and meet its financial obligations,
and 11.9% of Regional Rural Banks.
such as interest payments or dividends.
Statement 2 is correct: DCCBs mobilise
z The higher the coverage ratio, the easier deposits from the public and provide credit to
it should be to make interest payments the public and PACS.
on its debt or pay dividends. District Central Co-operative Banks (DCCBs):
62. (b) Sub-Theme: Monetary policy z Rural co-operatives include District
Statement 1 is incorrect: Reducing SLR leaves Central Co-operative Banks (DCCBs), State
more liquidity with banks, which in turn can Co-operative Banks (StCBs), and Primary
fuel growth and demand in the economy. Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS).

z 3-tier structure of Short term Composition:
Co-operative Banks: z Banks Board Bureau comprises the
1. State Co-operative Banks Chairman, three ex-officio members i.e.,
2. District Central Co-operative Banks Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises,
Secretary of the Department of Financial
3. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
Services and Deputy Governor of the Reserve
z Although the focus of rural cooperative Bank of India, and five expert members, two
lending is agriculture, the share in credit of which are from the private sector.
flow to the agriculture of rural cooperatives
is only 12.1%, as compared to 76% of 66. (b) Sub-Theme: Banking mechanism
Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), and Bank Assets:
11.9% of Regional Rural Banks. z A bank places its funds in assets to earn
z DCCBs mobilise deposits from the public profits.
and provide credit to the public and PACS. z The assets include investments, money at
64. (b) Sub-Theme: Government Policies/Financial call and short notice, loans and advances
Inclusion and bills discounted and purchased.
Option (b) is correct: Service Area Approach z Additionally, it covers the cash in hand
is a developed version of the “area approach” with the banks and also the cash held with
method of the Lead Bank Scheme. the RBI.
Service Area Approach (SAA): z The liabilities include deposits (both
z It is a developed version of the “area time and demand) and borrowings.
approach” method of the Lead Bank Scheme. 67. (d) Sub-Theme: Foreign Investment
z Under SAA, each commercial bank branch P-Notes or Participatory Notes
in the rural and semi-urban area was z These are overseas derivative instruments
designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for with underlying assets that are Indian
the planned and orderly development of stocks.
the areas and the concerned branch was They permit unregistered overseas investors to
responsible for meeting the needs of bank purchase equities listed on Indian exchanges.
credit of its service area.
68. (d) Sub-Theme: RBI monetary policy
z The service area approach was introduced
Option (a) is incorrect: This would help
in 1989 as part of the Lead Bank Scheme.
control imports and thus the depreciation of
z The main goals of SAA were to boost the rupee.
lending that was productive and create
Option (b) is incorrect: Masala bonds were
solid connections between bank credit,
brought in to curb the slide of rupee since
production, productivity, and rising income
the borrowing is rupee-dominated and does
levels.
not put pressure on our currency through
65. (a) Sub-Theme: PSU Bank/Banking Appointment borrowing dollars.
Option (a) is correct: Banks Board Bureau Option (c) is incorrect: Easing ECBs will
recommends for selection of heads - Public lead to higher borrowing abroad and would
Sector Banks and Financial Institutions and temporarily bridge the deficit of forex in India
helps banks in developing strategies and capital preventing the slide of rupee.
raising plans. Option (d) is correct: An expansionary
Bank Board Bureau monetary policy may lead to lower interest
z It was established as an independent rates and thus flight of foreign capital from
organisation in February 2016 based on India (which would get better returns abroad).
the suggestions of the RBI appointed Nayak Also, such a policy may fuel inflation and higher
Committee. imports through higher government spending
z It was part of the Indradhanush Plan. and further cause a slide of the rupee.
z It suggested for the selection of full-time 69. (a) Sub-Theme: Measures of NPA Resolution
directors and non-executive chairs for Statement 1 is correct: Capital Adequacy
Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in
financial institutions. relation to its risk weighted assets and current
z In cooperation with the Prime Minister’s liabilities.
Office, the Ministry of Finance makes the Statement 2 is incorrect: CAR is decided by
final decision regarding the appointments. central banks and bank regulators to prevent
Indian Economy 201

commercial banks from taking excess leverage out most banking operations but cannot
and becoming insolvent in the process. advance loans or issue credit cards.
70. (b) Sub-Theme: Money as a legal tender Statement 3 is correct: As per RBI guidelines,
Legal tender is any official medium of Payment Banks are not permitted to engage in
payment recognized by law which the creditor lending activities.
is obligated to accept towards repayment of 75. (a) Sub-Theme: Banking Functions: Core banking
a debt. solution (CBS)
71. (c) Sub-Theme: Debt Instrument Statement 1 is correct: Core Banking Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect: The RBI is the debt (CBS) is a network of bank branches, which
manager for both the Central Government and allows customers to manage their accounts,
the State Governments. RBI manages the debt and use various banking facilities from any part
of state governments on the basis of separate of the world.
agreements. Statement 2 is incorrect: RBI doesn’t use CBS
Statement 2 is correct: Treasury bills are as a tool to exercise control over commercial
money market instruments, are short term banks through computerization.
debt instruments issued by the Government of Statement 3 is incorrect: CBS has nothing to
India and are presently issued in three tenors, do with NPAs.
namely, 91 days, 182 days and 364 days. 76. (c) Sub-Theme: Banking Mechanisms/Functions
Statement 3 is correct: Treasury bills are Objectives of MCLR:
issued at a discount from the par value (also z Improving the transmission of the policy
known as the face value) of the bill, meaning rate into lending rates of the bank
the purchase price is less than the face value of
z Bringing transparency in the methods
the bill. For example, a $1,000 bill might cost
followed by various banks for the
the investor $950 to buy the product.
determination of interest rate.
72. (b) Sub-Theme: Government policies
z Ensuring the availability of bank loans
Statement 1 is incorrect: Capital infusion into at rates that are fair to both lenders and
public sector banks by the Government of India
borrowers.
has not steadily increased in the last decade.
Statement 2 is correct: Merger of associate Enabling the lender and bank to be competitive
banks with the parent State Bank of India has and improve their worth in the long run.
been affected to create improved operational 77. (c) Sub-Theme: Government Policies
efficiency and economies of scale. It will also Financial Inclusion & Access to financial
result in improved risk management and products & services are one of the key objectives
unified treasury operations. of PMJDY Scheme.
73. (a) Sub-Theme: Inflation Targeting/Banking and 78. (c) Sub-Theme: Monetary Policy Tools
NBFCs z The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) cut by
Statement 1 is correct: MPC determines the the RBI is likely to give more room for banks
policy interest rate, which is required to achieve to cut rates. Scheduled Commercial Banks
the inflation target. may cut their lending rates.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the provisions The portion of deposits that banks must hold
of the RBI Act, Members of the Monetary Policy in the form of gold or government securities
Committee is a six-member body of which three before extending credit to consumers is known
Members will be from the RBI and the other
as the SLR.
three Members of MPC will be appointed by the
Central Government. 79. (b) Sub-Theme: BASEL III Norms
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor of BASEL-III NORMS
the Reserve Bank of India is the ex-officio z The Basel Accords are 3 series of banking
Chairperson of MPC. regulations (Basel I, II, and III) set by the
74. (b) Sub-Theme: Banking Licences Basel Committee on Bank Supervision
Statement 1 is correct: Eligible promoters (BCBS).
for payment banks include Mobile phone z Basel Accords aim to strengthen
companies, supermarket chains, public sector the regulation, supervision and risk
entities, real sector cooperatives, etc. management of banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Credit risk is not z Presently the Indian banking system
involved with the Payments Bank. It can carry follows Basel II norms.

z Under Basel III, a bank’s tier-1 and tier-2 Statement 2 is correct: Banks facilities are
assets must be at least 10.5% of its risk - essentially brought to the communities via the
weighted assets. BC model in their village. They can deposit and
withdraw money from their account.
z It is the primary funding source
of the bank. 83. (a) Sub-Theme: Banking Mechanism/Functions
Tier-1 z Tier-1 capital consists of Statement 1 is correct: When the central bank
shareholders’ equity and wants to increase the money supply in the
retained earnings. economy, it lowers the reserve ratio. Hence it
enables the Central Bank to control the amount
z Tier-2 capital includes of advances the banks can create.
revaluation reserves, hybrid Statement 2 is incorrect: RBI does not requires
capital instruments and commercial banks to keep reserves in order
subordinated term debt, to ensure that banks have sufficient assets to
general loan - loss reserves, draw on when account holders want to be paid.
Tier-2 and undisclosed reserves. It aims to make banks invest in G-Secs.
z Tier-2 capital is considered Statement 3 is incorrect: Reserve
less reliable than Tier 1 capital requirements are designed as “precautionary
because it is more difficult to measures” to control the economy and not to
accurately calculate and more stop banks from making “excessive” profit.
difficult to liquidate Statement 4 is incorrect: Statutory Reserve
80. (c) Sub-Theme: RBI Monetary Policy Requirements are not to force the banks to
The monetary policy tool is implemented by have sufficient cash to meet their day-to-day
the RBI through open market operations, bank requirements.
rate, CRR, SLR, the repo rate, reverse repo rate. 84. (b) Sub-Theme: Inflation
Statement 1 is correct: The bank rate is the z If the supply of money remains the same
rate of interest at which RBI charges while when there is an increase in demand for
lending loans to a commercial bank. money, there will be an increase in the rate
Statement 2 is correct: The Open market of interest.
operations are conducted by the RBI by way z This happens so that the banks can draw
of sale and purchase of Government Securities customers and encourage deposits from
(G-Secs) to adjust liquidity in the market. them. It will lead to more savings than
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect: Public spending.
Revenue and debt are not part of monetary
policy. These are related to fiscal policy. 85. (c) Sub-Theme: Monetary Policy
81. (a) Sub-Theme: Banking functions Open Market Operations: It is the purchase
and sale of securities by the RBI.
z Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window
for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank Monetary RBIs Effect in the
of India in an emergency when interbank Policy Action Economy
liquidity dries up completely. Expansionary Buys Injects
z The difference between a bank’s total Money In
demand and time liabilities (deposits) of a
Contractionary Sells Removes
bank and its deposits in the form of assets
Money Out
held by another bank is represented by the
term “Net Demand and Time Liabilities”. 86. (d) Sub-Theme: Priority Sector
82. (c) Sub-Theme: Banking Functions z The RBI under the PSL, mandates banks
to lend a certain portion of their funds to
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve
specified sectors: agriculture, Micro, Small
Bank of India (RBI) launched the Business
and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), export
Correspondent (BC) Model in 2006 to
credit, education, etc.
improve financial inclusion in India. It enables
government subsidies and social security 87. (c) Sub-Theme: Banking Roles and Functions/Credit
benefits to be directly credited to the accounts Assistance
of the beneficiaries, enabling them to draw Statement 1 is correct: RRB’s main objective
the money from the bank saathi or business was to provide credit and banking facilities to
correspondents in their village itself. small and marginal farmers, artisans, labourers,
Indian Economy 203

and small entrepreneurs in order to contribute funds in the account, the bank or financial
towards the development of the rural economy. institution may pay either a low or zero
Statement 2 is incorrect: The main agenda interest rate on the deposit.
behind NABARD’s establishment is to promote z Time deposits with the banks: A time
agricultural and rural development and provide deposit is an interest-bearing bank account
refinance facilities to Commercial banks, State that has a date of maturity, such as a
Cooperative Banks, Central Cooperative Banks, certificate of deposit (CD). The money in a
Regional Rural Banks, and Land Development time deposit must be held for the fixed term
Banks. NABARD does not grant direct credit to receive the interest in full. Typically, the
assistance to rural households. longer the term, the higher the interest rate
Statement 3 is correct: To provide long term that the depositor receives. Time deposits
loans facility to farmers to borrow equipment are the least liquid.
such as tractors, pump sets, etc. is the objective z Savings deposits with the banks: A savings
behind establishment of Land Development account is an interest-bearing deposit
Banks. account held at a bank or other financial
88. (d) Sub-Theme: Functions of RBI institution. Though these accounts typically
Statement 1 is correct: Reserve Bank of India pay a modest interest rate, their safety and
is the regulator of banks in India. By issuing reliability make them a great option for
mechanisms like SLR, CRR, RBI keeps a check parking cash you want available for short-
on liquidity of assets of the banks. term needs.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Reserve Bank z Liquidity of currency is highest.
of India’s (RBI) Branch Authorisation Policy, Demand liabilities will have less liquidity
general permission has been granted to comparatively, as they have to be cleared
domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks (other when demanded. Next will be saving
than RRBs) to open branches by these banks deposits with banks. Currency is the most
in Tier-1 and Tier-2 centres (centres with liquid.
population of 50,000 and above) requires prior
90. (d) Sub-Theme: Role and Functions of RBI
approval of RBI except in North Eastern States
and Sikkim. Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank
Statement 3 is correct: Mergers and acts as the Banker, Agent, and Adviser to the
acquisitions (M&As) in the banking space may Government of India and states. It performs the
require clearance from fair market watchdog, same functions for the other commercial banks
Competition Commission of India (CCI), as well as the other banks ordinarily perform for their
as the sector regulator, Reserve Bank of India customers.
(RBI). Earlier, the indications were that only Statement 2 is correct: RBI lends money to all
involuntary mergers and acquisitions, the ones the commercial banks of the country.
directed by the RBI, would go to the central Statement 3 is correct: The RBI is also
bank along with the CCI. However, all mergers providing advisory functions to banks on
and acquisitions may now come under both. financial matters and also on general economic
While the CCI will look at the competition part problems.
of such deals, the RBI sees prudential aspects. 91. (c) Sub-Theme: Lead Bank Scheme
Statement 4 is correct: RBI issued orders The basic aid of the Lead Bank Scheme is that
to wind up a few banks in the recent past. the individual banks should adopt a particular
(Sahara India Financial Corp (SIFCL), the para district for intensive development.
banking arm of Sahara India Pariwar, Siddharth Lead Bank Scheme:
Cooperative Bank, some Banks from Gujarat). z RBI introduce on the recommendation
Implied from deposit insurance and credit of the Gadgil Study Group and Banker’s
guarantee corporation (DICGC) scheme. Committee.
89. (d) Sub-Theme: Money Supply z Introduced towards the end of 1969,
z Demand deposits with the banks: A envisages the assignment of lead roles to
demand deposit is money deposited into individual banks (both in the public sector
a bank account with funds that can be and private sector) for the districts allotted
withdrawn on-demand at any time. The to them.
depositor will typically use demand deposit z Objective: To help in removing regional
funds to pay for everyday expenses. For imbalances through appropriate credit

deployment and to extend banking facilities opportunities for all-as defined by OECD
to unbanked areas. (Organisation for Economic Co-operation
92. (a) Sub-Theme: NPA and Development).
Statement 1 is correct: Teaser loans are z It refers to the impoverished having
considered an aspect of subprime lending. access to essential services in health and
Statement 2 is incorrect: Teaser loans are education. It entails promoting equality of
generally offered/provided to entrepreneurs opportunity and empowering individuals
and new homeowners. Experience is not a via skill development and education.
criterion. z It also includes a growth process that is
Teaser Loan: environmentally friendly, strives for good
z A teaser loan is any loan that offers a lower governance, and aids in the development of
interest rate for a fixed amount of time as a a society that is gender aware.
purchase incentive. z Self Help Groups (SHGs) are working at the
z Teaser loans are a common promotional grassroots level in India right now, especially
offering for loan issuers that frequently in rural India, on the tenets of mutual aid,
attract a wide range of borrowers. solidarity, and shared responsibility. The
z Low-introductory-rate credit cards and more the Self Help Groups, the better the
adjustable-rate mortgages are examples of financial inclusion.
common teaser loans. State Bank of India z The Government of India has introduced
pioneered the teaser loan concept in home MSME or Micro, Small, and Medium
loans in 2009. Enterprises in agreement with the Micro,
z Teaser loans are considered an aspect of Small and Medium Enterprises Development
subprime lending. (MSME) Act of 2006.
z Teaser loans are generally offered/provided z MSMEs are an important sector for the
to entrepreneurs and new homeowners. Indian economy and have contributed
z Experience is not a criterion. immensely to the country’s socio-economic
development. It not only generates
z Subprime lending is the practice of lending
employment opportunities but also works
to borrowers with a low credit rating that hand-in-hand towards the development of
may be exposed to the risk of default in the nation’s backward and rural areas. It can
future. help in financial inclusion.
93. (a) Sub-Theme: Credit disbursement z The RTE Act aims to provide primary
z In India, commercial banks have the highest education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
share in the disbursement of credit to The act mandates 25% reservation for
agriculture and allied activities. disadvantaged sections of the society where
The commercial banks disburse around disadvantaged groups include: SCs and STs.
60% credit followed by cooperative banks Education can help uplift the backward and
around 30% and RRB and others. downtrodden society.
94. (d) Sub-Theme: Inclusive Growth 95. (d) Sub-Theme: Microfinance/NBFCs
Statement 1 is correct: The more the Self- Microfinance:
Help Groups, the better the financial inclusion. z A type of banking service provided to
Statement 2 is correct: MSMEs are an unemployed or low-income individuals or
important sector for the Indian economy and groups to help them to come out of poverty
have contributed immensely to the country’s through income generating activities.
socio-economic development. It can help in z Besides SCBs, RRBs, small finance banks,
financial inclusion. Co-operative banks, NBFCs and NBFC-MFIs
Statement 3 is correct: The RTE Act mandates also provide microfinance services.
25% reservation for disadvantaged sections z Microfinancing is offering financial services
of the society where disadvantaged groups to low-income populations. These services
include: SCs and STs. Education can help uplift include micro-loans, micro-savings and
the backward and downtrodden society. microinsurance.
Inclusive Growth: z Microfinance institutions (MFIs) are
z Inclusive growth is economic growth that is financial companies that provide small
distributed fairly across society and creates loans to people who do not have any access
Indian Economy 205

to banking facilities. The definition of “small z An increase in the banking habit of
loans” varies between countries. In India, the population will increase the lending,
all loans that are below Rs.1 lakh can be thereby will lead to more deposits in the
considered microloans. banks hence increasing the money multiplier.
z In most cases the so-called interest rates
97. (a) Sub-Theme: Indirect Taxes/GST
are lower than those charged by normal
banks, certain rivals of this concept accuse Statement 1 is correct: GST is one indirect tax
microfinance entities of creating gain by for the whole nation, which will make India one
manipulating poor people’s money. unified common market.
96. (c) Sub-Theme: Money Multiplier/Money Supply Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no
information which says GST will drastically
z The money multiplier is the amount of
money created by banks for a given fixed reduce the Current account deficit (CAD) of
amount of base money and reserve ratio. India.
For example, if the commercial banks gain Statement 3 is incorrect: GST implementation
deposits of Rs1 Lakh and this leads to a final neither ensures enormous growth of the Indian
money supply of Rs 10 lakh. The money economy nor does it enable India to take over
multiplier is 10. China.
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
It is a comprehensive tax levied on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and
Definition
services.
Established By the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, on the lines of “One Nation One Tax”.
Powers The Parliament and the state legislatures have concurrent powers to implement GST
z Applicable on supply side
z Destination based Taxation
Features z Dual GST (Centre and the States simultaneously levying tax on a common base.)
z GST rates to be mutually decided (CGST, SGST & IGST)
z Multiple Rates
Central Value Added Tax, Additional Customs Duty, Special Additional Duty of Customs,
Merged Taxes
Central Sales Tax, Service Tax, State VAT (Sales tax)
Tax Slabs 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.
1. Centre levies the CENTRAL GST (CGST)
3-Tiers of GST 2. State levies STATE GST (SGST)
3. Centre levies INTEGRATED GST (IGST) on transactions
z When the commodity is produced in one state and is traded to another state (interstate
trade).
IGST
z In this case, the share of SGST should go to the consuming state (as the GST is a destination-
based tax).
z Parliament will compensate for any loss faced by the state
z As per the GST Act, states are guaranteed compensation for any revenue shortfall below
Compensation 14% growth (base year 2015-16) for the first five years ending 2022.
z GST compensation is paid using funds specifically collected as compensation cess- is levied
on products considered to be sin or luxury goods.
z It is a mechanism to avoid cascading of taxes.
z It means at the time of paying tax on output, one can reduce the tax one has already paid
Input Tax Credit
on inputs and just pay the balance amount.
z Cross utilisation of input tax credit is available
z The receiver becomes liable to pay the tax, i.e., the chargeability gets reversed.
Reverse Charge
z Self-invoicing is to be done when you have purchased from an unregistered supplier and
Mechanism
such purchase of goods or services falls under reverse charge.

It is an electronic waybill for movement of goods which can be generated on the e-Way Bill
Portal
Objective:
E-Way Bill System z Facilitate faster movement of goods.
z Improve the turnaround time of vehicles.
z It helps track intra-state as well as inter-state movements of goods of value exceeding Rs
50,000, for sales beyond 10 km in the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime.
z Alcohol for human consumption,
z Petroleum products,
Commodities z Electricity, The supply of goods to the SEZ,
Outside Gst z Supply of goods that come under zero rate,
z Fresh vegetables, fresh milk, cereal, meat etc,
z Raw materials.
NOTE: Lottery, Gambling and Betting are also Taxable Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act, 2017
z The gain may be short-term (one year or

Advantages Disadvantages
less) or long-term (more than one year)
Lesser compliance A limited territory of and must be claimed on income taxes.
(returns, maintaining business. Any profit or gain that arises from the sale
books of record, issuance of a ‘capital asset’ is a capital gain.
of invoices). z Gains from the sale of capital assets are
Limited tax liability. No Input Tax Credit subject to the capital gains tax. This gain or
available to composition profit is charged to tax in the year in which
dealers the transfer of the capital asset takes place.
z ‘Capital Gains’ arise when,
High liquidity as taxes are The taxpayer will not be
Whenever the property’s value naturally
at a lower rate. eligible to supply non-
increases.
taxable goods under GST
A product’s value increases when you
such as alcohol and goods
buy it because of an uptick in popularity.
through an e-commerce
portal. The following are not included under capital
assets:
98. (b) Sub-Theme: Taxation z Any stock, consumables or raw materials
Option (b) is correct: ‘Capital gains’ occur that are held for the purpose of business or
when the value of an asset, such as a property profession.
or a painting, increases over time, resulting in a z Goods such as clothes or furniture or
profit when it is sold. This increase in value can paintings which are held for personal use.
happen naturally or due to a rise in demand or z Land or there is natural increase in property.
popularity, as in the case of a painting.
z Special bearer bonds were issued in 1991.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Increase in sales
of products not counted under capital gains. z Gold bonuses issued by the Central
Hence, statement 1 is wrong. Government.
Statement 2 is correct: A capital gain is the z Gold deposit bonds.
increase in a capital asset’s value and is realised 99. (d) Sub-Theme: Indirect Taxes
when the asset is sold. Option (d) is correct: A value-added tax (VAT)
Statement 3 is correct: Capital gains apply to is a type of tax on consumption that is levied on
any type of asset, including investments and a product whenever its value increases during
those purchased for personal use. its production and final sale. The VAT paid by
Capital Gain: the consumer is the cost of the product minus
z The increase in value realised upon selling the VAT on the materials already taxed during
a capital asset is referred to as a capital its production. For instance, a TV manufacturer
gain. All assets, including investments and pays VAT on all the supplies it uses to make the
those bought for personal use, are subject TV, and the buyer pays the VAT on the final sale
to capital gains. price of the TV.
Indian Economy 207

z Value Added Tax is a ‘tax on sale or known as G-secs and Treasury Bills, are issued
purchase of goods within a State i.e., it as a means of borrowing.
is a State Subject by virtue of Entry 54 of Statement 2 is correct: Over 93% of the
State List of the Seventh Schedule of the total state debt is made up of internal debt.
Constitution of India. Since VAT/Sales tax Internal loans, which account for the majority
is a “State subject”, the Central Government of the public debt, are further separated into
has been playing the role of a facilitator for marketable and non-marketable debt.
successful implementation of VAT. 102. (d) Sub-Theme: Black Money
z VAT is a kind of tax levied on the sale of goods Option (d) is correct: The creation of black
and services when these commodities are
money in India causes the loss of revenue to
ultimately sold to the consumer. VAT is an
the State Exchequer due to tax evasion, which
integral part of the GDP of any country.
is the main cause of worry for the Government
z VAT is a multi-stage tax that is levied at of India.
each step of production of goods and z Black money is the money that comes
services which involves sale/purchase. from illegal activity or unreported activity
Any person earning an annual turnover of
(maybe legal).
more than Rs.5 lakh by supplying goods
and services is liable to register for VAT z The first category includes everything that
payment. Value-added tax or VAT is levied is earned through illegal means and the
both on local as well as imported goods. second category includes everything that
is not reported to tax authorities when the
100. (a) Sub-Theme: Expenditure income of an individual or a firm is under-
Statement 1 is correct: When a company funds shown.
are used to acquire, upgrade, and maintain
Shell companies are another major source
physical assets such as property, plants,
of black money coming to an economy when
buildings, technology, or equipment are known
companies evade the tax authorities by routing
as Capital Expenditure (CapEx) of a Company.
their income/profits through tax havens.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Equity financing is
the process of raising capital through the sale 103. (d) Sub-Theme: Debt Financing
of shares. It is an example of non-debt capital Option (d) is correct: Types of non-financial
receipts. debt are Housing loans owed by households,
Capital Expenditure (CapEx) of a Company: Amounts outstanding on credit cards, Treasury
z When a company funds are used to acquire, bills, Credit Card balance etc.
upgrade, and maintain physical assets such Debt Financing:
as property, plants, buildings, technology, or z When an economy borrows money to be paid
equipment are known as Capital Expenditure back at a future date along with interest, it
(CapEx) of a Company. is known as Debt Financing.
z When a company borrows money to be z Debt financing mainly includes two types
paid back at a future date with interest of debt:
it is known as debt financing. Example: 1. Public Debt:
Repayment of loan is an example of capital
� It is the total amount borrowed by the
expenditure.
government of a country.
Equity financing:
z Equity financing is the process of raising � It is further divided into two types:
capital through the sale of shares. It is an 1. Internal Public Debt
example of non-debt capital receipts. 2. External Public Debt
z Capital receipts are receipts that create 2. Non-Financial Debt:
liabilities or reduce financial assets. � It is made up of credit instruments
They also refer to incoming cash flows. that are not included in the financial
Example: Recovery of loans and advances, sector and are issued by businesses,
disinvestment, issue of bonus shares, etc. consumers, and governments.
101. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic Concept of Economy � Types of non-financial debt: Housing
Statement 1 is correct: The household financial loans owed by households, Amounts
savings used in part to finance government outstanding on credit cards, Treasury
borrowing. Governmental securities, often bills, Credit Card balance etc.

104. (d) Sub-Theme: Tax Revenue/Fiscal Deficit Financial Stability and Development Council
Statement 1 is incorrect: Service tax, personal (FSDC):
income tax and corporation tax have been z In order to serve as the apex level forum, the
reduced in the recent past to boost aggregate Financial Stability and Development Council
(FSDC) was established by the government
demand, so as to protect the economy from
in December 2010.
global recession. Excise duty rates have recently
z The Chairman of the Council is the Union
been lowered in order to raise aggregate
Finance Minister and its members include:
demand and safeguard the economy from a
The heads of financial sector Regulators
worldwide recession; as a result, tax revenue
(RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDA & FMC)
as a percentage of India’s GDP hasn’t increased
Finance Secretary and/or Secretary,
over the past ten years.
Department of Economic Affairs,
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fiscal deficit as
Secretary, Department of Financial
a percent of GDP of India has not steadily
Services,
increased in the last decade.
Chief Economic Adviser.
105. (c) Sub-Theme: Budget
z The Council can invite experts to its meeting
Statement 1 is correct: Reducing the revenue if required.
expenditure will certainly help in bridging the
z Functions:
gap.
To improve inter-regulatory coordination,
Statement 2 is incorrect: Introducing new
institutionalise financial sector
welfare schemes will most likely result in development, and strengthen the system
increasing expenditure and so will expanding for preserving financial stability.
industries which would require capital infusion.
To monitor macro-prudential super-
These steps will increase the budget deficit.
vision of the economy. It assesses
Statement 3 is correct: Subsidies are a part
the functioning of the large financial
of expenditure and rationalising them would
conglomerates.
reduce the deficit.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Reducing import 108. (a) Sub-Theme: Finance Commission
duty will result in further widening of the gap. Statement 1 is correct: The Fourteenth
106. (d) Sub-Theme: Budget Finance Commission has radically enhanced
Statement 1 is correct: Capital Expenditure the share of the states in the central divisible
includes the expenditure on the acquisition of pool from the current 32% to 42% which is the
land, building, machinery, equipment, creating biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution.
assets such as roads and hospitals, repayment Statement 2 is incorrect: The Fourteenth Finance
of government borrowings. Commission has not made any recommendation
Statement 2 is correct: Capital receipts concerning sector specific grants unlike the
components are: Loan borrowings, Thirteenth Finance Commission.
disinvestments, funds received from the issue Finance Commission
of shares or debentures, etc.
Constitutional Article 280, Part-XII
Statement 3 is correct: Loans, and advances
Provision
by the central government to state and union
territory governments, etc. are also included in Appointment By PRESIDENTIAL order.
the capital budget of the Government of India.
Chairman + 4 other
107. (c) Sub-Theme: Banking and NBFCs Composition
members.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Financial
Stability and Development Council (FSDC) Determined by
Qualification
under the chairmanship of the Union Finance PARLIAMENT
Minister was set up by the government as the Constituted by the president
apex-level forum in December 2010. It was set of India every fifth year or
up much before NITI Aayog was even set up. Tenure
at such earlier time as he
Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman of the considers necessary.
council is the finance minister.
Statement 3 is correct: The Council monitors z Recommendations are
macro-prudential supervision of the economy, advisory in nature.
Other Facts
which includes functioning of large financial z Balancing wheel of fiscal
conglomerates. federalism.
Indian Economy 209

Annual Financial Statement (Budget):
15th Finance Commission
Article 112
Chairman z N.K. Singh z The term ‘Budget’ is nowhere mentioned
in the Constitution.
Vertical Devolution:
z The share of states in the z Budget is referred to as the Annual
centre’s taxes is recom Financial Statement in the constitution
mended to be decreased under Art. 112.
to 41%. z The Budget is a statement of the Government
z 1% less than 14th estimated receipts and expenditure in a
commission (42%), financial year starting from APRIL 1 and
that 1% is to provide ending on 31 MARCH.
for the newly formed z Contains Appropriation Bill (Expenditure
Union Territories of J&K Side) and Finance Bill (Receipts).
and Ladakh from the z Revenue Account: Receipts and expenditure
resources of the central that relate to the current financial year only
government. (revenue budget)
Horizontal Devolution: z Capital Account: Concern with the assets
z The criteria and the and liabilities of the government (capital
weights assigned for budget).
horizontal devolution z On the Acworth Committee’s recommenda
Key Recom are: tion, the Rail Budget was separated from
mendations Population – 15% the General Budget in 1924. However, it was
Area – 15%
merged again in 2017.
Forest & Ecology –
z Some recent reforms related to budget:
10% Budget is preponed to 1st FEB
Income Distance – Railway budget merged with general

45% budget
Tax and Fiscal No vote on account
Efforts – 2.5% Plan and non-plan expenditure removed.
Demographic z Presented in terms of:

Performance – Consolidated Fund of India,
12.5% Contingency Fund of India
z Recommendation to Public Account of India
create a non-lapsable
pool for the defence 110. (a) Sub-Theme: Economic Growth
and internal security Statement 1 is correct: A lower tax-to-GDP
sector under the Public ratio puts pressure on the government to meet
Accounts of India. its fiscal deficit Targets.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Tax-GDP ratio does
109. (c) Sub-Theme: Public Finance not indicate the distribution of national income
Statement 1 is incorrect: The budget is in the economy.
prepared by the Department of Economic Tax to GDP Ratio:
Affairs. z A tax-to-GDP ratio is a gauge of a nation’s
Statement 2 is correct: Consolidated Fund of tax revenue relative to the size of its
India (Article 266) is a fund to which all receipts economy as measured by gross domestic
are credited and all payments are debited. No product (GDP).
money out of this fund can be appropriated z The tax-to-GDP ratio is a measure of a
(issued or drawn) except in accordance with nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its
parliamentary law. economy. It determines how well a nation’s
Statement 3 is incorrect: Provident fund government uses its economic resources via
deposits, savings bank deposits, remittances taxation.
etc are credited to the Public Account. The z The tax to GDP ration is often higher in
Public Account is operated by the executive developed countries than in developing
action i.e. payment from this account can be countries. A low tax to GDP ratio indicates
sluggish economic expansion. The ratio
made without Parliamentary appropriation.

represents that the government can finance increase/decrease in NEER indicates the
its expenditure. appreciation/depreciation of Rupee against
z An economy’s tax buoyancy is robust if the the weighted basket of currencies of its trading
tax to GDP ratio is higher. With a lower partners.
tax-to-GDP ratio, the government is under Statement 2 is incorrect: REER is the weighted
more pressure to stick to its budget deficit average of nominal exchange rates adjusted for
targets. relative price differential between the domestic
and foreign countries. Therefore, an increase in
111. (b) Sub-Theme: Financial Assistance
a nation’s REER is an indication that its exports
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and are becoming more expensive and its imports
Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) is an arm of the are becoming cheaper, which simply means it
International Monetary Fund (IMF) which is losing trade competitiveness.
provides financial assistance to the countries Statement 3 is correct: A real effective
in need, exchange rate (REER) is the NEER adjusted
z Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) by relative prices or costs, typically captured
The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) in inflation differentials between the home
provides rapid financial assistance, economy and trading partners. Higher the
which is available to all member inflation higher will be divergence (difference
countries facing an urgent balance between) NEER and REER.
of payment needs. 113. (a) Sub-Theme: Monetary Policy and External
The RFI was created as part of a broader Commercial Borrowings
reform to make the IMF’s financial Statement 1 is correct: A tight monetary
support more flexible to address the policy is implemented to contract economic
diverse needs of member countries. growth. It involves increasing interest rates to
The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous constrain borrowing and to stimulate savings,
emergency assistance policy and can be this can discourage investment and depress
used in a wide range of circumstances. asset prices. It makes borrowing less attractive
z Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) as interest payment increases. Thus, tight
monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve
The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF)
could lead to capital flight by the investors.
provides rapid concessional financial
Statement 2 is correct: Capital flight can drive
assistance to low-income countries
up the interest costs as there is reduced money
(LICs) facing an urgent Balance of
supply in the system. Thus, it would lead to
Payments (BoP) need with no ex-post
increase in the interest cost of firms that have
conditionality where a full-fledged
external commercial borrowings.
economic program is neither necessary
Statement 3 is incorrect: ECB is basically
nor feasible.
a loan availed by an Indian entity from
The RCF was created under the Poverty
a non-resident lender in foreign currency
Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) whereas Devaluation is decreasing the value
as part of a broader reform to make the of currency within a fixed exchange rate
Fund’s financial support more flexible system. Therefore, devaluation of the domestic
and better tailored to the diverse needs currency would increase the currency risks
of LICs, including in times of crisis. associated with ECBs and will result in higher
NOTE: This was in the news due to Sri interest cost for borrowers.
Lanka’s recent crisis and political NOTE: This is basically a conceptual based
instability. Therefore, it is very important to question by clubbing both the Monetary Policy
holistically cover the static portion and keep and External Sector. Therefore, it underlines
track of various national and international the importance of conceptual clarity of various
events w.r.t. UPSC syllabus. economic tools, instruments, etc.
112. (c) Sub-Theme: Exchange Rate 114. (a) Sub-Theme: BoP
Statement 1 is correct: NEER is the Weighted Statement 1 is correct: Devaluation is
average of bilateral nominal exchange rates decreasing the value of currency within a
of the home currency in terms of foreign fixed exchange rate system. Exports become
currencies. The nominal exchange rate is cheaper to foreign customers. Thus, it improves
the amount of domestic currency needed the competitiveness of domestic exports in the
to purchase foreign currency. Therefore, an foreign markets.
Indian Economy 211

Statement 2 is incorrect: Devaluation of a 117. (b) Sub-Theme: Currency crisis/BoP
currency decreases the foreign value of the Currency crisis is brought about by a decline
domestic currency. Example- Let us assume in the value of a country’s currency which
that the prevailing exchange rate of $1 is 20 negatively affects an economy. It creates
Rs. So currently 1 Rs is worth $0.05. If the instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that
devaluation of currency is done and now the one unit of a certain currency no longer buys
exchange rate of $1 is 50 Rs, this means 1 Rs is as much as it used to in another currency.
worth $0.02. So, the value of domestic currency Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The foreign
(Rs) is decreased in terms of value of foreign current earnings of India’s IT sector and
currency ($). remittances from abroad would lead to more
Statement 3 is incorrect: Balance of Trade inflow of foreign currencies in the economy
(BOT) is the difference between the value of and boost the foreign exchange reserves.
exports and imports of a country in a given Statement 2 is incorrect: Increasing
period of time. When foreign loans are valued in government expenditure will have no effect on
the value of the currency since it is not related
the native currency, devaluation also raises the
to change in foreign exchange reserves or any
debt burden on those loans. Devaluation might
currency fluctuations.
not, then, ultimately lead to an improvement
118. (d) Sub-Theme: External Debt
in the trade balance. Hence, statements 3 is
incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the
Government report on External debt, December
115. (a) Sub-Theme: Foreign Investment
2018-Commercial borrowings are the largest
Statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct: Foreign component of external debt with a share of
Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCB), Foreign 37.1%, followed by NRI deposits (23.9%) and
Institutional Investment with certain conditions short-term trade credit (19.9%).
(overall limit of 24%), and Global Depository Statement 2 is incorrect: US dollar-
Receipts (GDR) are the instruments for foreign denominated debt continued to be the largest
investment in India. component of India’s external debt with a
Statement 4 is incorrect: Non-resident share of 45.9 % at the end of December 2018,
external deposits will create debts in the followed by the Indian Rupee (24.8 %), SDR
balance of payment accounts, hence not a part (5.1 %), Yen (4.9 %) and Euro (3.1 %).
of FDI. 119. (a) Sub-Theme: Purchasing Power
116. (d) Sub-Theme: BoP Statement 1 is correct: PPP is an economic
Statement 1 is correct. The major portion of theory that compares different countries’
India’s current account deficit is in the area of currencies through a “basket of goods”
merchandise trade. As per RBI’s data, India’s approach. The PPP between two countries
measures the amount of one country’s currency
Merchandise exports during April-August 2019-
required to purchase a basket of goods and
2020 was USD 133.14 billion, as compared to
services in the country that is compared to
USD 210.39 billion of imports during the same the amount of another country’s currency in
period. order to purchase a similar basket of goods and
Statement 2 is incorrect. Between 2011–12 services. e.g. -If a dumpling is selling in India for
and 2018–19, the composition of imports Rs100 and in China for ¥2, this would imply a
by commodity reveals that imports of iron PPP exchange rate of 1¥ to Rs 50.
and steel, organic chemicals, and industrial Statement 2 is incorrect: In terms of PPP
machinery have experienced positive growth dollars. China is the world’s largest economy,
rates as a percentage of total imports. followed by the US and India at third position
Statement 3 is correct. India has a surplus (2018) respectively.
of net services (service exports minus service 120. (d) Sub-Theme: IP Related issues/WTO
imports). India’s Service exports during April- z Option (d) is correct: Geographical
August 2019- 2020 was USD 67.24 billion, Indications (GI) are one of the eight
as compared to USD 39.25 billion of imports intellectual property items coming under
during the same period. WTO’s TRIPS (Trade-Related Intellectual
Statement 4 is correct. Current Account Deficit Property Rights).
(CAD) or trade deficit is the shortfall between z According to the WTO, “Geographical
exports and imports. As per Economic Survey indications are indications which identify
2019-20, India’s CAD was 2.1% in 2018-19, and a good as originating in the territory of
1.5% of GDP in H1 of 2019-20. a member, or a region or locality in that

territory, where a given quality, reputation or an international legal agreement between
other characteristics of the good is essentially all the member nations of the World Trade
attributable to its geographical origin.” Organization (WTO). It came into effect
z India enacted the Geographical Indication on 1 January 1995.
of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 122. (d) Sub-Theme: BoP
1999 which came into force with effect from
Import cover serves as a crucial currency
September 15, 2003, to comply with India’s
stability indicator. It measures the number of
obligations under the TRIPS agreement.
months of money available in the national bank
z TRIPS Agreement: It is an international to cover the cost of imports or the stock of
legal agreement between all the member foreign exchange reserves in terms of months
nations of the World Trade Organization
of retained imports of goods as at end of year.
(WTO) to provide strong protection for
Hence, it is the number of months of imports
Intellectual Property Rights. It came into
that could be paid for by a country’s
effect on 1 January 1995.
international reserves.
z The Controller General of Patents, Designs
& TradeMarks (CGPDT), (under the Dept 123. (a) Sub-Theme: WTO
of Industrial Policy and Promotion of the z In WTO jargon Domestic agricultural
Ministry of Commerce and Industry) is subsidies are denoted by “Boxes,” specifically
the ‘Registrar of Geographical Indications’. Green Box, Amber Box, and Blue Box.
The CGPDT directs and supervises the Amber Box: It refers to a category of
functioning of the Geographical Indications domestic support or subsidies under
Registry (GIR). the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture.
121. (c) Sub-Theme: IP Related issues With limited exceptions, all domestic
Statement 1 is correct: National Intellectual assistance policies that distort
Property Rights Policy was introduced as commerce and production are
India’s commitment to the Doha Development classified under amber box.
Agenda (trade negotiation round of the Blue Box: This is the “amber box with
WTO) and the TRIPS Agreement. It is an conditions” - conditions designed to
international legal agreement between all reduce distortion. Any support that
the member nations of the World Trade would normally be in the amber box, is
Organization (WTO) to provide strong placed in the blue box if the support also
protection for Intellectual Property Rights. It requires farmers to limit production by
came into effect on 1 January 1995. imposing production quotas. It is an
Statement 2 is correct: The Department of exemption from the general rule that all
Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has subsidies linked to production must be
been nominated as the nodal department to reduced or kept within defined minimal
coordinate, guide and oversee implementation levels.
and future development of IPRs in India.
Green Box: Subsidies that do not
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy:
z In terms of IP awareness and development, distort trade or at most cause minimal
commercialization, and enforcement, it seeks distortions are placed in Green Box.
to create an ecosystem in the nation that is These subsidies have to be government-
supportive of innovation and creativity. funded (not by charging consumers
higher prices) and must not involve
z The nodal department has been nominated
as being the Department of Industrial Policy price support.
and Promotion (DIPP). 124. (c) Sub-Theme: Various Financial Committee/
z This policy was introduced as India’s Organisations
commitment to the Doha Development Statement 1 is correct: International
Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC)
z National Intellectual Property Rights Policy advises and reports to the IMF Board of
encompasses and brings to a single platform Governors on the supervision and management
all IPRs. It aims to incorporate and adapt of the international monetary and financial
global best practices to the Indian scenario. system. Although it lacks formal decision-
TRIPS Agreement: making authority, in practice it has developed
z It’s an agreement on Trade-Related Aspects into a key tool for providing strategic direction
of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). It is to the work and policies of the IMF.
Indian Economy 213

Statement 2 is correct: A number of increasing expenditure and so will expanding
international institutions, including the World industries which would require capital infusion.
Bank, participate as observers in the IMFC’s 127. (c) Sub-Theme: Currency Convertibility
meetings. Currency convertibility is the ease with which
125. (b) Sub-Theme: Economic Growth the currency of a country can be freely converted
Statement 1 is incorrect: Real Gross into any other foreign currency or gold at
Domestic Product is an inflation-adjusted market determined exchange rate. It refers to
measure that reflects the value of all goods and the ability of rupees to be converted into any
services produced by an economy in a given foreign currency backed with the exchange rate
year (expressed in base-year prices). Real GDP that prevails at the time of conversion. It allows
makes comparing GDP from year to year and for easy financial transactions for the export
from different years more meaningful because and import of goods and services.
it shows comparisons for both the quantity and
value of goods and services. Rate of growth of 128. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic Economic Concepts
Real Gross Domestic Product has fluctuated International payments resulting from trade
a lot during the last decade and decreased in goods and services are linked to the idea of
significantly in 2008-09 due to the global international liquidity. International liquidity
financial crisis. consists of all the resources that are available
Statement 2 is correct: Gross domestic to the monetary authorities of countries for
product at market prices is the sum of added the purpose of meeting balance of payments
values of all activities which produce goods deficits. Such liquidity ranges from assets
and services, plus taxes and minus subsidies on readily available to resources that become
products. Its objective is to determine the total available only after extensive negotiation.
wealth generated by both private and public Gold and those foreign currencies that
agents in a nation’s territory over a specific are accepted everywhere for the settlement
time frame. The most important component of international transactions are the main
of national accounts, it shows the outcome sources of international liquidity. This problem
of productive activity carried out by local of international liquidity exists essentially for
producing units. Gross Domestic Product at developing countries.
market prices (in rupees) has increased
and did not show a declining trend even once 129. (c) Sub-Theme: Public Finance
during the last decade as clearly seen from the Non-plan Expenditure is largely the revenue
planning commission data. expenditure of the government, although
it also includes capital expenditure. It
NOTE: India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
covers all expenditure not included in the
contracted by 7.3% in 2020-21. However,
Plan Expenditure. The majority of non-
between the early 1990s until the pandemic
plan expenses include interest payments,
hit the country, India grew at an average of
pensions, and statutory transfers to state
around 7% every year. The question was
and union territory governments, interests
asked in 2015 and hence, the explanation is
and debt servicing costs, defence costs, and
provided accordingly.
subsidies. Non-Plan Expenditure constitutes
126. (a) Sub-Theme: Public Finance the biggest proportion of the government’s
Statement 1 is correct: Budget deficit is used total expenditure. Both revenue and capital
to define a status of financial health in which expenses are incurred for defence services.
expenditures exceed revenue. Revenue 130. (c) Sub-Theme: BoP
Expenditure is the part of government
The balance of payment (BoP) is a record of
spending that does not result in the
production of assets. Example: Salaries, wages, all monetary transactions made between the
pensions, subsidies, and interest payments residents of one country and the rest of the
etc. The government incurs revenue expenses world. A balance of payments deficit means
to meet its operating demands. Reducing the the nation imports more than it exports.
revenue expenditure will certainly help in The current account and capital account
bridging the gap. are the two components that constitute the
Statement 3 is correct: Subsidies are a part balance of payments. The current account
of expenditure and rationalising them would comprises balance of trade (exports-imports),
reduce the deficit. net remittances, transfers of money as
Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect: Introducing well as transactions in commodities and
new welfare schemes will most likely result in services (Invisibles). The capital account

includes Foreign Direct Investment, Foreign Balance of Payment (BoP):
Portfolio Investment, External Commercial z A systematic record of all economic
Borrowings, SDR. The capital account records transactions between the residents of one
all international purchases and sales of country with the residents of the other
assets such as money, stocks, bonds, etc. country in a financial year.
131. (b) Sub-Theme: BoP z It consists of balance of trade, balance of
Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct: The capital current account and capital account.
account shows the net change in the physical z Positive Balance/Trade Surplus: When a
or financial asset ownership for a country. It country exports more than its imports.
includes Foreign Direct Investment, Portfolio z Negative Balance/Trade Deficit: When
Investment, foreign loans, changes in the imports are greater than its export.
reserve account, etc. z Balance of payments divides transactions in
Statement 3 is incorrect: Private remittances two accounts:
come under the Current account and not the 1. Current account
Capital account. 2. Capital account
Current Account Capital Account

z Records imports and exports of visible z Shows capital expenditure and income for
and invisibles country
Meaning z Short term implication transactions z Long term implication transactions
z Covers only earnings and spending. z Only includes borrowings and lending by a
z Excludes any borrowings and lending. country
z Visible trade (Export and Import of goods - z Direct Investment (FDI)
Merchandise transactions) z Portfolio Investment (FPI)
z Invisible trade (Export and Import of z Loans / External commercial borrowing (ECB)
Components services) z Non-resident investment in Bank, Insurance,
z Unilateral transactions Pension schemes.
z RBI’s foreign exchange reserve
z If the value of imported goods and services z When more money is flowing out of a country
is higher than the value of exported ones. to acquire assets and rights abroad
z Current Account deficit = Trade gap
Deficit
(export – import) + Net current transfers
(foreign aid) + Net factor income (Interest,
Dividend)
z If the value of exported goods and services z Money is coming into the country, but these
Surplus is more than the value of imported ones. inflows highlight the changes in the ownership
of national assets by way of sale or borrowing.
z The removal of restrictions on payments z Capital account convertibility means
pertaining to the international exchange liberalisation of a country’s capital transactions
Convertibility
of goods, services, and factor incomes is such as loans and investment.
known as current account convertibility.
Current status z Allowed Full convertibility z Only Partial convertibility
132. (b) Sub-Theme: Forex Reserve reserves of India act as a cushion against
Reserve Bank of India Act and the Foreign rupee volatility. India’s foreign exchange
Exchange Management Act, 1999 set the legal reserves comprise foreign currency assets
provisions for governing the foreign exchange (FCA), gold, special drawing rights (SDRs)
reserves. RBI accumulates foreign currency and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the
reserves by purchasing from authorised dealers International Monetary Fund (IMF).
in open market operations. Foreign exchange
Indian Economy 215

133. (d) Sub-Theme: Foreign Investment z Production is the process of manufacturing
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Foreign goods while Consumption is the usage of
Direct Investment (FDI): is the investment manufactured goods.
through capital instruments by a person 136. (d) Sub-Theme: BoP
resident outside India (a) in an unlisted Indian Statement 1 is correct: The Government can
company; or (b) in 10 percent or more of the reduce the substantial current account deficit
post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully by increasing exports or by decreasing
diluted basis of a listed Indian company. FDIs imports which can be through import
include Subsidiaries of foreign companies restrictions, quotas, or duties or by subsidising
in India, Majority foreign equity holding in exports. Manipulating the exchange rate for
Indian companies, Companies exclusively cheaper exports tends to increase balance of
financed by foreign companies, Non-debt payments through devaluing of domestic
Financial resources, Day to day operations of currency.
the company. Etc. Statement 2 is incorrect: Reduction in the
Statement 4 is incorrect: Foreign Portfolio export subsidy might impact negatively.
Investment (FPI): is any investment made Statement 3 is correct: Current account
by a person resident outside India in capital deficit can be lowered by promoting an
investor friendly environment. In a capital
instruments where such investment is (a) less
account, capital inflows result from instruments
than 10 percent of the post issue paid-up equity
like foreign investment, loans and banking
capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian capital, etc.
company or (b) less than 10 percent of the paid
137. (c) Sub-Theme: IMF
up value of each series of capital instruments of
a listed Indian company. Portfolio investment Option (c) is correct: The International
Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international
comes under FPI.
organisation that aims to reduce global poverty,
134. (b) Sub-Theme: Currency Value/IMF encourage international trade, and promote
Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Bank financial stability and economic growth. It was
is important to the source of financial and created in 1945 and is based in Washington,
technical assistance to developing countries DC. There are a total of 190 member countries,
around the world. It has no relation to the price each of which is represented on the group’s
of the currency in the International Market. board. This representation is based on how
Statement 2 is correct: Demand and supply important its financial position is in the world,
factors have a role in setting the price of every so countries with a stronger financial position
currency. A currency’s demand is influenced have a greater say in the organisation than
by two things: its exports to other nations and countries with a weaker financial position.
the investments people desire to make in that Instead of providing money to fund specific
projects, the IMF supports the economy of
currency.
its member nations that are experiencing
Statement 3 is correct: The stability of the
balance of payments issues.
government is a very important factor as an
138. (b) Sub-Theme: Foreign Investment
unstable government may not be able to take
effective economic decisions which will, in Option (b) is correct: An investment that a
turn, affect export and import. parent firm makes in another nation is known
Statement 4 is incorrect: The value of any as a foreign direct investment (FDI). On the
contrary, Foreign Institutional Investor (FII)
currency on the international market has no
is an investment made by an investor in
bearing on the economic capacity of a nation.
the markets of a foreign nation. FDI targets
135. (a) Sub-Theme: International Trade the primary market whereas FII flows only
Option (a) is correct: Exports are goods and into the secondary market. Foreign Direct
services that are produced in one country Investment targets a specific enterprise
used by another. In this case, Foreign nationals and brings better management skills
visiting India will buy Indian goods and use and technology. While the FII increases
Indian services and Indian companies will get capital availability in general. Compared to
foreign currency. Foreign Institutional Investors, foreign direct
z Imports are goods and services bought investment is regarded as being more stable.
in one country produced by another. In 139. (a) Sub-Theme: Bonds and Securities
this case foreign nationals will import Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Inflation-
goods from India after watching the XIX Indexed Bonds is a debt market securities
Commonwealth Games. offered by the government to protect the

savings from inflation and offer positive real (T-Bills) and Government bonds. It is mandatory
rates of returns. The principal and interest to open a Demat account for a retail investor to
are linked to WPI/ CPI. Inflation indexed invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of
bonds provide returns that are always in excess India Debt Bonds’ in the primary market.
of inflation, ensuring that price rise does not Statement 2 is correct: The Negotiated
erode the value of savings. Globally, IIBs were Dealing System Order Matching is an
first issued in 1981 in the UK. In India, the electronic trading platform operated by the
Government of India through RBI issued IIBs Reserve Bank of India to facilitate the issuing
(linked to WPI) in June 2013. They can be
and exchange of government securities and
traded in the secondary market like other
G-Secs and help the Government to reduce other types of money market instruments.
the coupon rates on its borrowings. Statement 3 is incorrect: CDSL was promoted
Statement 3 is incorrect: The existing tax by BSE Ltd. jointly with leading banks such
provisions will be applicable on interest as State Bank of India, Bank of India, Bank of
payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will Baroda, HDFC Bank, Standard Chartered Bank
be no special tax treatment for these bonds. and Union Bank of India.
140. (a) Sub-Theme: Sectors of Economy 143. (b) Sub-Theme: Foreign Investment – FDI
The real sector of an economy is the key section Option (a) is incorrect: FDI is the investment
as activities of this sector persuade economic through a capital instrument by a non-
output and is represented by those economic resident entity/person resident outside
segments that are essential for the progress India in an unlisted Indian company, or
of GDP of the economy. 10% or more of the post issue paid-up equity
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The sector’s capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian
(Farming and Textile Mills) ability to produce company.
enough goods and services to satisfy global Option (b) is correct: A non-debt creating
demand makes it essential for the economy’s capital flow is the one where there is no direct
long-term viability.
repayment obligation for the residents. FDI is
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect: The
largely a non-debt creating capital flow.
financial sector is an area of the economy
Option (c) is incorrect: Debt servicing is the
that consists of businesses and institutions that
offer financial services to wholesale and retail regular repayment of interest and principal
clients. A commercial bank lending money on a debt for a particular period. FDI has no
to a trading company or a corporate body link with this concept.
issuing rupee denominated bonds overseas Option (d) is incorrect: The investment
constitute financial sector activities and not can be made in equities or equity linked
real sector activities. instruments or debt instruments issued by
141. (d) Sub-Theme: Debt Instrument the company. Thus, FDI isn’t directly associated
Statement 1 is correct: Bond yield is the with government securities.
return an investor gets on that bond or on 144. (c) Sub-Theme: Water Conservation
a particular government security. It depends Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Water Credit
on the price of the bond which is impacted is a powerful solution and the first to put
by its demand. The actions of the US federal microfinance tools to work in the water and
reserve can impact the investments flowing in sanitation sector. It helps bring small loans to
India. This will lead to a decrease in demand those who need access to affordable financing
for Government Securities (G-sec) and thus and expert resources to make household water
impacting its yield. and toilet solutions a reality.
Statement 2 is correct: The actions of RBI
Statement 2 is incorrect: Water Credit
directly impacts the bond yield because it is
Initiative is a loan program started by
directly related to liquidity in the market
which is controlled by RBI through various tools. water.org to address the barrier of affordable
Statement 3 is correct: The purchasing financing for safe water and sanitation.
capacity of an economy is directly related to 145. (b) Sub-Theme: Poverty
inflation. So any change in short term rates z Poverty Lines: Poverty is pronounced
will impact the demand and price of G-sec and deprivation in well-being and comprises
thereby influencing the yield. many dimensions. It includes low incomes
142. (b) Sub-Theme: Debt Instrument and the inability to acquire the basic goods
Statement 1 is correct: Retail investors have and services necessary for survival with
multiple channels to invest in treasury bills dignity - World Bank.
Indian Economy 217

z Poverty lines would vary from State to State equipment, etc., all of which are used to
because of inter-state price differentials. produce goods in the future.
z According to the Planning Commission, z Capital Output Ratio (COR): It serves as
the national poverty line for rural regions a measure for the proportional increase
in 2011–12 was estimated to be Rs. 816 in capital formation needed to produce an
per capita per month in rural areas and increase in GDP. COR is a measure of capital
Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban required for producing one unit of output. If
areas using the Tendulkar methodology. capital to output ratio is high, then capital
formation may not result in a significant
z The population’s income distribution and increase in the output.
the basis for consumer spending determine
the poverty line. 148. (a) Sub-Theme: Demographic Dividend
z The poverty line is a function of the cost Option (a) is correct: Skill development is
needed to increase employability of the young
of the consumption basket which varies
population. Government has established ‘Skill
from state to state.
India’ as a mission to skill India’s youth and
146. (c) Sub-Theme: Human Capital the National Skill Development Corporation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per RBI, Gross (NSDC) with the overall target of skilling/up
capital formation refers to the aggregate of skilling 500 million people in India by 2022.
gross additions to fixed assets (that is fixed Option (b) is incorrect: Social security
capital formation) plus change in stocks during schemes can be used for providing security
the counting period. to the nonworking population like old-age
pensions etc. It will not provide any benefit of
Statement 2 is correct: OECD defines human
demographic dividend.
capital as “the knowledge, skills, competencies
Option (c) is incorrect: Reducing Infant
and other attributes embodied in individuals Mortality Rate is one of the Millennium
or groups of individuals acquired during their Development Goals, but it does not provide any
life and used to produce goods, services or benefit of demographic dividend.
ideas in market circumstances”. Human capital Option (d) is incorrect: Privatisation of
formation is the outcome of investments Higher Education will have a negative effect as
in education, health, on-the job training, it will make education costlier thus making it
migration and information. out of reach of a large section of the eligible
World Bank global poverty line: population.
threshold in daily income per person 149. (b) Sub-Theme: Government Schemes and Policies
Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 and
$1.90 3 are incorrect:
z Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana – National
Livelihoods Mission (NRLM):
Launched: by the Ministry of Rural
$1.25
$1 $1.08 Development (MoRD), Government
of India in June 2011 as a restructured
version of Swarna Jayanti Gram
Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY).
Aims: To build strong institutional
1990 line 2001 line 2008 line 2015 line frameworks for the rural poor that will
enable them to improve their access to
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tangible capital is
financial services and raise household
also GCF as it involves largely infrastructural incomes through improvements to their
components. sustainable means of subsistence.
Statement 4 is correct: Intangible wealth of
Objective: To Cover 7 crore rural poor families
a nation comprises the skilled population, throughout 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh
human resource base, culture, arts etc. Gram Panchayats, and 6 lakh villages through
147. (d) Sub-Theme: Capital Formation self-managed Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
z Capital formation entails building up a and federal institutions, and assist them for
nation’s actual capital stock. In other livelihood collectives during an 8–10 year
words, capital creation entails creating new timeframe.
capital goods, such as factories, machinery, 150. (a) Sub-Theme: Government Schemes and Policies
tools, materials, electricity, transport Statements 1 and 3 are correct: ASHA will

mobilise the community and facilitate them in of institutions, including industrial,
accessing health and health related services commercial, agricultural, and other types.
such as providing immunization, Antenatal z In accordance with these provisions,
Check-up (ANC), Post Natal Check-up the majority of State governments have
supplementary nutrition, etc. expanded the application of the Act’s
Statement 2 is correct: Empowered with provisions to new classes of businesses,
knowledge and a drug-kit to deliver first- including shops, hotels, restaurants,
contact healthcare along with identifying and cinemas, including preview theatres,
registering new pregnancies, births, and road-motor transportation undertakings,
deaths. and newspaper businesses with 20 or
Statement 4 is incorrect: Delivery of a baby more employable workers.
is being conducted by a professional medical
153. (b) Sub-Theme: Water conservation
practitioner not by ASHA worker.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: National
NOTE: By general understanding, we know Water Mission is one of the eight missions
that ASHAs are not paramedics and not launched under the National Action Plan
trained in providing “delivery of a baby” on Climate Change (NAPCC) for combating
as it is conducted by a professional medical the threats of global warming. The main
practitioner. However, supporting health objective of NWM is “conservation of water,
service delivery through home visits, first- minimising wastage and ensuring its more
aid and immunisation sessions are done by equitable distribution both across and
ASHA workers. With this information, we can within States through integrated water
eliminate option 4. resources development and management”.
151. (a) Sub-Theme: Government Schemes and Policies It will seek to ensure that a considerable share
Statement 1 is correct: Janani Suraksha Yojana of the water needs of urban areas are met
(JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under through recycling of wastewater and ensuring
the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). The that the water requirements of coastal
objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal cities with inadequate alternative sources
mortality by promoting institutional of water are met through adoption of new
delivery among the poor pregnant women. and appropriate technologies such as low
Statement 2 is correct: JSY is a 100 % temperature desalination technologies that
centrally sponsored scheme and it integrates allow for the use of ocean water.
cash assistance with delivery and post- Statement 3 is incorrect: All the rivers of
delivery care. Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers
Statement 3 is incorrect: To provide of peninsular India falling under Interlinking
compensation for the wage loss in terms of of Rivers Programme, where linking different
cash incentives so that the woman can take surplus rivers of the country with deficient
adequate rest before and after delivery of the rivers take place.
first living child comes under Pradhan Mantri Statement 4 is incorrect: Reimbursement of
Matru Vandana Yojana. complete expenses on digging bore wells and
motors and pump installations sound absurd,
152. (d) Sub-Theme: Government Schemes and Policies
as the government would not encourage
Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct: something which will deplete the groundwater
Employees State Insurance Scheme further.
z The Employees’ State Insurance Act
154. (b) Sub-Theme: Poverty Alleviation/Rural
of 1948 is a piece of social security
Development/Inclusive Growth
legislation that covers medical care and
financial benefits in the events of sickness, Statement 1 is incorrect: The DRDAs are
maternity, disability, or worker death as expected to coordinate effectively with the
a result of work-related injuries. Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). Under no
circumstances will they perform the functions
z The Act applies, in the first instance, to non-
of PRIs.
seasonal factories employing 10 or more
Statement 2 is incorrect: No such provisions
persons.
are there for DRDAs to undertake an area-
z The provisions of the Act are being extended specific scientific study of the causes of poverty
area wise by stages. and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial
z An enabling clause in the Act gives the measures.
“appropriate government” the authority to Statement 3 is correct: The role of the DRDA is
apply the Act’s provisions to various types in terms of planning for effective implementation
Indian Economy 219

of anti-poverty programmes; coordinating Refinery Products > Electricity > Steel
with other agencies- Governmental, non- > Coal > Crude Oil > Natural Gas >
Governmental, technical and financial for Cement > Fertilisers.
successful programme implementation; etc. 157. (a) Sub-Theme: IMF Reports
Statement 4 is correct: DRDA will watch over z The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a
and ensure effective utilisation of the funds report by the International Monetary Fund
intended for anti-poverty programmes, it will (IMF) that analyses key parts of the IMF’s
need to develop a far greater understanding of surveillance of economic developments
the processes necessary for poverty alleviation/ and policies in its member countries. The
eradication. World Economic Outlook (WEO) presents
155. (c) Sub-Theme: Reports and Indexes/ World Bank the IMF’s analysis and projections of global
Reports economic developments and classifies their
z Ease of Doing Business Index is published analysis by region and stage of economic
by the World Bank. It is an aggregate development. The World Economic Outlook
figure that includes different parameters database is created during the bi-annual
which define the ease of doing business WEO exercise, which begins in January and
in a country. It is calculated by adding June of each year and results in the April and
up the distance to frontier ratings of September/October WEO publication. It is
various economies. The “regulatory best usually prepared twice a year and is used
practices” for conducting business serve in meetings of the International Monetary
as the basis for the distance to frontier and Financial Committee.
score, which compares economies based z Other Report published by IMF:
on that parameter. The index for ease of
Global Financial Stability Report
doing business is calculated based on the
following indicators: Construction permits, 158. (c) Sub-Theme: Unemployment
registration, obtaining financing, tax z Unemployment is a phenomenon that
payment mechanisms, etc. occurs when a person who is capable of
z Other Reports of World Bank: working and is actively searching for work is
Remittance Report unable to find work. The unemployment
rate, which is calculated by dividing the
Universal Health Coverage Index
number of jobless persons by the total labour
The Service trade restriction index
force, is the most widely used indicator of
Ease of Living Index unemployment. Disguised unemployment
Global Economic Prospect (GEP) Report means that more people are engaged in a
World Development Report job which can be done with less people,
Human Capital Index normally seen in agriculture where the whole
family is involved. It means extra people can
156. (b) Sub-Theme: Index of Industrial Production be removed without affecting productivity,
z Index of Industrial Production (IIP): i.e., their marginal productivity is zero.
It details the growth of various
159. (a) Sub-Theme: Reports and Indices
sectors in an economy such as mining,
electricity and manufacturing. z Global Multidimensional Poverty Index is a
key international resource that measures
The all India IIP is a composite indicator
acute multidimensional poverty across more
that measures the short-term changes than 100 developing countries. It was first
in the volume of production of a launched in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty
basket of industrial products during and Human Development Initiative
a given period with respect to that in a (OPHI) and the Human Development
chosen base period.
Report Office of the UNDP.
It is compiled and published monthly by
z Poverty is often defined by one-dimensional
the Central Statistical Organisation
measures usually based on income. But no
(CSO) six weeks after the reference
single indicator can capture the multiple
month ends.
dimensions of poverty.
z Eight Core Sectors:
z Multidimensional poverty includes: poor
Comprising 40.27% of the weight of health, lack of education, inadequate living
items included in the Index of Industrial standards, disempowerment, poor quality
Production (IIP). of work, the threat of violence, and living in
The eight core sector industries in areas that are environmentally hazardous,
decreasing order of their weightage: among others.

160. (c) Sub-Theme: Convertible Bond employment generation, the standard of
Statement 1 is correct: A convertible bond living, poverty reduction.
is a fixed-income corporate debt security that z The increase in population has both pros
yields interest payments but can be converted and cons for the economy. If the population
into a predetermined number of common is skilled then it will generate more output
stock or equity shares. Convertible bonds for the economy. But in case if the economy
generally offer a lower coupon rate or rate itself is not in a position to stand still then
of return in exchange for the value of the in such case it will prove to be a burden to
option to convert the bond into common stock. the country.
Investors will generally accept a lower coupon z The development of new and better
rate on a convertible bond, compared with the technologies for the manufacture of goods
coupon rate on an otherwise identical regular and services is referred to as technical
bond, because of its conversion feature. advancement. Despite having their
Statement 2 is correct: The option to convert advantages, when these technologies enter
to equity affords the bondholder a degree of the market, it requires a heavy investment
indexation to rising consumer prices as equity in training workers and sometimes these
prices can differ widely from the given interest technologies replace human beings resulting
and the difference in that can be used as a in unemployment.
hedge for inflation.
The volume of trade may be favourable or non-
161. (c) Sub-Theme: Opportunity Cost
favourable depending upon the overall trade
Opportunity cost represents the benefits an surplus or deficit.
individual, investor, or business misses out on
164. (d) Sub-Theme: National Income
when choosing one alternative over another.
If a commodity is provided free to the public Option (d) is correct: The entire monetary/
by the Government, then the opportunity money value of the goods and services
cost is transferred from the consumers of produced on a nation’s territory over the
the product to the tax-paying public. As per course of a certain amount of time is its
microeconomics, the opportunity cost is zero national income. Thus, it is the result of every
for free goods such as air and common goods economic activity that takes place throughout
such as fish/grazing land. For public goods such the course of a year in every nation. The total
as street lights and defence, the opportunity amount of income that a nation accrues from
cost is involved (The government could have all of its economic operations over the course
spent that much money on street lights rather of a year is, in a nutshell, its national income.
than on the military). So, the opportunity cost It is also helpful in determining the progress of
is not zero. Opportunity cost is also called the country. It includes wages, interest, rent,
Economic cost. profit, received by factors of production like
162. (c) Sub-Theme: Money and Banking labour, capital, land and entrepreneurship
of a nation.
Relationship between investment and
interest rates: The investment curve of 165. (a) Sub-Theme: BoP
the economy serves as another example of Option (a) is correct: The balance of
expenditure. A decrease in interest rates payments (BoP) records the transactions
results in an increase in investment in goods, services and assets between
spending. Hence, if the interest rate is decreased residents of a country with the rest of the
in an economy, it will increase the investment world for a specified time period typically a
expenditure in the economy. Decreased interest year. The balance of payments (BOP), also
rates would ensure the availability of capital known as balance of international payments,
for investment expenditure. summarises all transactions that a country’s
163. (c) Sub-Theme: Economic Growth and Development individuals, companies, and government bodies
z Capital Formation is defined as that part complete with individuals, companies, and
of a country’s current output and imports government bodies outside the country. These
which is not consumed or exported during transactions consist of imports and exports of
the accounting period but is set aside as goods, services, and capital, as well as transfer
an addition to its stock of capital goods. payments, such as foreign aid and remittances.
Capital formation in any country boosts 166. (d) Sub-Theme: Monetary Policy/Money and
its development as investment activities Banking
increase resulting in high production, Option (d) is correct: Bank rate refers to the
increase in per-capita income, rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Indian Economy 221

gives loans to banks. An increase in this rate market. On the other hand, an increase in
means that RBI is following a tight monetary this rate means that RBI is following a tight
policy as an increase in rates will lead to monetary policy as an increase in rates will
decrease in money circulation leading to a lead to decrease in money circulation leading
decrease in inflation. to a decrease in inflation.
167. (a) Sub-Theme: Budget 170. (b) Sub-Theme: Inflation/Monetary Policy/Fiscal
Option (a) is correct: Deficit financing is the Policy/Money and Banking
process of raising money to cover the deficit Option (b) is correct: A ‘stimulus’ is an
that is brought on by an excess of spending attempt by policymakers of a country to
in comparison to income. By selling bonds kickstart a sluggish economy through a
or printing new money, the government is package of measures. The central bank will
borrowing money from the people to close the use a monetary stimulus to boost consumer
shortfall. For developing countries like India, spending by increasing the money supply or
higher economic growth is a priority. A higher lowering interest rates. A fiscal stimulus is
economic growth requires finances. With when the government increases spending out
the private sector being shy of making huge of its own funds or lowers tax rates. Consumer
expenditures, the responsibility of drawing spending increases as a result of stimulus
financial resources rests on the government. measures, which boosts demand and growth.
Many times, neither tax nor non-tax revenues It’s common to refer to a stimulus as “priming
the pump” or “pump priming.”
are able to raise enough money. Hence, the
deficit is often funded through borrowings or 171. (c) Sub-Theme: Inflation/Monetary Policy/Fiscal
printing new currency notes. Policy/Money and Banking
168. (b) Sub-Theme: Economic Growth/Inflation Option (c) is correct: Base Effect refers
to the impact of an increase in the price
Option (b) is correct: Economic growth: level (i.e., previous year’s inflation) over the
Increased consumer disposable income as a corresponding rise in price levels in the current
result of economic growth raises both the total year (i.e., current inflation). If the inflation rate
demand for goods as well as the quantity that was low in the corresponding period of the last
is readily available to customers. This rise year, then even a small increase in the price
in demand leads to inflation, which finally index will give a high rate of inflation in the
becomes a necessary evil for a growing economy. current year.
169. (a) Sub-Theme: Money and Banking/Monetary 172. (b) Sub-Theme: Demographic Dividend
Policy Demographic Dividend:
Option (a) is correct: Bank rate refers to the According to United Nations Population
interest rate charged by the central bank Fund (UNFPA), demographic dividend means,
(RBI) on loans granted to commercial banks. “the economic growth potential that can result
When Bank Rate is lowered by RBI, bank’s from shifts in a population’s age structure,
borrowing costs decrease (less interest) which mainly when the share of the working-age
in return, increases the supply of money in the population (15 to 64) is larger than the
market. It means more loans will be provided non-working-age share of the population
by banks, which will increase Liquidity in the (14 and younger, and 65 and older)”.
173. (d) Sub-Theme: Types of Economy
Refer to table below:
z Does not have economic relations with the rest of the world.
z Activities taking place outside the territory do not affect the economic activities.
z There is no difference b/w national income and domestic income.
Closed Economy z It is an imaginary economy.
z A closed economy is completely self-sufficient, which means that no imports enter and
no exports leave the country.
z E.g.: Brazil imports the least amount of goods in the world when measured as a portion of
the gross domestic product (GDP) and is the most closed economy in the world.
z An open economy has economic relations with other countries.
z Economic activities of such an economy are affected by international fluctuations.
Open Economy z The size of national income may be greater or smaller than the domestic income.
z It is a realistic economy.
z E.g.: USA, Singapore, Finland, etc.
v v v
Section F
6 Environment and Ecology

Environment & Enconolgy : PYQs Analysis
25
20
Environment & Enconolgy
19
18 18 18
17
15
15 15 15
14
10 12 12
11
0
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
PYQs ANALYSIS
Sr. No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
Ecology, Ecosystem and

1 1 6 1 1 1 6 2 2 20
Functions of Ecosystem
2 Biodiversity 2 1 1 1 6 11
Agriculture and
3 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 15
Environment
4 Pollution 2 5 4 4 1 3 2 3 5 1 30
5 Climate Change 3 1 2 1 1 4 4 16
Environmental Laws,
6 2 3 4 2 2 6 3 6 1 1 1 32
Conventions and Policies
Environmental
7 1 2 3 1 3 2 12
Organisations
Protected Areas for
8 3 4 2 1 1 2 2 2 17
Biodiversity Conservation
9 Species 2 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 3 5 5 31
Total 12 19 18 17 11 14 15 12 18 18 15 15 184
6. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which
ECOLOGY, ECOSYSTEM AND FUNCTIONS of the following kinds of organism is/are known as
OF ECOSYSTEM decomposer organism/organisms? (2013)
1. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Virus
(2022) 2. Fungi
1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Bacteria
3. Chickpea 4. Clover Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only 7. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 a part of an ecological succession because of: (2013)
2. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine (a) Insects and fungi
upwelling zones are important as they increase (b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
marine productivity by bringing the: (2011) (c) Water limits and fire
1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface. (d) None of the above
2. Nutrients to the surface.
8. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2013)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
3. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
This is because (2011)
9. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider
(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor
viability 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain
of organisms feeds upon each other.
(c) The rain forest species are slow-growing
2. Food chains are found within the populations of
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest
a species.
4. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each
following major categories of ecosystem services—
organism which are eaten by others.
provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and
cultural. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which one of the following is a supporting service? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(2012) (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
(a) Production of food and water 10. Which one of the following terms describes not only
(b) Control of climate and disease the physical space occupied by an organism but also
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination its functional role in the community of organisms?
(2013)
(d) Maintenance of diversity
(a) Ecotone
5. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is
(b) Ecological niche
completely destroyed for some reason? (2012)
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely (c) Habitat
affected. (d) Home range
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely 11. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as
affected. ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater,
3. The density of ocean water would drastically the largest proportion: (2013)
decrease. (a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) exists as groundwater
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) exists as soil moisture

12. Which one of the following is the best description of 19. Which of the following have species that can establish
the term ‘ecosystem’? (2015) a symbiotic relationship with other organisms? (2021)
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one 1. Cnidarians
another 2. Fungi
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living 3. Protozoa
organisms
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(c) A community of organisms together with the
environment in which they live
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
20. With reference to the water on the planet Earth,
13. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in
the desert areas to inhibit water loss? (2018)
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is
1. Hard and waxy leaves more than the amount of groundwater.
2. Tiny leaves 2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers
3. Thorns instead of leaves is more than the amount of groundwater.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news
in the context of (2017) BIODIVERSITY
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
21. The “Red Data Books” published by the International
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Resource (IUCN) contain lists of (2011)
(d) Security of National Highways 1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the
15. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to biodiversity hotspots.
be found surviving on a surface without soil? (2021) 2. Threatened plant and animal species.
1. Fern 2. Lichen 3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and
3. Moss 4. Mushroom natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
16. Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021) 22. Which one of the following is not a site for the in-situ
1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria method of conservation of flora? (2011)
3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera (a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
Which of the above are primary producers in the
food chains of oceans? (c) National Park
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 23. Three of the following criteria have contributed to
the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-
17. Which of the following are detritivores? (2021) Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: (2011)
1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish 1. Species richness
3. Millipedes 4. Seahorses 2. Vegetation density
5. Woodlice 3. Endemism
Select the correct answer using the code given below 4. Ethno-botanical importance
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 5. Threat perception
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid
18. In which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, conditions
the weathering of rocks is the main source of release Which three of the above are correct criteria in this
of nutrients to enter the cycle? (2021) context?
(a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle (a) 1, 2 and 6 (b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) Phosphorus cycle (d) Sulphur cycle (c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 6

24. Consider the following statements: (2011) 29. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower population of species of butterflies, what could be
latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. its likely consequence/consequences? (2017)
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely
is normally greater in the lower altitudes as affected.
compared to the higher altitudes. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? infections of some cultivated plants.
(a) 1 only 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some
(b) 2 only species of wasps, spiders and birds.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct using the code given below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
25. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the following ways: (2011) 30. Which one of the following is used in preparing a
1. Soil formation natural mosquito repellent? (2021)
2. Prevention of soil erosion (a) Congress grass (b) Elephant grass
3. Recycling of waste (c) Lemongrass (d) Nut grass
4. Pollination of crops 31. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only no trees. The forest development in such areas
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is generally kept in check by one or more or a
combination of some conditions.
26. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species
diversity. Which one among the following is the most Which of the following are such conditions? (2021)
appropriate reason for this phenomenon? (2011) 1. Burrowing animals and termites
(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant 2. Fire
vegetative growth 3. Grazing herbivores
(b) It is a confluence of different biogeographical 4. Seasonal rainfall
zones 5. Soil properties
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
introduced in this region
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 4 and 5
(d) It has less human interference
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 5
27. How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
help in protecting Indian Agriculture? (2012)
AGRICULTURE AND ENVIRONMENT
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the
indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 32. Among the following crops, which one is the most
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the important anthropogenic source of both methane
scientific research on genetic modification of crop and nitrous oxide? (2022)
plants. (a) Cotton (b) Rice
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
related to genetic/biological resources cannot be
made without the approval of NBA. 33. “System of rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which
alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? results in: (2022)
1. Reduced seed requirement
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Reduced methane production
28. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan 3. Reduced electricity consumption
Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are
related to (2016) Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) constitutional reforms (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Ganga Action Plan (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) linking of rivers (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) protection of Western Ghats (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the 39. With reference to the circumstances in Indian
following statements is/are correct? (2011) agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture”
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced. assumes significance.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dryland farming. Which of the following fall under the Conservation
3. In some areas of farming, the receding of Agriculture? (2018)
groundwater tables can be checked. 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 2. Adopting minimum tillage
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/
35. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate
crop rotations
use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? (2015)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing microorganisms
in soil can occur. (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur. 40. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion,
phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
These chemicals are used as (2019)
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) preservatives in processed foods
36. Which of the following statements can help in water (c) fruit-ripening agents
conservation in agriculture? (2017) (d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
41. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
(2020)
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is
Select the correct answer using the code given below: possible.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is
37. Which of the following statements best describes
possible.
“carbon fertilization”? (2018)
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased
is possible.
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased Select the correct answer using the code given below:
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
atmosphere (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the 42. What is/are the advantage/ advantages of zero tillage
climate change brought about by the increased in agriculture? (2020)
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the
38. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the residue of the previous crop.
following statements: (2018) 2. Without the need for a nursery of rice saplings,
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is
reduces its water holding capacity. possible.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to Select the correct answer using the code given below:
the salinization of some agricultural lands. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 3 only

43. In the context of India, which of the following is/ 2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the
are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly Consultative Group on International Agricultural
agriculture? (2020) Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
1. Crop diversification 3. The International Crops Research Institute for the
2. Legume intensification Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the
CGIAR’s research centres.
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only POLLUTION
(c) 4 only
47. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. What is the use of biochar in farming? (2020) 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not
medium in vertical farming. exceed 5 ug/m3.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution
it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing occur during the period of inclement weather.
microorganisms. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it the bloodstream.
enables the growing medium to retain water for 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
longer time. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
45. How is permaculture farming different from 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide
conventional chemical farming? (2021) 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural Excess of which of the above in the environment is/
practices but in conventional chemical farming, are cause(s) of acid rain?
monoculture practices are predominant. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause an (c) 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such 49. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal
a phenomenon is not observed in permaculture blooms in the seawaters of India.
farming.
What could be the causative factors for this
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible phenomenon? (2011)
in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
not so easily possible in such regions.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in
3. Upwelling in the seas.
permaculture farming but not necessarily so in
conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 4 only (d) 2 and 3 50. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in
the drinking water in some parts of India? (2013)
46. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-Smart
1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol
Agriculture, consider the following statements:
3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde
(2021)
5. Uranium
1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India
is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
international research programme. (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

51. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and 57. Brominated flame retardants are used in many
used computers or their parts, which of the following household products like mattresses and upholstery.
are released into the environment as e-waste? (2013) Why is there some concern about their use? (2014)
1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the
3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor environment.
5. Mercury 6. Lead 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and
7. Plutonium animals.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment 58. Which of the following best describe/ describes the
by (2013) aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government
(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen of India? (2016)
(b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide 1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs
(c) Ozone and carbon dioxide into the Union and State Budgets thereby
implementing the ‘green accounting’
(d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance
53. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction agricultural output so as to ensure food security
among (2013) to one and all in the future
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence 3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
of sunlight responding to climate change by a combination
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of adaptation and mitigation measures
of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
54. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and
oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as 59. In the cities of our country, which among the following
aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by the atmospheric gases are normally considered in
normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by: calculating the value of the Air Quality Index? (2016)
(2013) 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide
(a) bacteria (b) protozoa 3. Nitrogen dioxide 4. Sulfur dioxide
(c) moulds (d) viruses 5. Methane
55. Which of the following are some important pollutants Select the correct answer using the code given below.
released by steel industry in India? (2014) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxide of nitrogen (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide (c) 1, 4 and 5 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only 60. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 criterion for: (2017)
56. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
some chemical elements that are used by the industry (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
in the manufacture of various products. Why? (2014) (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
1. They can accumulate in the environment and (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
contaminate water and soil.
61. In the context of solving pollution problems, what
2. They can enter the food chains. is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. technique? (2017)
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only enhancing the same biodegradation process that
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 occurs in nature.

2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as 66. Which of the following statements are correct about
cadmium and lead can be readily and completely the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? (2019)
treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 1. Global warming might trigger the release of
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create methane gas from these deposits.
microorganisms specifically designed for
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in
bioremediation.
Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidised to carbon
dioxide after a decade or two.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but
what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
countries in promoting this industry? (2017) (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in 67. Consider the following: (2019)
seas only and not on continents.
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based
2. Methane
biofuels production requires high level of
expertise/technology until the construction is 3. Ozone
complete. 4. Sulphur dioxide
3. Economically viable production necessitates the Which of the above are released into the atmosphere
setting up of large-scale facilities which may raise
due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
ecological and social concerns.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
63. Which of the following is/are the possible
consequence/s of heavy sand mining in river beds? 68. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
(2018) exposure to benzene pollution? (2020)
1. Decreased salinity in the river 1. Automobile exhaust
2. Pollution of groundwater 2. Tobacco smoke
3. Lowering of the water-table 3. Wood burning
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 4. Using varnished wooden furniture
(a) 1 only 5. Using products made of polyurethane
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
64. In the context of which one of the following are the
terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned? 69. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which
(2019) of the following can be used as raw materials for the
production of biofuels? (2020)
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies 1. Cassava
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles 2. Damaged wheat grains
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies 3. Groundnut seeds
65. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ 4. Horse gram
that are released into the environment? (2019) 5. Rotten potatoes
(a) They are considered harmful to marine 6. Sugar beet
ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in
children. (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
plants in irrigated fields. (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

70. Which one of the following statements best describes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? (2020) (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) Long-term damage done by a tonne of CO 2 75. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP,
emissions in a given year. has been developed for (2021)
(b) Requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide (a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building
goods and services to its citizens, based on the operations around the world
burning of those fuels. (b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the
world to enter carbon emission trading
(c) Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live
(c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon
in a new place.
footprint caused by their countries
(d) Contribution of an individual person to the carbon
(d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by
footprint on the planet Earth. the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
71. Consider the following statements: (2020) 76. What is blue carbon? (2021)
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. (a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and
and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. agricultural soils
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. (c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Carbon present in atmosphere
CLIMATE CHANGE
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
72. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? 77. Human activities in the recent past have caused the
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
(2021) atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon lower atmosphere because of (2011)
monoxide into the environment. 1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some 2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the
heavy metals into the environment. oceans.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant. 3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Consider the following: (2011)
73. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following
1. Carbon dioxide
statements: (2021)
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
1. It is a product of oil refineries.
3. Oxides of Sulphur
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 79. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 has been a cause of concern.
74. M a g n e t i t e p a r t i c l e s , s u s p e c t e d t o c a u s e What could be the reason for the formation of this
neurodegenerative problems, are generated as hole? (2011)
environmental pollutants from which of the following? (a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence;
(2021) and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
1. Brakes of motor vehicles (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric
clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
2. Engines of motor vehicles
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds;
3. Microwave stoves within homes
and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
4. Power plants (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to
5. Telephone lines global warming

80. Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following 85. With reference to the usefulness of the by products of
statements is not correct? (2011) the sugar industry, which of the following statements
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in is/are correct? (2013)
conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol 1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the
generation of energy.
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for
that have reduced greenhouse gases below their
the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
emission quota
3. Molasses can be used for the production of
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the ethanol.
increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
time to time of the United Nation Environment
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Programme
86. The scientific view is that the increase in global
81. Consider the following agricultural practices: (2012) temperature should not exceed 2°C above the pre-
1. Contour bunding industrial level. If the global temperature increases
2. Relay cropping beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can
be its possible impact/impacts on the world? (2014)
3. Zero tillage
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon
In the context of global climate change, which of the source.
above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
the soil? 3. All the global wetlands will permanently
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only disappear.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible
anywhere in the world.
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting
substances, are used:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. In the production of plastic foams.
87. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined
2. In the production of tubeless tyres. Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the
3. In cleaning certain electronic components. context of (2016)
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans. (a) Pledges made by the European countries to
rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected
Middle East
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (b) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 world to combat climate change
83. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air (c) Capital contributed by the member countries
is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure
because it absorbs (2012) Investment Bank
(d) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the
(a) The water vapour of the air retains its heat.
world regarding Sustainable Development Goals
(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
88. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (2016)
(c) All the solar radiations.
(a) It is an international accounting tool for
(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation. government and business leaders to understand,
84. Which of the following can be threats to the quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
biodiversity of a geographical area? (2012) (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer
financial incentives to developing countries to
1. Global warming
reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt
2. Fragmentation of habitat eco-friendly technologies
3. Invasion of alien species (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by
4. Promotion of vegetarianism all the member countries of the United Nations
to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: levels by the year 2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 hosted by the World Bank

89. In the context of mitigating the impending global
warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon
ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS, CONVENTIONS
dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites AND POLICIES
for carbon sequestration? (2017)
93. Which one of the following has been constituted under
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022)
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs (a) Central Water Commission
3. Subterranean deep saline formations (b) Central Ground Water Board
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Central Ground Water Authority
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) National Water Development Agency
(b) 3 only 94. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife
(c) 1 and 3 only protection, consider the following statements: (2022)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the
government.
90. In the context of which of the following do some
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such
scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning
animal is entitled for equal protection whether it
technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into
is found in protected areas or outside.
the stratosphere? (2019)
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions becoming a danger to human life is sufficient
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical ground for its capture or killing.
cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
95. With reference to India, consider the following Central
91. Consider the following statements: (2019) Acts: (2011)
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the 1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
environment. 2. Mining and Mineral development (Regulation)
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment. Act, 1957
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen 3. Customs Act, 1962
compounds into the environment. 4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only
92. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
transport, consider the following statements: (2019) (d) None of the above Acts.
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the 96. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted
elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. in consonance with which of the following provisions
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and of the Constitution of India? (2012)
hydrocarbon emissions. 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be of Right to life under Article 21.
blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of
administration in the Scheduled Areas for the
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned
(a) 1 only under Article 243(a).
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

97. What are the significances of a practical approach 101. With reference to a conservation organisation called
to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following
Sugarcane Initiative’? (2014) statements is/are correct? (2014)
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the 1. It is an intergovernmental organisation formed by
conventional method of cultivation. the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar
2. Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively Convention.
in this. 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilise
knowledge, and use the practical experience to
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic
advocate for better policies.
fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this Select the correct answer using the code given below.
compared to the conventional method of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
cultivation. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 102. Consider the following pairs: (2014)
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Wetlands: Confluence of Rivers
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Harike Wetlands: Confluence of Beas and Satluj/
98. Consider the following international agreements: Sutlej
(2014) 2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park: Confluence of
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Banas and Chambal
Resources for Food and Agriculture. 3. Kolleru Lake: Confluence of Musi and Krishna
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Desertification. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. The World Heritage Convention (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above has/have a bearing on biodiversity? 103. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only of the following statements is/are correct? (2014)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention
on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations
99. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth
Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
Hour’(2014)
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO
issues at global level.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer
off the lights for one hour on a certain day every
of technology and funds to underdeveloped
year.
countries with specific aims to protect their
3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate environment.
change and the need to save the planet. (d) Both (a) and (b)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 104. Which one of the following is associated with the
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 depleting substances? (2015)
100. If a wetland of international importance is brought (a) Bretton Woods Conference
under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? (b) Montreal Protocol
(2014) (c) Kyoto Protocol
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are (d) Nagoya Protocol
occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as 105. What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in
a result of human interference. the news? (2015)
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should (a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
enact a law to prohibit any human activity within Development
five kilometres from the edge of the wetland. (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the Organization
cultural practices and traditions of certain (c) It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel
communities living in its vicinity and therefore the on Climate Change.
cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed. (d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’ Convention on Biological Diversity.

106. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is 110. Consider the following pairs: (2016)
constituted under the (2015) Terms sometimes seen in the news: Their origin
(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 1. Annex-I Countries: Cartagena Protocol
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration 2. Certified Emissions Reductions: Nagoya Protocol
and Protection) Act, 1999 3. Clean Development Mechanisms: Kyoto Protocol
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 matched?
107. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
statements is/are correct? (2016) 111. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the
countries of the UN and it will go into effect in following statements is/are correct? (2016)
2017. 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World
2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas Economic Forum.
emissions so that the rise in average global 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing
temperature by the end of this century does not attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
exceed 2 degrees C or even 1.5 degrees C above 3. It presents an approach that can help decision-
pre-industrial levels. makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the
3. Developed countries acknowledged their value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
historical responsibility in global warming and Select the correct answer using the code given below.
committed to donate $1000 billion a year from (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
2020 to help developing countries to cope with (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
climate change.
112. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (2016)
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only Proper design and effective implementation of UN-
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to:
108. Consider the following statements: (2016) 1. protection of biodiversity
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first 2. resilience of forest ecosystems
proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called 3. poverty reduction
the ‘Club of Rome’. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
achieved by 2030. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 113. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only news, consider the following statements: (2016)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable
development.
109. What is/are the importance/ importances of the
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable
‘United Convention to Combat Desertification’? (2016) Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
1. It aims to promote effective action through
innovative national programmes and supportive
international partnerships
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and
North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates 114. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected
the allocation of major portions of financial under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
resources to these regions. 1972, what does it imply? (2017)
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
3. It is committed to a bottom-up approach,
encouraging the participation of local people in (b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are
combating the desertification. under captive protection; and not it is impossible
to prevent its extinction.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 context.

115. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, 119. Consider the following statements: (2019)
which of the following animals cannot be hunted by 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
any person except under some provisions provided Management and Planning Authority exists at
by law? (2017) both National and State levels.
1. Gharial 2. People’s participation is mandatory in the
compensatory afforestation programmes carried
2. Indian wild ass
out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
3. Wild buffalo Act, 2016.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
116. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different 120. Consider the following statements: (2019)
from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers
(2018) the Government of India to:
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas 1. State the requirement of public participation in
the CPCB has been created by an executive order the process of environmental protection, and the
of the Government. procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and 2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge
of environmental pollutants from various sources
helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher
courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of streams and wells, and aims to improve the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
quality of air in the country. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 121. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
(a) 1 only in India, which one of the following statements is
correct?(2019)
(b) 2 only
(a) Waste generators have to segregate waste into
(c) Both 1 and 2 five categories.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban
117. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate- local bodies, notified towns and all industrial
townships only.
Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following
statements is/are correct? (2018) (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria
for the identification of sites for landfills and
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held waste processing facilities.
in Paris in 2015. (d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding that the waste generated in one district cannot be
obligations. moved to another district.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. 122. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code given below: VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the
implication?(2020)
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
(b) 2 only
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any
(c) 2 and 3 only circumstances.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
118. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the
introduced as an important feature in which of the ecosystem.
following?(2019) 123. Steel slag can be the material for which of the
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and following?(2020)
Handling) Rules, 1998 1. Construction of base road
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) 2. Improvement of agricultural soil
Rules, 1999 3. Production of cement
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2011 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

124. In rural road construction, the use of which of the 128. With reference to the International Union for
following is preferred for ensuring environmental Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource
sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint? (2020) (IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in
1. Copper slag Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES),
which of the following statements is/are correct?
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
(2015)
3. Geotextiles
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and
4. Hot mix asphalt technology CITES is an international agreement between
5. Portland cement governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only world to better manage natural environments.
(c) 4 and 5 only (d) 1 and 5 only 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have
joined it, but this Conventional does not take the
place of national laws.
ENVIRONMENTAL ORGANISATIONS
125. Consider the following statements: (2014) (a) 1 only
1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established (b) 2 and 3 only
under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a (d) 1, 2 and 3
statutory body.
129. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green
3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is
Climate Fund’ is/are correct? (2015)
chaired by the Prime Minister.
1. It is intended to assist developing countries in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? adaptation and mitigation practices to counter
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only climate change.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian
126. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society Development Bank and World Bank.
(BNHS), consider the following statements: (2014) Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. It is an autonomous organisation under the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ministry of Environment and Forests. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based 130. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important
research, education and public awareness. Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional
3. It organises and conducts nature trails and camps agricultural systems.
for the general public. What is the overall goal of this initiative? (2016)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. To provide modern technology, training in modern
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only farming methods and financial support to local
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly
enhance their agricultural productivity.
127. With reference to an organisation known as ‘BirdLife
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional
International’, which of the following statements is/
farm practices and their associated landscapes,
are correct? (2015)
agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation of the local communities.
Organizations. 3. To provide Geographical Indication status to
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated all the varieties of agricultural produce in such
from this organisation. identifies GIAHS.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as Select the correct answer using the code given below.
‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
(a) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

131. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, 135. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an
which of the following statements is/are correct? initiative launched by (2018)
(2017) (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
1. It is an initiative of the European Union. (b) The UNEP Secretariat
2. It provides technical and financial support to (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
targeted developing countries to integrate climate (d) The World Meteorological Organization
change into their development policies and 136. Consider the following statements: (2020)
budgets. 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground
(WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Water Authority (CGWA).
Development (WBCSD). 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment
Select the correct answer using the code given (Protection) Act.
below: 3. India has the largest area under groundwater
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only irrigation in the world.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
132. Consider the following statements: (2017) (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique
initiative of G2O group of countries. PROTECTED AREAS FOR THE
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and BIODIVERSITY CONSERVATION
hydrofluorocarbons. 137. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: (2022)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only semi-arid areas
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Development of gardens using genetically
modified flora
133. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce
(TRAFFIC): (2017) (d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on
sea surfaces
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP). 138. Consider the following pairs: (2022)
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade Wetland/Lake - Location
in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the 1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab
conservation of nature. 2. Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura
(a) 1 only 4. Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu
(b) 2 only How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
139. “If rainforests and tropical forests are lungs of the
134. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE),
Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.”
a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards
Which one of the following functions of wetlands
greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at best reflects the above statements? (2022)
(2018)
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
2002, Johannesburg (b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and
Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro mammals thrive.
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on (c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining
Climate change 2015, Paris sedimentation balance and soil stabilisation.
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess
2016, New Delhi nutrients.

140. Consider the following protected areas: (2012) 147. From the ecological point of view, which one of the
1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika following assumes importance in being a good link
3. Manas 4. Sunderbans between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(2017)
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Nagarhole National Park
141. In which one among the following categories of
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
protected areas in India are local people not allowed
to collect and use the biomass? (2012) 148. Which one of the following National Parks lies
(a) Biosphere Reserves completely in the temperate alpine: (2019)
(b) National Parks (a) Manas National Park
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention (b) Namdapha National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries (c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park
142. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the
following statements is/are correct? (2014) 149. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared Reserve?(2019)
under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities Reserve
in those zones except agriculture. (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National
Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
143. The most important strategy for the conservation of (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries;
biodiversity together with traditional human life is
and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
the establishment of: (2014)
(a) Biosphere reserves 150. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which
of the following statements are correct? (2020)
(b) Botanical gardens
1. It is spread over two districts.
(c) National parks
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian
144. Which of the following National Parks is unique in Bustard.
being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports
a rich biodiversity? (2015) Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park 151. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has
(d) Sultanpur National Park the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020)
145. Which one of the following National Parks has a (a) Corbett
climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, (b) Ranthambore
temperate and arctic? (2015) (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park (d) Sunderbans
(b) Nanda Devi National Park 152. Which one of the following protected areas is well-
(c) Neora Valley National Park known for the conservation of a sub-species of the
(d) Namdapha National Park Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well
146. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
Sanctuary located? (2018) (2020)
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (a) Kanha National Park
(b) Manipur (b) Manas National Park
(c) Meghalaya (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Nagaland (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

153. Which of the following are the most likely places to 159. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx
find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) and Chiru? (2012)
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary (a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas
2. Gangotri National Park whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.
4. Manas National Park (b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is
Select the correct answer using the code given below: poached for its musk.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only exists in north-east India only.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
SPECIES is correct.
154. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in 160. Consider the following: (2012)
the news, consider the following statements: (2022)
1. Black-necked crane
1. It is a fungus.
2. Cheetah
2. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan 3. Flying squirrel
foothills of north-eastern India. 4. Snow leopard
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
155. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022)
161. Consider the following fauna and India: (2013)
(a) Golden Mahseer (b) Indian Nightjar
1. Gharial
(c) Spoonbill (d) White Ibis
2. Leatherback turtle
156. Consider the following kinds of organisms (2012)
1. Bat 2. Bee 3. Swamp deer
3. Bird Which of the above is/are endangered?
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
157. The Government of India encourages the cultivation 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard
of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this
plant:(2012) 3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in Which of the above are naturally found in India?
preventing desertification. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live
in cold areas of high altitudes. 163. Consider the following animals: (2013)
4. Its timber is of great commercial value. 1. Sea cow 2. Sea horse
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Sea lion
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
158. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
to the category of endangered species? (2012)
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and 164. Consider the following organisms: (2013)
Asiatic Wild Ass 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian 3. Spirogyra
Bustard
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and
biofertilizers?
Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
and Cheetal (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

165. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque 169. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India,
found in its natural habitat? (2013) which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala (2015)
3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
166. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following
statements:(2014) (a) 1 and 2
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the (b) 2 only
proliferation of some species of insects and mites. (c) 1 and 3
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of (d) 3 only
biofuels and hospital detergents. 170. Which one of the following is the national aquatic
3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical animal of India? (2015)
industry. (a) Saltwater crocodile
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Olive ridley turtle
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Gangetic dolphin
(b) 3 only (d) Gharial
(d) 1, 2 and 3 171. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed
167. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons found in India? (2016)
for the decline in the population of Ganges River 1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres
Dolphins? (2014) in seawater.
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
2. An increase in the population of crocodiles in 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
rivers. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally (a) 1 and 2 only
4. Use of synthetic fertilisers and other agricultural (b) 3 only
chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only 172. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in
(b) 2 and 3 only the news, consider the following statements: (2016)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical
168. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see rainforest areas of South India.
some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. (a) 1 only
(2014)
(b) 2 only
Which one of the following is/are such bird/birds? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Painted Stork (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Common Myna
173. In which of the following regions of India are you
3. Black-necked Crane most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’
Select the correct answer using the code given below. in its natural habitat? (2016)
(a) 1 and 2 (a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) 2 only (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) 2 and 3 (c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) 3 only (d) Western Ghats

174. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which 179. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the
one of the following is the best place to visit? (2017) following statements: (2020)
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves 1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
(b) Chambal River 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the
(c) Pulicat Lake
age of 40 years only.
(d) Deepor Beel
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant
175. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often population is in Kerala.
mentioned in the news? (2018) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in (c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
which it grows. 180. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides. frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned
(d) None of these minivet and White-throated redstart are (2020)
(a) Birds (b) Primates
(c) Reptiles (d) Amphibians
1. Asiatic lions are naturally found in India only.
181. Consider the following animals: (2021)
2. Double-humped camels are naturally found in
1. Hedgehog
India only.
2. Marmot
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India 3. Pangolin
only.
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and
(a) 1 only protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 182. Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021)
(a) Catfish ( ) Octopus
(c) Oyster (d) Pelican
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
183. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following
2. Some species of fish are herbivores. statements:(2021)
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. 2. Palm oil is a raw material for some industries
Which of the statements given above are correct? producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
178. Consider the following pairs: (2019) 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous
Wildlife Naturally found in evergreen tree.
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River 2. The Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River 3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor
forest produce.
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the
(a) 1 and 2 only production of biofuels.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (a) 114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (a) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b)
131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (c) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (b)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (a) 144. (b) 145. (d) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (d) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (b)
161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (c) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (c) 170. (c)
171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (b) 176. (a) 177. (d) 178. (c) 179. (a) 180. (a)
181. (d) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (b)

Explanation
1. (a) Sub-Theme: Nitrogen fixation The water that upwelling causes to rise to
z
Option (a) is the correct answer: Alfalfa, the surface is usually cooler and nutrient-
Chickpea and Clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. rich.
Nitrogen-fixation: z Surface waters are “fertilised” by these
z Nitrogen fixation is the process by which nutrients, which means that they frequently
nitrogen is taken from its molecular form have high biological production. As a result,
(N2) in the atmosphere and converted good fishing spots are usually found where
into nitrogen compounds useful for other upwelling is frequent
biochemical processes. Fixation can occur Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect: At the
through atmospheric (lightning), industrial, upwelling zone no such movement of organisms
or biological processes. can be observed, they would remain at their
z Nitrogen-Fixing Plants: A N-fixing crop is position.
a natural way to provide plant-adjusted N
Statement 2 is correct: Deep ocean water during
without any industrial harm to nature.
upwelling is usually extremely cold and nutrient-
z Nitrogen fixing plants are:
rich. We frequently find very productive waters
Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-
in upwelling locations as a result.
fixing plants used by farmers worldwide
and in the Southern Great Plains of US 3. (a) Sub-Theme: Types of ecosystem/Forest/
in particular. Biomes
Peas or beans can be used as a summer Option (a) is correct: The high volume of rainfall
nitrogen-fixing cover crop or harvested in tropical rainforests leaches out most of the
for food. Both ways, they enrich the soil nutrients from the soil and makes these soils
with plant-suitable N. Southern peas
virtually useless and nutrient deficient for
prefer warm seasons and are sown
agricultural purposes.
when the soil temperature reaches 60F.
Beans: fava (aka faba, broad), alfalfa, Option (b) is incorrect: Propagule is a vegetative
green (aka French), runner, field, sweet, structure that can become detached from a plant
peanuts (aka groundnuts), soybeans, and give rise to a new plant, e.g. a bud, sucker, or
cream, black-eyed, or purple-hulled spore. Seed bearing plants are more significant
beans, lupins, lentils, cowpeas. than Propagules in rainforests.
2. (b) Sub-theme: Ecosystem productivity/Energy Option (c) is incorrect: In the rainforest, the
Flow plant species generally compete with each other
Option (b) is the correct answer: Marine for sunlight and while doing so they grow so fast
upwelling brings nutrients to the surface. that they rapidly consume the nutrients from the
Upwelling: decomposed leaf litter. As a result, most of the
z It is a process in which deep, cold water of nutrients are contained in the trees and other
the ocean rises toward the surface. plants rather than in the soil.
z Winds blowing across the ocean surface Option (d) is incorrect: Though the exotic
pushes the water away. Water then rises invasive species are a threat to rainforests (E.g.
up from beneath the surface to replace the Most plantation crops like rubber, palm etc.) but
water that was pushed away. This process it is also true that the rainforest soil is heavily
is known as “upwelling.” leached, nutrient deficient, and thus less fertile.
z Upwelling is usually observed at the equator 4. (c) Sub-Theme:
where surface waters diverge, in the vicinity
of Antarctica where the east and west winds Option (c) is the correct answer: Nutrient
drift, and along coastlines where the wind cycling and crop pollination are supporting
blows in a way that the Ekman Transport services under Millennium Ecosystem
pushes water away from the coast. Assessment.

Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA): Significance of Phytoplanktons:
z The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment z Primary Producer in the marine food
(MA) was initiated in 2001 by the United chain: Phytoplankton are the primary
Nations. producers in the marine food chain and
z The objective of the MA was to evaluate how hence they are called the ‘grass of the sea’.
changing ecosystems might affect human z Contribute Oxygen: They contribute more
well-being as well as the scientific foundation than half of the oxygen in the environment.
for any necessary action to improve the z Helps in reduction of Global Warming:
systems’ conservation and sustainable They reduce global warming by absorbing
usage, as well as their contribution to human-induced carbon dioxide.
human well-being. z Bioindicators: They are important
z Ecosystem services to the society in the bioindicators regulating life in oceans. The
form of – ocean ecosystem’s general health is based
on their abundance.
1. Provisioning services: food, raw
materials, genetic resources, water, etc 6. (b) Sub-Theme: Biotic Components
2. Regulating services: carbon Option (b) is the correct answer: Fungi and
sequestration and climate regulation Bacteria, are known as decomposers.
3. Cultural services: tourism and religion Decomposer:
4. Supporting services: that are necessary z An organism that primarily feeds on
for the production of all other ecosystem dead organisms or the waste from living
services such as nutrient recycling and organisms.
soil formation, etc. z Detritivores: Some organisms perform a
5. (a) Sub-Theme: Food Chain similar function as decomposers, and are
sometimes called detritivores.
Statement 1 is correct: Phytoplankton prefer
z The difference lies in the way decomposers
iron and iron pulls carbon out of the atmosphere
and detritivores break down organic
during photosynthesis, thus the complete
material. Detritivores must digest organic
destruction of phytoplankton would certainly
material within their bodies in order to
affect the carbon sinking mechanism of the
break it down and gain nutrients from it.
ocean.
z Decomposers do not need to digest organic
Statement 2 is correct: In a balanced ecosystem, material internally in order to break it down.
phytoplankton provide food for a wide range z Scavengers: Scavengers are the first to
of sea creatures, thus Phytoplankton are arrive at a dead organism’s remains. It
considered the primary producers in the marine includes lions, jackals, wolves, raccoons, and
food chain, they are called the ‘grass of the sea’. opossums.
Thus, the destruction of phytoplankton will Example: Bacteria, fungi.
certainly have an adverse effect on the marine
food chain. 7. (c) Sub-Theme: Ecological Succession
Statement 3 is incorrect: First of all the use Option (c) is the correct answer: Water limits
and Fire restrict trees to replace the grasses
of extreme words like ‘drastically’ in the
as a part of an ecological succession.
statement is itself a red flag. Now coming to the
main part of the statement, if the phytoplankton Grassland Ecosystem:
of an ocean is completely destroyed for some z Grassland ecosystems are an early stage
reason, then it may affect the marine food chain of succession in regions where the mature
because when the phytoplankton disappeared, ecosystems are forests.
that affects the zooplankton, which then z Grass ecosystems, on the other hand, are
affects the small fish that ate the zooplankton, climax ecosystems in grassland regions
and the large fish that ate the small fish. So when there is insufficient precipitation to
it’s like dominoes falling. Phytoplankton and support a forest.
macroalgae → zooplankton → small fish → large z Grass that dries out during the dry season
fish. Therefore, it may hardly affect the density ignites fires that decimate other plant
of water. species and their seeds.

z In areas with little rainfall, where plants The place an organism holds in a food chain
z
cannot thrive, grasslands develop. determines its trophic level.
z A grassland environment transforms into a z Top carnivores are at the end of a food chain,
desert ecosystem as a result of constraining which begins with producers.
forces including water scarcity and forest z Types of Food Chains: 1) Grazing food
fire. chain and 2) Detritus food chain
z Therefore, the ecological succession of z Grazing food chain: The consumers which
grassland is desert. It is, however, notable start the food chain, utilising the plant or
that the soil of the grassland ecosystem is plant part as their food, constitute the
rich in nutrients and organic matter and grazing food chain.
provides the largest biomass.
z Detritus food chain: This type of food
8. (c) Sub-Theme: Energy Flow chain starts from organic matter of dead
Option (c) is correct: and decaying animals and plant bodies from
z The average ocean productivity is about the grazing food chain. Dead organic matter
50 grams carbon per square metre per year; or detritus feeding organisms are called
detritivores or decomposers.
z The average land productivity is 160 grams
carbon per square metre per year; Statement 1 is correct: A food chain is a linear
z Salt marshes and mangroves have one flow of energy and nutrients from one organism
of the highest productivity of 3300-6000 to another.
grams of carbon per square metre per year. Statement 2 is incorrect: Food chains are found
Productivity: within the populations of a species but not
among all species (Man won’t eat man).
z Productivity is the rate of biomass
production. Statement 3 is incorrect: A food web illustrates
the numbers of each organism which are eaten by
z Productivity is measured in mass per unit
others, not the food chain.
volume per unit time.
z The quantity of biomass or organic matter 10. (b) Sub-Theme: Ecological community
created by plants during photosynthesis per Option (b) is the correct answer: Ecological
unit area during a certain time is referred to niche describes not only the physical
as primary production. space occupied by an organism but also its
z Gross primary productivity of an functional role in the community as well.
ecosystem is the rate of production of Ecological Niche:
organic matter during photosynthesis.
z The term niche was first time used by
A considerable amount of GPP is utilized
Grinnel (1917) to explain microhabitats.
by plants in respiration.
z The physical space occupied by the organism,
Gross primary productivity minus
its functional role in the community
respiration losses (R), is the net primary
i.e., trophic position, its position in the
productivity (NPP). GPP – R = NPP.
environmental gradients of temperature,
z Secondary productivity is the rate at which moisture, pH, soil etc. and the conditions of
consumers create new organic matter.
existence.
9. (a) Sub-Theme: Food Chain z Therefore, Niche is the sum of all the
Food Chain: activities and relationships of a species by
z A food chain is the successive transfer of which it uses the resources in its habitat for
nutrients and energy from one creature to its survival and reproduction.
another. z No two species have exactly the same niche.
z A food chain shows a straightforward Different types of niches are: Habitat niche,
and isolated relationship and only one Food niche, Reproductive niche, Physical and
component of the food or energy flow. Chemical niche.
z E.g. Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake Option (a) is incorrect: Ecotone is a zone of
→ Hawk/Eagle. transition between two ecosystems such the
z A trophic level is the name given to each mangrove forests represent an ecotone between
step in the food chain. marine and terrestrial ecosystems, etc.

Option (b) is correct: Ecological niche subsumes z Everything that lives in an ecosystem is
all of the interactions between a species and dependent on the other species and
the biotic and abiotic environment, and thus elements that are also part of that ecological
represents a very basic and fundamental ecological community.
concept. z A damaged or extinct component of an
Option (c) is incorrect: A habitat is a place where ecosystem has an effect on the entire system.
an organism makes its home also it meets all the
NOTE: Straightforward question you will find
environmental conditions an organism needs to
this definition in NCERTs and any standard
survive.
book on Environment and Ecology
Option (d) is incorrect: A home range is an area
in which an animal lives and moves on a daily or 13. (d) Sub-Theme: World Biome/Adaptation
periodic basis (a little bigger than habitat – home Option (d) is the correct answer: Hard and
→ office → home). waxy leaves, Tiny leaves and Thorns instead
11. (c) Sub-Theme: Water Conservation of leaves are the modifications that occur in
Option (c) is the correct answer: Ground the desert areas to inhibit water loss.
has the largest portion of freshwater after Desert Biome:
freshwater that exists as ice caps and glaciers. z Both warm and mid-latitude deserts have
Water Resources: a predominance of xerophytic or drought-
z About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered resistant plants.
with water. z This comprises cacti, thorny bushes, wiry
z Out of the total water present on the planet grasses with extensive roots, and scatted
earth, the majority is in the form of seas and dwarf acacias.
oceans (more than 97%) and is termed as z In order to gather moisture and search
saline water. for ground water, the majority of desert
z While the remaining water is termed as shrubs have lengthy roots that are widely
freshwater. distributed.
z The decreasing order of proportion of z Plants with few or no leaves typically
freshwater in different forms: snow caps, have needle-shaped, waxy, leathery, or
icebergs and glaciers → groundwater → soil hairy foliage to reduce water loss through
moistures → freshwater lakes → atmosphere transpiration.
→ rivers. z Many kinds of grasses and herbs have
NOTE: This is a basic, easy and direct tough, thick skins on their seeds that serve
question from NCERT. Also, same question as protection when the plants are dormant.
was repeated in Pre 2021. 14. (b) Sub-Theme: Technology in wildlife protection
12. (c) Sub-Theme: Ecosystem Option (b) is the correct answer: M-STrIPES
stands for Monitoring system for Tigers –
Option (c) is the correct answer: Ecosystem
Intensive Protection and Ecological Status.
can be defined as a community of organisms
together with the environment in which they M-STrIPES:
live. Launched in 2010 by NTCA and WII across Indian
tiger reserves.
Ecosystem:
z An ecosystem can be defined as a It is a software-based monitoring system,
functional unit of nature, where living designed to assist wildlife protection.
organisms (producers, consumers, and The system consists of two components:
decomposers) interact among themselves Field based methods for ecological monitoring,
and also with the surrounding physical law enforcement, recording wildlife offences, and
environment. patrolling.
z An ecosystem can be of any size but A specialised GIS application for reporting,
usually encompasses specific and limited analysis, and data storage.
species. E.g. Aquatic Ecosystem. Forest guards are required to use a GPS to
z In the ecosystem, biotic and abiotic track their movements as part of M-STrIPES, in
components are linked together through addition to entering their observations on site-
nutrient cycles and energy flows. specific data sheets.

15. (c) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity/Ecosystem z These single-celled organisms live in fresh,
Option (c) is the correct answer: Lichen and brackish (combined salt and fresh water),
Moss can survive on a surface without soil. and marine water.
Bryophytes: z These organisms use sunlight to make their
z The plant body is differentiated into a small own food.
stem and simple leaves, but true roots are Diatoms:
absent.
z Diatoms are photosynthesizing algae, they
z They usually grow in moist places. E.g.
have a siliceous skeleton (frustule) and are
Liverworts, mosses
found in almost every aquatic environment
z Mosses constitute the major component of
including fresh and marine waters, soils, in
Indian bryoflora followed by liverworts and
fact almost anywhere moist.
hornworts
z Mosses are non-vascular plants. They do z They are not mobile or can only move a
not need soil to survive, instead they have a small distance along a substrate by secreting
rhizoid multi-cell anchoring structure that is mucilaginous material along a raphe, which
used to climb and grip over rocky surfaces. is a groove or canal that resembles a slit.
z Moss thrives in moist and shady areas. z Since they are autotrophic, they can only
Statement 1 is incorrect: There are four exist in the photic zone (water depths down
particular types of habitats that ferns are found to about 200m depending on clarity).
in: moist, shady forests; crevices in rock faces, Foraminifera:
especially when sheltered from the full sun;
z These are any unicellular organism of
acid wetlands including bogs and swamps; and
tropical trees, where many species are epiphytes. the rhizopodan order Foraminiferida
(formerly Foraminifera), characterized by
Statement 2 is correct: Lichens are generally
found on rock, tree bark, soil, houses, tombstones, long, fine pseudopodia that extend from a
cars, old farm equipment, etc. Thus, lichen can be uninucleated or multinucleated cytoplasmic
found surviving on surfaces without soil. body encased within a test, or shell.
Statement 3 is correct: Mosses are nonvascular z All maritime environments contain
plants. They do not need soil to survive, instead foraminifera, which can be either planktic
they have a rhizoid multi-cell anchoring structure or benthic in nature.
that is used to climb and grip over rocky surfaces. z In a variety of maritime habitats, foraminifera
Moss thrives in moist and shady areas.
have been observed to feed mostly on
Statement 4 is incorrect: A mushroom is the bacteria, tiny diatoms, and nanoplankton.
fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus,
typically grows above ground, on soil, etc. Statement 1 is incorrect: Free-living copepods
form a crucial link in the food chain and are often
16. (b) Sub-Theme: Food chain
assigned the role of “primary consumers”.
Option (b) is the correct answer: Cyanobacteria
Statement 2 is correct: Cyanobacteria, also called
and Diatoms are primary producers in the
food chains of oceans. blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms
found naturally in all types of water. These
Copepods:
organisms use sunlight to make their own food.
z Any member of the widely dispersed
crustacean subclass Copepoda is referred S t a t e m e n t 3 i s c o r r e c t : D i a t o m s a r e
to as one of them. photosynthesising algae. They are found in almost
z Free-living copepods form a crucial link in every aquatic environment including fresh and
the food chain and are often assigned the marine waters. They are primary producers in
role of “primary consumers”. oceanic food chain.
z Copepods play a significant ecological role Statement 4 is incorrect: Foraminifera are found
by feeding numerous fish species. in all marine environments, they may be planktic
Cyanobacteria: or benthic in their mode of life. Foraminifera are
z Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, recorded as feeding chiefly upon bacteria, small
are microscopic organisms found naturally diatoms, and nanoplankton in a wide variety of
in all types of water. marine environments.

17. (c) Sub-Theme: Food Chain z Phosphate ions and other minerals gradually
Option (c) is the correct answer: Earthworms,
leak out of rocks as a result of weathering
Millipedes and Woodlice are Detritivores. and rain. This inorganic phosphate is
subsequently distributed in soils and water.
z Detritivores also known as detritivores,
detritophages, detritus feeders, or z Plants take up inorganic phosphate from
detritus eaters are heterotrophs that the soil and then these plants are consumed
by animals. Phosphate is incorporated into
obtain nutrients by consuming detritus
organic molecules such as DNA in plants
(decomposing plant and animal parts as
and animals. When the plants and animals
well as faeces).
die, it decays, and the organic phosphate is
z By doing so, all these detritivores contribute returned to the soil.
to decomposition and the nutrient cycles.
z In the soil, organic forms of phosphate can
z Detritivores are an important aspect of be made available to plants by bacteria that
many ecosystems. They can live on any type break down organic matter into inorganic
of soil with an organic component, including forms of phosphorus. This process is known
marine ecosystems, where they are termed as mineralisation.
interchangeably with bottom feeders. z Phosphorus from the soil can enter streams
z Typical detritivorous animals include and eventually the seas. It can then be
earthworm, millipedes, springtails, absorbed into sediments over time.
woodlice, dung flies, slugs, many 19. (d) Sub-Theme: Species Interaction
terrestrial worms, sea stars, sea
Option (d) is the correct answer: All species
cucumbers, fiddler crabs, and some can establish a symbiotic relationship with
sedentary polychaetes such as worms of the other organisms.
family Terebellidae.
Symbiotic Relationship:
18. (c) Sub-Theme: Biogeochemical Cycles z A relationship between two (or more) species
Option (c) is the correct answer: Phosphate
that may or may not be advantageous to
ions and other minerals gradually leak out of one or both is referred to as symbiotic. The
rocks as a result of weathering and rain. organisms could belong to the same species
Phosphorus Cycle: or to separate ones.
z The phosphorus cycle (unlike the carbon z For eg., Coral has a symbiotic relationship
and nitrogen cycles) lacks an atmospheric (each gives something to the other and
component. Phosphorus is one of the most gets something back in return) with
important nutrients in biological systems ‘zooxanthellae’ microscopic algae which live
on coral.
since it is a fundamental ingredient of
nucleic acids, phospholipids, and several Option 1 is correct: The relationship between
phosphorylated compounds. cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae is termed
“symbiotic” because both the animal host and the
Phosphorus Cycle algae are benefiting from the association. It is a
mutualistic interaction.
Option 2 is correct: Two common mutualistic
Uplifting relationships involving fungi are mycorrhiza
of rock Phosphates
Weathering in organic (fungi and plant roots) and lichen (fungi and
compounds
of rock
Phosphates
either cyanobacteria or green algae).
in rock Animals Option 3 is correct: Protozoa mostly represent
Runoff Plants
a close mutualistic association between a
Detritus
protozoan and unicellular symbiont such as
Phosphates Phosphates
in soil
bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae
in solution (inorganic) or protozoans and a multicellular organisms
Precipitated Detritivores such as ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating
in soil
(solid) phosphates cockroaches, plants.

20. (b) Sub-Theme: Water Conservation z Another method of ex z This includes the
Water Resources: situ conservation is the establishment of:
z 71 % of earth surface constitutes water & reintroduction of an 1. National parks
only 29 % constitutes a land area of earth animal or plant into its and sanctuaries
z 97 % of water area constitutes Oceans & former environment. 2. Biosphere
Seas & 2.5 % as freshwater For instance, the extinct reserves
z 75 % of freshwater in glaciers & ice caps Gangetic gharial has been
3. Nature reserves
z 7 % of freshwater is groundwater brought back into the
rivers of Uttar Pradesh, 4. Reserved and
z Fresh Water → Glaciers > Groundwater
Madhya Pradesh, and protected forests
> Ice & Snow > Lakes > soil moisture >
atmosphere > Rivers. Rajasthan. 5. Preservation
z Important locations for plots
ex situ conservation 6. Reserved forests
include seed banks,
botanical, horticultural,
and recreational gardens.
23. (c) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity Hotspot
Biodiversity Hotspot:
z Biodiversity hotspots are regions with
high species richness and a high degree of
endemism.
NOTE: This question is repeated from 2013. z In 1988, the British biologist Norman Myers
Also, it is a direct question from Class 7 coined the term “biodiversity hotspot” as
NCERT (Geography).
a biogeographic region characterized both
21. (b) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity Conservation by exceptional levels of plant endemism and
Option (b) is the correct answer: Red Data
by serious levels of habitat loss.
Books contain lists of Threatened plant and
animal species. z In 1989, Conservation International (CI)
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: The IUCN adopted Myers’ hotspots as its institutional
Red List of “threatened species” is the world’s model and provided the following
most comprehensive inventory of the global qualifications for a hotspot:
conservation status of plant and animal species,
which is a grouping of three categories: Critically 1. Species endemism: It includes at least
Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable. 1,500 vascular plant species that are
Statement 2 is correct: The IUCN Red List unique to the planet (endemic species).
Categories define the extinction risk of species 2. Degree of Threat: Primary native
assessed. Nine categories extend from NE
vegetation has lost at least 70% of its
(Not Evaluated) to EX (Extinct). Among these
nine categories, Critically Endangered (CR), original coverage.
Endangered (EN) and Vulnerable (VU) species Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Species richness
are considered to be threatened with extinction. and endemism is one of the major criteria which
22. (b) Sub-Theme: Modes of Conservation must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular
Option (b) is the correct answer: Botanical plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics.
Garden
Statement 5 is correct: ‘Degree of Threat’ is also
Ex situ Conservation In situ Conservation
a major criteria for the recognition of biological
z Ex situ conservation z In situ conservation hotspots. It has to have lost at least 70% of its
is the preservation of refers to the
original habitat. (It must have 30% or less of its
biodiversity away from preservation of
their natural habitats. plants and animals original natural vegetation). In other words, it
Here, zoological or in their natural must be threatened.
botanical parks are places environments. Statement 2, 4 and 6 are incorrect: Are not
where animals and plants the criteria for the recognition of Biodiversity
are raised or grown.
Hotspots.

24. (c) Sub-Theme: Biomes Biogeographic Zones:
Patterns of Biodiversity: z The categorization of India into
z Latitudinal gradients: The diversity of plants biogeographic regions is known as
biogeographic classification.
and animals varies widely over the world.
z The study of the geographic and geological
z The diversity of species declines as we move distribution of biological species, animals,
from the equator to the pole. and ecosystems is known as biogeography.
z Than temperate or polar regions, the tropics There are ten biogeographic zones in India:
are home to more species. 1. Trans-Himalayan zone.
Statement 1 is correct: Diversity of plants and 2. Himalayan zone
animals is not uniform throughout the world. 3. Desert zone.
Species diversity decreases as we move away from 4. Semi Arid zone.
the equator towards the pole. 5. Western ghat zone.
Statement 2 is correct: Elevational diversity 6. Deccan plateau zone.
gradient (EDG) is an ecological pattern where 7. Gangetic plain zone.
biodiversity changes with elevation. The EDG 8. North east zone.
states that species richness tends to increase as 9. Coastal zone
elevation increases, up to a certain point, creating 10. Islands
a “diversity bulge” at middle elevations, after
27. (c) Sub-Theme: Conservation Effort
which it decreases with altitude. Therefore,
it is true that along the mountain gradients, National Biodiversity Authority(NBA):
biodiversity is normally greater in the lower Established in 2003 with HQ in Chennai
z
under the ambit of MoEF&CC
altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
z As per the Biological Diversity Act of
25. (d) Sub-Theme: Services provided by Biodiversity 2002, NBA is a statutory body.
Services provided by Biodiversity: z The act was passed to put the Convention on
Biodiversity provides a number of natural services Biological Diversity (CBD) into effect, which
for human beings: was signed by India in 1992.
z Mandate: to perform regulatory &
z Protection of water resources advisory functions for the GoI on issues of
z Soils formation and protection conservation, sustainable use of biological
z Nutrient storage and recycling resources.
Ecosystem NBA supports the creation of State
z Pollution breakdown and absorption z
services Biodiversity Boards (SBBs).
z Contribution to climate stability
z Biodiversity Heritage Sites: It is notified
z Maintenance of ecosystems
by the State Governments in consultation
z Recovery from unpredictable events with local bodies.
z Food Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
z Medicinal resources and z Two Important Functions of the NBA,
pharmaceutical drugs inter alia:
Biological z Wood products z Advising the central government, regulating
services z Ornamental plants activities and issuing guidelines for access
to biological resources and for fair and
z Breeding stocks equitable benefit sharing in accordance
z Diversity in genes, species and with the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
ecosystems z Taking necessary measures to oppose the
z Research, education and monitoring grant of intellectual property rights in any
Social country outside India on any biological
z Recreation and tourism
services resource obtained from India or knowledge
z Cultural values
associated with such biological resources
26. (b) Sub-Theme: Biomes derived from India illegally.
Option (b) is the correct answer: Being a Statement 2 is incorrect: Genetic Engineering
confluence of different biogeographical Appraisal Committee (GEAC) monitors and
zones Himalayan Range is very rich in species supervises the scientific research on genetic
diversity. modification of crop plants.

28. (d) Sub-Theme: Disaster Management 30. (c) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity/Everyday Science
Option (d) is the correct answer: ‘Gadgil Option (c) is the correct answer: Lemongrass
Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan is used in preparing a natural mosquito
Committee Report’, are related to protection repellent.
of Western Ghats. z In tropical and subtropical regions of Asia,
GADGIL COMMITTEE REPORT, 2011: Africa, and Australia, it is a tall herb that
z Eco-sensitive areas: The Western Ghats is widely distributed. Lemongrass is most
Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by frequently produced in China and India.
Prof. Madhav Gadgil, was established by the z The lemongrass herb is well known for its
Ministry of Environment & Forests in 2010. effectiveness at warding off mosquitoes, it
z Objective: It was constituted to primarily works as a mosquito repellent. It contains
demarcate ecologically sensitive areas in the the chemical citronella, which aids in
Western Ghats and recommended measures disguising the smells that mosquitoes use
for the management of these ecologically to target victims.
sensitive areas. z A 2011 study found that the strong odour
KASTURIRANGAN COMMITTEE REPORT, 2013: of lemongrass oil effectively killed or fully
z The Kasturirangan committee was repelled 95% of the mosquitoes from a
constituted to examine the WGEEP report. particular range of species.
29. (c) Sub-Theme: Biotic Interaction 31. (c) Sub-Theme: Biomes
Pollination: Savannah Biome:
z Transfer of pollen grains (shed from the z It is a particular kind of grassland biome
anther) to the stigma of a pistil is termed made up of vast expanses of open grassland
pollination. Flowering plants have evolved with few trees.
an amazing array of adaptations to achieve z There are two kinds of savannahs:
pollination. 1. Tropical savannahs
z Kinds of Pollination: Depending on the 2. Semi-tropical savannahs.
source of pollen, pollination can be divided Geographical Location:
into three types –
z All continents excluding Antarctica have
1. Autogamy grasslands.
2. Geitonogamy z The largest savannahs are found close to the
3. Xenogamy equator in Africa.
Statement 1 is correct: This is basic knowledge z Serengeti National Park in Tanzania, which
that Bees, butterflies and other biotic agents play is well-known for its enormous wildebeest
a vital role in the pollination of plants and the and zebra populations, is one of the most
production of crops by transporting pollen grains well-known African savannahs.
from one place to another.
z The park is also home to lions, leopards,
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no credible elephants, hippos, and gazelles.
source or research behind this and moreover the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The savannah biome
extreme keyword ‘drastic’ in the statement makes
relies on their herd numbers and speed for
it more absurd and irrelevant.
survival, as the vast open areas provide little
Statement 3 is correct: These are some of the means of escape from quick predators.
common predators of butterflies: wasps, ants,
Statement 2 is correct: The combination of
parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats etc.
high temperatures and little precipitation makes
The decline in the butterfly population would
therefore adversely affect the food chain savannahs perfect areas for grass and brush fires
during their dry seasons.
NOTE: if we observe statement 2 carefully, the Statement 3 is correct: Many of the savannah
examiner used the word “drastic increase” biome animals are grazing herbivores that
which is extreme and absolute. It also migrate through the region.
connotes all of sudden change in the present Statement 4 is correct: Savannah regions have
situation. So, elimination of statement 2 two distinct seasons - a wet season and a dry
left us with option (a) and option (c). Now season. There is very little rain in the dry season.
it is common understanding that decline in In the wet season vegetation grows, including lush
butterfly population would adversely affect green grasses and wooded areas.
the food chain, so the reduction in other Statement 5 is incorrect: Soil properties
dependent species such as wasps, spiders influence the type of savannah and its vegetation
and birds. So, statement 3 is correct. but don’t contribute to checking it once formed.

32. (b) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Greenhouse gases z Lesser chemical inputs z Not suitable when
Option (b) is the correct answer: Rice is one of no irrigation source
z Less water requirement
the most important anthropogenic sources of available
both methane and nitrous oxide. z Reduced electricity
Agriculture and Greenhouse gases: consumption
z Methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) are z Less chaffy grain %
the two most important GHGs after carbon z Grain weight increased
dioxide (CO2) without change in grain
z The most rapid increase in CH4 emission size
was found in natural wetlands and rice z Higher head rice
fields due to increased rice cultivation area recovery
and climate warming.
z Withstand cyclonic gales
z N2O emission increased substantially in all
the biome types and the largest increase z Cold tolerance
occurred in upland crops due to increasing z Soil health improves
air temperature and nitrogen fertilizer use. through biological
z Rice paddies are considered one of the most activity
important sources of CH4 and N2O emissions, z Reduced methane
which have attracted considerable attention production
due to their contribution to global warming.
34. (c) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment
NOTE: Climate Smart Agriculture and GHG Micro-irrigation:
Emissions was very much in news, hence the z Micro-irrigation is the slow distribution
question. Therefore, it is very important to of water to the soil using surface drip and
holistically cover both the static and current micro-sprinkler systems in the form of
affairs for UPSC Pre and Mains. discrete or continuous drips, tiny streams,
33. (d) Sub-Theme: System of Rice Intensification or miniature spray.
Option (d) is the correct answer: All of the Benefits of micro irrigation systems:
given results come from the System of Rice z Helps in water-saving and checking further
Intensification. depletion
System of Rice Intensification: z Increased irrigation efficiency
z The System of Rice Intensification involves z Higher yields
cultivating rice with as much organic z Less water loss
manure as possible, starting with young z Energy efficient
seedlings planted singly at wider spacing
z Lower consumption of fertilizers
in a square pattern; and with intermittent
irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not z Weed and disease reduction
inundated, and frequent inter cultivation z Cost savings
with weed that actively aerates the soil. z Precision farming
z SRI is not a standardised, fixed Statement 1 is correct: An efficient drip
technological method. irrigation system reduces the consumption of
z It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for fertiliser through fertigation.
comprehensively managing and conserving Statement 2 is incorrect: Dryland farming
resources by changing the way that land, is defined as the production of crops without
seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour irrigation in regions that receive rainfall of less
are used to increase productivity from a than 500mm annually.
small but well-tended number of seeds. Statement 3 is correct: Micro-irrigation helps in
water-saving and checking further groundwater
Advantages of SRI In situ Conservation
depletion.
z Higher yields – Both z Higher labour costs
35. (c) Sub-Theme: Soil Pollution
grain and straw in the initial years
Impact of Excessive/inappropriate use of
z Reduced duration z Difficulties in nitrogenous fertilizers:
(by 10 days) acquiring the
z The necessity for nitrogen-fixing bacteria
z Reduced seed requirement necessary skills
decreases as soil nitrogen levels increase.

The soil becomes more acidic and nitrate
z 37. (a) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment
leaches into the groundwater when Carbon fertilisation
nitrogenous fertilisers are used excessively z It is the artificial enrichment of the
or inappropriately. atmosphere of greenhouses with carbon
z Fertilizers in agriculture increase inputs of dioxide, an essential nutrient for plants
nutrients to soils affecting their pH value and vegetables. It also goes by the name of
“Carbon Dioxide Fertilization.”
z The molecule of nitrogen change soil pH in
z It is used to raise production levels in order
the form of uncharged urea molecule, the
to do so both qualitatively and quantitatively.
cation ammonium and the anion nitrate
z It can be used to grow nearly any form
z The conversion of Nitrogen from one form of vegetable (asparagus, celery, lettuce,
to the other involves the generation or tomatoes, aubergines, etc.), greenhouse
consumption of acidity and the uptake fruit (strawberries), and ornamental plants,
of urea, ammonium or nitrate by plants and is especially suited for cold climates.
will also affect the acidity of the soil. Due Impact on agriculture:
to the leaching process, these substances z Increase in the photosynthetic rate: It results
accumulate underground. in an increase in the instantaneous rate of
Statement 1 is incorrect: More nitrogen in the photosynthesis in C3 plants; and increases
soil leads to less need for nitrogen-fixing bacteria. the transpiration efficiency of the leaf
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Excessive/ (C3 and C4 plants).
inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers z Increases the water use efficiency: During
increases the acidity of soil and the leaching of high concentration of carbon dioxide, plants
maintain narrow openings of leaf surface
nitrate into the groundwater.
which protects them from water loss.
NOTE: Excessive or inappropriate use of z Faster plant growth enhances food
anything will have a negative impact on production and allows for the sequestration
the environment, there should be a balance of more carbon dioxide.
in everything. Now, look at the extreme z Plants distribute a greater proportion
keyword in the first statement. of photosynthate to roots under high
‘Proliferation’ which means ‘rapid concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
increase’, think logically, is it possible z The reproductive biomass growth, as well
that the use of excessive nitrogenous as vegetative biomass growth, is usually
fertilizer will proliferate the nitrogen-fixing increased by elevated carbon dioxide.
microorganisms in soil? Having said that, it 38. (b) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment
is also advisable to read this topic thoroughly Statement 1 is incorrect: Soil water holding
as it is very important and high yielding both capacity is the amount of water that a given soil
in terms of prelims and mains. can hold for crop use. Soil texture and organic
36. (c) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment matter are the key components that determine
soil water holding capacity. Organic matter
Statement 1 is correct: Conservation Tillage
influences the physical conditions of a soil in
includes no-till farming or zero tillage is a way several ways.
of growing crops or pasture from year to year
Statement 2 is incorrect: Sulphur is one of three
without disturbing the soil through tillage. Zero nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant
tillage helps in soil moisture conservation. matter and the atmosphere. The sulphur cycle
Statement 2 is incorrect: Though, Gypsum helps describes the movement of sulphur through the
in dissolution of the salt clay pan found in soils atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and
that hinder the percolation of water and helps through living things.
in water conservation. But the official answer Statement 3 is correct: Salinization is a major
key published by UPSC shows option (c) as the problem associated with irrigation, because
correct answer. Thus, going by the UPSC key deposits of salts build up in the soil and can reach
statement 2 is wrong. levels that are harmful to crops.
z Statement 3 is correct: Crop residues act NOTE: Again, same story!! Carefully
as mulches and reduce evaporation losses observe the extreme keyword ‘drastically’
and protect the soil from direct impact of and ‘any’ in statements 1 and 2 respectively.
raindrops, thus controlling crusting and Not all but most of the time these extreme
sealing processes. statements happen to be wrong.

39. (c) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment z Anupam Verma Committee Report: The
Conservation Agriculture (CA): report from the 2015 committee headed
z It is a farming system that promotes by Anupam Verma, an IARI professor, is a
minimum soil disturbance (i.e. no tillage), major influence in the current proposal for
maintenance of a permanent soil cover, and banning the 27 pesticides.
diversification of plant species. z Notable Pesticides to be banned:
z It enhances biodiversity and natural z Carcinogenic: Oxyfluorfen, Pendimethalin
biological processes above and below (causes Thyroid follicular cell adenoma)
the ground surface, which contribute to z Endocrine disruptor: Dicofol, Carbofuran,
increased water and nutrient use efficiency Oxyfluorfen
and to improved and sustained crop z Eco-toxic: Carbofuran, Monocrotophos,
production. Carbofuran, Oxyfluorfen.
According to FAO’s website there are three NOTE: In every alternate year, UPSC
principles of Conservation of Agriculture: asks questions on same theme i.e. UPSC
1. Minimum mechanical soil disturbance: gives some 2-3 names and asks about
It refers to low disturbance no-tillage and its meaning/context. Here are some
direct seeding. The disturbed area must be examples:
less than 15 cm wide or less than 25% of 2021: With reference to India the terms
the cropped area (whichever is lower). ‘Halbi, ho and Kui’ pertain to…
2. Permanent soil organic cover: Three 2021: With reference to India, Didwana
categories are distinguished: 30-60%, >60- Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names
90% and >90% ground cover, measured of…..
immediately after the direct seeding 41. (c) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment
operation. Area with less than 30% cover Fertigation:
is not considered as CA. z It is a technique for applying fertiliser where
3. Species diversification: Rotation/ the drip irrigation system incorporates the
association should involve at least 3 different fertiliser into the irrigation water. In this
crop species. The rotation of crops is not technology, irrigation is used to evenly
only necessary to offer a diverse “diet” to disperse fertiliser solutions.
the soil micro organisms, but as they root z Fertigation is practised extensively in
at different soil depths, they are capable of commercial agriculture and horticulture.
exploring different soil layers for nutrients.
z Fertigation is used to supplement nutrients
40. (a) Sub-Theme: Pesticides in Agriculture that are already present or to make up for
Option (a) is the correct answer: Carbofuran, nutrient shortages found during plant tissue
Methyl Parathion, Phorate and Triazophos are analysis.
used as Pesticides. z It is usually practised on high-value crops
Pesticides such as vegetables, turf, fruit trees, and
z In contrast to insecticides, which are used to ornamentals.
specifically target and kill insects, pesticides Statement 1 is correct: Drip irrigation also
are chemicals that can be used to kill fungus, avoids water spillage on the field which could
bacteria, insects, plant diseases, etc. have promoted weed growth or increased soil
alkalinity due to water logging. So, fertigation
z Other categories of chemicals used:
also helps control weed growth and cut down
z Molluscicides control snails, slugs and alkalinity.
similar molluscs.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rock phosphate is not
z By preventing fungal spores from penetrating soluble and thus not suitable for fertigation.
plant tissue, fungicides manage hazardous Statement 3 is correct: Accurate placement of
fungi for plants. nutrient, where the water goes the nutrient goes
z Herbicides control weeds. as well. Thus, increased nutrient absorption by
z In India, pesticides must be registered plants.
with the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Statement 4 is correct: Reduction of fertiliser,
Welfare’s affiliated Directorate of Plant chemicals, and water. It leads to reduction in the
Protection, Quarantine & Storage. leaching of chemicals into the water supply.

42. (d) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture z Crop Rotation: It entails the methodical
Benefits/Advantages of Zero tillage or No-till planting of various crops in a specific order
farming: over the course of several years in the
same growing space. It contributes to the
z In some cases it may reduce labour, fuel, preservation of soil nutrients, the reduction
irrigation and machinery costs. of soil erosion, and the prevention of pests
z No-till farming decreases the amount of and disease in plants.
soil erosion tillage causes in certain soils, z Tensiometer: Literally, it means
especially in sandy and dry soils on sloping “measuring of strain.” The plant must
terrain. overcome the soil’s suction tension in
z No-till can increase yield because of higher order to absorb water from the surrounding
water infiltration and storage capacity, and medium. Farmers and other irrigation
managers can use tensiometers to help
less erosion.
them decide when to water the land.
z Another possible benefit is that because of
z Vertical farming: It is the process of raising
the higher water content, instead of leaving crops in vertical layers and frequently
a field fallow it can make economic sense to combines soilless farming methods and
plant another crop instead. controlled-environment agriculture, which
z No-till farming has been claimed to increase attempts to maximise plant development.
soil organic matter, and thus increase carbon 44. (d) Sub-Theme: Environment and Agriculture
sequestration. Biochar:
Statement 1 is correct: Zero tillage is the z Biochar is a high-carbon, fine-grained
process where the crop seed will be sown through residue that is currently produced through
drillers without prior land preparation and modern pyrolysis processes (direct thermal
disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles decomposition of biomass in the absence of
are present. oxygen and preventing combustion).
Statement 2 is correct: Direct Seeded Rice z A mixture of solid (the biochar proper),
(DSR) is a viable option to reduce the unproductive liquid (bio-oil), and gas (syngas) products
water flows, with increasing shortage of water, are created.
dry-DSR with minimum or zero tillage further z Increased agricultural output, protection
enhances the benefits of this technology by saving from several foliar and soil-borne diseases,
and increased soil fertility in acidic soils
labour.
(low pH soils) are all potential benefits of
Statement 3 is correct: No-till farming has been biochar.
claimed to increase soil organic matter, and thus z The use of biochar in vertical farming can
increase carbon sequestration. enhance yield significantly.
43. (d) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture Benefits:
Different Methods of Sustainable Agriculture: z Carbon Sink: The burning and natural
z Mixed cropping or diverse cropping: decomposition of biomass release large
When two or more crops are cultivated amounts of carbon dioxide and methane
into the Earth’s atmosphere.
concurrently on a field, it is known as mixed
cropping or diversified cropping. In the z Soil Improvement: The extremely porous
nature of biochar is found to be effective
unlikely event that one crop fails, the other
at retaining both water and water-soluble
crops will mitigate the risk of a complete
nutrients. Its presence on the earth can
crop failure. improve water quality, increase soil fertility,
z Legume intensification: A category raise agricultural productivity, and reduce
of plants known as leguminous plants pressure on old-growth forests. Using
(legume) contain edible roots or knobs that biochar in the soil promotes the growth of
help nitrogen-rich soil grow vegetables or nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
other meals. A leguminous crop is typically z Water retention: Biochar is hygroscopic.
cultivated alongside the primary crop. Thus, it is a desirable soil material in many
Legumes contribute to increased soil fertility locations due to its ability to attract and
by fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere. retain water.

Statement 1 is correct: The use of biochar in Statement 1 is correct: The Climate-Smart
vertical farming can increase output significantly. Village project in India is a CGIAR Research
Statement 2 is correct: Using biochar in the Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food
soil promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing Security (CCAFS).
microorganisms. Statement 2 is correct: Climate Change,
Agriculture and Food Security (CCFAS) is carried
Statement 3 is correct: Biochar is hygroscopic.
out under CGIAR (formerly the Consultative
Thus, it is a desirable soil material in many
Group for International Agricultural Research).
locations due to its ability to attract and retain
water. Statement 3 is correct: ICRISAT is a CGIAR
Research Center. It is a non-profit, non-political
45. (b) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture public international research organization that
Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture is a conducts agricultural research for development
totally integrated design system that’s modelled in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa with a wide array
on nature. Permaculture farming promotes of partners throughout the world.
multi-cropping and integrated farming systems. 47. (b) Sub-Theme: Air quality
While chemical farming is more suitable for Statement 1 is correct: The 24-hour ceiling mean
monoculture cropping due to the use of crop- of PM 2.5 used to be 25 micrograms but has now
specific inputs like irrigation, chemical fertiliser dropped to 15.
and harvesting methods. Statement 2 is incorrect: Ozone at ground
Statement 2 is correct: Conventional farming level is formed by the reaction with sunlight
usually alters the natural environment, increases (photochemical reaction) of pollutants such as
soil salinity, and eliminates biodiversity. Such nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle and industry
problems are not seen in permaculture farming emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
as it relies on organic fertilizers. emitted by vehicles, solvents and industry. As a
Statement 3 is incorrect: Chemical farming is result, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur
based on the intense use of inputs like chemical during periods of sunny weather and not during
inclement weather.
fertilizers and irrigation that make the soil less
fertile over time, thus restricting its practice in Statement 3 is incorrect: PM is a common proxy
semi-arid regions. Thus, conventional farming is indicator for air pollution. It affects more people
not suitable for semi-arid regions. Permaculture than any other pollutant. While particles with
a diameter of 10 microns or less, (≤ PM10) can
involves well-designed systems that don’t
penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs, the
produce waste and permaculture tries to imitate
even more health-damaging particles are those
well-designed systems. Thus, it can work in arid
with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (≤ PM2.5).
climates as well. PM2.5 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter
Statement 4 is correct: Mulching is an important the blood system.
component of Permaculture systems for Statement 4 is correct: Excessive ozone in the
promoting maximum efficiency. air can have a marked effect on human health.
46. (d) Sub-Theme: Agriculture and Environment It causes breathing problems, triggers asthma,
Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA): reduces lung function and causes lung diseases.
Ozone triggers asthma because it is very irritating
z It is a strategy to assist those in charge of
to the lungs and airways.
managing agricultural systems in efficiently
adapting to climate change. 48. (b) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution
z The CSA approach pursues the triple Option (b) is the correct answer: Nitrous oxide
and Sulphur dioxide cause Acid rain.
objectives of:
z Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6 when
1. Sustainably increasing productivity and
pH falls below this; it is called Acid rain (pH
incomes
4.2 to 4.4).
2. Adapting to climate change z Acid rain results when Sulfur Dioxide
3. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions (SO2) & Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) react with
where possible water, oxygen & other chemicals to form
z The Sustainable Development Goals Sulfuric & Nitric acids.
(SDGs) 1 & 2 envision a world with zero z NOx + SO2 + Moisture + other chemicals
hunger. → Acid Rain (HNO3 + H2SO4)

zEffects: Harms microorganisms in the
soil; inhibit the activity of nitrogen z Stable (Calm Waters) Conditions
fixation bacteria; soil acidification; ocean z Turbidity
acidification; affects the growth of plants;
food chain; kill aquatic animals; corrosion z Aquaculture Operations
of metals & weathering of stone buildings
& statues. Statement 1 is correct: Nutrients promote and
support the growth of algae and Cyanobacteria.
Common Air Pollutants and Their Effects
The Eutrophication (nutrient enrichment) of
Pollutant Sources Effects waterways is considered as a major factor behind
Vehicles, Cardiovascular the increase in harmful algal blooms.
power plants, diseases, reduces Statement 2 is correct: External sources include
Particulate construction visibility (haze) runoff and soil erosion from fertilized agricultural
matter activities, oil areas, erosion from river banks, river beds, land
(PM) refinery, railway clearing (deforestation), and sewage effluent.
yard, industries, Statement 3 is correct: Water that rises to the
etc. surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder
Emissions from Can aggravate and is rich in nutrients, which again leads to algal
Nitrogen
combustion respiratory blooms.
dioxide
processes diseases, acid rain, 50. (c) Sub-Theme: Water Pollution
(NO2)
Hazy weather
Option (c) is the correct answer: Arsenic,
Burning of fossil Affects respiratory Fluoride and Uranium are found as pollutants
fuels, power system & functions in the drinking water.
Sulfur plants, metals of the lungs. causes Water Pollution:
dioxide processing irritation of the
z Water pollution is the contamination of
(SO2) and smelting eyes, chronic
facilities, bronchitis, Acid water bodies, usually as a result of human
vehicles rain activities.
z Point pollution sources, where the source is
Results from Affect the lungs, a well-defined location.
photochemical the respiratory
reactions b/w tract, and the eyes, z Non-point pollution sources, which are
Ozone (O3) spread over larger areas.
NOx & VOCs lung cancer
in presence of z Causes: Agricultural sources, Sewage water,
sunlight. Industrial effluents, Thermal Pollution, Oil-
spills, ships & other economic activities.
NOTE: This particular straightforward question z Effects: Decline on Dissolved oxygen,
is repeated verbatim from 2013.
Increase in BOD, Death of Aquatic species,
49. (d) Sub-Theme: Water Pollution Eutrophication etc.
Algal Bloom: Options 1, 3 and 5 are correct: Arsenic, Fluoride,
z A rapid rise in the population of algae in an Iron, Uranium, Nitrate, Salinity are some major
aquatic system is known as an algal bloom, groundwater pollutants in India.
marine bloom, or water bloom.
Option 2 is incorrect: Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol
z Algal blooms can appear in both marine and
freshwater habitats. found in fruits and plants with diuretic, laxative
and cathartic properties.
z “Harmful algal blooms (HAB)” are blooms
that can affect wildlife or the environment. Option 4 is incorrect: Formaldehyde is used to
z Harmful Algal Bloom can lead to fish die- preserve fish longer. The use of this chemical is
offs, cities cutting off water to residents, or banned in fresh floods by the Food Safety and
states having to close fisheries. Standards Authority of India.
Responsible Factors for ALGAL BLOOM 51. (b) Sub-Theme: Waste Management
z Nutrients E-WASTE:
z E-waste is any electrical or electronic
z Temperature
equipment that’s been discarded.
z Light z India’s first e-waste clinic - at Bhopal.

Common Air Pollutants and their Sources

E-waste Sources Constituents
PCBs, glass panels, and Pollutant Sources
Lead
Computer monitors Vehicles, power plants,
Resistors & Semiconductors Cadmium Particulate construction activities,
matter (PM) oil refinery, railway yard,
Relays and switches, & PCBs Mercury industries, etc.
Galvanised steel plates & Nitrogen dioxide Emissions from combustion
Chromium
decorator or hardener (NO2) processes
Cabling, Computer & housing Plastics & PVC Burning of fossil fuels, power
Sulphur dioxide
Electronic equipments & Brominated flame- plants, metals processing and
(SO2)
circuit boards retardants smelting facilities, vehicles
Front panels of CRTs Barium, Phosphorus & Results from photochemical

Heavy metals Ozone (O3) reactions b/w NOx & VOCs in
presence of sunlight.
Copper wires, PCB tracks Copper
53. (a) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution
Nickel Cadmium batteries Nickel Option (a) is the correct answer: NO 2 , O 3

Lithium-ion battery Lithium and peroxyacetyl nitrate react in the presence
of sunlight and Photochemical Smog (summer
Motherboards Beryllium
smog) is formed.
Options 1,2,3,5 and 6 are correct: All elements
z Photochemical Smog (summer smog) forms
in these options are the harmful constituents
when pollutants such as nitrogen oxides
that are released into the environment due to (primary pollutant) and organic compounds
improper disposal of e-waste. (primary pollutants) react together in the
Option 4 is incorrect: Heptachlor is used as presence of SUNLIGHT. A gas called OZONE
pesticides and also comes under the 12 initial (Secondary pollutant) is formed.
POPs under the Stockholm Convention.
54. (c) Sub-Theme: General Science
Option 7 is incorrect: Plutonium is a radioactive
Option (c) is the correct answer: Fungi

material.
(moulds) produce Aflatoxins.
52. (d) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution z Aflatoxins are poisonous substances
Option (d) is the correct answer: Nitrous oxide
produced by certain kinds of fungi (moulds)
and Sulphur dioxide cause Acid rain. such as Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus
z Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6 when parasiticus.
pH falls below this; it is called Acid rain (pH z These fungi (moulds) can be found naturally
4.2 to 4.4). all over the world; they can contaminate
z Acid rain results when Sulphur Dioxide food crops and pose a serious health threat
(SO2) & Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) react with to humans and livestock.
water, oxygen & other chemicals to form z Children who are exposed to these toxins
Sulfuric & Nitric acids. may experience stunted growth and have a
z NOx + SO2 + Moisture + other chemicals → higher risk of developing liver cancer.
Acid Rain (HNO3 + H2SO4) z High temperatures and humid climates or
z Effects: Harms microorganisms in the stressful conditions like drought make the
soil; inhibits the activity of nitrogen conducive environment for these fungi to
fixation bacteria; soil acidification; ocean produce aflatoxin.
acidification; affects the growth of plants; z Aflatoxins also pose a significant economic
food chain; kills aquatic animals; corrosion burden, causing an estimated 25% or more
of metals & weathering of stone buildings of the world’s food crops to be destroyed
& statues. annually.

55. (d) Sub-Theme: Industrial Pollution Impact of Nanoparticles:
Option (d) is the correct answer: All the above z They concentrate in the environment and
are major pollutants released by the steel contaminate the land and water.
industry in India. z They enter into the food chains.
The environmental impact of steel production:
z They also trigger the production of free
z Steel production has a number of impacts radicals.
on the environment, including air emissions
z Nanoparticles may cross cell membranes.
(CO, SOx, NOx, PM2), wastewater contaminants,
hazardous wastes, and solid wastes. z Nanoparticles can reach the blood and may
z The major environmental impacts of reach other target sites such as the liver,
integrated steel mills are from coking and heart, or blood cells and may cause damage
iron-making. to cells as they stay for a persistently long
Emissions to Air: time.
z Coke production is one of the major pollution Statement 1 is correct: A matter particle with a
sources from steel production. dimension ranging from 1 to one 100 nanometers
z Air emissions such as coke oven gas, (nm) is referred to as a nanoparticle. They can
naphthalene, ammonium compounds, crude accumulate in the environment, contaminate
light oil, sulfur and coke dust are released water and soil.
from coke ovens. Statement 2 is correct: They enter into the food
Emissions to water: chains.
z Water emissions come from the water used Statement 3 is correct: They also trigger the
to cool coke after it has finished baking. production of free radicals.
z Quenching water becomes contaminated 57. (c) Sub-Theme: General Environment
with coke breezes and other compounds.
Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs):

z While the volume of contaminated water
can be great, quenching water is fairly easy z Brominated flame retardants (BFRs) are
to reuse. Most pollutants can be removed mixtures of man-made chemicals that
by filtration. are added to a wide variety of products,
Waste: including for industrial use, to make them
less flammable.
z Slag, the limestone and iron ore
impurities collected at the top of the z They are used commonly in plastics, textiles
molten iron make up the largest portion of and electrical/electronic equipment.
iron-making by-products. Concerns:
z Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen sulfide are z They don’t degrade easily in fact they
volatized and captured in air emissions are highly resistant to degradation in the
control equipment and the residual slag is environment.
sold to the construction industry.
z Some brominated flame retardants were
z While this is not a pollution prevention identified as persistent, bioaccumulative,
technique, solid waste does not reach
and toxic to both humans and the
landfills.
environment and were suspected of causing
56. (d) Sub-Theme: Industrial Pollution neurobehavioral effects and endocrine
Use of Nanoparticles: disruption.
z Nanoparticles are used in the manufacture Statement 1 is correct: They don’t degrade easily
of scratch proof eyeglasses, crack-resistant in fact they are highly resistant to degradation in
paints, anti-graffiti coatings for walls, the environment.
transparent sunscreens, stain-repellent
Statement 2 is correct: Some brominated
fabrics, and self-cleaning windows, and
ceramic coatings for solar cells. flame retardants were identified as persistent,
bioaccumulative, and toxic to both humans and
z Additionally, stronger, lighter, cleaner, and
more intelligent surfaces and systems can the environment and were suspected of causing
be created with nanoparticles. neurobehavioral effects and endocrine disruption.

58. (c) Sub-Theme: Conservation/Environmental 60. (c) Sub-Theme: Water Pollution
pollution Option (c) is the correct answer: Pollution
Green India Mission: assay in aquatic ecosystems is based on
z The National Action Plan on Climate Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) criterion.
Change (NAPCC) launched eight missions, z Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
and GIM is one of them. measure of the amount of organic waste
z Aiming to maintain, restore, and improve that pollutes water.
India’s dwindling forest cover and combating z BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen
climate change through a combination of needed by bacteria in decomposing the
adaptation and mitigation strategies, GIM organic wastes present in water. It is
was introduced in February 2014. measured in milligrammes per litre of water
Objectives of the Mission: of oxygen.
z To protect, restore and enhance India’s z The higher value of BOD indicates low DO
falling forest cover. content of water.
z To respond to climate change through z BOD is not a reliable method for assessing
water pollution because it only includes
a combination of adaptation as well as
biodegradable elements.
mitigation measures.
z To increase forest-based livelihood incomes. NOTE: This is an easy and straight question
z To enhance annual Carbon sequestration from NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14
by 50 to 60 million tonnes in the year (Environmental Chemistry), though the non-
2020. science graduates may not find interest in
reading class 11 and 12 science NCERTs this
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Both the
particular chapter is very important for the
statements are irrelevant to Green India Mission.
environment and ecology.
Statement 3 is correct: The mission intends to
increase forest/tree cover; improve/enhance 61. (c) Sub-Theme: Eco-Engineering
ecosystem services and increase the forest-based Benefits of Bioremediation:
livelihood income of about 3 million households. z It minimises damage to ecosystems by just
59. (b) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution using natural methods.
Option (b) is the correct answer: CO2 , CO and z In order to remove toxins from soil and
SO2 are normally considered in calculating the groundwater, bioremediation frequently
value of the Air Quality Index. takes place underground, where pumped-in
nutrients and bacteria can be used.
z The air quality index, or AQI, is a statistic
that is used to inform the public of how filthy z As a result, compared to other cleanup
the air is now or is expected to become. techniques, bioremediation causes
less disruption to the neighbourhood
z A growing proportion of the population communities.
is projected to endure worsening health
z A minor change or addition designed to the
impacts as AQI rises.
environment, such as molasses, vegetable
z According to different national air quality oil, or simple air optimises conditions for
standards, various countries have their own microbes to flourish, thereby accelerating
air quality indices. the completion of the bioremediation
z The AQI is most frequently used to describe process.
ozone levels at ground level. z It produces comparatively few harmful
z The five contaminants that endanger human byproducts (mainly due to the fact that
health can be represented by the AQI, contaminants and pollutants are converted
though. into water and harmless gases like carbon
Ground-level Ozone or O3 dioxide).
Particulate Matter (soot and dust) or PM z Since it doesn’t require a lot of labour or
Carbon Monoxide or CO
expensive equipment, it is less expensive
than most cleanup techniques.
Sulphur Dioxide or SO2 and
Statement 1 is correct: Bioremediation uses
Nitrogen Dioxide or NO2
naturally occurring organisms to break down
All except Carbon dioxide are taken into hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic
consideration while calculating the AQI. substances.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Not all contaminants Statement 2 is correct: The amount of suspended
are easily treated by bioremediation using particles in the water at the excavation site and
microorganisms. For eg. Heavy metals such as downstream increases due to increased riverbed
cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or and bank erosion. Aquatic ecosystems and water
captured by microorganisms. users may be negatively impacted by suspended
Statement 3 is correct: The use of genetic particles.
engineering to create organisms specifically Statement 3 is correct: The groundwater table
designed for bioremediation has great potential. drops leaving the drinking water wells on the
For e.g. Alcanivorax, a bacteria with oil-eating embankments of these rivers dry.
abilities, can be used to create species that are Sand mining
much more capable of cleaning oil spills.
z Sand is often extracted using an open pit,
NOTE: UPSC asks standard conceptual however it is occasionally mined from inland
questions on Eco-engineering every year. dunes, oceans, riverbeds, and beaches.
Bioremediation, biofuels, and genetic z Sand mining is the extraction of sand,
engineering are some such standard mainly through an open pit (or sandpit)
concepts. Hence, conceptual clarity of this but sometimes mined from beaches and
particular topic is very important. Also, inland dunes or dredged from ocean and
always be cautious of extreme statements river beds.
and words such as ‘readily’ (quickly) and
Impact of Sand Mining on Rivers
‘completely’.
z Alteration of Rivers
62. (b) Sub-Theme: Eco-Engineering
z Damage River Biodiversity
Biofuels
z Alter Sediment Budget
z A biofuel is any hydrocarbon fuel that is
z Lead to poor water quality
created in a short amount of time—days,
weeks, or even months—from organic z Worsen water scarcity
matter (living or once-living material). z Threat to Coastal Communities
z Biofuels may be solid, liquid or gaseous z Damage to Public and Private Property
in nature: 64. (d) Sub-Theme: Waste Management
Solid: Wood, dried plant material, and Option (d) is the correct answer: Pyrolysis
manure and Plasma Gasification are associated with
Liquid: Bioethanol and Biodiesel Waste-to-energy technologies.
Gaseous: Biogas z Pyrolysis is a process of chemical
Statement 1 is incorrect: Algaculture (farming decomposition of organic matter brought
algae) can be initiated on land unsuitable for about by heat.
agriculture or saline water or wastewater. z In this process, the organic material is
Statement 2 is correct: Producing algae for heated in the absence of air until the
biofuels (excluding simple seaweed production) molecules thermally break down to become
requires significant capital investments, which a gas comprising smaller molecules (known
may be a significant barrier in developing collectively as syngas).
countries that have a weak investment climate. z Gasification can also take place as a result of
Statement 3 is correct: Using the land allotted partial combustion of organic matter in the
to food crops to algal biofuel reduces the amount presence of a restricted quantity of oxygen
of food available for humans, resulting in an or air. The gas, so produced, is known as
increased cost for both the food and the fuel producer gas.
produced. This is an ecological as well as economic z The gases produced by pyrolysis mainly
concern. comprise carbon monoxide (25%),
63. (b) Sub-Theme: Sand Mining (Environmental hydrogen and hydrocarbons (15%), and
Issues) carbon dioxide and nitrogen (60%).
Pollution of groundwater and Lowering of the z It is used commercially as a waste to an
water-table are consequences of heavy sand energy system that converts municipal solid
mining in river beds. waste into synthesis gas (syngas) containing
Statement 1 is incorrect: It may also lead to hydrogen and carbon monoxide that can be
saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea. used to generate power.

65. (a) Sub-Theme: Water Pollution 67. (d) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution
Option (a) is the correct answer: Microbeads Option (d) is the correct answer: All the given
(Harmful to Marine Ecosystem) gases are result of Stubble Burning:
z Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic z Burning stubble (parali) is the process of
particles of less than one millimetre in their removing crop residue from the field in
largest dimension. order to prepare it for the next crop.
z They are most frequently made of polyethene z Farmers in Haryana and Punjab must move
but can be of other petrochemical plastics quickly in order to plant the upcoming winter
such as polypropylene and polystyrene. crop (Rabi crop), and if they are late due to
short winters, they risk suffering significant
z They are used in exfoliating personal care losses. The cheapest and quickest method to
products, toothpaste and in biomedical and remove the stubble is by burning it.
health-science research.
Effects of Stubble Burning:
z Microbeads can cause plastic particle water z Pollution: Open stubble burning releases
pollution and pose an environmental hazard a lot of harmful pollutants into the air,
for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean including smoke, particles, greenhouse
water. gases (CO2, N2O, O3 CH4), air pollutants
z The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has (CO, NH3, NOx, SO2, NMHC), and volatile
classified microbeads as “unsafe” for use in organic compounds. These pollutants are
cosmetic products. dangerous to human health.
z NGT had earlier directed the Centre to test z Soil Fertility: Husk burning reduces the
cosmetic products containing microbeads fertility of the soil by destroying its nutrients.
after a plea sought a ban on their use on z Heat Penetration: When stubble burns,
the ground they are extremely dangerous heat is produced that permeates the soil,
for aquatic life and the environment. causing the loss of moisture and beneficial
microbes.
66. (d) Sub-Theme: Methane Emission
z Thus, all the above-mentioned gases are
Methane Hydrate: emitted due to the burning of crop/biomass
z A methane molecule is enclosed in a cage residue.
of interlocking water molecules to form
68. (a) Sub-Theme: Air pollution
the crystalline solid known as methane
Option (a) is the correct answer: Automobile
hydrate.
exhaust, tobacco smoke, and wood burning
z Methane is frozen into a form of water ice are the major factors for exposure to benzene
known as methane hydrate and is trapped pollution.
in the sediments under the seafloor in large Benzene
but relatively unknown quantities.
z At room temperature, the chemical benzene
z Methane hydrate is an “ice” that only is a colourless or light-yellow liquid. It
naturally forms in underground deposits has a sweet odour and is highly flammable.
under ideal temperature and pressure z It evaporates into the air very quickly.
circumstances.
z Its vapour is heavier than air and may sink
Statement 1 is correct: Owing to the melting of into low-lying areas.
ice, global warming might trigger the release of z It dissolves only slightly in water and will
methane gas from these deposits hence having a float on top of the water.
significant impact in climate change. Sources and Uses:
Statement 2 is correct: Sediment and z Volcanoes and forest fires are two examples
sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost of natural sources of benzene. Additionally,
have the temperature and pressure conditions gasoline, cigarette smoke, and crude oil all
suitable for the formation and stability of methane naturally contain benzene.
hydrate. z Some industries use benzene to make other
Statement 3 is correct: Methane is relatively chemicals that are used to make plastics,
short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of resins, nylon, and synthetic fibres.
methane is oxidised to water and carbon dioxide z It is also used to make some types of
within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with lubricants, rubbers, dyes, detergents, drugs,
other trace gases. and pesticides.

69. (a) Sub-Theme: Eco-Engineering Social Cost:

National Policy on Biofuels 2018: z It refers to the total cost borne by society
z The Policy categorizes biofuels as “Basic due to the production of a commodity.
Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) z Social Cost is the cost that is not borne by the
bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced firm but incurred by others in the society.
Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, z Examples include: Large business firms
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in
cause air pollution, water pollution and
fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels,
other damages in a particular area which
bio-CNG etc. to enable the extension of
involve costs to society.
appropriate financial and fiscal incentives
under each category. z These costs are treated as social costs. It is
z The Policy expands the scope of raw also called External Cost.
material for ethanol production by allowing 71. (d) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution/Coal Ash
the use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing Statement 1 is correct: Coal ash contains
materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, contaminants like mercury, cadmium and arsenic.
Starch containing materials like Corn, Without proper management, these contaminants
Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, can pollute waterways, groundwater, drinking
broken rice, Rotten Potatoes
water, and the air.
NOTE 1: Though all six of the given materials Statement 2 is correct: This statement is direct
can be used for preparing biofuel, but the from NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14
question is specific and asked about ‘India’s (Environmental Chemistry), Pg. 410. Burning
National Policy on Biofuels’. of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and
NOTE 2: Earlier, UPSC has asked questions nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in
on ‘Eco-Engineering’ and specifically on
power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel
‘Biofuel’ in 2017. Also, we need to achieve
in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and
the SDG goal and INDC by 2030. Therefore,
nitrogen oxides, which leads to ‘acid rain’.
it underlines the importance of the theme.
Please refer to PYQ for a detailed explanation Statement 3 is correct: Indian Coal has
of Biofuel. comparatively higher ash content than imported
coal due to the drift theory of the formation of
70. (a) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution/Carbon Pricing/
coal deposits in India. Coal seams formed due to
Carbon Emission
drift theory contain higher ash as compared to
Option (a) is the correct answer: Social cost
the in-situ theory of formation.
of Carbon is best described as the measure of
monetary value of long-term damage done by 72. (b) Sub-Theme: Industrial Pollution
a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year. Copper Smelting:
Social Cost Of Carbon: z It is a process of applying heat to ore in
z The social cost of carbon (SCC) is used to order to extract a base metal.
estimate in dollars all economic damage z Smelting uses heat and a chemical
that would result from emitting one ton of reducing agent to decompose the ore,
carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. driving off other elements as gases or slag
z It indicates how much it is worth to us today and leaving the metal base behind.
to avoid the damage that is projected for the
z It is the method of extracting pure
future.
elemental copper (Cu) from copper
z The SCC puts the effects of climate change concentrate (CuFeS2).
into economic terms to help policymakers
z Some facilities that carry out metal and
and other decision-makers understand the
economic impacts of decisions that would smelting processes are known to emit high
increase or decrease emissions. quantities of air pollutants such as hydrogen
fluoride, sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen,
z India’s country-level social cost of carbon
emission was estimated to be the highest at offensive and noxious smoke fumes, vapours,
$86 per tonne of CO2. It means the Indian gases, and other toxins.
economy will lose $86 by emitting each z A variety of heavy metals: Lead, arsenic,
additional tonne of CO2. India is followed chromium, cadmium, nickel, copper, and
by the US ($48) and Saudi Arabia ($47). zinc are also released by the facilities.

In addition, some smelting processes
z Magnetite particles:
can also produce large quantities of z Magnetite particles are a highly magnetic
solid waste, known as slag, which mineral form of iron and are known to
usually contains significant amounts of be present in air pollution.
contaminants. This slag may leach heavy z Exposure to airborne particulate matter
metals (arsenic, cadmium, lead or mercury (PM) is associated with pulmonary,
depending on the composition of the ore) cardiovascular and neurological
into groundwater reservoirs. problems.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Copper smelting does Option 1 is correct: Vehicle brake systems are
not release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide the major source of airborne magnetite at the
roadside.
into the environment.
Options 2 and 4 are correct: Petrol and diesel-
Statement 2 is correct: Some smelting processes
engine exhaust and power plants are also a source
can also produce large quantities of solid waste, of airborne magnetite.
known as slag. This slag may leach heavy metals
Options 3 and 5 are incorrect: There is no
(arsenic, cadmium, lead or mercury depending adequate evidence supporting the generation of
on the composition of the ore) into groundwater magnetite particles from sources like microwave
reservoirs. Stoves within homes and telephone lines.
Statement 3 is correct: Smelting processes are 75 (a) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution/Carbon Emission
known to emit high quantities of air pollutants
Option (a) is the correct answer: The carbon
such as hydrogen fluoride, sulphur dioxide, oxides footprint of building operations is assessed
of nitrogen, offensive and noxious smoke fumes, through ‘Common Carbon Metric’.
vapours, gases, and other toxins. z The Common Carbon Metric is a protocol
73. (d) Sub-Theme: Air Pollution/Emissions developed by United Nations Environment
Furnace oil: Program’s Sustainable Buildings & Climate
Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) for measuring
z Furnace oil or fuel oil is a dark viscous
energy use & reporting GHG emissions from
residual product of crude-oil distillation. Building Operations.
It is used as a fuel in different types of
z Its purpose is to support greenhouse
combustion equipment. gas (GHG) emissions reductions through
z The emissions of oxides of sulphur are a accurate measurement of energy efficiency
direct result of the sulphur content of the improvements in building operations.
fuel oil. 76. (a) Sub-Theme: Carbon Sink
Applications of Furnace oil: Blue Carbon:
z Marine engines and slow speed engines for z Carbon captured by the world’s ocean
power generation; and coastal ecosystems.
z Drying tea leaves; z Three types of coastal ecosystems —
z Thermic fluid heaters and hot air generators mangroves, seagrasses and tidal marshes —
store half the “blue” carbon buried beneath
Statement 1 is correct: Furnace oil or fuel oil
the ocean floor.
is a dark viscous residual product of crude-oil
z These areas absorb and store carbon at
distillation. It is used as a fuel in different types
a much faster rate than other areas, such
of combustion equipment.
as forests, and can continue to do so for
Statement 2 is correct: Marine engines and slow millions of years.
speed engines for power generation use Furnace z The carbon found in coastal soil is often
oil. thousands of years old.
Statement 3 is correct: The emissions of oxides Blue Carbon Initiative:
of sulphur are a direct result of the sulphur z Conservation International (CI), the
content of the fuel oil. International Union for Conservation of
74. (b) Sub-Theme: Industrial Pollution Nature (IUCN) and the Intergovernmental
Oceanic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO
Option (b) is the correct answer: Brakes of
has collaborated with governments and
motor vehicles, engines of motor vehicles,
organisations across the world to develop
and power plants are sources of Magnetic mechanisms for ensuring coastal Blue
Particles. Carbon ecosystems.

It also comprises:
Growing paddy, excreta of
z Engagement of local, national and cattle and other livestock,
international organisations Methane (CH4) termites, burning of fossil
z Comprehensive methods for carbon fuel, wood, landfills, wetlands,
accounting fertilizer factories.
z Incentive mechanism
Burning of fossil fuels,
z Scientific research for climate mitigation Nitrogen oxides
fertilizers; burning of wood
77. (b) Sub-Theme: Carbon Mitigation Strategies (N2O)
and crop residue.
Carbon Sequestration:
Carbon Monoxide Iron ore smelting, burning of
z To slow down global warming, carbon (CO) fossil fuels, burning e-waste.
sequestration involves the capture and
storage of CO2. It is captured from the air, 79. (b) Sub-Theme: Ozone Depletion
industries or power stations and stored Option (b) is the correct answer: Formation
permanently underground. of Polar front, Polar Stratospheric Clouds lead
z This promotes Long-term reserve of CO2 or to formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic
forms of carbon to control temperatures. region.
z Lowering of the amount of GHGs present in z The formation of the ozone hole in the
the air due to combustion of fossil fuels. Antarctic has been an annual occurrence
(in the months of September, October
3 main steps to Carbon Capture and Storage
and November, due to a set of special
(CCS): meteorological and chemical conditions that
1. Trapping & separating CO2 from other gases arise at the South Pole, such as the presence
2. Transporting captured CO2 to storage of strong polar front, polar stratospheric
location clouds and increasing inflow of human-
3. Storing CO2 far from the atmosphere, either made chemicals like CFCs, etc.
in the deep ocean or underground. Antarctic Ozone Hole:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Some amount of z The Antarctic “ozone hole” was discovered
CO2 does escape but not much CO 2 is denser by British Antarctic Survey scientists
than Nitrogen, Oxygen and Argon (the main Farman, Gardiner and Shanklin in 1985.
components of the atmosphere) and thus this Causes:
tend to stay more in the lower atmosphere, z Due to an increase in halocarbons (a
however, this does not stop some of it moving to compound in which the hydrogen of a
the upper atmosphere by the process of diffusion. hydrocarbon is replaced by halogens
Statement 2 is correct: The photosynthesis by like chlorine, bromine, iodine etc.) in the
phytoplankton in the oceans is natural carbon atmosphere.
sequestration. z Presence of Polar Front which is a large
Statement 3 is incorrect: The trapping of CO2 by area of low pressure and cold air that
polar ice is not known. surrounds both of Earth’s poles.
78. (d) Sub-Theme: Major air pollutants and their z Presence of Polar Stratospheric Clouds
sources/Green House Gases (PSCs) which are formed mainly during
the event of a polar vertex in winter; more
Option (d) is the correct answer: Emissions intense at the south pole.
of all the above-mentioned gases i.e. Carbon
z The Cl-catalysed ozone depletion is enhanced
dioxide, Oxides of Nitrogen and Oxides of
in the presence of polar stratospheric clouds
Sulphur take place from coal combustion at
(PSCs) convert “reservoir” compounds into
thermal power plants.
reactive free radicals (Cl and ClO), which
Emission of Gases from Coal Combustion in turn deplete ozone. In this way, PSCs
Gas Sources and Causes accelerate ozone depletion.
80. (d) Sub-Theme: Carbon Mitigation Strategies
Carbon dioxide Burning of fossil fuels,
Carbon Credit:
(CO2) deforestation
z A carbon credit is a permit that allows the
Refrigeration, solvents, company the right to emit 1 ton of CO2 or
Chlorofluorocarbons insulation foams, aero its equivalent.
(CFCs) propellants, industrial and z One credit permits the emission of a mass
commercial uses equal to one ton of carbon dioxide

Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct: The carbon Statements 1,3 and 4 are correct: Chlorofluoro-
credit system was ratified in conjunction with carbons, known as ozone-depleting substances,
the Kyoto Protocol under UNFCCC to encourage are used in the production of plastic foams,
groups or countries to reduce carbon emissions. in cleaning electronic components, and as
Option (d) is incorrect: Carbon credit prices are pressurising agents in aerosol cans.
traded on an exchange and their prices are never Statement 2 is incorrect: Tubeless tyre is
fixed. basically a clincher tyre inflated onto a rim with
81. (b) Sub-Theme: Agriculture practices no inner tube. Instead of an inner tube holding the
air pressure, an airtight chamber is created with
Option (b) is the correct answer: Zero Tillage
a tubeless-specific tyre, developed with a special
helps in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil.
(commonly carbon) bead, and a compatible rim.
Zero Tillage:
83. (d) Sub-Theme: Global Warming
z It is the process where the crop seed will
be sown through drillers without prior Option (d) is the correct answer: The increasing
land preparation and distributed in the soil amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly
where previous crop stubbles are present. raising the temperature of the atmosphere
because it absorbs the infrared part of the
z Zero tillage not only reduces the cost of
solar radiation.
cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion,
crop duration, irrigation requirement and Infrared Radiation:
weed effect which is better than tillage. It z It absorbs energy with a wavelength of 15
also helps in carbon sequestration in the soil. μm (micrometres).
Contour bundling: Greenhouse Effect:
z Contour bundling involves the construction z A naturally occurring phenomena that
of banks along the contours. warms and covers the lower atmosphere
z Terracing and contour bunding divide the of the planet, keeping it at a temperature
hill slope into numerous small slopes, check where life may survive.
the flow of water, promote absorption of z The earth’s cooling and warming are
water by soil and save soil from erosion. balanced by them.
z Retaining walls of terraces control the flow z Without this, the current 15 degrees Celsius
of water and help in reducing soil erosion. average temperature of the earth’s surface
Relay Cropping: would be -19 degrees Celsius.
z Relay Cropping is the process of growing z Human-induced greenhouse gas emissions
one crop, then planting another crop upset the natural balance & lead to increased
(usually a cover crop) in the same field warmth.
before harvesting the first. 84. (a) Sub-Theme: Biodiversity Loss
z This helps avoid competition between the Option (a) is the correct answer: Global Warming,
main crop and the intercrop. Habitat Loss/Fragmentation and Invasive
z It also uses the field for a longer time since Alien Species threats to the biodiversity of a
the cover crop usually continues to grow geographical area.
after the main crop is harvested. z Mammals and birds that require large
82. (c) Sub-Theme: Ozone Depleting Substances territories as well as animals with migratory
habitat are adversely affected, which results
Ozone Depleting Substances: Chlorofluorocarbons,
in population decline. Habitat loss is caused
Hydrochlorofluorocarbons, Carbon tetrachloride,
by pollution. Large habitats are broken up
Methyl chloroform, Methyl chloroform, Halons,
into small fragments as a result of various
Methyl bromide, etc.
human activities.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs):
z Invasive alien species are those that
z Chlorofluorocarbons, also referred to as appear outside of their normal habitat.
ozone depleting materials, are used to
z Co-extinctions: When a species becomes
make plastic foams, clean electronic
extinct, the plant and animal species
components, and pressurise aerosol cans.
associated with it in an obligatory way also
z They are non-toxic, non-flammable become extinct.
chemicals containing atoms of carbon,
z Overexploitation: Humans have
chlorine and fluorine.
traditionally relied on nature for food and
z Uses Refrigeration, solvents, insulation shelter, but when “need” transforms into
foams, aero propellants, industrial and “greed,” this relationship breaks down.
commercial uses. Overexploitation results from it.

Options 1,2 and 3 are correct: Global Warming, Fragmentation of Habitat, Invasion of Alien Species, Co-
extinctions are the potential threats to biodiversity.
Option 4 is incorrect: Promotion of vegetarianism can’t be a cause for the loss or threat of biodiversity.
85. (c) Sub-Theme: Byproduct of Sugar Industry
Bagasse and Molasses
Introduction Uses
z The remnant left after extracting the z It is used for the generation of heat energy
juice of the sugarcane or sorghum is and electricity. Ethanol produced from it is
known as bagasse. It is a dry pulpy also used as a popular fuel in some countries.
Bagasse fibrous material. z It substitutes wood to produce pulp, paper,
and board.
z As a cattle feed when mixed with molasses
and enzymes and then fermenting.
z It is the thick syrup that results from z Sweetening and flavouring foods.
the refining of sugarcane or sugar z In the production of fine commercial brown
beets into sugar. sugar.
Molasses z It contains a good amount of Vitamin z In baking and cooking.
B6 and minerals like calcium, z Producing ethanol and is the prime ingredient
manganese, iron and magnesium. in the distillation of few alcoholic beverages.
z As a cattle feed.
Statement 1 is correct: Bagasse can be used for z Intended Nationally Determined

the generation of heat energy and electricity. Contributions (INDC) are (intended)
Statement 2 is incorrect: Molasses is not used reductions in greenhouse gas emissions
for the production of chemical fertilizers. under the United Nations Framework
Statement 3 is correct: Molasses can be used Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
for the production of ethanol and it is also used
as the prime ingredient in the distillation of a few z NDCs are at the heart of the Paris Agreement
alcoholic beverages. and embody efforts by each country to
reduce national emissions and adapt to the
86. (b) Sub-Theme: Effects of Global Warming
impacts of climate change.
Statement 1 is correct: If the global temperature
increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial z The UNFCCC, in its Nationally Determined
level, the terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net Contributions (NDC) Synthesis Report, has
carbon source. Taiga and temperate forests act as called for more ambitious climate action
an important carbon sink; these forests would plans by the countries in order to achieve
turn into a carbon source. the Paris Agreement target of containing
Statement 2 is correct: As temperatures global temperature rise to 2°C by the end
rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the
of the century (ideally it is 1.5°C).
temperature keeps on rising, widespread coral
mortality will occur. z The NDC Synthesis Report covers
Statement 3 is incorrect: The temperate regions submissions up to 31st December 2020
can still survive if the temperature increases. The and includes new or updated NDCs by
temperate zones are where the widest seasonal 75 Parties, which represent approximately
changes occur. The vegetation can survive there. 30% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The weather should
z The report was sought ahead of the 26th
be warm and moist during the early stage of the
growth of cereals. Therefore, the cultivation of session of the Conference of the Parties
cereals would still be possible if the temperature (COP 26) to the UNFCCC which is scheduled
rises. to take place from 1st- 12th November 2021,
87. (b) Sub-Theme: Climate Change/Global Warming in Glasgow, UK.
Intended Nationally Determined z Each NDC reflects the country’s ambition,
Contributions: Plan of action outlined by the taking into account its domestic
countries of the world to Combat Climate Change circumstances and capabilities.

88. (a) Sub-Theme: Global Warming Statement 1 is correct: Uneconomic coal
Option (a) is the correct answer: ‘Greenhouse seams can be used to store CO2 because the CO2
Gas Protocol’ is an International Accounting molecules attach to the surface of coal.
Tool for Government and Business Leaders Statement 2 is correct: CO2 is sometimes injected
z GHG Protocol is developing standards, tools into declining oil fields to increase oil recovery.
and online training that helps countries to Statement 3 is correct: Other potential sites
measure and manage greenhouse gas (GHG)
are gas reservoirs, saline formations and shale
emissions from private and public sector
formations with high organic content.
operations, value chains and mitigation
actions. NOTE: UPSC has asked about “potential
GHG Protocol: sites”. If we see options, all the given
z To assist nations, cities, and businesses options could be potential sites for carbon
in monitoring their progress toward their sequestration. It is always advisable to stay
focused while reading questions and try
climate goals, GHG Protocol is creating
to identify such keywords from the given
standards, tools, and online training.
questions.
z GHG Protocol establishes frameworks to
measure and manage greenhouse gas (GHG) 90. (d) Sub-Theme: Geoengineering
emissions from private and public sector Option (d) is the correct answer: Geoengineering

operations, value chains and mitigation is used for Reducing global warming.
actions. z There is a renewed interest in two dominant
z The GHG Protocol arose when the methods of geoengineering such as
World Resources Institute (WRI) and stratospheric sulphate aerosol increase
World Business Council for Sustainable
and cirrus cloud thinning aims to reduce
Development (WBCSD) recognized the need
global warming and precipitation rates to
for an international standard for corporate
pre-industrial levels.
GHG accounting and reporting in the late
1990s. z Geoengineering, often known as climate
89. (d) Sub-Theme: Global warming mitigation/Carbon intervention, is the deliberate and extensive
sequestration modification of the Earth’s climatic system
Option (d) is the correct answer: All are with the intention of causing adverse global
potential sites for carbon sequestration. warming.
Carbon Sequestration: z The stratosphere can be injected with
z Carbon sequestration is a process to capture sulphate aerosol particles to block some of
and store CO2 to curb global warming. the sun’s rays and possibly cool the planet.
It is captured from the air, industries or z Sulphur droplets are good at scattering the
power stations and stored permanently
sun’s light back out into space and it does
underground.
not heat the stratosphere as much as other
Types of CO2 Sequestration:
aerosols.
z Terrestrial Carbon Sequestration: It
is the process through which CO2 from z Cirrus Clouds:The narrow bands of
the atmosphere is absorbed by trees and detached clouds or mostly white patches
plants through photosynthesis and stored with frail white filaments.These could
as carbon in soils and biomass (tree trunks, have a silky gloss or a fibrous (hair-like)
branches, foliage, and roots) appearance.
z Geologic Carbon Sequestration: CO2 can z Cirrus clouds are always composed of ice
be stored, including oil reservoirs, gas crystals, and their transparency depends on
reservoirs, unmineable coal seams, saline
how far the crystals are spaced apart.
formations and shale formations with high
organic content. z Generally, these clouds barely affect the
z Ocean Carbon Sequestration: Oceans brightness of the sun when they pass over
absorb, release and store large amounts of its disc. They might block its light and erase
CO2 from the atmosphere. its contour if they are particularly dense.

91. (d) Sub-Theme: Climate Change and Agriculture Engines can be calibrated to release lower
z
Option (d) is the correct answer: All statements amounts of NO.

about Climate Change and Agriculture are z Engines can run on HCNG with minimal
correct. modification.
z Total GHG Emissions: share of agriculture z Ideal fuel for heavy-duty vehicles and
applications with high loads..
in total emissions has gradually declined
from 28% in 1994 to 14% in 2016. z Better performance due to higher Octane
rating of H2.
z Emission Classification:
Statement 1 is incorrect: HCNG doesn’t
Agricultural emissions in India are eliminate but reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
primarily from the livestock sector Statement 2 is correct: It can be used in place
(54.6%) and the use of nitrogenous of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG
fertilizers (19%). and its combustion produces fewer undesirable
Rice cultivation in anaerobic conditions gases.
accounts for a major portion of Statement 3 is correct: The blending of hydrogen
agricultural emissions (17.5%). with CNG provides a blended gas termed as HCNG.
The single largest source of nitrous oxide Statement 4 is incorrect: Current cost of
(N2O) emissions is agricultural soils. Hydrogen is more than the cost of Natural Gas.
So, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.
z Air Pollution: As per the World Air Quality
Report, 2020, 22 of the 30 most polluted 93. (c) Sub-Theme: Environment (Protection) Act,
cities in the world are in India and Delhi 1986/ Central Ground Water Authority
is the world’s most polluted capital. Delhi Central Ground Water Authority:
suffers severely from air pollution during z Central Ground Water Authority has
the winter months due to stubble burning been constituted under Section 3 (3) of
in adjoining states. the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
to regulate and control development and
z The Sixth Assessment Report by the IPCC has
management of groundwater resources in
issued a “code red” to humanity declaring the country.
1.5°C warming of the planet as inevitable.
z Central Ground Water Authority takes
Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils are care of regulation and control, management
the largest single source of nitrous oxide (N2O) and development of groundwater in the
emissions. country and issues necessary regulatory
Statement 2 is correct: Cattle account for 80% directions for the purpose.
of the ammonia production. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
Statement 3 is correct: Poultry industry recorded z Enacted aftermath of Bhopal Gas
an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of Tragedy (1984) for protecting, improving
0.415 tonnes in 2016. environment & reducing pollution.
z Authorises the central government to
92. (b) Sub-Theme: Mitigating Vehicular Emissions control & reduce pollution from all sources.
Option (b) is the correct answer: Advantages z Provides procedures for setting standards
of use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as of emission or discharge of environmental
fuel. pollutants.
Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) 94. (b) Sub-Theme: Wildlife Protection Important
z A blended gas known as HCNG is produced Provisions of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
by mixing hydrogen with CNG. Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Wild Life
z Since it burns cleaner than propane (C3H8) (Protection) Act, 1972, every Wild Animal shall be
or LPG, it can be used in place of gasoline, the property of the State Government, and, where
diesel fuel, and those fuels. such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National
Advantages Park declared by the Central Government, such
animal or any animal article, trophy, uncured
z HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
trophy or meat [derived from such animal, or
z Enables up to 5 % savings in fuel. any vehicle, vessel, weapon, trap or tool used in
z First step towards the future Hydrogen such hunting] shall be the property of the Central
economy. Government.

Hunted animals are the sole property of the z The Act establishes NGT & it has jurisdiction
Government. over all civil cases involving substantial
Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the questions relating to the environment.
subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, z Provides for Enforcement of legal
1972, provides for equal protection for wild environmental rights, relief & compensation
animals irrespective of where they are found. It
for damages caused.
does not discriminate between animals found in
protected areas and outside. z Tribunal is guided by principles of natural
justice & its order is executable as a
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mere apprehension
or fear that a wild animal could endanger human decree of a civil court.
life is not a ground for capture or killing. As per z Although the NGT’s orders are final, they
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, only if the wild may be contested in the SC within 90 days.
animal becomes a danger to human life or is
z NGT has four regional benches in Pune,
deceased or disabled beyond recovery can it be
allowed to be captured or killed by the competent Bhopal, Chennai, and Kolkata in addition to
authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. its principal bench in New Delhi. Additionally,
a system for circuit benches is present.
95. (c) Sub-Theme: National efforts to protect
biodiversity/Laws and Legislations z The chairperson of the NGT is a retired
judge of The Supreme Court.
z In order to increase
Statement 1 is correct: The National Green
accountability for forest
The Indian protection, this act lays out Tribunal Act, 2010, draws inspiration from India’s
Forest Act, the steps that must be taken constitutional provision of (Constitution of India/
1927 when designating a region as Part III) Article 21 Protection of life and personal
a Reserved Forest, Protected liberty, which assures the citizens of India the
Forest, or Village Forest. right to a healthy environment.
z Import and export of GMOs or Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: These
Import
exotic species are prohibited statements have no relation to NGT.
and Export
whereas certain medicinal plants
(Control) Act, 97. (b) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture
are subjected to high customs
1947 Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative:

duties to regulate their trade.
z Mining activities, whether z The Sustainable Sugar Initiative (SSI) was
Mining and occurring within or near launched jointly by International Crops
Mineral Protected Areas, cause a range Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
Development of environmental; consequences (ICRISAT) and by ICRISAT and World Wide
(Regulation) that can be severe and Fund for Nature (WWF).
Act 1957 irreversible. Thus mining is
z Aims: Cultivating sugarcane mainly by
restricted in reserved areas.
changing the way the inputs and methods
z Import and export of GMOs or are used, such as less use of seeds ,less use
exotic species are prohibited of water, optimum utilization of fertilizers
Customs Act,
whereas certain medicinal plants
1962 and land, aims at reducing the input cost.
are subjected to high customs
duties to regulate their trade. Statement 1 is correct: It majorly aims at
reduction of the input cost compared to the
96. (a) Option (b) is the correct answer:National-
Green Tribunal (NGT) Act , 2010 was conventional method of cultivation. Hence,
enacted for ensuring a healthy environment, statement 1 is correct.
construed as a part of Right to life under Statements 2 and 4 are correct: SSI provides
Article 21. ample scope for intercropping and the drip
National-Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010 irrigation method.
z Objective: For efficient & quick resolution Statement 3 is incorrect: There is an application
of environmental disputes (within 6 months of both Inorganic and organic fertilizers such
of appeal); To lessen the burden of litigation as Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium (NPK)
in the higher courts. fertilizers.

NOTE: here, the topic in question is the World Heritage Convention:
“Sustainable” Sugarcane Initiative (SSI). z Convention Concerning the Protection of
Statement 2 talks about Drip-irrigation the World Cultural and Natural Heritage by
which is sustainable irrigation practice, UNESCO
that complies and is in conformity with z Primary mission: to identify and protect
SSI. Statement 1 talks about low input cost the world’s natural and cultural heritage
which is also in confirmation of sustainable considered to be of Outstanding Universal
practices. However, statement 3 endorses Value.
that “there is no application of chemical/ z India is a signatory to the convention and
inorganic fertilizers at all” which sounds has 40 world heritage sites, which include
extreme. So statement 3 can be eliminated 32 cultural, 7 natural and one mixed property.
to get the correct answer. It acknowledges how people interact with
nature and the critical necessity to maintain
98. (d) Sub-Theme: International efforts to protect
their delicate equilibrium.
biodiversity/Laws and Legislations
z All the three agreements have a bearing on NOTE: Question on the same theme earlier
biodiversity. has been asked in 2011 i.e provisions bearing
on biodiversity. It is advisable to go through
International Treaty on Plant Genetic
provisions of the Indian constitution bearing
Resources for Food and Agriculture upon the environment and its conservation.
Adopted by the 31st session of the Conference of
the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of 99. (c) Sub-Theme: UNEP/ Major Programmes of the
the United Nations on 3rd November 2001. UNEP
It is also known as the Seed Treaty. India is a Earth Hour:
signatory to the treaty. z Earth Hour is a global movement for
Objectives: environmental conservation, started by
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
z Recognising Farmers’ Contribution
in 2007.
z Access and Benefit Sharing z It is a yearly occurrence that happens on
z Sustainability the last Saturday in March. In more than
United Nations Convention to Combat 180 nations and territories, millions of people
Desertification (UNCCD): take part in it by turning down their lights.
z Established in 1994. z Aim: It aims to call attention to global
z It is the sole legally binding international warming, loss of biodiversity, and climate
change.
agreement linking environment and
development to sustainable land z As a global solidarity, people turn off their
management. lights for one hour during Earth Hour.
z Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through Significance: The urgent need to address
global climate change is highlighted in this
partnerships, to implement the Convention
hour. Additionally, it raises public awareness of
and achieve the Sustainable Development
environmental issues.
Goals. The end goal is to protect land from
Statement 1 is incorrect: Earth Hour is a global
overuse and drought, so it can continue to
movement for environmental conservation,
provide food, water and energy.
started by the World Wide Fund for Nature
z Only convention stemming from a direct (WWF) in 2007.
recommendation of the Rio Conference’s
Statement 2 is correct: It is an annual event that
Agenda 21. takes place on the last Saturday of March. Millions
z It is called the Rio Convention along with of people in over 180 countries and territories
its sister conventions: participate in it by turning off their lights.
1. United Nations Framework Convention Statement 3 is correct: It showcases the need to
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) take action on the pressing issue of global climate
2. UN Convention on Biological Diversity change. Further, it promotes awareness about
(UNCBD) environmental issues on a public platform.

100. (a) Sub-Theme: Wetland Conservation z Wetlands International works through
Option (a) is the correct answer: ‘Montreux partnerships and is supported by
Record’ is a register of wetlands on the List of contributions from an extensive specialist
Wetlands of International Importance where expert network and tens of thousands of
ecological character changes have occurred, volunteers.
are occurring, or are anticipated to occur due z It was founded in 1937 as the International
to technological advancements, pollution, or
Wildfowl Inquiry and the organization was
other human influence.
focused on the protection of waterbirds.
Wetlands:
Later, the name became International
z The convention uses a broad definition that Waterfowl & Wetlands Research Bureau
encompasses all marsh, fen, peatland, and
(IWRB).
water areas, whether they are man-made
or natural, permanent or temporary, with z The scope became wider; besides
static or flowing fresh, brackish, or salt waterbirds, the organization was also
water, including marine areas whose depth working on the protection of wetland areas.
at low tide is less than six metres. z Later, organizations with similar objectives
z World Wetland Day - 2nd February emerged in Asia and the Americas: the
z Presently, India stands first in South Asia Asian Wetland Bureau (AWB) (initiated as
and third in Asia in terms of number of INTERWADER in 1983) and Wetlands for
designated sites. the Americas (WA) (initiated in 1989). In
Ramsar Convention: 1991, the three organizations started to
z It is an international agreement between work closely together.
nations aimed at “the conservation and z In 1995, the working relationship
sustainable use of wetlands.” developed into the global organization
z The Convention on Wetlands is another Wetlands International.
name for it. It is named after the Iranian
city of Ramsar. Statement 1 is incorrect: Wetlands International
z India signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971 is an independent, not-for-profit, global
organization, supported by government and
z It is the only international treaty that
addresses a specific ecosystem (wetland.) NGO members from around the world.
Ramsar Convention is not a regulatory regime. Statement 2 is correct: Wetlands International
does work at the field level to develop and
NOTE: This is a straightforward question
mobilise knowledge and use the practical
from Montreux Record under Ramsar
experience to advocate for better policies.
Convention. Also, these are high yielding
topics and to attempt this type of question NOTE: These are high yielding topics and
aspirants are requested to go through all to attempt this type of question aspirants
the National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuary/ are requested to go through all the National
Biosphere Reserve/Wetlands including their Parks/Wildlife Sanctuary/Biosphere Reserve/
locations (map), and geographical features, Wetlands including their locations (map),
important flora and fauna if any. geographical features, important flora and
101. (b) Sub-Theme: Wetland Conservations fauna if any.
Wetlands International: 102. (a) Sub-Theme: Wetland Conservation/Map Based
z It is a global organisation that works to Harike Wetland
sustain and restore wetlands and their z Harike Wetland also is the largest wetland
resources for people and biodiversity. in northern India on the border of Tarn
z It is an independent, not-for-profit, global Taran Sahib district and Ferozepur district
organization, supported by government of Punjab.
and NGO members from around the world.
z The wetland and the lake were formed
z Wetlands International’s work ranges from
research and community-based field by constructing the headworks across the
projects to advocacy and engagement Sutlej River in 1953, located downstream
with governments, corporate and of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej
international policy fora and conventions. rivers just south of Harike village.

Keoladeo National Park z It was the first treaty to achieve universal
z The Keoladeo National Park or Keoladeo ratification.
Ghana National Park is formerly known z The protocol recognizes that all nations
as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary is in the should not be treated equally.
Bharatpur District of Rajasthan.
Option (a) is incorrect: Bretton Woods
z It is situated at the confluence of the Conference established the International Bank
Gambhira and the Banganga rivers. for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and
Kolleru Lake the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
z It is the largest freshwater lake in Andhra Option (b) is correct: Montreal Protocol is a
Pradesh, India protocol to the Vienna Convention and it deals
z It is located between Krishna and Godavari with the substances that deplete the Ozone Layer
deltas. (ozone-depleting substance-ODS).
z It spans two districts of Andhra Pradesh- Option (c) is incorrect: Kyoto Protocol deals
Krishna and West Godavari. with the reduction of Greenhouse gas.
Pair 1 is correct: The Harike Wetland is located Option (d) is incorrect: Nagoya Protocol
downstream of the confluence of the Beas and is a supplementary agreement to the 1992
Sutlej rivers just south of Harike village. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) on
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Keoladeo National Park “Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and
is situated at the confluence of the Gambhira and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their
the Banganga rivers. Utilization”.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Kolleru Lake is located 105. (a) Sub-Theme: Major Environment Conventions,
between Krishna and Godavari deltas. Conference, etc.
103. (a) Sub-Theme: Climate Change Organization/ z Rio+20 is the short name for the United
Global Environmental Facility Nations Conference on Sustainable
Option (a) is the correct answer: The GEF serves Development which took place in Rio de
as financial mechanism for the following Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012, twenty years
Conventions: after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit in
z Stockholm Rio.
z UN-FCCC z At the Rio+20 Conference, world leaders,
along with thousands of participants from
z UN-CBD
the private sector, NGOs and other groups,
z UN-CCD
came together to shape how we can reduce
z Montreal Protocol poverty, advance social equity and ensure
z Minamata Convention environmental protection on an ever more
z GEF crowded planet.
GLOBAL ENVIRONMENT FACILITY (GEF) z The official discussions focussed on two
z GEF was established on the eve of the main themes:
1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle 1. How to build a green economy to achieve
environmental issues. sustainable development and lift people
z Located in: Washington D.C., United States out of poverty; and
z Parties: 184. 2. How to improve international
z The GEF is jointly operated by the United coordination for sustainable
Nations Development Programme (UNDP), development.
World Bank, & United Nations Environment 106. (c) Sub-Theme: Genetically Modified Crops
Programme (UNEP).
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
104. (b) Sub-Theme: Convention for the Protection of z The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
the Ozone Layer Committee was constituted under the
Montreal Protocol Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
z It is a protocol to the Vienna Convention and z The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
it deals with the substances that deplete the Committee (GEAC) functions under the
Ozone Layer (ozone-depleting substance- Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
ODS). Change (MoEF&CC).

z It is responsible for the appraisal of activities NOTE: Following basic information about COP21
involving large-scale use of hazardous from any newspaper/monthly magazine was enough
microorganisms and recombinants in
to solve this rather difficult question. Observe
research and industrial production from the
statement 3 carefully, the examiner has just made his
environmental angle.
efforts to mention “USD100Bn as USD1000Bn” to
z The committee is also responsible for the make the statement incorrect and confuse aspirants.
appraisal of proposals relating to the release If we eliminate option 3, we get the correct answer
of genetically engineered (GE) organisms
i.e. only 2.
and products into the environment including
z Itn 2017, UPSC asked question about the spread of
experimental field trials.
the Himalayas, Western Ghats and Pulicat lake
z GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/ with the similar trick of changing/interchanging
Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and numbers.
co-chaired by a representative from the
z In 2016, UPSC asked question on “Astrosat” with the
Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
similar trick of changing/interchanging numbers.
NOTE: There are recurrent and repeated z The key takeaway from the above question is to read
questions on “Genetic Engineering” numbers very carefully and cautiously.
either in science-tech or environment. It is
advisable to prepare this topic thoroughly 108. (b) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Development Goals
and holistically. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
107. (b) Sub-Theme: Summits and Conventions are a collection of 17 global goals designed
to be a “blueprint to achieve a better and more
Statement 1 is incorrect: It was only “agreed”
sustainable future for all”
by 195 nations in Paris at the conference. The
agreement will enter into force only after 55 The SDGs are a part of UN Resolution 70/1, the
countries that account for at least 55% of global 2030 Agenda, which was adopted by the United
emissions have deposited their instruments of Nations General Assembly in 2015.
ratification. They are known as “Transforming our
Statement 2 is correct: Paris Summit COP21 world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development” in official documents.
aims to limit global warming to well below 2,
preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1972, the Club of
to pre-industrial levels. It requires all parties Rome’s first major Report, ‘The Limits to Growth’
to put forward their Nationally Determined was published.
Contributions (NDCs) which are voluntary in Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, the United
nature. Nations General Assembly approved 17 goals
with 169 associated targets. They became
Statement 3 is incorrect: Developed countries
effective from 1/1/2016 and were to be achieved
will work to define a clear roadmap on ratcheting
by 2030.
up climate finance to USD 100 billion (not USD
1000 billion) by 2020. 109. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Conventions
Paris Summit COP21: UNITED NATIONS CONVENTION TO COMBAT
DESERTIFICATION (UNCCD):
z Legally binding International Treaty on
Climate Change. z Established in 1994.
z It is the sole legally binding international
z It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in
agreement linking environment and
Paris, on 12 December 2015 & entered into
development to sustainable land
force on 4 November 2016.
management.
z Aim: to limit global warming to well below 2,
z Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through
preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared partnerships, to implement the Convention
to pre-industrial levels. and achieve the Sustainable Development
z It requires all parties to put forward their Goals. The end goal is to protect land from
Nationally Determined Contributions over-use and drought, so it can continue to
(NDCs) which are voluntary in nature. provide food, water and energy.

Statement 1 is correct: Its 197 Parties 111. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Conventions/
aim, through partnerships, to implement Environmental Policies and Initiatives
the Convention and achieve the Sustainable The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity
Development Goals. The end goal is to protect the (TEEB)
land from overuse and drought, so it can continue z Launched by Germany and the European
to provide food, water and energy. Commission in 2007
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Convention z Study led by Pavan Sukhdev
addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry z It is a global effort to raise awareness of the
sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where economic advantages of biodiversity.
some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and z Objective: To raise attention to the rising
peoples can be found. costs associated with biodiversity loss
Statement 3 is correct: The UNCCD is particularly and ecosystem degradation and to bring
together experts in science, economics, and
committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging
policy to facilitate actionable solutions.
the participation of local people in combating
desertification and land degradation. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an international
initiative, launched by Germany and the
110. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Conventions European Commission.
Classification of Parties and their commitments
Statement 2 is correct: It is an international
under Kyoto Protocol:
initiative to draw attention to the global economic
Developed countries [US, UK, Russia benefits of biodiversity.
etc.] + Economies in transition (EIT) Statement 3 is correct: Its objective is to
Annex I
[Ukraine, Turkey, some eastern highlight the growing cost of biodiversity loss
European countries etc.] and ecosystem degradation and to draw together
Developed countries (Annex II is a expertise from the fields of science, economics
subset of Annex I). and policy to enable practical actions.
Required to provide financial and 112. (d) Sub-Theme: Environmental Conventions/
Annex II technical support to the EITs and Environmental Policies and Initiatives
developing countries to assist them
The UN-REDD Programme has identified the
in reducing their greenhouse gas
following three topics for supporting national
emissions.
REDD+ governance structures:
Annex I Parties with first or second- z Country-led multi-stakeholder governance
round Kyoto greenhouse gas emissions assessments that contribute to the
targets. development and implementation of
The first-round targets apply over national REDD+ strategies (for tackling
Annex B the years 2008–2012 and the second- forest degradation and biodiversity loss) and
round Kyoto targets, apply from 2013 nationally owned monitoring frameworks
to 2020. z Social standards, including poverty and
Compulsory binding targets to reduce gender.
GHG emissions.
z Land and/or carbon tenure and the role of
Parties to the UNFCCC are not listed REDD+ within national land use strategies
in Annex I of the Convention (mostly UN REDD+
Non-Annex I low-income developing countries).
z Reducing Emissions from Deforestation
No binding targets to reduce GHG
and Forest Degradation (REDD+) is a
emissions.
mechanism developed by Parties of the
Least-developed countries UNFCCC.
LDCs No binding targets to reduce GHG z In order to provide incentives for developing
emissions. countries to cut emissions from forested
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect: Terms in these lands and invest in low-carbon paths, it sets
options are associated with the Kyoto Protocol. a financial value for the carbon contained
Option 3 is correct: Clean Development in forests.
Mechanism is associated with the Kyoto z For activities based on results, the developing
Protocol. countries will be compensated.

The REDD+ goes beyond simply deforestation Statement 1 is correct: Agenda 21 is a non-
and forest degradation by including the role binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of
of conservation, sustainable management of the United Nations with regard to sustainable
forests and enhancement of forest carbon development.
stocks. Statement 2 is incorrect: Clearly, it is a
product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on
113. (a) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Development Goals Environment and Development) held in Rio de
Rio Declaration on Environment and Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
Development: 114. (a) Sub-Theme: Environmental Laws
z The Rio Declaration consisted of Schedule I covers endangered species that need
27 principles intended to guide countries rigorous protection. The species are granted
in future sustainable development. It was protection from poaching, killing, trading etc.
signed by over 175 countries. It enjoys the same level of protection as the
Bengal tiger.
Agenda 21:
z It is a non-binding action plan sourced Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
from Rio Earth Summit, 1992. z The Act was passed in order to safeguard
various plant and animal species.
z The number “21” refers to an agenda for
z Except for the State of Jammu & Kashmir, it
the 21st century.
covers the entirety of India.
z Objective: to achieve Global sustainable z Prior to this legislation, India had only five
development. designated national parks.
z Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals z At present, there are 101 National Parks in
are included in the Agenda 2030. India.
115. (d) Sub-Theme: Environmental Laws
Option (d) is the correct answer: All are Scheduled I species.
"Schedules and Species under the Act"
Schedules Parameters Species
z It covers endangered species that need rigorous The Black Buck; Bengal Tiger; Clouded
protection. The species are granted protection Leopard; Snow Leopard; Swamp Deer;
from poaching, killing, trading etc. Himalayan Bear; Asiatic Cheetah;
z A person is liable to the harshest penalties for Kashmiri Stag; Fishing Cat; Lion-tailed
violation of the law under this Schedule. Macaque; Musk Deer; Rhinoceros;
Schedule I
z Species under this Schedule are prohibited Brow Antlered Deer; Wild Buffalo;
to be hunted throughout India, except under Chinkara (Indian Gazelle); Capped
threat to human life or in case of a disease that Langur; Golden Langur; Hoolock
is beyond recovery. Gibbon; Gharials; Dugong; Great
Indian Bustard; Indian Wild Ass; etc.
z Animals under this list are also accorded high Assamese Macaque, Pig Tailed
protection with the prohibition on their trade. Macaque, Stump Tailed Macaque,
z They cannot be hunted except under threat Bengal Hanuman langur, Himalayan
Schedule II to human life or if they are suffering from a Black Bear, Himalayan Newt/
disease/ disorder that goes beyond recovery. Salamander, Jackal, Flying Squirrel,
Giant Squirrel, Sperm Whale, Indian
Cobra, King Cobra
z Species that are not endangered are included Chital (spotted
under Schedule III and IV.
deer), Bharal (blue
z This includes protected species with hunting Schedule III sheep), Hyena, Nilgai,
prohibited but the penalty for any violation is
Sambhar (deer),
less compared to the first two schedule.
Schedule III & IV Sponges
z These animals can be hunted.
Flamingo, Hares,
Falcons, Kingfishers,
Schedule IV
Magpie, Horseshoes
Crabs

z This schedule contains animals that are Common Crows, Fruit Bats, Rats,
Schedule V considered as vermin (small wild animals that Mice
carry disease and destroy plants and food).
z It provides for regulation in cultivation of a Beddomes’ cycad (Native to India),
specified plant and restricts its possession, Blue Vanda (Blue Orchid), Red Vanda
sale and transportation. (Red Orchid), Kuth (Saussurea lappa),
Schedule VI z Both cultivation and trade of specified plants Slipper orchids (Paphiopedilum spp.),
can only be carried out with prior permission Pitcher plant (Nepenthes khasiana)
of competent authority.
116. (b) Sub-Theme: Environmental Laws z The vision is to improve food security,
NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL (NGT) ACT, 2010 nutrition and resilience in the face of climate
change.
z Objective: For effective & expeditious
disposal (within 6 months of appeal) of the z GACSA aims to catalyze and help create
environmental cases and to help reduce the transformational partnerships to encourage
burden of litigation in the higher courts. actions that reflect an integrated approach
to the three pillars of CSA.
z Establishes NGT, which has jurisdiction
over all civil disputes addressing important Statement 1 is incorrect: the concept of Climate-
environmental issues. Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed
z Provides for Enforcement of legal by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague
environmental rights, relief & compensation Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and
for damages caused. Climate Change in 2010, through the paper
z The tribunal’s decision is enforceable as a “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices
civil court judgement and is governed by and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and
natural justice principles. Mitigation”. In 2014 an alliance was set up with
this issue as its focal point: the GASCA (Global
CENTRAL POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD

Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture).
(CPCB):
z The Water (Prevention and Control of Statement 2 is correct: Membership in the
Pollution) Act of 1974 authorised the Alliance does not create any binding obligations
establishment of the CPCB as a statutory and each member individually determines the
body. nature of its participation.
z It is also entrusted with the powers & Statement 3 is incorrect: India is just a signatory
functions under the Air (prevention and and had no instrumental role in the creation of
control of pollution) Act, 1981. GACSA.
z It works under the Ministry of Environment, 118. (c) Sub-Theme: E-Waste Management
Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Option (c) is the correct answer: Laws to
Statement 1 is incorrect: Both the NGT and manage e-waste have been in place in India since
CPCB were established by an Act – NGT Act, 2010 2011 under The e-Waste (Management and
and Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Handling) Rules, 2011, which was amended in
Act, 1974. Respectively. 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016
Statement 2 is correct: The objective of NGT is to recognises producers’ liability for recycling and
provide effective & expeditious disposal (within reducing e-waste in the country.
6 months of appeal) of the environmental cases Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
and to help reduce the burden of litigation in the
z It is a policy approach under which
higher courts.
producers are given a significant
117. (b) Sub-Theme: Sustainable Agriculture responsibility – financial and/or physical–
Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture for the treatment or disposal of post-
(GACSA) consumer products.
z GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and z The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
action-oriented multi-stakeholder has been given the Extended Producer
platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under
(CSA). the new e-waste rules.

119. (a) Sub-Theme: Environmental Policies and Statement 1 is incorrect: Environment
Initiatives (Protection) Act, 1986 doesn’t contain any
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (Campa provision related to public participation.
Act), 2016 Statement 2 is correct: Clearly, the Central
z Objective: To provide an appropriate Government lays down the standards for emission
institutional mechanism to utilize or discharge of environmental pollutants from
afforestation funds. various sources
z Sets up the Central and State
121. (c) Sub-Theme: Solid Waste Management
Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management & Planning Authorities Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
(CAMPA). z Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
z It creates a State Compensatory Afforestation promote the use of compost, conversion of
Fund under the Public Account of every waste into energy, and revision of parameters
state, as well as a National Compensatory for landfills location and capacity.
Afforestation Fund under the Public Account z It replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes
of India.
(Management and Handling) Rules, 2000,
z National Fund receives 10% & State Fund are now applicable beyond municipal areas
gets 90% of funds collected.
and have included urban agglomerations,
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Act, the census towns, notified industrial townships etc.
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management z Emphasis should be placed on waste
and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at
segregation at the source, manufacturer
both central and state levels for expeditious
and transparent utilisation of funds released for responsibility for packaging and sanitary
forest land diverted for non-forest purposes. waste disposal, and user fees for collection,
processing, and disposal from the bulk
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such generator.
provision in the act, also the term “participation”
does not occur in the said Act. z It has also been advised that the bio-
degradable waste should be processed,
120. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Laws
treated and disposed of through composting
ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT, 1986 or bio-methanation within the premises as
z Objective: To protect, improve the far as possible and the residual waste shall
environment & reduce pollution. be given to the waste collectors or agency
z Enacted aftermath of Bhopal Gas Tragedy as directed by the local authority.
(1984).
122. (a) Sub-Theme: Environmental Laws
z The Act, empowers the Government of India
for: Option (a) is the correct answer: The Wildlife
Coordination of action by the state,
Protection Act, 1972 has six schedules.
Schedule VI has following provisions:
Planning and execution of nationwide
programmes, z No person is allowed to cultivate a specified
Authorises the central government to
plant mentioned in schedule 6, except with
control & reduce pollution from all a licence granted by the Chief WildLife
sources. Warden.
Laying down environmental z The plant mentioned in the sixth schedule:
quality standards, especially those Beddomes Cycad
governing emission or discharge of Blue Vanda
environmental pollutants,
Kuth
Placing restrictions on the location of
Ladies slipper orchids
industries and so on.
Authority to issue direct orders included Pitcher plant
orders to close, prohibit or regulate any Red Vanda

industry.
Power of entry for examination, testing
NOTE: In 2017 a similar question came from
of equipment and other purposes and the same topic, therefore, please refer to
power to analyse the sample of air, the solution of that question for a detailed
water, soil or any other substance from explanation of Schedules under the Wildlife
any place. Protection Act, 1972.

123. (d) Sub-Theme: Government Policies NOTE: There was news on PMGSY
Steel Slag new technology guidelines, where the
government encourages the use of “Green
z Steel slag, a by-product of steel making,
Technologies” and non-conventional
is produced during the separation of the materials for constructing rural roads
molten steel from impurities in steel-making under Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
furnaces. (PMGSY). Therefore, thorough newspaper
z The slag occurs as a molten liquid melt reading is very crucial both in terms of UPSC
and is a complex solution of silicates and Pre and Mains.
oxides that solidifies upon cooling. 125. (b) Sub-Theme: Environmental Organizations and
Institutions in India.
Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Steel slag is used
Statement 1 is incorrect: Animal Welfare Board
as a base course material, the material under the of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of
surface layer of an asphalt road, track or surface. the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Also produce portland slag cement. Statement 2 is correct: National Tiger
Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag can be used Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory
in the agricultural sector due to its ability to body under the Ministry of Environment,
Forests and Climate Change.
correct soil acidity. In fact, developed countries
like Japan, the USA have taken the lead in making Statement 3 is correct: The National Ganga
Council (Earlier National Ganga River Basin
fertilisers using steel-making slag.
Authority) is chaired by the Prime Minister.
NOTE: In Nov, 2019 the Ministry of Steel The National Ganga Council was established in
issued a new Steel Scrap Recycling Policy, accordance with the Environment (Protection)
hence, the question featured and underlines Act, 1986. The National Ganga River Basin
Authority was replaced (NGRBA). It is in charge
the importance of reading the daily
of overseeing the restoration of the River Ganga
newspaper. Basin, including Ganga and its tributaries, and
124. (a) Sub-Theme: Green Technologies the prevention of pollution.
Statement 1 is correct: Copper slag is a by- Animal Welfare Board of India
product obtained during smelting and refining z It is a statutory body advisory in nature on
Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal
of copper. The use of copper slag in cement and
welfare in the country.
concrete provides potential environmental as z Founded in 1962 in accordance with Section
well as economic benefits. 4 of the 1960 Prevention of Cruelty to
Statement 2 is correct: Cold mix asphalt is Animals Act.
z Under leadership of Rukmini Devi Arundale,
produced by mixing unheated mineral aggregate
the Animal Welfare Board of India was
with either emulsified bitumen or foamed established, who was a well-known
bitumen. It is suitable for light to medium Bharatnatyam dancer and humanitarian
trafficked roads when used in base and surface Rukmini Devi Arundale.
courses. z The 28 members of the Board each have a
three-year term.
Statement 3 is correct: Government has allowed z Grants are given to organisations that
the use of coir based geotextiles for construction endeavour to ensure that the nation’s animal
of rural roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram welfare rules are observed.
Sadak Yojana in 2020. National Tiger Conservation Authority
z National Tiger Conservation Authority
Statement 4 is incorrect: Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA)
(NTCA) is a statutory organisation created
is a combination of approximately 95% stone, under the Ministry of Environment, Forests,
sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, and Climate Change.
a product of crude oil. The wide use of hot mix z The Tiger Task Force’s proposals led to its
technology leads to environmental pollution as establishment in 2005.
these plants emit a huge amount of greenhouse z It was established in accordance with the
gases. authorities and duties given to it by the
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, as
Statement 5 is incorrect: Portland cement is a modified, under the enabling provisions of
major CO2 emitter. that Act.

126. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Conservation Organizations Statement 1 is correct: BirdLife International
Statement 1 is incorrect: BNHS is one of the is a global partnership of conservation
largest non-governmental organisations in organisations that strives to conserve birds,
India engaged in conservation and biodiversity their habitats, and global biodiversity, working
research. with people towards sustainability in the use of
natural resources.
Statement 2 is correct: It supports many
research efforts through grants and publishes Statement 2 is incorrect: The idea of Biodiversity
the Journal of the Bombay Natural History Hotspots was first put forward by Norman
Society. It has been classified as a “Scientific Myers in 1988.
and Industrial Research Organization” by the
Statement 3 is correct: It identifies the sites
Department of Science and Technology.
known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and
Statement 3 is correct: It organises and conducts Biodiversity Areas’.
nature trails and camps for the general public.
128. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Conventions
BNHS
Statement 1 is incorrect: IUCN is an NGO,
z BNHS is one of the biggest non-
founded in October 1948 as the International
governmental groups working on
Union for the Protection of Nature (or IUPN)
biodiversity and conservation.
following an international conference in
z It was established on September 15, 1883,
Fontainebleau, France. Later the name was
and has its headquarters in Mumbai’s
changed to International Union for Conservation
Hornbill House.
of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). CITES
z It funds numerous research projects, and it
on the other hand is an intergovernmental
also puts out the Bombay Natural History
treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United
Society Journal.
Nations Environment Programme.
z For the general public, it plans and runs
environmental hikes and camps. Statement 2 is correct: IUCN supports scientific
z It has been classified as a “Scientific and research, manages field projects globally
Industrial Research Organization” by the and brings governments, non-government
Department of Science and Technology. organisations, United Nations agencies,
z The great hornbill serves as the BNHS’s companies and local communities together to
emblem. develop and implement policy.
z The Internet of Birds platform, created Statement 3 is correct: CITES is legally binding
by IT consulting company Accenture and but does not take the place of national laws.
the Bombay Natural History Society, uses
Artificial Intelligence (AI) tools like machine NOTE: Only knowing the names of UN
learning and computer vision to identify specialised agencies is enough for solving
bird species found in India from digital this question. With this knowledge, we can
photographs that are uploaded. eliminate option 1 and get the correct
answer. Most of the time the examiner
127. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Conservation Organizations connects two different statements in which
BirdLife International one is correct and the other is incorrect. It
z BirdLife International is an international is advisable to ascertain the correctness of
alliance of conservation groups that works both connected statements and don’t rush
to protect birds, their habitats, and the after only reading a partial statement.
world’s biodiversity while collaborating 129. (a) Sub-Theme: Global Climate Finance Architecture
with people to ensure the sustainable use
Green Climate Fund (GCF)
of natural resources.
z It is a UNFCCC financial tool.
z With more than 120 partner groups, it is
the largest cooperation of conservation z Through the idea of country ownership, GCF
organisations in the world. initiatives are in line with the interests of
z The IUCN’s designated Red List Authority developing nations.
for birds is BirdLife International. z It aims to contribute significantly to the
z It lists the locations that are designated as worldwide community’s mitigation and
“Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.” adaptation efforts to combat climate change.

Statement 1 is correct: Green Climate Fund 131. (a) Sub-Theme: Global Climate Finance Architecture
aims to make an ambitious contribution to Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA)
attaining the mitigation and adaptation goals of
z The GCCA operates through the existing
the international community to counter climate
national and international channels for
change.
political cooperation and dialogue set up
Statement 2 is incorrect: GCF was discussed in by the European Commission.
Cancun Summit 2010 of UNFCCC and finally
z By becoming the main project of the Global
adopted in Durban Summit 2011.
Climate Change Alliance Plus (GCCA+),
130. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Organizations GCCA entered a new phase in 2015.
z Globally Important Agricultural Heritage z This new phase is marked by new features
System (GIAHS) and a strategic focus on promoting the
z Outstanding landscapes of aesthetic 2015 Paris Agreement on Climate
beauty constitute “Globally Important Change, the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Agricultural Heritage Systems” that Development, and its Sustainable
mix resilient ecosystems, agricultural Development Goals.
biodiversity, and priceless cultural legacy. z Statement 1 is correct: The Global Climate
z The FAO established the Globally Important Change Alliance (GCCA) is an initiative of
Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) the European Union.
programme to protect and promote the
Statement 2 is correct: It was launched to
world’s agricultural heritage systems.
strengthen dialogue and cooperation on climate
Statement 1 is incorrect: Globally Important change between the European Union (EU) and
Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) was developing countries most vulnerable to climate
started by the FAO to safeguard and support the change, in particular, Least Developed Countries
world’s agricultural heritage systems. (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS),
Statement 2 is correct: The initiative intends which are hardest hit by the adverse effects of
to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and climate change.
environmental goods and services of these
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no mention
heritage systems.
of WRI and WBCSD on the official page of GCCA,
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such even though a lot of other institutions are
provision. GI is accorded to products from a mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc.
certain origin (e.g. Hyderabadi Biryani) and not
132. (b) Sub-Theme: Global Climate Finance Architecture
to all traditional agricultural systems.
z Three sites recognised as GIAHS in India: Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC):
1. Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming z The Climate and Clean Air Coalition is
System of Kerala. a voluntary alliance of governments,
2. Koraput Traditional Agriculture of intergovernmental organisations,
Odisha. corporations, academic institutions, and
3. Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir. organisations from civil society dedicated
to enhancing air quality and defending
NOTE: The central theme of the question the environment by taking steps to reduce
is “Heritage System”. Statement 1 talks short-lived climate pollutants.
about “modern technology, training in Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations
modern farming” which is in contradiction
Environment Programme (UNEP), the
to the given question, so this can be marked
governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana,
as incorrect. Statement 3 is also incorrect
as FAO has no role in accordance with Mexico, Sweden, and the United States joined
GI status. In India, GI status is governed forces in 2012 to launch initiatives to handle
by the Geographical Indications of Goods short-lived climate pollutants as an urgent and
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 collective concern.
(GI Act) in India. Geographical Indications Statement 2 is correct: Short-Lived Climate
protection is granted through the TRIPS Pollutants include black carbon, methane,
Agreement. tropospheric ozone, and hydro-fluorocarbons.

NOTE: UPSC usually puts such “about us” the Rio+20 Declaration, The Future We Want i.e.
page questions not with the primary desire The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
of getting correct answers from the aspirants, Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. PAGE serves
but rather to eliminate candidates. Now with as a framework to coordinate UN efforts in the
a calm and composed mind we can make green economy and to help nations meet and
some intelligent guesses to reach the correct track the upcoming Sustainable Development
answer. Though it’s a bit risky but still if Goals, particularly SDG 8: Promote sustained,
we consider ‘unique’ as an extreme word inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full
with G20 then the first statement becomes and productive employment, and decent work
wrong. And the second statement looks like for everyone.
a factual one with no extreme word like PAGE brings together the experts from five UN
‘only’, not all but in most cases such type of agencies:
question ought to be right. Please use due
z United Nations Environment Programme
diligence while attempting this method.
(UNEP or UN Environment),
133. (b) Sub-Theme: Conservation Agencies/Schemes
z United Nations Development Programme
/Initiatives
(UNDP),
Statement 1 is incorrect: The TRAFFIC, the z International Labour Organization (ILO),
Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a non-
z United Nations Industrial Development
governmental organisation which works Organization (UNIDO), and
to monitor the wildlife trade in the context of
z United Nations Institute for Training and
both biodiversity conservation and sustainable
Research (UNITAR).
development. Headquarters: Cambridge, United
Kingdom. The World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and NOTE: UPSC has repeatedly asked such
the International Union for Conservation of questions directly from the website of
Nature collaborate on this programme (IUCN). various Environmental Organization’s ‘About
Statement 2 is correct: It is working globally Us’ pages. This highlights the importance of
basic knowledge of various environmental
on the Wildlife trade monitoring network. It
organisations, at least the major ones.
specialises in investigating and analysing wildlife
trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to 135. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Organizations
provide the leading knowledge base on trade in Option (c) is correct: The Climate Neutral
wild animals and plants. Now programme, created by the UNFCCC
TRAFFIC and India: secretariat in 2015, aims to encourage and
z Since 1991, TRAFFIC has functioned as a support a climate-neutral world by the
Programme Division of WWF-India, with middle of the century, as outlined in the Paris
headquarters in New Delhi. Agreement approved the same year. In order
z Since then, it has collaborated closely with to achieve climate neutrality, the effort calls on
the federal, state, and local governments businesses, organisations, governments, and
as well as a number of organisations to individuals to reduce their climate footprint using
research, track, and influence action to stop a straightforward three-step process:
the illicit wildlife trafficking. 1. Measure their greenhouse gas emissions;
2. Reduce them as much as possible;
NOTE: Conservation agencies/schemes/
initiatives esp. WWF is the favourite topic of 3. Compensate those which cannot be avoided
UPSC, one example being Earth hour asked by using UN certified emission reductions
in PYQ. Hence, try to cover WWF, TRAFFIC (CERs).
and related websites comprehensively to 136. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Organization/
answer such questions. Reading Shankar Groundwater
will help you to solve this question without
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA):
much trouble.
z It was established in accordance with Section
134. (b) Sub-Theme: Major Environmental Organizations 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act
and their mechanism of 1986 to oversee the management and
Option (b) is correct: Partnership for Action on development of the nation’s groundwater
Green Economy (PAGE) is a direct response to resources.

S t a te m e n t 1 i s i n co r re c t : 2 5 6 o f o u r
z Melaghar, Tripura
approximately 700 districts have groundwater
levels which are “critical” or “over-exploited” as z A lowland sedimentation
per the latest data from the Central Ground Water reservoir in the northeastern
Lake Rudijala/
Board (2017). highlands that receives water
Rudrasagar Lake
Statement 2 is correct: Central Ground Water from three enduring streams
Authority (CGWA) constituted under Section 3(3) that empty into the River
of ‘The Environment (Protection) Act, (1986)’ Gomti.
regulates the extraction of groundwater through z Kollam district, Kerala
guidelines which are updated regularly.
z Being Kerala’s largest
Statement 3 is correct: FAO research paper Sasthamkotta freshwater lake, it has long
shows the countries with the largest extent of
been a popular destination
areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater,
in absolute terms, are India (39 million ha), for travellers.
China (19 million ha) and the USA (17 million ha). 139. (d) Sub-Theme: Wetland Conservation
137. (c) Sub-Theme: Miyawaki Method of Urban Option (d) is the correct answer: Natural
Afforestation wetlands have often been referred to as “earth’s
Option (c) is the correct answer: Miyawaki kidneys” because of their high and long-term
method is a method of urban afforestation by capacity to filter pollutants from the water that
turning backyards into mini-forests. It includes flows through them. Hence, Aquatic plants
planting trees as close as possible in the same absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
area which not only saves space, but the planted
saplings also support each other in growth Functions of Kidney and Wetland
and block sunlight from reaching the ground, z Kidneys in our body remove wastes and
thereby preventing the growth of weeds. Thus extra fluid from our body. Our kidneys also
the saplings become maintenance-free (self- remove acid that is produced by the cells of
sustainable) after the first three years. It helps to your body and maintain a healthy balance of
create a forest in just 20 to 30 years while through
water, salts, and minerals—such as sodium,
conventional methods it takes anywhere between
200 to 300 years. calcium, phosphorus, and potassium—in
your blood.
Miyawaki Process
z The native trees of the region are identified z In the same manner as sediment, excess
and divided into four layers — shrub, sub- nutrients and chemicals flow off of the
tree, tree, and canopy. land, wetlands filter the runoff before it
z The quality of soil is analysed and biomass reaches open water. Nutrients are stored
which would help enhance the perforation and absorbed by plants or microorganisms.
capacity, water retention capacity, and Sediment settles at the bottom after reaching
nutrients in it, is mixed with it. an area with slow water flow.
z A mound is built with the soil and the seeds
140. (b) Sub-Theme: National Parks/ Tiger Reserve/
are planted at a very high density — three
to five sapling per square meter. Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland
z The ground is covered with a thick layer of Option (b) is correct: List of Tiger Reserve
mulch.
State Tiger Reserves
138. (b) Sub-Theme: Wetlands
Option (b) is correct: Arunachal Namdapha; Kamlang Tiger Reserve;
Pradesh Pakke
Wetlands Location and Significance
Manas; Nameri; Orang Tiger Reserve;
Jammu and Kashmir. Assam
z Kaziranga
Hokera Wetland z A perennial natural wetland
Andhra Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
that is part of the Jhelum basin.
Pradesh
z Himachal Pradesh
Bihar Valmiki
z A naturally occurring wetland
that receives freshwater Udanti-Sitanadi; Achanakmar;
Renuka Wetland Indravati; Guru Ghasidas National
springs and underground karst Chattisgarh
formations from the lower Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife
Himalayas and the Giri river. Sanctuary (latest)

Option (d) is incorrect: The difference between
Jharkhand Palamau
a Sanctuary and a National Park mainly lies in the
Bandipur; Bhadra; Dandeli-Anshi; vesting of rights of people living inside. Unlike
Karnataka Nagarhole; Biligiri Ranganatha National Parks, certain rights can be allowed in
Temple Sanctuary.
142. (d) Sub-Theme: Eco-Sensitive Zones
Kerala Periyar; Parambikulam
Statement 1 is incorrect: ESZs are notified
Kanha; Pench (contiguous with by MoEFCC, Government of India under
Madhya
Maharashtra); Bandhavgarh; Panna; Environment Protection Act 1986.
Pradesh
Satpura; Sanjay-Dubri
Statement 2 is incorrect: The basic aim is to
Pench (contiguous with Madhya regulate certain activities around National Parks
Maharashtra Pradesh); Melghat; Tadoba-Andhari; and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the
Sahyadri; Nawegaon-Nagzira; Bor negative impacts of such activities on the fragile
ecosystem encompassing the protected areas.
Mizoram Dampa
Activities in ESZs:
Odisha Simlipal; Satkosia
Commercial mining, sawmills, industries
that pollute the environment (air, water,
Ranthambore; Sariska; Mukundra
soil, noise, etc.), the construction of
Rajasthan Hills; Ramgarh Vishdhari Wildlife
large hydroelectric projects (HEP), the
Sanctuary
Prohibited use of wood for commercial purposes,
Kalakad-Mundanthurai; Annamalai activities tourism-related activities like hot-air
Tamil Nadu Mudumakai; Sathyamangalam; balloon flights over national parks,
Srivilliputhur Megamalai the discharge of effluents or any solid
waste, or the manufacture of hazardous
Telangana Kawal; Amrabad materials.
Tree cutting, the construction of hotels
Dudhwa; Pilibhit; Amangarh (Buffer
Uttar Pradesh and resorts, the exploitation of natural
of Corbett TR)
water for commercial purposes, the
Regulated
Uttarakhand Corbett; Rajaji installation of electricity lines, a radical
activities
transformation of agriculture, such as
West Bengal Sundarban; Buxa the use of heavy machinery, pesticides,
etc., and road widening.
141. (b) Sub-Theme: National Parks/ Tiger Reserve/ The ongoing horticultural or agricultural
Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland techniques, the use of renewable energy
Permitted
sources, organic farming, rainwater
Option (b) is the correct answer: Local people activities
harvesting, and the implementation of
are not allowed to collect and use the biomass
green technology across all sectors.
in a National Park.
Option (a) is incorrect: A biosphere reserve is 143. (a) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Tiger Reserve/
an area of land or water that is protected by law in Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland
order to support the conservation of ecosystems, Option (a) is the correct answer: Biosphere
as well as the sustainability of mankind’s impact reserves are legally protected regions where
on the environment. people and the environment can coexist while
honouring each other’s needs. These areas might
Option (b) is correct: No human activity is
be terrestrial, coastal, or a combination of
permitted inside the national park except for the
both. They are recognised under UNESCO’s MAB
ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of
programme and nominated and established by
the state.
the relevant nations. Hence, the most important
Option (c) is incorrect: It is an international strategy for the conservation of biodiversity
treaty for “the conservation and sustainable use together with traditional human life is the
of wetlands”. establishment of Biosphere Reserve.

Zonation Of Biosphere Reserve: Option (d) is the correct answer: The Namdapha
National Park is located 27° N of the equator. It
The central portions of biosphere
reserves are strictly protected zones, is located at the international border between
which are frequently publicly owned India and Myanmar (Burma) in Changlang
lands that are subject to legal protection, District, Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India.
Core Geographically, Namdapha National Park is in
such as a previously established national
Areas the sub-tropical zone because it is 27° N of the
park, wilderness area, or wildlife refuge.
The core region, however, could be equator, but because its altitude ranges from
privately held or be a part of non- 200 m to 4571 m, its climate changes and it also
governmental groups. experiences a lot of rain. There are different
types of climates, such as tropical, subtropical,
Facilities for education, training, temperate, and arctic. For instance, the
tourism, and recreation may be located Namdapha National Park’s mountainous region
nearby the core area(s). has a mountain climate, whereas the low-lying
Buffer In many biosphere reserves, the buffer plains and valleys experience a tropical climate.
Zones zone is viewed as a region where It was established as the 15th Tiger Reserve
scientific study is conducted and human of India by the Government in 1983.
use is less intense than what might be
146. (a) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve
found in the transition zone.
Option (a) is the correct answer: Another
The most remote area where a name of Pakke Tiger Reserve is “Pakhui Tiger
Transition society supports socioculturally and Reserve”, In the northeastern Indian state of
Area environmentally sound economic and Arunachal Pradesh’s Pakke Kessang district,
human activity. there is a Project Tiger reserve. The Eastern
Himalayas Biodiversity Hotspot includes it.
NOTE: This is again a high yielding topic w.r.t. The Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary is located in
Environment and Ecology. To solve this type of Arunachal Pradesh in the undulating, hilly
question, aspirants need to have a clear concept Eastern Himalayan foothills. In the west, north,
regarding various conservation efforts. Hence, it is and east, it is bordered by the Bhareli or
advisable that aspirants should read and understand Kameng River, and by the Pakke River. It is
this topic thoroughly. renowned for its incredible encounters with
144. (b) Sub-Theme: National Parks/ Tiger Reserve/ four local hornbill species. For its Hornbill Nest
Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland Adoption Program, this Tiger Reserve received
the 2016 India Biodiversity Award in the category
Option (b) is the correct answer: Keibul Lamjao of “Conservation of vulnerable species.”
National Park in the Bishnupur district of the
Indian state of Manipur is the only floating 147. (a) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve
park in existence and is a crucial component Option (a) is the correct answer: Sathyaman-
of Loktak Lake, which lies in North East India. galam Tiger Reserve (STR) is situated where
Locally known as “Phumdi,” the national park is the Western and Eastern Ghats converge. This
distinguished by floating decaying plant matter. It region is home to a sizable tiger population
was established in 1966 as a wildlife sanctuary to and is adjacent to other landscapes dedicated
protect the Eld’s deer’s natural habitat, which to protecting tigers, including BRT, Bandipur,
is in risk of extinction (Cervus eldi eldi). It was Mudumalai, and Nagarahole. The Nilgiri-Eastern
declared a national park in 1977. The park is Ghats Elephant Reserve includes this area as well.
unique in that it is “too shallow to be a lake, too Due to its position, it contains a wide variety of
deep to be marsh.” vegetation and animals.
Flora: The park offers a diverse array of aquatic,
wetland, and terrestrial ecosystems and is mostly NOTE: UPSC has the habit of picking up
made up of damp, semi-evergreen forests. options from questions in its previous
year’s papers and asking new questions
Fauna found in the park include the brow- after improvising them. Nallamala Forest,
antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), which is its
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, etc. are
emblematic species, as well as the Asian Golden
some examples. Hence, it underlines the
Cat, Marbled Cat, Malayan Bear, Hog Deer,
importance of solving and analysing PYQs.
Himalayan Black Bear, and others.
145. (d) Sub-Theme: National Parks/ Tiger Reserve/ 148. (d) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve
Biosphere Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary/Wetland Option (d) is the correct answer: Valley of
Flowers National Park was established in 1982.

Located in Chamoli, in the state of Uttarakhand, include falcons, long-legged and honey
between 3352 and 3658 metres above sea level, buzzards, and tawny and steppe eagles.
it is renowned for its meadows of indigenous z Human Activity: Normally, human activity
alpine flowers and the variety of vegetation. The is prohibited in national parks, but several
park is entirely inside the temperate alpine villages were located inside the Desert
region. It is located close to Joshimath in the National Park and lacked access to even
Garhwal area, tucked in the upper reaches of the the most basic services, including as water,
Bhyundar Ganga river’s Pushpawati river valley. power, and roads.
The Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, musk deer,
brown bear, red fox, and blue sheep are among Statement 1 is correct: Desert National Park is
the rare and endangered species that call this situated in the west Indian state of Rajasthan
area home. Himalayan monal pheasants and and spreads over the districts of Jaisalmer and
other high-altitude birds can also be seen in the Barmer.
park. Statement 2 is incorrect: Normally human
149. (a) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve activities are not allowed in National Park but
many villagers lived inside Desert National
Option (a) is the correct answer: Agasthyamala
park, and they did not have access to even basic
Biosphere Reserve was established in 2001.
facilities like road, electricity and water.
It is located near the southernmost tip of the
Western Ghats, straddling the boundary between Statement 3 is correct: The Thar desert
the districts of Pathanamthitta, Kollam, and harbours a wide array of flora and faunal species.
Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala and Tirunelveli It is the only place where Rajasthan State Bird,
and Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, South India. Great Indian Bustard are found naturally.
It includes the following wildlife sanctuaries: 151. (c) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve
Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve,
Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary, Peppara Option (c) is the correct answer: Nagarjunsagar-
Wildlife Sanctuary, and Neyyar Wildlife Srisailam is the largest tiger reserve in
Sanctuary. It comprises the tropical wet India having a Core/ Critical Tiger Habitat of
evergreen forests of India, the moist deciduous 3721 Sq. Km. The tiger reserve spans five
forests of the South Western Ghats, the montane districts in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
rain forests of the South Western Ghats, and The Nallamala Hills make up the majority of the
Shola. The Kanikaran tribe, one of the oldest region. The reserve is home to the multifunctional
extant ancient tribes in the world, is also found reservoirs Srisailam and Nagarjunasagar. This
in Agasthyamalai. In March 2016, it was added reserve’s basin is bisected by the Krishna River.
to the World Network of Biosphere Reserves Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
of UNESCO. z Background information: It was alerted
150. (c) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve in 1978 and placed under Project Tiger’s
Desert National Park, Rajasthan(Jaisalmer and protection in 1983.
Barmer, Rajasthan) z The name was changed to “Rajiv Gandhi
z With a 3162 km2 area, this national park is Wildlife Sanctuary” in 1992.
one of the biggest. z Extent: The tiger reserve spans five districts
z The environment of the Thar Desert is well- in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.The
illustrated by the Desert National Park. Nallamala Hills make up the majority of the
z The main landform is made up of permanent region.
dunes, jagged boulders, and compact salt z The reserve is home to the multifunctional
lake bottoms. reservoirs Srisailam and Nagarjunasagar.
z Flora: ronj, palm trees, ber, dhok. z River: This reserve’s basin is bisected by the
z Mammals: desert fox, Bengal fox, desert cat, Krishna River.
wolf, hedgehog, chinkara. z Fauna: In addition to the Bengal Tiger,
z Reptiles: spiny-tailed lizard, monitor lizard, which serves as the area’s top predator,
saw-scaled viper, Russell’s viper, common other other species are also present here,
krait. including the leopard, rusty-spotted cat,
z Avifauna: Sandgrouse, Indian bustard, pangolin, mugger crocodiles, Indian rock
partridges, bee-eaters, larks, and shrikes are python, and countless different types of
year-round inhabitants of the area, while birds.
demoiselle crane and houbara bustard z Flora: A variety of woodlands, from southern
migrate there during the winter.Raptors mixed deciduous tropical forest to southern

thorn forest. Multiple types of shrubs and Himalayan monal, Himalayan snowcock, and blue
bamboo thickets also grow in this area. sheep (also known as bharal).
NOTE: According to the fourth cycle of 154. (c) Sub-Theme: Species and their habitat
the All India Tiger Estimation (AITE) the Option (c) is the correct answer: Guchhi
number of tigers in the Nagarjunasagar Mushroom is a Species of Fungus cultivated
Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) in Andhra in Himalayan Forests.
Pradesh has gone up, reversing the steady Statement 1 is correct: Guchhi mushroom is a
decline in their number over a period. species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of
152. (a) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve the Ascomycota.
Option (a) is the correct answer: Kanha Statement 2 is correct: It is grown in the
National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh’s foothills of Himalayas mostly in the temperate
Mandla and Balaghat districts, covering an forests of Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and
area of 940 square kilometres. There were two Jammu and Kashmir.
sanctuaries in the modern-day Kanha region:
Statement 3 is incorrect: The mushrooms
Hallon and Banjar. Kanha National Park was
established in 1955, and the Kanha Tiger Reserve cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in
was established in 1973. The largest national park conifer forests across temperate regions.
in Central India is Kanha National Park. It is the 155. (a) Sub-Theme: Freshwater Species
first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce Golden Mahseer (freshwater fish)
a mascot, “Bhoorsingh the Barasingha”.
Option (a) is the correct answer: Golden
Kanha National Park (Mandla and Balaghat
Mahseer is also known as the tiger of Indian
districts, Madhya Pradesh)
rivers. It is a species of the genus Tor. The Golden
z Fauna: The Hard Ground Barasingha, also Mahseer, the longest-living freshwater fish,
known as the Swamp Deer or Rucervus
is native to mountain and sub-mountain regions
duvaucelii, is the state animal of Madhya
found in the Himalayan Rivers (Indus, Ganga and
Pradesh and is only found in the Kanha
Brahmaputra). The Pong Dam reservoir, around
Tiger Reserve. Tiger, Leopard, Dhole, Bear,
Gaur, and Indian Python are some of the 250 km from state capital Shimla and 190 km
other species discovered. from Chandigarh, supports an ample population
of the golden Mahseer. Conservation Status:
z Flora: Its evergreen Sal forests are its most
IUCN: Endangered.
famous feature (Shorea Robusta).
153. (a) Sub-Theme: National Parks/Biosphere Reserve 156. (d) Sub-Theme: Species/Pollination
Option (a) is the correct answer: To safeguard Option (d) is the correct answer: When a pollen
the critically endangered Musk Deer and its grain moves from the anther (male part) of a
environment, the Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary flower to the stigma (female part), pollination
was created in 1986. The refuge is sometimes happens and it is the first step in a process that
referred to as “Green Paradise on Earth.” It is produces seeds, fruits, and the next generation of
situated in Askot, a tiny village in the Pithoragarh plants. Pollinators are Vectors that move pollen
district of Uttarakhand. Fauna:Snow leopard, within the flower and from flower to flower are
Himalayan black bear, Himalayan tahr, blue called pollinators.
sheep, musk deer, loong, monal, kalij pheasant, z There are two categories of pollinators:
and cheer pheasant are some examples of the Invertebrate pollinators: Include
local fauna. bees, moths, flies, wasps, beetles and
Gangotri National Park was founded in 1989 butterflies.
and is located in Uttarkashi, Uttrakhand, in Vertebrate pollinators: Include
the Bhagirathi River’s upper watershed. The monkeys, rodents, lemurs, tree
Ganga River’s source, Gaumukh in Gangotri squirrels, bats and birds.
Glacier, is situated inside the park. The park
area effectively connects Kedarnath Wildlife Pollinators( Bat, Bee, Birds)
Sanctuary and Govind National Park. The park is z Vectors that move pollen within the flower
completely surrounded by temperate coniferous and from flower to flower are called
forests.The typical vegetation includes chirpine, pollinators.
deodar, fir, spruce, oak, and rhododendron. The z They visit flowers to drink nectar or feed off
park is home to a number of rare and endangered of pollen and transport pollen grains as they
animals, including the snow leopard, musk deer, move from spot to spot.

157. (c) Sub-Theme: Species z Habitat: J&K, Uttarakhand.
Option (c) is the correct answer: Seabuckthorn Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and
(soil binding, rich in vitamins) Musk Deer Arunachal Pradesh.
z It’s a shrub which produces an orange- z Conservation Status:
yellow coloured edible berry.
z IUCN Status: Endangered
z It can be found in India above treeline in the
z State animal of Sikkim.
Himalayan region, usually in arid places like
the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti. z Red panda is endemic to
z It grows naturally in Lahaul, Spiti, and some the temperate forests of the
regions of Kinnaur in Himachal Pradesh Himalayas.
where it is known as chharma. z Habitat: Sikkim and Assam,
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Seabuckthorn is northern Arunachal Pradesh.
a soil-binding plant which prevents soil-erosion, Red Panda z Threats: habitat loss and
it also has commercial value, as it is used in fragmentation, poaching, and
making juices, jams, nutritional capsules etc. inbreeding depression.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Though seabuckthorn z Conservation Status:
is an important source of fuelwood and fodder, it z IUCN Status: Endangered
is not a rich source of biodiesel.
z Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
Statement 4 is incorrect: Seabuckthorn has Schedule 1
commercial value, as it is used in making juices,
z Scientific Name: Equus hemionus
jams, nutritional capsules etc.
z Also called: Asiatic Wild Ass,
158. (a) Sub-Theme: Threatened Species
Asian Wild Ass, Indian onager
Threatened Species: Great Indian Bustard, or, Ghudkhur and Khur (Gujarati
Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass language)
(Currently Vulnerable, but as the question is from
z A subspecies of the onager native
2012, we will consider it as Endangered) all are
to Southern Asia.
Endangered Species. Asiatic Wild
z Habitat: Western India, southern
Option (c) is the correct answer: Great Indian Ass
Pakistan (i.e. provinces of Sindh
Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild
and Baluchistan), Afghanistan,
Ass (Currently Vulnerable, but as the question is
and south-eastern Iran.
from 2012, we will consider it as Endangered) all
are Endangered Species. Important species and z Conservation Status:
their Conservation status are: z IUCN: currently listed as Near
Threatened (Earlier it was listed
Species Particulars
under Endangered Category)
z State bird of Rajasthan 159. (a) Sub-Theme: Species
z Flagship grassland species,
Option (a) is the correct answer: Chiru, also
representing the health of the
Known as Tibetan antelope. Endemic to the Tibetan
grassland ecology.
Plateau, the Tibetan antelope inhabits open alpine
z States: Rajasthan and Gujarat. and cold steppe environments between 3,250 and
Small populations occur in 5,500 m (10,660 and 18,040 ft) elevation. IUCN:
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Near Threatened. Oryx is a genus consisting of
Great Indian Andhra Pradesh. four large antelope species called oryxes. Oryx
Bustard
z Conservation Status: species prefer near-desert conditions and can
z IUCN Status: Critically Endangered survive without water for long periods. IUCN:
z CITES: Appendix 1 In 2011 it was down-listed from the Endangered
category to Vulnerable. Hence, Oryx species
z Convention on Migratory
prefer near-desert conditions and can survive
Species (CMS): Appendix I
without water for long periods and Chiru or
z Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Tibetan antelope inhabit open alpine and cold
Schedule 1 steppe environments.

160. (b) Sub-Theme: Species depletion will have effects all the way up the food
Statement 1 is correct: Black-necked crane is chain. They are found in over 30 countries and
a state bird of Ladakh, therefore it ought to be in India are seen in the Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of
naturally found in India at high altitude. Kutch, Palk Bay, and the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands. IUCN Red List status: Vulnerable.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cheetahs are Sea Lion belongs to the family Otariidae of
believed to have disappeared from the country class Mammalia. They are carnivorous aquatic
when Maharaja Ramanuj Pratap Singh Deo of mammals, hence the name Sea Lion.
Koriya hunted and shot the last three recorded
Asiatic cheetahs in India in 1947. Statement 2 is incorrect: Sea Horse is a bony
fish (Osteichthyes). Seahorses are mainly found
Statement 3 is correct: Various species of Flying in shallow tropical and temperate saltwater
squirrel are naturally found in India. throughout the world, from about 45°S to 45°N.
Statement 4 is correct: In India, Snow Leopard’s They live in sheltered areas such as seagrass
geographical range encompasses through beds, estuaries, coral reefs, and mangroves. Four
Western Himalayas: Jammu and Kashmir, species are found in Pacific waters from North
Himachal Pradesh. Eastern Himalayas: America to South America.
Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal 164. (b) Sub-Theme: Species helps in agriculture
Pradesh. The Snow Leopard capital of the world
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bio-fertilizers are
is Hemis, Ladakh.
living or biologically active products or
161. (c) Sub-Theme: Species microbial inoculants of bacteria, algae and
Option (c) is the correct answer: All the above- fungi (separately or in combination) which
mentioned species are endangered. Gharials, are able to enrich the soil with nitrogen,
sometimes called gavials, are a type of Asian phosphorus, organic matter etc. Agaricus is
crocodilian distinguished by their long, thin a genus of mushrooms containing both edible
snouts. and poisonous species, it is not a biofertilizer.
India has three species of Crocodilians Statement 2 is correct: Nostoc fixes atmospheric
namely: nitrogen into ammonia, which may then be used
z Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus): IUCN Red or converted to a form suitable for plant growth.
List- Critically Endangered Thus demonstrating Nostoc’s potential as a
sustainable biofertilizer.
z Mugger crocodile (Crocodylus palustris):
IUCN- Vulnerable. Statement 3 is incorrect: Spirogyra is not
z Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus generally used as a biofertilizer, instead if you
porosus): IUCN- Least Concern. use it; it would compete with the plants.
z All the three are listed: Appendix I of CITES 165. (a) Sub-Theme: Species
and Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Option (a) is the correct answer: Lion-tailed
Act, 1972. Macaque is endemic to the Western Ghats
z Exception: Saltwater Crocodile populations in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
of Australia, Indonesia and Papua New Nadu.
Guinea are included in Appendix II of CITES. Although the species has a relatively wide range,
162. (a) Sub-Theme: Species its area of occupancy is small and severely
fragmented. Primarily diurnal arboreal, it prefers
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Star tortoise,
the upper canopy of primary tropical evergreen
Monitor lizard and Pygmy hog are naturally found
rainforest. It can also be found in monsoon forests
in India.
in hilly country and in disturbed forest.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Spider Monkey is
166. (c) Sub-Theme: Tree Species
found in the tropical forests of Central and South
America. It is critically endangered as per the Neem Tree
IUCN Red List. z Scientific Name: Azadirachta indica
163. (b) Sub-Theme: Species Diversity z Commonly known as neem, nimtree or
Indian lilac.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Both the Sea Cow
or Dugong and Sea Lion are mammals. Dugong z It is a tree in the mahogany family Meliaceae.
also called ‘Sea Cow’ is the only existing species z It is native to the Indian subcontinent and
of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively most of the countries in Africa.
in the sea including in India. Dugongs are an z Neem is typically grown in tropical and
important part of the marine ecosystem and their subtropical regions. Neem trees also grow

on islands in southern Iran. Its fruits and Ladakh (India). Therefore, it is highly unlikely it
seeds are the sources of neem oil. can be seen in the countryside. IUCN Red List:
z Importance of Neem Tree: Near Threatened.
z Neem trees are cultivated and utilized as 169. (c) Sub-Theme: Marine Species
multipurpose trees. Nearly all parts of the Statement 1 is correct: Sea Cow or Dugong is
neem tree are useful. one of the four surviving species in the Order
z In many areas, neem is considered a weed Sirenia and it is the only existing species of
and based on its antimicrobial resistance herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the
and other antifungal properties, they are sea including in India.
also used in pharmaceutical and cosmetic
Statement 2 is incorrect: They are found in
industries.
over 30 countries and in India are seen in the
Statement 1 is correct: Neem oil and neem Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and
barks are used as an insect repellent. the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement 2 is incorrect: No such relevant and
Statement 3 is correct: It gives legal protection
strong reference has been found.
under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)
Statement 3 is correct: Neem oil has multiple Act, 1972.
applications in the pharmaceutical industry.
170. (c) Sub-Theme: Marine Species
167. (c) Sub-Theme: Marine Species
Option (c) is the correct answer: Gangetic River
Statement 1 is correct: Gangetic dolphins Dolphin, also called ‘susu’ is the National
live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Aquatic Animal of India.
Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India,
Gangetic Dolphin
and Bangladesh. The Ganges river dolphin can
only live in freshwater. They are essentially z Scientific Name: Platanista gangetica
blind. They are also called ‘susu’. Construction z The Ganges River Dolphin was officially
of dams and other irrigation-related projects discovered in 1801.
make them susceptible to inbreeding and more z They are also called ‘susu’ is the National
vulnerable to other threats because they cannot Aquatic Animal of India.
move to new areas. Habitat:
Statement 2 is incorrect: An increase in the z Live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna
population of crocodiles in rivers is not a threat and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of
to Gangetic dolphins. Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
Statement 3 is correct: Dolphins die as a result z The Ganges river dolphin can only live in
of accidentally being caught in fishing nets, also freshwater
known as bycatch. Features:
Statement 4 is correct: Industrial, agricultural, z Essentially blind.
and human pollution is another serious cause of z They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds,
habitat degradation. which bounces off of fish and other prey,
168. (b) Sub-Theme: Species(Avifauna) enabling them to “see” an image in their
mind.
Common Myna
171. (a) Sub-Theme: Species (Fauna)
z It is an opportunistic insect feeder that is
disturbed by grazing cattle. Statement 1 is correct: Kharai camels have a
z It is an omnivorous open woodland bird special ability to swim in seawater and feed on
with a strong sense of territorial instinct. saline plants and mangroves, which is how they
get their name, Kharai. Recognized as a separate
z It has adapted extremely well to the urban
breed a few years ago by the National Bureau of
environment.
Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR), the Kharai
Statement 1 is incorrect: Painted storks forage camel is probably the only domesticated breed
in flocks in shallow waters along rivers or lakes. of camel that lives in dual ecosystems. There are
IUCN Red List: Near Threatened two camel breeds in Kutch, a coastal region of
Statement 2 is correct: Common Myna is an Gujarat that is also a sizable desert territory.
opportunistic feeder on insects, disturbed by IUCN Red List: Endangered
grazing cattle.
Statement 2 is correct: Kharai camels are known
Statement 3 is incorrect: The habitat of Black- to feed on mangroves on the island offshore.
necked Crane is in the high altitude wetlands of And to eat this salty marine food, they sometimes
the Tibetan plateau, Sichuan (China), and eastern swim for hours.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Given the breed’s Option (c) is incorrect: Pulicat Lake is the
ability to survive both on land and sea, this second largest brackish water lake or lagoon
particular statement is highly unlikely. in India after Chilika Lake. It is located on the
border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
NOTE: Observe the extreme keyword with over 96% of it in Andhra Pradesh and 4%
‘cannot’ in statement 3, it makes the in Tamil Nadu situated on the Coromandel Coast
statement a bit absurd from the other two in South India. The lake encompasses Pulicat
statements. Hence, by eliminating this single Lake Bird Sanctuary. The Buckingham Canal,
statement you can easily reach the correct a navigation channel, is part of the lagoon on
answer. its western side.
172. (a) Sub-Theme: Species (Flora) Option (d) is incorrect: Deepor Beel is one of the
Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is an largest freshwater lakes in Assam and the State’s
Indian endemic tree species, with a restricted only Ramsar site besides being an Important
geographical range in the Eastern Ghats. It is Bird Area by Birdlife International. Till date no
endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Andhra such credible information has been found in terms
Pradesh. Red Sanders usually grow in the rocky, of Gharial population in Deepor beel.
degraded and fallow lands with Red Soil and hot 175. (b) Sub-Theme: Invasive Species
and dry climate. IUCN Red List: Endangered. Option (b) is the correct answer: Prosopis
Statement 2 is incorrect: It occurs in the forest Juliflora is a shrub or small tree in the family
formation which is classified as “Southern Fabaceae. It is native to Mexico, South America
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests”. and the Caribbean. It was initially introduced
Threats: Illicit felling for smuggling, forest in India during colonial times, since then it has
fires, cattle grazing and other anthropogenic become an invasive species. It’s an aggressive
threats. The tree is known for their rich hue coloniser, a common weed of wastelands,
and therapeutic properties, are high in demand scrublands and degraded forests.
across Asia, particularly in China and Japan, for 176. (a) Sub-Theme: Species
use in cosmetics and medicinal products as well
Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic lions were
as for making furniture, woodcraft and musical
once distributed to the state of West Bengal in
instruments.
the east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central
173. (d) Sub-Theme: Species – Fauna India. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife
Great Indian Hornbill (Western Ghats, Nilgiris) Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Option (d) is the correct answer: The great
hornbill (Buceros bicornis) also known as the Statement 2 is incorrect: Double-humped Camel
great Indian hornbill or great pied hornbill, is or Bacterian Camel is native to the steppes of
one of the larger members of the hornbill family. Central Asia, restricted to the Gobi and Gashun
A large majority of their population is found Gobi deserts of northwest China and Mongolia,
in India with a significant proportion in the and Ladakh in India.
Western Ghats and the Nilgiris. They also occur Statement 3 is incorrect: Only the Great One-
in Myanmar, islands in the Mergui archipelago, Horned Rhino is found in India, while the other
southern China, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, four species spread across Africa, Java and
Thailand, peninsular Malaysia and in Sumatra, Sumatra. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. Indian
Indonesia. Rhino Vision 2020 (IRV 2020) was launched
174. (b) Sub-Theme: Species (Fauna) in 2005 by the Forest Department, Government
of Assam, in partnership with WWF India, the
Option (a) is incorrect: Gharials inhabit deep
International Rhino Foundation, and several
freshwater habitats, not both freshwater and
saltwater habitats as inhabited by crocodile other organisations. It aimed to raise the rhino
species. It is the home of saltwater crocodiles. population in Assam to 3,000. Four Protected
Areas in Assam have rhinos: Pabitora Wildlife
Option (b) is correct: The most important Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park,
surviving populations of Gharials are within four Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National
tributaries of the Ganges River - Girwa, Son, Park.
and Chambal Rivers in India and the Rapti-
Narayani River in Nepal. The most significant 177. (d) Sub-Theme: Species Diversity
breeding population is within the Chambal River, Statement 1 is correct: Unlike other members
which spans the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, of its family, such as the hawksbill sea turtle, the
Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh. green sea turtle is mostly herbivorous.

Statement 2 is correct: Surgeonfish and 180. (a) Sub-Theme: Species Diversity
Parrotfish are algae eaters, other herbivores Option (a) is the correct answer: Ceylon
include the Japanese angelfish, yellow blotch- frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-
rabbitfish, and tilapia. chinned minivet and White-throated redstart
Statement 3 is correct: Manatees and dugongs are Birds.
are the only herbivores among marine mammals. z Sri Lankan/Ceylon Frogmouth bird lives
Statement 4 is correct: Boa constrictors in a particular location in Sri Lanka, and
and green anacondas are two examples of it is also thought to inhabit the Thattekad
viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to bird sanctuary (Kerala). Additionally, it is
live young with no eggs involved at any stage of present in Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka.
development. It is usually found on the western side of the
Western Ghats. IUCN Status: Least Concern.
178. (c) Sub-Theme: Species Habitat
z Coppersmith barbet is renowned for
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Blue Finned its metronomic call, which resembles the
Mahseer is found in the Mula-Mutha River close hammering of metal by a coppersmith. It
to the Indian city of Pune, a part of the Krishna is a permanent inhabitant of Southeast
River basin. It is also found in other rivers of Asia and the Indian subcontinent. IUCN
the Deccan Plateau and we know the deccan Red List: Least Concern
plateau has three principal rivers: the Godavari,
z Gray-chinned minivet is a species of bird
the Krishna, and the Cauvery. It is a freshwater
in the family Campephagidae. It is found
fish. It is also known as Deccan Mahseer or Tor
Khudree. IUCN Status: Least Concern (LC). from the Himalayas to China, Taiwan and
Southeast Asia. Its natural habitat is forests
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Irrawaddy about 1,000–2,000 m (3,300–6,600 ft) in
Dolphin’s habitat extends from the Bay of Bengal elevation. IUCN Red List: Least-concern.
to New Guinea and the Philippines. Also found in
three rivers namely The Irrawaddy (Myanmar), White-throated redstart is a species of bird
the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the in the family Muscicapidae. It can be found in
Mekong. The highest single lagoon population northeastern India, Nepal, Bhutan, central
of dolphins is considered to be found in Chilika China, and the far northern reaches of
Lake. IUCN: Endangered. Myanmar. From Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary,
East Sikkim, India in alpine snowy meadows.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rusty Spotted Cat IUCN Red List: Least Concern
was observed in eastern Gujarat’s Gir National
Park, in Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger 181. (d) Sub-Theme: Food Chain/Species
Reserve and along India’s Eastern Ghats. Statement 1 is correct: Hedgehogs are small
179. (a) Sub-Theme: Species mammals with short limbs and a body low to the
ground. Their most distinctive characteristic is
Asian Elephants: the thousands of stiff, sharp spines - harder and
Asian elephants come in three subspecies: sharper than those of a porcupine - that cover
Indian, Sumatran, and Sri Lankan. the animal’s back and sides, like a pincushion
The majority of the continent’s remaining filled with needles. If attacked they will curl into
elephants belong to the Indian subspecies, which a prickly and unappetizing ball that deters most
has the largest range. predators. IUCN Red List Status: Least concern
Statement 1 is correct: The leader of a group Statement 2 is incorrect: Marmot are any of 14
is the oldest female. She guides the herd in species of giant ground squirrels found primarily
their search for food and water sources. These in North America and Eurasia. Marmots are
matriarchal units can occasionally divide into well suited for life in cold environments and have
smaller, temporary groups. small fur-covered ears, short, stocky legs, and
strong claws for digging. Due to the absence of
Statement 2 is correct: The gestation period scales or spines, they do not roll up and protect
lasts for 22 months, yielding a single baby. their vulnerable parts. IUCN Red Listed as: Least
Statement 3 is incorrect: Although sexually Concern
mature in their early teens, elephants generally Statement 3 is correct: Pangolin, also called
only start to mate at about 20 years and stop scaly anteaters because of their preferred diet,
bearing calves at about 50. pangolins are the most trafficked mammal in
Statement 4 is incorrect: Recent census the world. If touched or grabbed it will roll up
showed Kerala as having 5,706 elephants, while completely into a ball, while the sharp scales on
Karnataka with 6049 elephants. the tail can be used to lash out.

182. (c) Sub-Theme: Species
Cosmetics, toiletries,
Option (c) is the correct answer: Oyster is a soaps and detergents.
Filter Feeder. Oleochemical industry, as
Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension Non-food a base material for laundry
feeding animals that feed by straining applications detergents, household
suspended matter and food particles from cleaners and cosmetics.
water, typically bypassing the water over Also, Palm oil can be used
a specialised filtering structure. Clams, to produce biodiesel.
krill, sponges, oysters, baleen whales, and
numerous fish are among the creatures that NOTE: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra
rely on this way of feeding (including some Modi has announced this new national
sharks). Filter feeders include some birds like initiative on palm oil and in August, 2021,
flamingos and several varieties of duck. Filter Environmental activists and politicians
feeders are regarded as ecosystem engineers have expressed concerns over the centre’s
since they might be crucial in the clarification of proposal to promote palm oil cultivation in
water. They serve as indicator organisms and the Northeastern states and in the Andaman
are crucial in bioaccumulation. and Nicobar islands. Hence, the question!!
183. (b) Sub-Theme: Species 184. (b) Sub-Theme: Species
Palm Oil (Native to Africa) Statement 1 is incorrect: Moringa is a fast-
Statement 1 is incorrect: Oil palm trees are growing, drought-resistant tree native to the
native to Africa but were brought to South-East Indian subcontinent. Found in the wild in the sub-
Asia over 100 years ago as an ornamental tree Himalayan regions of Northern India and now
crop. grown worldwide in the tropics and sub-tropics.
Statement 2 is correct: Non-food applications Statement 2 is incorrect: Tamarind is a
of Palm oil are Cosmetics, toiletries, soaps leguminous tree bearing edible fruit that is
and detergents. Oleochemical industry, as a indigenous to tropical Africa.
base material for laundry detergents, household Statements 3 and 4 are correct: In India most
cleaners and cosmetics. of the Tamarind is collected as Minor Forest
Statement 3 is correct: Palm oil can be used Produce with Minimum Support Price. Tamarind
to produce biodiesel, which can be used in is also actively exported from India.
compression ignition engines, i.e., diesel engines Statement 5 is correct: Biodiesel is derived from
without any modifications. the tamarind seed through the transesterification
Applications of Palm Oil process as potential alternative feedstock for the
diesel engine.
Cooking oil, substitute
for butter, vanaspati/ NOTE: Recently, the Agricultural
vegetable ghee, margarine, and Processed Food Products Export
Food-based confectionery and bakery Development Authority (APEDA) has been
applications fats, ice cream, coffee supporting private entities in creating
creamers, emulsiﬁers, the necessary infrastructure to promote
vitamin E supplements Moringa products exports from India. Hence,
among others. the question!
v v v

Section G
7 Geography

Geography : PYQs Analysis
25
20
19
No. of Questions
15
14 15
12
10 11
8 8
7 7 7 7
5
3
0
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
GEOGRAPHY: PYQs ANALYSIS
Sr. No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
Solar system
1 and Geological 1 1 1 2 5
Timescale
2 Climatology 1 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 4 19
3 Oceanography 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 9
4 Geomorphology 1 1 1 2 5 10
Economic
5 2 1 2 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 16
Geography
Indian
6 3 3 1 1 2 2 5 3 3 4 3 30
Geography
7 Map Based 2 2 4 4 3 3 7 2 2 29
8 Total 7 7 8 7 8 7 3 41 51 91 21 11 118
SOLAR SYSTEM & GEOLOGICAL CLIMATOLOGY
TIME SCALE 6. Consider the following statements: (2022)
1. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and
year normally occurs in the: (2022) cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared
(a) First half of the month of June
radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and
(b) Second half of the month of June thus cause a warming effect.
(c) First half of the month of July Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Second half of the month of July (a) 1 only
2. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and (b) 2 only
wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km (c) Both 1 and 2
east of the point where he was standing. He had no (d) Neither 1 nor 2
instruments to find the direction but he located the 7. Westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger
polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
village is to walk in the (2012) (2011)
(a) Direction facing the polestar 1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as
(b) Direction opposite to the polestar compared to northern hemisphere.
(c) Direction keeping the polestar to his left 2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere
as compared to northern hemisphere.
(d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right
3. Electrically charged particles from space traveling at
(a) 1 only
speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm
(b) 2 only
living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth.
(c) Both 1 and 2
What prevents them from reaching the surface of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Earth?(2012)
(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards 8. What could be the main reason/reasons for the
formation of the African and Eurasian desert belt?
its poles.
(2011)
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back
to outer space. 1. It is located in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of the atmosphere
prevents them from reaching the surface of the Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Earth. in this context?
(a) 1 only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given
(b) 2 only
above is correct.
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. Variations in the length of daytime and night time (d) Neither 1 nor 2
from season to season are due to: (2013)
9. The jet aircraft fly very easily and smoothly in the
(a) The earth’s rotation on its axis lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate
(b) The earth’s revolution around the sun in an explanation? (2011)
elliptical manner 1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower
(c) Latitudinal position of the place stratosphere.
(d) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis 2. There are no vertical winds in the lower
stratosphere.
5. On 21st June, the Sun: (2019)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle in this context?
(b) Does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle (a) 1 only
(c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator (b) 2 only
(d) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of (c) Both 1 and 2
Capricorn (d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that 15. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people
mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against used to be nomadic herders.”
coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a
safety hedge? (2011) The above statement best describes which of the
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human following regions? (2013)
settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which (a) African Savannah
people neither live nor venture out (b) Central Asian Steppe
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines (c) North American Prairie
which people are in need of after any natural
(d) Siberian Tundra
disaster.
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies 16. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is
and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone produced by the: (2013)
or tsunami 1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms
2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
and tides because of their extensive roots.
3. Violent upward movement of air and water
11. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase
in height from the Earth’s surface, because (2012) particles.
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
the Earth’s surface (a) 1 only
2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere. (b) 2 and 3
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above produces the thunder
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 17. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical
characteristic of (2014)
12. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate
of the Tropical Savannah Region? (2012) (a) Equatorial climate
(a) Rainfall throughout the year (b) Mediterranean climate
(b) Rainfall in winter only (c) Monsoon climate
(c) An extremely short dry season (d) All of the above climates
(d) A definite dry and wet season
18. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions
13. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/ in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What
characteristics of equatorial forests? (2013)
is the reason? (2015)
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns
forming a continuous canopy (a) Sea surface temperatures are low
2. Coexistence of a large number of species (b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes (c) Coriolis force is too weak
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) Absence of land in those regions
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The winds which blow between 30 N and 60 S
latitudes throughout the year are known as
14. The annual range of temperature in the interior of
the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. westerlies.
What is/are the reason/reasons? (2013) 2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains
1. Thermal difference between land and water in North-Western region of India are part of
2. Variation in altitude between continents and westerlies.
oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
(a) 1 only
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Geography 301
20. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is
clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs OCEANOGRAPHY
high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, 25. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this
then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the phenomenon a cause of concern (2012)
rain is soon over.” 1. T h e g row t h a n d s u r v iva l o f c a l c a re o u s
Which of the following regions is described in the phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
above passage? (2015) 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be
adversely affected.
(a) Savannah (b) Equatorial
3. The survival of some animals that have
(c) Monsoon (d) Mediterranean phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
21. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will
(2019) be adversely affected.
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Earth’s surface. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperatures 26. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods
on cloudy nights. in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino?
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level. (2011)
1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean
22. Consider the following statements (2020) temperature in the equatorial Indian Ocean
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere whereas El Niño is characterized by unusually
only. warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. Ocean.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is 2. El Nino has adverse effects on the south-west
monsoon of India, but La Niña has no effect on
nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings.
monsoon climate.
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Consider the following statements (2021) 27. Consider the following factors (2012)
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the 1. Rotation of the Earth
oceans are warmer than the eastern sections 2. Air pressure and wind
owing to the influence of trade winds. 3. Density of ocean water
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the 4. Revolution of the Earth
eastern sections of oceans warmer than the Which of the above factors influence the ocean
western sections. currents?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 28. The most important fishing grounds of the world are
found in the regions where (2013)
24. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome (a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare.
(b) Rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into
Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of the sea
plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously,
(c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted
(d) Continental shelf is undulating
on the upper branches of trees.”
29. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial
This is the most likely description of (2021) counter current? (2015)
(a) Coniferous forest (a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) Dry deciduous forest (b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
(c) Mangrove forest (c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Tropical rainforest (d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

30. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which
among the following? (2015) GEOMORPHOLOGY
1. Gravitational force of the Sun 34. Which of the following statements regarding laterite
2. Gravitational force of the Moon soils of India are correct? (2013)
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth 1. They are generally red in colour.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
31. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Indian monsoon, which of the following statements (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only
is/are correct? (2017) 35. Consider the following statements: (2013)
1. The IOD phenomenon is characterised by a 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
difference in sea surface temperature between 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s
impact on the monsoon. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 36. Consider the following: (2013)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
32. Consider the following statements (2018)
3. Gravitational force
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical
4. Plate movements
waters.
5. Rotation of the earth
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are
located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia 6. Revolution of the earth
and Philippines. Which of the above are responsible for bringing
3. Coral reefs host far more animal phyla than those dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
hosted by tropical rainforests. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
33. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), 37. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation
which of the following statements is/are correct? used in: (2013)
(2020) (a) Desert margins, liable to strong wind action
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm (b) Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to
which is 129 metres in the south-western Indian flooding
Ocean during January–March. (c) Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
2. OMT collected during January–March can be (d) None of the above
used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall 38. Which of the following adds nitrogen to the soil?
in monsoon will be less or more than a certain (2013)
long-term mean. 1. Excretion of urea by animals
Select the correct using the code given below: 2. Burning of coal by man
(a) 1 only 3. Death of vegetation
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography 303
39. Which of the following phenomena might have How many of the above are generally known as tea-
influenced the evolution of organisms? (2014) producing States?
1. Continental drift (a) Only one State
2. Glacial cycles (b) Only two States
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Only three States
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) All four States
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 45. With reference to India, consider the following
40. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated statements:(2022)
with which of the following? (2014) 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
1. Terrace cultivation 2. Monazite contains thorium.
2. Deforestation 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian
3. Tropical climate coastal sands in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 4. In India, government bodies only can process or
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only export monazite.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
41. With reference to the management of minor minerals (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
in India, consider the following statements: (2019) (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the 46. The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by a humid
prevailing law in the country. climate with high temperature throughout the year.
2. State Governments have the power to grant Which one among the following pairs of crops is most
mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers suitable for this region? (2011)
regarding the formation of rules related to the
(a) Paddy and cotton
grant of minor minerals lie with the Central
Government. (b) Wheat and Jute
3. The State Government has the power to frame (c) Paddy and Jute
rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. (d) Wheat and cotton
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 47. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only ‘mixed farming’? (2012)
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops.
42. Consider the following minerals: (2020) (b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field.
1. Bentonite 2. Chromite (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops
3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite together.
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated (d) None of the above.
as major minerals? 48. Consider the following crops of India: (2012)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only 1. Groundnut
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Sesamum
43. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due 3. Pearl millet
to the weathering of: (2021) Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed
(a) Brown forest soil crop/crops?
(b) Fissure volcanic rock (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Granite and schist (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Shale and limestone
49. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/
characteristics of Indian coal? (2013)
ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY 1. High ash content
44. Consider the following States: (2022) 2. Low sulphur content
1. Andhra Pradesh 3. Low ash fusion temperature
2. Kerala Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
3. Himachal Pradesh (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
4. Tripura (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Consider the following crops (2013) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Cotton 2. Groundnut (a) 1 and 3 only
3. Rice 4. Wheat (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of these are Kharif crops? (c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
57. With reference to pulse production in India, consider
51. Which one among the following industries is the
maximum consumer of water in India? (2013)
(a) Engineering (b) Paper and pulp 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and
(c) Textiles (d) Thermal power rabi crops.
52. Consider the following pairs: (2014) 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse
production.
Well-known for the 3. In the last three decades, while the production of
Region
production of
kharif pulses has increased the production of rabi
1. Kinnaur Areca nut pulses has decreased.
2. Mewat Mango Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Coromandel Soya bean (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
58. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days
53. Consider the following towns of India: (2014) and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A
1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture
3. Kancheepuram 4. Karnal is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.”
Which of the above are famous for the production of
Which one of the following is that crop? (2020)
traditional sarees/fabric?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Cotton (b) Jute
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (c) Sugarcane (d) Tea
54. In India, the steel production industry requires the 59. Among the following, which one is the least water-
import of: (2015) efficient crop? (2021)
(a) Saltpetre (b) Rock phosphate (a) Sugarcane (b) Sunflower
(c) Coking coal (d) All of the above (c) Pearl millet (d) Red gram
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold 60. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which
mines. one of the following rivers? (2022)
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. (a) Cauvery (b) Manjira
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Pennar (d) Tungabhadra
56. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in Peak Mountains
which in the last five years, consider the following 1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya
statements:(2019)
2. Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that 3. Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya
of oilseeds. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of matched?
sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily
decreased. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Geography 305
62. Consider the following pairs: (2022) 67. Consider the following statements: (2012)
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from
Reservoirs States
southern India to northern India.
1. Ghataprabha Telangana 2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern
2. Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh plains of India decreases from east to west.
3. Indira Sagar Andhra Pradesh Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. Maithon Chhattisgarh (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs 68. A particular State in India has the following
characteristics: (2012)
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes
63. Among the following States, which one has the through northern Rajasthan.
most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost
of production, and can develop an export oriented 3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected
industry in this field? (2011) Area Network in this State.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Arunachal Pradesh Which one among the following States has all the
above characteristics?
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam
64. The Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy and Mekong rivers
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand
originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and
parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. 69. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the
Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U’’ turn in following statements: (2012)
its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to 1. The country’s total geographical area under the
(2011) category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series as compared to other States.
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
(c) Geo-Tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded
mountain chains Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
65. A state in India has the following characteristics: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(2011) 70. Consider the following pairs: (2013)
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
Tribe States
2. Its central part produces cotton.
1. Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food
crops. 2. Karbi Himachal Pradesh
Which one of the following states has all of the above 3. Dongaria Kondh Odisha
characteristics? 4. 4Bonda Tamil Nadu
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
66. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
following:(2012)
71. The Narmada River flows to the west, while most
1. Deep gorges other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
2. U-turn river courses (2013)
3. Parallel mountain ranges 1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
Which of the above can be said to be the evidence 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.
for Himalayas being young fold mountains? Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None

72. Consider the following pairs: (2013) 77. Consider the following rivers: (2015)
River flowing 1. Vamsadhara 2. Indravati
National Park
through the Park 3. Pranahita 4. Pennar
1. Corbett National Ganga Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
Park
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
2. Kaziranga National Manas (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only
Park
78. In a particular region in India, the local people train
3. Silent Valley Kaveri
the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the
National Park
streams. As the time passes, these bridges become
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only found in (2015)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None (a) Meghalaya (b) Himachal Pradesh
73. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely (c) Jharkhand (d) Tamil Nadu
to see which of the following plants are naturally 79. Consider the following States: (2015)
growing there? (2014) 1. Arunachal Pradesh
1. Oak 2. Himachal Pradesh
2. Rhododendron 3. Mizoram
3. Sandalwood In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Evergreen Forests’ occur?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
74. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, 80. Which one of the following regions of India has a
consider the following statements: (2014) combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand and deciduous forest? (2015)
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool. (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes. (b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
81. At one of the place in India, if you stand on the
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
seashore and watch the sea, ‘you will find that the sea
75. Which of the following have coral reefs? (2014) water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you
2. Gulf of Kachchh can actually walk on the seafloor when the water
3. Gulf of Mannar recedes.’ This unique phenomenon is seen at (2017)
4. Sunderbans (a) Bhavnagar (b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur (d) Nagapattinam
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 82. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following
statements:(2017)
(b) 2 and 4 only
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of
(c) 1 and 3 only
Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a
76. In India, in which one of the following types of forests tributary of river Teesta.
is teak a dominant tree species? (2015) 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest of India and Bangladesh.
(b) Tropical rainforest Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) Temperate forest with Grasslands (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography 307
83. Which one of the following is an artificial lake? (2018)
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
LOCATION/MAP BASED
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh) 90. Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand) and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh) following? (2011)
84. Consider the following statements: (2018) 1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano and Indonesia.
located in Indian territory. 2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Nicobar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since
then. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 91. Two important rivers- one with its source in Jharkhand
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (and known by a different name in Odisha), and
another, with its source in Odisha- merge at a place
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal
85. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur before flowing into the sea. This is an important site
and Kangsabati? (2019)
of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
Which one of the following could be this? (2011)
(b) Tropical rain forests
(a) Bhitarkanika
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs (b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
86. Which of the following Protected Areas are located
in Cauvery basin? (2020) (d) Simlipal
1. Nagarhole National park 92. Consider the following pairs: (2013)
2. Papikonda National Park 1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve - Garo Hills
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake - Barail Range
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Namdapha National Park - Dafla Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
87. With reference to the Indus River system, of the
following four rivers, three of them pour into one
of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the National
following, which one is such a river that joins the Cities Connected
Highway
Indus directly? (2021)
1. NH4 Chennai and Hyderabad
(a) Chenab (b) Jhelum
(c) Ravi (d) Sutlej
2. NH6 Mumbai and Kolkata
88. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol

3. NH15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
and Khatu are the names of (2021) Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Glaciers (b) Mangrove areas (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Ramsar sites (d) Saline lakes (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
89. Consider the following rivers: (2021) 94. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated
1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?(2014)
3. Subarnarekha 4. Vamsadhara (a) Andman and Nicobar
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? (b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 (d) Sumatra and Java

95. Consider the following pairs: (2014) 101. Which one of the following pairs of States of India
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim (2015)
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (c) Assam and Gujarat
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
96. Consider the following rivers: (2014)
Place of Pilgrimage Location
1. Barak 2. Lohit
1. Srisailam Nallamala Hills
3. Subansiri
2. Omakareshwar Satmala Hills
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal
Pradesh? 3. Pushkar Mahadeo Hills
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
103. Which one of the following countries of South-West
Hills Region Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast (2015)
2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast (a) Syria (b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon (d) Israel
3. Mahadeo Hills Central India
4. Mikir Hills North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Famous Place Region
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Bodhgaya Baghelkhand
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 2. Khajuraho Bundelkhand
98. Turkey is located between: (2014) 3. Shirdi Vidarbha
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea 4. Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea 5. Tirupati Rayalaseema
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
99. What is the correct sequence of occurrences of the (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds 105. Which of the following is/are tributary/ tributaries
from south to north? (2014) of Brahmaputra? (2016)
1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi 1. Dibang
3. Jakarta 4. Singapore 2. Kameng
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. Lohit
(a) 4-2-1-3 (b) 3-2-4-1 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-3-2-1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
100. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(2013) 106. In which of the following regions of India are shale
gas resources found? (2016)
Geographical Feature Region
1. Cambay Basin
(a) Abyssinian Plateau
Arabia 2. Cauvery Basin
Arabia
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
(b) Atlas Mountains North-Western Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands South-Western Africa
(d) Okavango Basin Patagonia (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography 309
107. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the 114. Consider the following pairs: (2018)
following countries? (2017)
Towns sometimes
1. Jordan 2. Iraq Country
mentioned in news
3. Lebanon 4. Syria
1. Aleppo Syria
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Kirkuk Yemen
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only 3. Mosul Palestine
108. Which of the following is geographically closest to 4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan
Great Nicobar? (2017) Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Sumatra (b) Borneo (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) Java (d) Sri Lanka (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
109. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what 115. Consider the following pairs: (2019)
is the minimum number of States within India through
which you can travel, including the origin and the Famous Place River
destination? (2017) 1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
(a) 6 (b) 7 2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
(c) 8 (d) 9
3. Hampi Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states
only.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. 116. Consider the following pairs: (2019)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Sea Bordering Country
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only 1. Adriatic Sea Albania
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
2. Black Sea Croatia
111. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/
3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
dried up the recent past due to human activities?
(2018) 4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco
1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 5. Red Sea airyS
3. Lake Baikal Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 117. Siachen Glacier is situated to the: (2020)
112. Among the following cities, which one lies on a (a) East of Aksai Chin
longitude closest to that of Delhi? (2018) (b) East of Leh
(a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad (c) North of Gilgit
(c) Nagpur (d) Pune (d) North of Nubra Valley
113. Consider the following pairs: (2018) 118. Consider the following pairs: (2020)
Regions sometimes mentioned River Flow into
Country
in news
1. Mekong Andaman Sea
1. Catalonia Spain
2. Thames Irish Sea
2. Crimea Hungary
3. Volga Caspian Sea
3. Mindanao Philippines
4. Zambezi Indian Ocean
4. Oromia Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer Key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c)
Explanation
1. (b) Sub-Theme: Motion of Earth
NOTE: This question is a repetition from
Summer Solstice (21st June): 2019 only the sentences of both the question
z The Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards and options are twisted to confuse the
the sun and the rays of the sun fall directly candidate. Also UPSC has asked questions
from similar themes in 2013, please refer to
on the Tropic of Cancer → areas receive
the PYQs for detailed explanation.
more heat.
z The longest day and the shortest night at 2. (c) Sub-Theme: Basics of Solar System
these places occur on 21st June. Thus, the Option (a) is incorrect: The North star/Pole Star

second half of the month of June in the indicates the north direction, therefore walking in
northern hemisphere has the longest day the direction of the pole star will lead him towards
of the year.
NORTH of his current position.
z Areas near the poles receive less heat as
the rays of the sun are slanting. Option (b) is incorrect: Walking in the opposite
z The North Pole is inclined towards the sun direction will lead him towards SOUTH of his
and the places beyond the Arctic Circle current position.
experience continuous daylight for about Option (c) is correct: Walking in the direction
six months. while keeping the polestar to his left would lead
z Since a large portion of the Northern him towards EAST of his current position and he
Hemisphere is getting light from the sun,
can reach his village.
it is summer in the regions north of the
equator. Option (d) is incorrect: Walking in the direction
z Southern Hemisphere: All these conditions while keeping the pole star to his right would lead
are reversed (winter season- longer nights) him towards WEST of his current position.
Geography 311
North star 5. (a) Sub-Theme: Motion of Earth
Option (a) is correct: Areas near the poles
receive less heat as the rays of the sun are
slanting.The North Pole is inclined towards the
sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle
experience continuous daylight for about six
months.
Summer Solstice (21st June):
z The Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards
The pointer stars the sun and the rays of the sun fall directly
on the Tropic of Cancer hence the areas
receive more heat.
West Facing north

East
Note: The Pole star is not visible from the

southern hemisphere. Some of the north-
ern constellations like Ursa Major may also
not be visible from some points in the south-
ern hemisphere. Revolution of the Earth and Seasons
3. (a) Sub-Theme: Basics of Solar System z Since a large portion of the Northern
Earth’s Magnetic Field Diverts Electrically Hemisphere is getting light from the sun,
Charged Particles: it is summer in the regions north of the
equator. The longest day and the shortest
Option (a) is correct: Earth’s field lines start
night at these places occur on 21st June.
near the South Pole of the Earth, curve around in
space, and converge again near the North Pole, z Southern Hemisphere: All these conditions
it forms the magnetosphere, which deflects the are reversed (winter season- longer nights)
Sun’s ions and electrons before they reach us. 6. (d) Sub-Theme: Clouds
Most of the solar wind is diverted to poles.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Low, thick clouds
Option (b) is incorrect: The ozone layer absorbs
primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the
a range of ultraviolet energy, it has nothing to do
with Electrically charged particles. surface of the Earth.
Option (c) is incorrect: Moisture in the upper Statement 2 is incorrect: High, thin clouds
layers of the atmosphere i.e. The Stratosphere primarily transmit incoming solar radiation. At
prevents Ultraviolet rays from reaching the the same time, they trap some of the outgoing
surface of the earth. infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and
4. (d) Sub-Theme: Motion of the Earth radiate it back downward, thereby warming the
surface of the Earth.
Option (d) is correct: Variations in the length
z Whether a given cloud will heat or cool
of daytime and night time from season to season
due to revolution of the earth on a tilted axis. the surface depends on several factors,
Movement of the earth around the sun in a including the cloud’s altitude, its size, and
fixed path or orbit.It takes 365¼ days (one the make-up of the particles that form the
year) to revolve around the sun. As a result cloud.
of the earth’s revolution, you can observe that z The components of the Earth system that
there are days and nights as well as seasonal are important to the radiation budget are
fluctuations. the planet’s surface, atmosphere, and clouds.

7. (a) Sub-Theme: Wind System z The latitude and airspeed have a direct
Option (a) is correct: The Southern hemisphere correlation with the amount of deflection
has less landmass as compared to the northern the air makes. At the equator, the Coriolis
hemisphere. The Coriolis force is the same in force is zero, while maximum at the poles.
both hemispheres. 8. (a) Sub-Theme: Desert
Landmass in both the Hemispheres: Option (a) is correct: The main reason/reasons
z The Northern Hemisphere’s surface for the formation of the African and Eurasian
is about 40% landmass and is covered desert belt is because they are located in the
by about 60% water in the Northern sub-tropical high-pressure cells.
Hemisphere. Deserts:
z The Southern Hemisphere’s surface is z Deserts are regions where evaporation
about 20% landmass and is covered by exceeds precipitation.
80% water. z The main causes of the desert’s aridity
z Circulating air is deflected to the right in are insufficient and irregular rainfall,
the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in high temperatures, and a quick rate of
the Southern Hemisphere as a result of the evaporation.
Earth’s axis of rotation. This is known as the z The hot deserts are found on the western
Coriolis effect. coasts of continents, between 15° and 30°N.
and S, in the trade wind belt.
z Offshore trade winds are often bathed in
cold currents which produce a desiccating
(dehydrating) effect, hence moisture is not
easily condensed into precipitation.
9. (c) Sub-Theme: Layers of Atmosphere
Option (c) is correct: The conditions are
practically perfect for flying airplanes since
this layer is almost completely devoid of clouds
and related weather disturbances. So airplanes
fly in the lower stratosphere, sometimes in the
upper troposphere where weather is calm.
z The increase in the temperature with
height in the stratosphere makes this
region a stable place where the air tends
not to overturn vertically. Thus vertical
Majar Pressure Belts and wind system winds are almost absent in Stratosphere
Turkestan Gobi
Mohave Kashgar
Californian Canaries Iranian
Current Current Sahara Thar
Arabian
Massawa
Atacama Kalahari
Benguela Australian
Peruvian Namib W. Australia
Current
Current Current
Patagonian Hot deserts
Mid-latitude deserts
Cold ocean currents
Geography 313
About Stratosphere: from the Earth’s surface. Temperature falls off
z It is located above the troposphere up to with height at a predictable rate because the
50 km above the surface of the earth. air near the surface is heated and becomes
light, and the air higher up cools to space and
z The thickness of the stratosphere is highest becomes heavy.
at the poles.
Statement 2 is not correct: The water vapour,
which accounts for around 1% of air varies greatly
in the troposphere and decreases rapidly with
altitude.
Statement 3 is correct: The air density in the
atmosphere decreases with height and it helps
in decreasing temperature.
12. (d) Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate
Option (d) is correct: The Tropical Savannah
Region is characterized by a definite dry and wet
season.
Tropical Savannah Region:
z The savanna biome, which is a type of
grassland biome, consists of areas of open
grassland with very few trees.
z In the Wet Season, the weather is warm
and a savanna receives as much as 50 inches
of rain.
z During the Dry Season, weather can be
extremely hot, and rainfall will amount to
only four inches each month.
z This combination of high temperatures and
little precipitation makes savannas perfect
areas for grass and brush fires during their
Layer of Atmosphere dry seasons.
10. (d) Sub-Theme: Mangroves 13. (d) Sub-Theme: Major Climate of the World
Option (d) is correct: because mangroves Statement 1 is correct: The tropical rain
function as a safety hedge in preserving forest appears from above as a dense canopy of
ecological stability. The dense tangle of roots greenery, only disturbed by huge rivers or areas
allows the trees to withstand storms, cyclones or cleared for farming.
even the daily rise and fall of tides. Statement 2 is correct: The higher temperatures
Mangroves: in the tropics cause higher rates of metabolism,
z A mangrove is a small tree or shrub that ecological dynamics and coevolutionary
processes, which generate and maintain higher
grows along coasts, setting roots in salty
biodiversity, which results in the coexistence of
sediments, usually beneath water.
a large number of species.
z Mangrove trees can withstand the tides’
Statement 3 is correct: All plants (most
daily rise and fall due to their complex web
epiphytes) strive upwards for sunshine, resulting
of roots and extensive roots.
in an odd layer structure. Numerous evergreen
11. (c) Sub-Theme: Atmosphere trees that produce tropical hardwoods like
Statement 1 is correct: Normal lapse rate mahogany, ebony, dyewoods, etc. make up the
that is 1-degree Celcius temperature falls at a equatorial vegetation.
height of every 165 mt in the troposphere. As we Natural Vegetation:
increase elevation, the air pressure decreases
z High temperature and abundant rainfall
as there is less air above us. As the pressure
support a luxuriant tropical rainforest.
decreases, air molecules spread out further
i.e. air expands, and the temperature decreases z In the Amazon lowlands, the forest is so
and the atmosphere can be heated upwards only dense that it is called ‘Selvas’.

14. (a) Sub-Theme: Distribution of the temperature of temperature in the interior of the continent as
Earth compared to coastal areas. This is because as
Statement 1 is correct: One major factor compared to oceans, the lands heats up and cools
affecting the distribution of the temperature of down faster.
Earth is the distribution of Land and Oceans. The Statement 3 is not correct: Annual precipitation
loss of heat from the continents is greater than is usually low in the interior areas as well as the
that from the oceans because there is more land presence of weak winds in the interior.
in the northern hemisphere and more water Statement 4 is not correct: The interiors in
in the southern hemisphere, and because the Central Asia receive very poor rainfall due to
specific heat of land and water differs greatly. distance from the sea.
Statement 2 is not correct: The variation in 15. (b) Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate
altitude between continents and oceans is not
Steppe Climate or Temperate Continental Climate
a valid reason for the high annual range of
or Temperate Grassland Climate:
Manchuria
Winnipeg Steppes
Pustaz Grassland
Prairies
W ind
o ok
C hin
Pretoria
Downs
Pampas Veld
Temperate Grasslands Canterburg

Warm Ocean currents Grassland
Temperature:
NOTE: Learn to pick keywords/keyphrases
z Continental climate with extreme from the sentence. Here – ‘extreme climate’;
temperature. ‘scanty rainfall’; ‘nomadic herders’, etc. all
these keywords resemble the characteristics
z Temperatures vary greatly between
of the Central Asian Steppe region. Earlier
summer and winter. UPSC had asked questions about Tropical
Precipitation: Savannah Region and equatorial climate in
2012 and 2013 respectively. So preparing
z The average rainfall is about 45 cm, but about various Biomes/World Climate and
varies as per location from 25 cm to 75 cm. their significant features is crucial.
z The heaviest rain in June and July (late 16. (d) Sub-Theme: Wind Movement
spring and early summer). Statement 1 is not correct: Thunder is the
Nomadic herding in Asian Steppes sound caused by a lightning discharge. Lightning
heats the air in its path and causes a large over-
z The migratory animal grazing has almost
pressure of the air within its channel. The channel
disappeared from the major grasslands. expands supersonically into the surrounding air
Earlier the nomadic herders were wandering as a shock wave and creates an acoustic signal
tribes e.g. the Kirghiz, and the Kazakhs that is heard as thunder.
Geography 315
Statement 2 is not correct: The thunderstorms 18. (b) Sub-Theme: Wind Movement
are associated with the cumulonimbus clouds not
Option (b) is correct: The absence of cyclones
nimbus.
can be demonstrated by the seldom occurance
Statement 3 is not correct: The updraft and
downdraft determine the path of the thunderstorm. of ITCZ Convergence zone in the south east
Pacific and south Atlantic regions. Due to this
there is no creation of ideal conditions for
z Cumulonimbus clouds are tall and
Tropical Cyclone, for e.g. instead of low, there is
dense, and are often associated with
thunderstorms. They can extend up to high vertical wind sheer.
10 miles high in the atmosphere and are Cyclone:
characterized by a large, anvil-shaped top. z A cyclone is a weather phenomenon
Cumulonimbus clouds can produce heavy
characterized by a low-pressure center
rain, hail, lightning, and tornadoes.
surrounded by a rotating system of winds
z On the other hand, Nimbus clouds are
low-level clouds that typically produce that spiral inward.
light to moderate rain or snow. They are Classification of Cyclone:
often found in areas of stable atmospheric Tropical Cyclone
z
conditions and are not typically associated
with thunderstorms. Nimbus clouds can z Extra tropical cyclone also called
appear as a uniform layer of gray or white Temperate cyclone
clouds covering the sky. Factors Responsible for for Tropical Cyclone
17. (c) Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate Formation:
The Monsoon Climate (Am): z Warm Ocean Water: Cyclones form
over warm ocean water, typically with
temperatures of 26 degrees Celsius or higher.
This warm water provides the energy that
fuels the storm.
z Low Atmospheric Pressure: Cyclones form
in areas where the atmospheric pressure is
low. This creates an area of low pressure
that draws in warm, moist air from the
surrounding environment.
z Coriolis Effect: The Coriolis effect is a
z The monsoon climate is a type of weather phenomenon caused by the rotation of
where it rains a lot. the Earth. It causes air to be deflected to
z It’s found in India, South-east Africa, the right in the Northern Hemisphere and
Northern Australia, the Guinea Coast of West to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
Africa and the Pacific Coast of Columbia. This effect is what causes cyclones to spin
z The seasonal reversal of wind along with in a clockwise direction in the Southern
alternating intervals of rainfall and drought Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the
define the monsoon climate. Northern Hemisphere.
z Due to variances in yearly temperature z Humidity: Cyclones require a high level of
fluctuations between continents and humidity in order to form. This is because
oceans, the monsoonal circulation system
the warm, moist air that is drawn into the
with reversal of wind direction emerges.
low-pressure center of the storm helps to
NOTE: Earlier UPSC had asked questions fuel its growth and intensity.
about Tropical Savannah Region and
19. (b) Sub-Theme: Wind Movement/Indian Monsoon
Equatorial climate in 2012 and 2013
respectively. They have also asked about Option (b) is correct: Generally the westerlies
characteristics of the Central Asian Steppe flow between 30° and 60°N and 30° and 60°S
region and Monsoon climate in 2013 and latitude respectively. The moist air masses that
2014 respectively. So preparing about cause winter rains in North-Western region of
various Biomes/World Climate and their India are part of westerlies which are also known
significant features is crucial. as winter disturbances.

Westerlies:
21. (b) S u b -T h e m e : D e w Fo r m a t i o n / Wa te r i n
z The westerlies are the winds blowing Atmosphere
from the subtropical high pressure belts Option (b) is correct: The dew drops are not
towards the sub polar low pressure belts. formed on a cloudy night because the Clouds
z The Westerlies play an important role in reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
carrying the warm, equatorial waters and z Cloud cover prevents radiation from earth
winds to the western coasts of continents surfaces from escaping during cloudy
that is the eastern section of the Oceans in nights. It maintains a high air temperature.
the temperate zone. Additionally, the moisture won’t condense
and turn into dew drops on the grass
Note: In this question, the examiner made and leaves. Dew is formed when the air
a simple but difficult to observe change in temperature touches the dew point.
latitudes i.e “30 N and 60 S latitudes” to
z Dew point is the temperature at which
make the statement incorrect. Always read
air becomes saturated with water vapor,
questions carefully and cautiously. Although causing condensation to form. It is the
we read incorrect statements in the exam temperature at which the air would need to
hall, our mind correlates it to what we have be cooled in order for the relative humidity
read in the textbook/standard book, making to reach 100%.
it difficult to identify minor twists and
22. (c) Sub-Theme: Wind Movement
twicks. Earlier, UPSC had asked questions on
westerlies in 2011. Revising PYQ and doing Jet Stream:
peripheral research is always important z The Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind that
from prelims perspective. generally blows from west to east across
the upper layers of the troposphere at an
20. (b) Sub-Theme: Biomes/World Climate
altitude of 20,000 to 50,000 feet.
Option (b) is correct: The above sentence z Air masses with different temperatures
indicates the characteristics of the Equatorial collide to form jet streams. Thus, the location
region. of the Jet Stream’s formation is normally
Equatorial Climate: characterized by surface temperatures.
z Equatorial climate is typically hot and Statement 1 is not correct: In both the
humid, with little seasonal variation in hemispheres, jet streams run from 20 degrees
temperature. These regions are located latitude to the poles.
near the equator, including parts of South Statement 2 is correct: Only some cyclones
America, Africa, and Asia. Precipitation is develop an eye. The eye is not present in a
high and frequent throughout the year, temperate cyclone since there is not a single
with some areas receiving over 100 inches location where the winds and precipitation are
(250 cm) annually.These regions are also not present.
prone to tropical storms and cyclones,
especially in coastal areas, which can cause Statement 3 is not correct: The tropical
significant damage to infrastructure and cyclone’s eye is the area with the lowest surface
ecosystems. pressure and the warmest air above it (in the
upper levels). The eye temperature may be 10°C
z Each day is more or less the same, the
or more above the surrounding air at a height of
morning is clear and bright with a sea
12 km, whereas it is only 0–2°C warmer at the
breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky,
surface.
heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain
comes with thunder and lightning. But the 23. (c) Sub-Theme: Wind Movement
rain is soon over. Statement 1 is correct: The Trade winds
NOTE: Again a direct question came from originate from subtropical high pressure
GC Leong. Also please learn to identify regions and move toward the equatorial low
pressure belt. At the equator, the trade winds
keywords/keyphrases, anyone with a decent
from the two hemispheres collide, rising and
reading of NCERTs and GC Leong could
bringing torrential rainfall. The Northeast trade
easily answer this question. Questions on
winds in the Northern hemisphere of the tropical
Equatorial climate have been repeated in
zone move warmer water westward through
2013, therefore for detailed explanation on the ocean. As a result of the cool ocean currents,
Equatorial Biomes please refer to respective the eastern regions of the trade winds are drier
PYQs. and more stable than the western parts of the ocean.
Geography 317
Statement 2 is correct: The westerlies are the z Precipitation is heavy and well distributed
winds blowing from the subtropical high throughout the year.
pressure belts towards the sub polar low z From the air, the tropical rain forest appears
pressure belts.The Westerlies play an important like a thick canopy of foliage, broken only
role in carrying the warm, equatorial waters and where it is crossed by large rivers or cleared
winds to the western coasts of continents that is for cultivation.
eastern section of the Oceans in the temperate z All plants struggle upwards (most
zone. epiphytes) for sunlight resulting in a
24. (d) Sub-Theme: Major Climate of the World peculiar layer arrangement, rooted on the
upper branches of trees.
Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate:
z The equatorial vegetation comprises a
z Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate is found multitude of evergreen trees that yield
between 5° and 10° north and south of tropical hardwood, e.g. mahogany, ebony,
the equator. dyewoods etc.
Bogota Kuala Lumpur
hot, wet equatorial regions
Statement 2 is correct: Ocean acidification

NOTE: UPSC has this habit of picking lines from
will affect corals and this will, in turn, affect
GC Leong and frame it as a question. Please learn
one million species that have made corals their
to pick the hints from the UPSC question, here
homes.
in the above sentence observe the keywords
like ‘Leaf litter decomposes faster’; ‘canopy’; Statement 3 is correct: Coral reefs will erode
‘epiphytes’; etc. these are enough/sufficient faster than they can rebuild. When shelled
hints to answer this question. Now if you have organisms are at risk, the entire food web may
read NCERTs and GC Leong you could easily also be at risk.
identify that these are the characteristics of Statement 4 is incorrect: Atmospheric sulfur is
‘Tropical Rainforest’ or ‘Hot, Wet Equatorial produced and emitted by phytoplankton from the
Climate’. ocean in the form of dimethyl sulfide, the increase
in ocean acidification led to an adverse impact
25. (a) Sub-Theme: Ocean Acidification
on phytoplankton development and which led
Statement 1 is correct: Ocean acidification to a low amount of sulfur emission. This will
ecreases the calcifying ability of corals, decrease cloud formation in small amounts and
calcareous plankton, crustaceans etc. not adversely affect indirectly on cloud formation.

26. (d) Sub-Theme: El niño & La-nina 27. (b) Sub-Theme: Factors Influence the Ocean
Statement 1 is incorrect: La Nina is characterized Currents
by unusually cold ocean temperatures in the Statement 1 is correct: The Coriolis force is
Equatorial Pacific, compared to El Nino, the result of the earth’s rotation. It intervenes
which is characterized by unusually warm ocean
and causes the water to move to the right in
temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific.
the northern hemisphere and to the left in the
Statement 2 is incorrect: La Nina causes southern hemisphere.
drought in Peru and Ecuador, heavy floods in
Statement 2 is correct: Wind blowing on the
Australia, high temperatures in Western Pacific,
surface of the ocean pushes the surface water
Indian Ocean, off the Somalian coast, and good
monsoon rains in India. El Nino: It occurs more along with it and the friction between the wind
frequently than La Nina. This event is not an and the water surface affects the movement of
usual cycle, they are not predictable and occur the water body in its course.
irregularly at 2 to 7 year intervals. When the Statement 3 is correct: Differences in water
coastal waters become warmer in the eastern density affects vertical mobility of ocean currents.
tropical Pacific (El Niño) it leads to the decrease Water with high salinity is denser than water with
of atmospheric pressure above the oceans. low salinity and in the same way cold water is
denser than warm water. Denser water tends to
sink, while relatively lighter water tends to rise.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The revolution of the
earth does not influence the ocean currents.
28. (c) Sub-Theme: Ocean Currents
Option (c) is correct: The area where the
warm and cold currents meet results in the
deposition of planktons. Therefore, at such
places, fishes can be found in abundance.
Generally, shallow water close to the land
where the warm and the cold currents meet
are considered as the most important fishing
grounds of the world. Examples of such regions
are: Newfoundlands, Seas north of Japan.
Geography 319
29. (b) Sub-Theme: Equatorial Counter Currents 32. (d) Sub-Theme: Coral reef distribution
Option (a) is incorrect: As the earth rotates z Coral reefs are underwater ecosystems
from west to east, water near the equator tends formed by colonies of tiny animals called
to move from east to west (due to the prevailing coral polyps. These animals secrete a
hard, calcium carbonate exoskeleton
winds). This leads to the formation of Equatorial
that provides a foundation for the growth
currents, both North and South of the equator.
of other corals and a diverse array of marine
Option (b) is correct: Piling up of water in the organisms. Coral reefs are found in tropical
western pacific due to the convergence of the and subtropical waters around the world,
North Equatorial Current and South Equatorial particularly in the Pacific Ocean, the Indian
Current. This piled up water then flows from west Ocean, and the Caribbean Sea.
to east, under the effect of gravity, resulting in Statement 1 is correct: The majority of reef-
Counter Equatorial Current (CEC). building corals are found within tropical and
Option (c) is incorrect: Difference in salinity subtropical waters. These typically occur between
of water greatly influences vertical currents and 30° north and 30° south latitudes.
its influence on horizontal movement is less
significant.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Doldrums/
Equatorial belt around the Equator are zones of
very calm winds, it has little effect on eastward
flow of equatorial counter current.
30. (d) Sub-Theme: Formation of Tides
Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): Neutral Phase

Statement 2 is correct: The Indonesian/
Philippines archipelago, Great Barrier Reef of
Australia, the Red Sea, and the Caribbean has
the world’s greatest concentration of reefs and
the greatest coral diversity.
Statement 3 is correct: Some scientists estimate
z Tides: The “tide” refers to the daily or twice- that more than 25,000 described species from
daily cyclic rise and fall of the sea level, which thirty-two of the world’s thirty-three animal
is primarily caused by the gravitational phyla live in reef habitats four times the number
pull of the moon and the sun. Due to the of animal phyla found in tropical rainforests.
significant fluctuations in frequency, size,
33. (b) Sub-Theme: Oceanography
and height of tides, studying them requires
a tremendous deal of geographical and About Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT):
temporal complexity. z It is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal
z Tides occur due to a balance between all energy between January and March, and it
these forces such as Gravitational force of is more accurate than SST at forecasting the
the Sun; Gravitational force of the Moon Indian summer monsoon.
and Centrifugal force of the Earth. z Unlike SST, OMT was able to accurately
predict whether the summer monsoon
31. (b) Sub-Theme: Indian Ocean Dipole
rainfall was greater than or less than the
Statement 1 is incorrect: IOD is the difference in long-term average in 20 of 25 years (80%
sea surface temperature between two poles or success rate).
areas i.e. an eastern pole in the eastern Indian z The reason why OMT performs better than
Ocean south of Indonesia, and a western pole SST is because OMT better represents the
in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean). upper ocean thermal energy conditions. And
Statement 2 is correct: Negative IOD events are the variations in the upper ocean thermal
often associated with La Nina and positive IOD energy conditions are mainly responsible
events with El Nino. for the summer monsoon

Statement 1 is incorrect: OMT is measured up 36. (d) Sub-Theme: Dynamic Changes of The Earth
to a depth of 26°C isotherm at depths varying Factors of The Dynamic Changes of The Earth:
from 50-100 meters not 129 meters z Electromagnetic Radiation: The radiation
Statement 2 is correct: OMC is analyzed by travels in waves and has electric and
measuring the ocean thermal energy during the magnetic fields.It consists of X-rays, gamma
January-March period - can better predict Indian rays, infrared light, visible light, ultraviolet
summer monsoon than the SST. light, radio waves, and microwaves.
z Geothermal Energy: The primary driving
34. (c) Sub-Theme: Soil Characteristics force behind endogenic geomorphic
Statement 1 is correct: Laterite soil is reddish- processes is energy coming from within the
brown in colour due to the presence of iron oxide. ground. The primary sources of this energy
are radioactivity, friction caused by tidal and
Statement 2 is incorrect: Laterite soil is rich in rotational motion, and primordial heat from
bauxite or ferric oxide. Poor in lime, magnesia, the earth’s formation.
potash and nitrogen. z Gravitational Force: In addition to being a
Statement 3 is incorrect: The laterite soils are directional force that activates all downward
commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil motions of matter, gravity stresses the
Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of constituent parts of the earth. Eg: Mass
Orissa and Assam. movement, Avalanche.
z Plate Movements: Earthquakes and
Statement 4 is correct: Suitable crops grown in continent building are the results of plate
laterite soil are Groundnut, cashew nut, coffee, movement.
rubber, cinchona, arecanut, tapioca, etc. z Rotation of the Earth: The unequal heating
35. (b) Sub-Theme: Gondwana System of the earth’s surface, which arises from
rotation about its axis, creates pressure
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gondwana rocks differences and generates winds.
contain nearly 98 per cent of India’s coal z Revolution of the Earth: Earth rotates in
reserves. an elliptical orbit around the sun. The term
Statement 2 is correct: Koderma is a well-known “Aphelion” refers to the period when the
place for mica production in Jharkhand. distance between the sun and Earth is at
its greatest and “Perihelion” to the period
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Dharwar system is when it is at its shortest.
economically the most important rocks because z Thus, all of the above are responsible for
they possess valuable minerals like high-grade bringing dynamic changes on the surface of
iron-ore, manganese, copper etc not petroleum. the earth.
Geography 321
37. (d) Sub-Theme: Soil Conservation 40. (b) Sub-Theme: Soil degradation
Option (d) is correct: Contour bunding is a z Soil erosion is the process by which soil
method of soil conservation used in Terrace is displaced and transported from one
Farming. location to another by natural forces
z Terracing and contour bunding which such as wind or water. It is a natural process
divide the hill slope into numerous small that occurs over time, but human activities
slopes, check the flow of water, promote such as deforestation, overgrazing, and
absorption of water by soil and save soil construction can accelerate the process,
from erosion. leading to significant environmental damage.
z Soil Conservation: Preventing soil erosion Statement 1 is incorrect: Terracing is the
or diminished fertility due to excessive practice of creating nearly level areas in a
use, acidification, salinization, or other hillside area. protected from erosion by other
chemical soil contamination is known as soil barriers.
soil conservation. The biggest single threat Statement 2 is correct: Deforestation is one of
to Indian agriculture and animal husbandry the major reasons for soil erosion. It includes
is soil erosion. cutting and felling of trees, removal of forest litter.
z Contour Bunding: Construction of banks Browsing and trampling by livestock, forest fires,
along contours is referred to as contour also leads to deforestation, etc.
bunding. In affluent areas, this technique Statement 3 is incorrect: In the tropical
for conserving soil and water is used. Some monsoon climate people are mainly engaged in
other methods of soil conservation:Some agriculture. Crops growing: rice, wheat, pulses,
other methods like Crop,Strip cropping,No- cotton, jute, sugarcane, oilseeds, coffee, tea and
till farming, Contour ploughing,Terrace various types of fruits and vegetables.
farming.
41. (a) Sub-Theme: Minor Minerals in india
38. (c) Sub-Theme: Soil Fertility
Statement 1 is correct: Sand is a ‘minor mineral’
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Animal waste according to the prevailing law in the country.
like urea, uric acid and death of vegetation add
Statement 2 is incorrect: Any mineral which by
nitrogen in the form of nitrates directly into the
the notification of the Central Government may
soil.
declare to be a minor mineral.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Burning coal releases
Statement 3 is correct: The State Government
CO, CO 2 , sulphur dioxide and oxides of
may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make
nitrogen - air pollutants to the atmosphere.
rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases,
39. (c) Sub-Theme: Evolution vs Glacial cycle mining leases or other mineral concessions in
Factors that might have influenced the respect of minor minerals and for purposes
Evolution of Organisms: connected therewith.
z Continental Drift: The evolution must 42. (d) Sub-Theme: Major Minerals in India
have been influenced by the movement of z Chromite, Kyanite and Sillimanite are
some animals due to continental drift, while metallic minerals and metallic minerals
others must have become stranded in one mostly come in the major mineral category.
location. The distinctive primates found in Therefore, the correct answer is (d) that
Australia and South America are among the is 2, 3 and 4 only.
most notable examples of how continental z Major minerals: Major minerals are those
drift affected creature evolution. specified in the Mines and Minerals
z Glacial Cycles: The evolution of species (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
may have been impacted by the increase in Major minerals include: Lignite, Chromite,
sea level brought on by glacial melt. Uranium, Kyanite, Coal, Gold, Iron ore, Lead-
z The final stages of evolution of Genus Homo Zinc, Magnesium, Sillimanite, Tungsten, and
occurs in the last 3 glacial cycles. Diamond etc.

z Minor minerals: Here are few minerals z Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and
that the Central Government has thus it is also known as black cotton soil.
declared as minor minerals: boulder,
sand, shingle, chalcedony pebbles, lime z Formed as a result of the basaltic rocks’
shell, kankar and limestone, brick-earth, weathering, which first appeared during
fuller’s earth, bentonite, road metal, slate, Cretaceous fissure eruption.
marble, stone used for making household
utensils, quartzite and sandstone, saltpetre z This type of lava flow-derived soil is typical
and ordinary earth. of the northwest Deccan plateau’s Deccan
43. (b) Sub-Theme: Type of Soil trap (Basalt) region.
Option (b) is correct: The black cotton soils of z Basalt contains titanium-ferromagnetic
India have been formed due to the weathering
chemicals, which give basalt its characteristic
of the fissure volcanic rock.
black colour.
44. (c) Sub-Theme: Tea production
Major Soils Types
Geography 323
Tea Climatic conditions: excess water to drain away,Tea plants prefer
z Climate: Tropical and Subtropical climate, soils with good structure and high porosity
Warm and moist frost free climate to allow oxygen to reach the roots.
throughout the year with rainfall-1500 mm. z Temperature: Less than 15 degree Celsius.
z Soil: Tea plants require well-drained, fertile z As per the Tea Board under the Ministry
soil that is rich in organic matter,The pH of of Commerce and Industry, and Indian Tea
the soil should be slightly acidic, ranging Association, Assam, West Bengal, Tamil
Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Kerala
between 4.5 and 5.5,The soil should be
and Karnataka are the states known as tea-
able to retain moisture while also allowing producing States.
45. (b) Sub-Theme: Rare Earth Metal 46. (c) Sub-Theme: Major crops in India
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Rare earth Option (c) is correct: The crop suitable to
metals are a group of 17 elements. They are be grown in the lower Gangetic plain, which
lustrous silvery-white soft heavy metals. China is characterized by a humid climate with high
accounts for 90% of the world’s rare earth temperature throughout the year, is Paddy and
production. In India, monazite is the principal Jute.
source of rare earths and thorium. z Paddy: It grows well in the plains of north
Statement 3 is incorrect: Monazite, though and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the
found in most coastal areas of India, is unlikely deltaic regions, where there is an abundance
to be found along the entire coast. The main of alluvial clayey soil. A high temperature
mines are found along the coasts of southern (above 25°C) and significant humidity
India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in Orissa. are necessary for this kharif crop.
Statement 4 is correct: As per Atomic Energy z Jute: Its cultivation is mainly concentrated
(Radiation Protection) Rules 2004, Indian Rare in eastern India because of the rich alluvial
Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public soil of Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Jute crops
Sector Undertaking of the Government of India need humid conditions with temperature
(GOI) under DAE, is the only entity which swings between 24 and 38 degrees
has been permitted to produce and process Celsius.
monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well
as for export. 47. (c) Sub-Theme: Agricultural pattern/type
Option (c) is correct: Mixed Farming is a
NOTE: In the question, in statement 3, the situation in which both raising crops and rearing
extreme word ‘entire’ is a red flag. animals are carried on simultaneously.

Option (a) and (b) are incorrect: Cultivation of z It is used to generate power, provide energy
both cash crops and food crops and Cultivation of to industries, and meet domestic demands.
two or more crops in the same field are related z Indian coals have a high ash level but a low
to the practice of mixed cropping or inter sulphur content by nature.
cropping.
z Indian coal has a high ash fusion
48. (d) Sub-Theme: Major crop temperature of about 1,500°C.
Option (d) is correct: The crops which are z In India, bituminous coal accounts for over
predominantly rainfed in India are Groundnut, 80% of the non-coking quality coal reserves.
Sesamum and Pearl millets.
z Groundnut is a drought-tolerant crop that 50. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Crops
requires moderate rainfall for its growth Option (c) is correct: Cotton, Groundnut and
and development. Rainfall for cultivation - Rice are Kharif Crops in India.
500 to 600 mm per annum, distributed
rainfall pattern throughout the growing About Kharif Crops:
season. Groundnut can withstand a dry spell z Kharif crops are sown during June-July
of 15-20 days during its vegetative stage, and harvested during September-October
but it requires adequate moisture during period. Rice, maize, jowar, bajra, moong,
the flowering and pod formation stages. tur, urad, jute, cotton, soybean, groundnut,
z Sesamum requires temperature is 25°C to etc. are the type of kharif crops.
30°C, can tolerate up to 40°C, sensitive to
z Rice: Temperature-22-32 degree celsius,
frost required rainfall is 500-600 mm, its
Rainfall-1500-300 cm, Soil-Deep clay and
drought-tolerant, excessive rainfall during
flowering can cause lower yields . It requires loamy soil.
well-drained Soil type, rich in organic matter, z Cotton: Temperature 21-30 degree
pH range of 5.5 to 8.0. celsius,Rainfall 50-100 cm, Soil-well drained
z Pearl millet is a hardy crop that can grow light sandy loams, yellow and black soils.
in semi-arid regions. The ideal rainfall for z Groundnut: Temperature-30-35 degree
pearl millet cultivation is between 400 celsius, Rainfall-40-125 cm,Well drained
to 600 mm per annum, with a well- sandy loam soil
distributed rainfall pattern throughout the
growing season. Pearl millet can tolerate About Rabi Crops:
drought conditions and requires moisture z Rabi crop is sown during October-
during the early growth stages, especially December month and harvested in April-
during germination and tillering. June. Wheat, barley, peas, gram, mustard
z Rainfed areas receive more than 750 mm. etc are types of Rabi crops.
Rainfed agriculture is carried out in a wide z Wheat: Temperature 10-15 degree celsius,
range of soil types, agro-climatic conditions, Rainfall 50-100 cm, Soil-well drained fertile
and annual rainfall ranges from 400 mm loamy soil.
to 1600 mm. Rain-fed areas account for
percent of millet production, 88 percent of 51. (d) Sub-Theme: Water consumption
pulses, 73 percent of cotton, 69 percent of Consumption of water in various industries:
oilseeds including groundnut and Sesame. z Engineering consumes nearly
NOTE: Question on crops earlier came in 2019.9 million cubic metres annually.
CSE-2011. Reading about important crops z Paper and pulp consume nearly
and their characteristics from NCERT 905.8 million cubic metres annually.
(Class 12th - India people and Economy) is z Textiles consume nearly 829.8 million cubic
important. metres annually.
49. (a) Sub-Theme: Major Mineral z Thermal power plants consume nearly
Option (a) is correct: The India Coal is mainly 35,157.4 million cubic metres annually.
characterised by High Ash COntent and Low 52. (d) Sub-Theme: Famous crop and places
Sulphur Content.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Kinnaur is
z Coal is the most widely used fossil fuel mostly famous for apples. The production of
in India. It meets a sizable portion of the Areca nuts is mostly confined to Karnataka,
country’s energy requirements.
Kerala and Assam.
Geography 325
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The main 56. (a) Sub-Theme: Major Crops
occupation of Mewat is agriculture along
Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice
with allied and agro-based activities, it is not
cultivation in India, in 2013-14 was 44.13 million
famous for mango. Major mango-growing states
hectares while in 2015-16, it became 43.39
are Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka,
million hectares and is highest amongst all.
Bihar, West Bengal, etc.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: In the Statement 2 is incorrect: The annual area under
Coromandel Coast, major cultivations are Jowar ranges between 17 and 18 million hectares
Rice, pulses, sugarcane, cotton, peanuts, etc. while the oilseed area is 28 million hectares
Production of soybean in India is dominated (2013-14), 26.1 million hectares (2015-16) i.e
by Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh which area under the cultivation of Jowar is less than
contribute 89 percent of the total production. that of oilseeds.
53. (b) Sub-Theme: Traditional Saree/fabric Statement 3 is correct: The area under
sugarcane cultivation is 4.99 million hectares
Option 1 and 4 are incorrect: Bhadrachalam
(2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-15),
and Karnal are not famous for the production
4.953 million hectares (2015-16). The area
of traditional sarees/fabric.
under cotton cultivation is 11.96 million hectares
Option 2 and 3 are correct: Chanderi sarees (2013-14), 12.81 million hectares (2014-15),
is a traditional sari made in Chanderi, Madhya and 11.87 million hectares (2015-16). Hence the
Pradesh, India. Kanjeevaram is a traditional area under cotton cultivation is more than sugar
sari from Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu, India, that cultivation.
is usually handwoven in mulberry silk and has
pure gold or silver zari that renders it a festive Statement 4 is incorrect: The area under
quality. sugarcane cultivation has not steadily decreased.
54. (c) Sub-Theme: Industry 57. (a) Sub-Theme: Major crops
Option (a) is incorrect: Saltpetre (Potassium Statement 1 is correct: In India, the important
nitrate) is not used in the production of Steel. It pulse crops grown in winter (rabi) are chickpea,
is used in the production of fertilizers, tree stump lentil, lathyrus, field pea and kidney bean.
removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. However, green gram, black gram and cowpea
are grown in both spring and rainy season.
Option (b) is incorrect: Rock phosphate is used
in the production of fertilizer and not for the Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the
production of Steel. Directorate of Economics and Statistics (DES),
Option (c) is correct: The production of steel the share of pulse production in 2018- 19 was
requires 0.8 tonnes of coking coal to produce comprised of Tur (15.34%), Gram (43.29%),
one tonne of Steel. And about 85% of the coking Moong (green gram,10.04%), Urad (black gram,
coal requirement of the domestic steel industry 13.93%), Lentil (6.67%), and Other Pulses (10%).
is presently being met through imports. Statement 3 is incorrect: In the last three
55. (d) Sub-Theme: Mines and Mineral/Mineral Rules decades, both, the production of kharif pulses
and the production of rabi pulses have
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the MMDR increased.
Amendment Act 2015, the state governments
will conduct auctions for grant of mineral 58. (a) Sub-Theme: Major Crop
concessions. The role of the central government Cotton:
is to prescribe the terms and conditions and z Temperature: Between 21-30°C
procedures subject to which the auction shall be z Rainfall: Around 50-100 cm.
conducted.
z Soil Type: Well drained black cotton soil of
Statement 2 is incorrect: Largest gold ore Deccan Plateau.
(primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed z Top Cotton Producing States: Gujarat >
by Rajasthan (25%) and Karnataka (21%), West Maharashtra > Telangana > Andhra
Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh (3% each). Pradesh > Rajasthan.
Statement 3 is correct: Hematite and magnetite z It is believed that the cotton plant originated
are the most important iron ores in India and in India. One of the primary raw materials
resources of hematite are spread in Andhra used in the cotton textile business is cotton.
Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Maharashtra, Madhya z Cotton needs 210 frost-free days and
Pradesh, Meghalaya, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. bright sun-shine for its growth.

z It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 61. (b) Sub-Theme: Physical features of India
8 months to mature. Pair 1 is incorrect: Namcha Barwa is not situated
z The government of India has launched the in Garhwal Himalaya. It is situated in the Eastern
Silver Fibre Revolution and Technology Himalaya.
Mission on Cotton programmes to increase
Pair 2 is correct: The part of the Himalayas
cotton production.
lying between Satluj and Kali rivers is known as
z For protection against pest attacks and Kumaon Himalayas. Nanda Devi is part of the
environmental stress, cotton has been Kumaon Himalayas, and is located in the state
genetically altered into BT Cotton.
of Uttarakhand, between the Rishi Ganga valley
NOTE: Learn to pick keywords/keyphrases on the west and the Goriganga valley on the east.
from these long sentences to reach the Pair 3 is incorrect: Nokrek is situated in West
correct answer. Here the keywords are – Garo Hills of Meghalaya, not in Sikkim Himalaya.
‘subtropical’; ‘210 frost-free days’; ‘50 62. (c) Sub-Theme: Reservoir and their location
to 100 centimeters of rainfall’; ‘well-
drained soil’. These keywords/keyphrases Pair 1 is incorrect: The Ghataprabha Reservoir
are enough to mark the correct answer. is located in the Belagavi district of the state of
Also, this underlines the importance of Karnataka.
reading NCERTs. UPSC asks questions on Pair 2 is correct: The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one
various crop/crops and their characteristics of the four major dams built on India’s Chambal
every alternate year. It is advisable to read River located in the Mandsaur, districts of the
India People and Economy class XII NCERT state of Madhya Pradesh.
thoroughly. Pair 3 is incorrect: The Indira Sagar Dam is
59. (a) Sub-Theme: Water efficient crop the largest dam in India, in terms of volume of
water stored in the reservoir. It is located on the
Option (a) is correct: Sugarcane requires around Narmada River at the town of Narmada Nagar,
1800 to 2200 mm and basically it is a heavy water
Punasa in the Khandwa district of Madhya
intensive crop.
Pradesh in India.
Option (b) is incorrect: Major oilseeds like
Pair 4 is incorrect: The Maithon Dam is
soyabean, castor seeds, cotton seeds, linseed and
constructed on the Barakar River and it is located
sunflower, etc. requires around 672.4 mm.
at Maithon, 48 km from Dhanbad, in the state of
Option (c) is incorrect: Millets can be grown Jharkhand in India.
even in dry regions without irrigation facilities.
63. (b) Sub-Theme: State of India
Pearl millets require around 350 mm of water.
About Orchid in Arunachal Pradesh:
Option (d) is incorrect: Pulses like red gram
require around 200-450 mm of water. The ecological condition and climate variation in
Arunachal Pradesh are so favorable that the state
60. (c) Sub-Theme: Physical features of India
holds about 60% of the Indian variety of orchids.
z The gorge of Gandikota is situated on the Arunachal Pradesh is often called the Orchid State
Pennar River in Andhra Pradesh and is
of India.
known as the Grand Canyon of India.
z Gorges are formed when rivers erode 64. (b) Sub-Theme: Himalayan River System/Drainage
through gigantic rock formations over a long Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to
period of time. flow into India due to the Syntaxial bending of
z A gorge is any valley formed by a source of geologically young Himalayas.
water flowing between tall slabs of steep About Syntaxial Bends/Syntaxis:
rocks.
z The Himalayan mountains’ gently arching
z Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa ranges on their western and eastern
district of Andhra Pradesh. extremities are abruptly bent southward in
z The swift flowing waters of River Pennar cut deep knee bends known as syntaxial bends.
through the granite rocks near the village of z The massive mountains seem to bend
Gandikota, naturally eroding the rock and around a pivotal point on both the ends.
forming a deep valley.
z The westernmost point is located where the
z The spectacular gorge is famously adjudged Hindu Kush joins the Karakoram south of
as the Grand Canyon of India. the Pamir.
Geography 327
z Arunachal Pradesh’s eastern border About Himalayan Physiography:
features a similarly abrupt, almost hairpin
z The Himalayas along with other Peninsular
curve when the mountain’s strike abruptly
shifts from an easterly to a southerly mountains are young, weak and flexible in
tendency. their geological structure unlike the rigid
65. (b) Sub-Theme: State of India
and stable Peninsular Block.
The state of Gujarat is characterised by its northern
z Consequently, they are still subjected to the
part having arid and semi arid climate. Its central
part produces cotton and the Cultivation of cash interplay of exogenic and endogenic forces,
crops is predominant over food crops. resulting in the development of faults, folds
About Gujarat (Gandhinagar):
and thrust plains.
z Physiography: Dry Desert, Coastal
region, Semi-arid Kachchh region towards z These mountains are tectonic in origin,
west,Kathiawar Peninsula (Saurashtra) dissected by fast-flowing rivers which are
z Major crops: Cotton (30% of total
in their youthful stage.
production in the country), Groundnuts,
Tobacco-All cash crops. z In fact the whole mountain system of
66. (d) Sub-Theme: Physiography of India Himalaya represents a very youthful
Deep Gorges, U-turn river courses, Parallel topography with high peaks, deep
mountain ranges and steep gradients causing
V-shaped valleys, gorges, rapids,
landslides - all these are representations or
characterics of Himalayan youthful topography. waterfalls, steep slopes, et

Himalayas
67. (c) Sub-Theme: Indian Monsoon 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected
z Monsoon refers to a seasonal change Area Network in Arunachal Pradesh. (Forest
in wind patterns that results in a shift Report)
in precipitation patterns over a region. z Arunachal Pradesh is located on the same
Monsoons occur primarily in tropical and latitude which passes through northern
subtropical regions and are characterized Rajasthan.
by a wet season and a dry season. z Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Sikkim, Uttar
z During the wet season, the winds bring in Pradesh, Haryana are the states that lie
warm, moist air from over the oceans, which in the same latitude that passes through
leads to increased rainfall over the land. Rajasthan.
z The dry season, on the other hand, is
69. (a) Sub-Theme: State of India/Wetland
characterized by a shift in wind patterns,
which brings in cooler, drier air from over Wetlands:
the land, leading to a decrease in rainfall. z Wetlands are areas where water is the
Statement 1 is correct: Due to its proximity primary factor controlling the environment
to the sea, India’s southern region has earlier and the associated plant and animal life.
and longer rainy seasons than its northern They occur where the water table is at or
region. Rainfall in the northern section of near the surface of the land, or where the
India diminishes as rain-bearing winds cross land is covered by water.
the western ghats and humidity decreases.
z Under the text of the Ramsar Convention
The southwest monsoon and the retreating
(Article 1.1), wetlands are defined as: “areas
monsoon (northeast monsoon) bring rain to
India’s southern region. of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether
natural or artificial, permanent or temporary,
Statement 2 is correct: With growing distance
with water that is static or flowing, fresh,
from the sea, monsoon rainfall tends to decrease.
brackish or salt, including areas of marine
During the southwest monsoon, Kolkata receives
water the depth of which at low tide does
119 cm, Patna 105 cm, Allahabad 76 cm, and
Delhi 56 cm. not exceed six metres”.
68. (a) Sub-Theme: State of India/Map based Statement 1 is correct: The total wetland area
z Arunachal Pradesh has a forest cover of in Gujarat is 23.14% of the total wetland of the
80% with total areas of 67410 sq km. Over country.
Geography 329
Statement 2 is incorrect: The area under inland 73. (a) Sub-Theme: Natural Vegetation of India
wetlands accounts for 69%, coastal wetlands
27%, and other wetlands (smaller than 2.25 ha) 4%. Statement 1 is correct: Evergreen broad-leaf
trees, such as oaks and chestnuts, belong to
NOTE: Please refer to PYQ 2011 for detailed wet temperate types of forests (1000 and 2000
information on the state of Gujarat.
metres).
70. (a) Sub-Theme: Tribes of India
Statement 2 is correct: Coniferous trees like
Pair 1 is correct: Tamang , Limbu, Bhutia, Khas, Rhododendron, pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and
Lepchas are the tribal community of Sikkim.
cedar, are found in the temperate forests (1500
Pair 2 is incorrect: Karbi is a tribal community and 3000 metres).
from Karbi Anglong of Assam.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sandalwoods are
Pair 3 is correct: Dongaria tribal community is
from Odisha. found in tropical moist deciduous forests or
monsoon forests which are found in western
Pair 4 is incorrect: Bonda is the most primitive
tribal group in Odisha. ghats, Deccan plateau, northern plains.
About Tribal Community and States: NOTE: This is straight from Class 9
z Dongaria: Odisha Geography NCERT Chapter 5. This underlines
z Karbi: Assam the importance of reading NCERTs both for
z Bonda: the most primitive tribal groups in UPSC Pre and Mains perspective.
Odisha. 74. (b) Sub-Theme: Tribe of India
z Tamang , Limbu, Bhutia, Khas, Lepchas:
Sikkim Statement 1 is incorrect: The Changpa are a
semi-nomadic people, they are mainly found
71. (a) Sub-Theme: West Flowing Peninsular Rivers
in the Changtang, a high plateau that stretches
Statement 1 is correct: Narmada and Tapi flow
across the cold desert of Ladakh.
through faults (linear rift, rift valley, trough)
created due to the bending of the northern Statement 2 is correct: They are raised for ultra-
peninsula during the formation process of fine cashmere wool, also known as pashmina
Himalayas. once woven.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Narmada flows
Statement 3 is correct: In 1989, Changpas were
through the faults, which run parallel to the
Vindhyas and the Satpuras. declared as the Scheduled Tribes.
75. (a) Sub-Theme: Coral Reef
Statement 3 is incorrect: Narmada flows
towards the west not because of land slopes to Coral reefs are underwater ecosystems formed
the west from central India, but it is flowing west by colonies of tiny animals called coral polyps.
These animals secrete a hard, calcium carbonate
because of the rift valleys only.
exoskeleton that provides a foundation for
72. (d) Sub-Theme: Geography of Protected Areas the growth of other corals and a diverse array
of marine organisms. Coral reefs are found in
Pair 1 is incorrect: Ramganga, Sonanadi,
tropical and subtropical waters around the
Mandal, Palain and Kosi are the major rivers world, particularly in the Pacific Ocean, the Indian
flowing through the Corbett National Park. Ocean, and the Caribbean Sea.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Kaziranga National Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Coral reefs
Park is circumscribed by the Brahmaputra in India are found in a lot of areas including the
River, which forms the northern and eastern Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Andaman
boundaries, and the Mora Diphlu, which forms & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands.
the southern boundary. Other notable rivers
Statement 4 is incorrect: Sundarban is
within the park are the Diphlu and Mora Dhansiri. the largest deltaic region of the world and
Pair 3 is incorrect: The Kunthipuzha River drains encompasses over hundreds of islands (105),
the entire 15 km length of the Silent Valley park with a maze of innumerable rivers, rivulets, and
from north to south into the Bharathapuzha River. creeks but does not have any coral reef.

76. (a) Sub-Theme: Natural Vegetation of India z Mean annual temperature of about 27°C
About Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest: z The average annual relative humidity of 60
to 75 per cent.
Climatic Conditions: z Spring (between winter and summer) and
z Annual rainfall 100 to 200 cm. summer are dry.
Geography 331
Characteristics: z Through a vast network of tributaries,
z In the spring and early summer, when there the river eventually drains into the Bay of
is insufficient rainfall, trees lose their leaves.
Bengal.
z Extreme summers leave everything in a
state of bareness (April-May). z The Godavari is the greatest river in
z Tropical moist deciduous forests have an peninsular India in terms of length,
irregular top storey that ranges from 25 to
catchment area, and flow, and has been
60 meters.
nicknamed the Dakshina Ganga, or “Southern
77. (d) Sub-Theme: Peninsular Drainage/River
Ganga.”
About River Godavari:
z The Godavari is India’s second longest and z Indravati and Pranhita are the tributaries of
third-biggest river, after the Ganga. Godavari.

Additional Information: About Living Root Bridges:
z River Vamsadhara is an important east- z In Meghalaya, one can find living root
flowing river between Rushikulya and bridges. The aerial bridges, also referred to
Godavari, in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It as Jing Kieng Jri, are constructed by tying
is not a tributary of Godavari. and shaping the roots of Indian rubber trees.
z The Pennar rises in the Chennakesava hill z A living root bridge resembling a suspension
of the Nandidurga range, in Chikkaballapura bridge created by guiding the rubber fig
district of Karnataka and flows towards east tree’s (Ficus elastica) flexible roots across
eventually draining into the Bay of Bengal. a stream or river and allowing them to
78. (a) Sub-Theme: Living Root Bridges develop and become stronger.
Living root bridges also known as Jing Kieng Jri 79. (c) Sub-Theme: Natural Vegetation of India
are found in Meghalaya are the aerial bridges that Option 1 and 3 are correct: In India, tropical
are built by weaving and manipulating the roots wet evergreen forests are found on the eastern
of the Indian rubber tree. and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such
states like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and
Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal
Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram,
West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Option 2 is incorrect: Himachal Pradesh comes
under the Montane type of forest.
80. (d) Sub-Theme: Natural vegetation of India
About Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a
tropical rainforest canopy. The Middle Andamans
harbours mostly moist deciduous forests. North
Geography 333
Andamans is characterised by the wet evergreen lush green hills of the northwestern Palani
type, with plenty of woody climbers. Also The Hills range, which is the main watershed for
coastal regions have mangrove forests. the lake.
81. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic Trivia 84. (a) Sub-Theme: Physiography of India
About Chandipur Sea Beach: Statement 1 is correct: Barren Island Volcano is
z A unique phenomenon rarely seen anywhere a part of Indian Union Territory of Andaman and
else, the sea recedes by as much as five Nicobar islands is an active volcano in South
kilometres every day on the Chandipur Asia (along a chain of volcanoes from Sumatra
beach in eastern India. to Myanmar).
z The sea recedes massively from the beach Statement 2 is incorrect: Barren Island is
during ebb and returns to fill the emptiness located in Andaman Sea, about 140 km northeast
during high tide. of Port Blair.
z This hide-and-seek of the sea comes to play Statement 3 is incorrect: The last time the
twice a day and seeing the sea disappear and volcanic eruptions were reported and linked to
then return is an unforgettable experience. 28 September 2018 earthquakes in Sulawesi,
Thus it is also called the ‘hide-and-seek’ Indonesia.
beach.
z Chandipur also has the DRDO (Defence NOTE: In 2015 UPSC has asked a question
on Andaman & Nicobar Island, so for
Research and Development Organization)
detailed information on A&N Islands please
Integrated Research Range. In this range
refer to the 2015 PYQ.
ballistic missiles are test-fired.
85. (d) Sub-Theme: Current Affairs
82. (b) Sub-Theme: Himalayan River/Drainage
Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are the names
Statement 1 is incorrect: Teesta originates in the
Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim and flows to which have water reservoirs common to the
the south through West Bengal before entering people.
Bangladesh. About Water Reservoirs:
Statement 2 is correct: River Rangeet originates z In Tamil Nadu’s Coimbatore district, the
in Sikkim, which is the largest river of Sikkim and Aliyar reservoir is a body of water near
also a tributary of river Teesta. Pollachi town.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Originally, the river z In the Maharashtra district of Hingoli, there
continued southward to empty directly into is an earth-fill dam called the Isapur Dam on
the Padma River (the main channel of Ganga in the Penganga River.
Bangladesh) but around 1787 the river changed z As a part of the Indian Second Five-Year
its course to flow eastward to join the Jamuna Plan, the Kangsabati Reservoir Project was
river. launched in 1956 to provide water to the
83. (a) Sub-Theme: Important Lakes of India districts of Midnapur, Bankura, and Hooghly.
It involves irrigation of land using water
About Kodaikanal Lake:
from the Kangsabati River, as well as the
z Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake Shilabati and the Bhoirobbanki rivers.
is a manmade lake (artificial) located in
the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in 86. (c) Sub-Theme: Major Places and Rivers/Map based
Tamil Nadu, India. Option 1 is correct: The Nagarahole River flows
z The lake was built in 1863, in the middle of through the park, which joins the Kabini River
Kodaikanal town, which was established by which also is a boundary between Nagarahole
the British and early American missionaries. and Bandipur National Park. Kabini, a tributary
Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of of the Cauvery River, is the largest river draining
Madurai, had a key role in its construction. the park.
z The lake is star-shaped, centrally located in Option 2 is incorrect: The Papikonda park lies
the town of Kodaikanal and is surrounded by on the left and right banks of the river Godavari

and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of 87. (d) Sub-Theme: Indus River System/Drainage
Eastern Ghats. Option (a) is incorrect: The Chenab joins the
Option 3 is correct: Sathyamangalam Tiger Satluj in Panchnad(Pakistan) after receiving the
waters of the Jhelum and Ravi rivers.
Reserve (STR) is located at the confluence
Option (b) is incorrect: The Jhelum joins the
region of Western and Eastern Ghats, in the
Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
Erode district of the state of Tamil Nadu. In the
Option (c) is incorrect: The Ravi debouches
northern part of Erode district, the Palar river into the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu, a little above
flows and drains into the Cauvery river. Rangpur in Pakistani Punjab.
Option 4 is correct: Kabini river, a tributary Option (d) is correct: The Satluj receives the
collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab and
of the Cauvery river flows through the Wayanad Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometers
Wildlife Sanctuary. above Mithankot.
The Indus River System:
88. (d) Sub-Theme: Physiography of India z Playas/Salt lake in Rajasthan: Sambhar,

z A playa/salt lake or saline lake is a Didwana, Kuchaman, the Sargol and the
Khatu lakes.
landlocked body of water that has a
89. (b) Sub-Theme: Peninsular Drainage (Small East
concentration of salts and other dissolved
Flowing Rivers)
minerals significantly higher than most
lakes. Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Brahmani river
comes into existence by the confluence of the
Khatu are saline lakes of Rajasthan. Koel and the Shankh rivers near Rourkela.
About Playas (Salt Lake): Statement 2 is correct: Nagavali River originates
z Small lakes with flat floors and undrained in Kalahandi District, in the Eastern Ghats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Subarnarekha
basins in which water collects after rains originates from the Ranchi Plateau in Jharkhand
and evaporates quickly are called playas., forming the boundary between West Bengal and
mostly saline. Odisha in its lower course.
Geography 335
Statement 4 is correct: It is an east-flowing river z The estuary of the Brahmani, Baitarani,
that originates in the Kalahandi district of Odisha, Dhamra, and Mahanadi river systems is
Eastern Ghat, flows in Odisha, along its boundary where Bhitarkanika is situated. It is situated
with Andhra Pradesh and finally joins the Bay of in Odisha’s Kendrapara district.
Bengal at Kalingapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
z It is renowned for its mangroves, migratory
90. (b) Sub-Theme: Map based birds, turtles, estuarine crocodiles, and
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Malacca Strait is numerous creeks. It is one of Odisha’s finest
situated between Malaysia and Indonesia and biodiversity hotspots.
is one of the main shipping lanes. The narrow
waterway creates a chokepoint between the z It is said to be home to 70% of the nation’s
Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Hence, the estuary or saltwater crocodiles, whose
broadening (not Deepening) the Malacca conservation efforts began in 1975.
straits between Malaysia and Indonesia will z Protected Areas: Bhitarkanika National
reduce the navigation time and distance. Park; Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary and
Statement 2 is correct: Kra isthmus is the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary.
narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula. It is
92. (a) Sub-Theme: Map based
bordered to the west by the Andaman Sea and to
the east by the Gulf of Thailand. Thus, opening a
new canal across the Kra isthmus between the
Gulf of Siam and the Andaman Sea can reduce
the navigation time and distance.
91. (a) Sub-Theme: Physiography of India
About Bhitarkanika National Park
Pair 1 is correct: Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is

located in the Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
z The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a The biosphere reserve’s name comes from
mangrove wetland in India’s Orissa state. Nokrek Hill, the highest peak of the Garo Hills.
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area Nokrek National Park was included on UNESCO’s
of 650 km square in the river delta of the list of biosphere reserves in May 2009.
Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Loktak Lake is a
z It is a Ramsar site and home to the second- freshwater lake in Manipur, it is well-known
largest mangrove forest in India. In the year
for the phumdis that float above it. On this lake
1988, it was designated as Bhitarkanika
is Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating
National Park.
national park in the world. The northern, middle,
and southern zones of the lake are separated.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Namdapha National Park
is situated between the Dapha Bum range and
the Patkai range in the Changlang district of
Arunachal Pradesh. The Noa Dihing River runs
east to west through the national park. It has
dipterocarp woods, the northernmost lowland
evergreen rainforests in the world.

93. (d) Sub-Theme: National Highway/Map based elephants, sambar, buffalo, yapping deer, wild
National goats and numerous more. The sanctuary has
Cities Connected Length (km)
Highway
become a haven for reptiles as well.
Mayabunder to Port Blair-
NH 4 230 Statement 3 is correct: Saramati peak rising
Chidiyatapu (Andaman)
Jorabat (Meghalaya) – above the surrounding peaks at the mountainous
NH 6 1873
Selling (Mizoram)
border of Nagaland state, India. It is one of the
Baihat (Assam) – Wakro
NH 15 664 ultra-prominent peaks of Southeast Asia. It forms
(Arunachal Pradesh)
94. (a) Sub-Theme: Andaman Map based a natural boundary between India and Myanmar.
The 10 degree channel is a water body that 96. (b) Sub-Theme: Brahmaputra and its tributary
separates Andaman in the North and Nicobar
in the South. Both the Andaman Islands and Statement 1 is incorrect: Barak river is one of
Nicobar Islands together form the Indian Union
Territory (UT) of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. the major rivers of South Assam. The 564 km
long river is part of the Surma-Meghna River
System. It rises in the Manipur Hills in northern
Manipur state, India, where it is called the Barak.
The Barak River flows through the states of
Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam in
India and into the Bay of Bengal.
Statement 2 is correct: Lohit River is a

tributary of the Brahmaputra River. It flows into
Arunachal Pradesh after starting from eastern
Tibet’s Zayal Chu range.
z Nine Degree Channel separates the island
of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep Statement 3 is correct: Both the Tibetan
archipelago.
Autonomous Region of China and the Indian
z Eight Degree Channel separates the islands
of Minicoy and Maldives. states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh are
z Hudson strait separates the Gulf of Hudson traversed by the Subansiri River. It is the biggest
& Atlantic Ocean.
z Palk Strait separates Palk Bay & the Bay of tributary of River Brahmaputra.
Bengal.
z Duncan Passage separates Rutland Island
(part of Great Andaman) and Little Andaman.
95. (c) Sub-Theme: Major places of States
Statement 1 is correct: The Dampa tiger reserve
is located in Mizoram. It is located in the Lushai
Hills and spans an area of around 500 km2 at
an altitude of 800-1,100 m. It is a component of
Project Tiger and was designated a tiger reserve
in 1994.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gumti Wildlife
Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura.
This sanctuary is the place for many animals like
Geography 337
97. (c) Sub-Theme: Physiography of India/Map based
Pair 1 is incorrect: Cardamom Hills are located in Kerala and south-west Tamil Nadu. It is situated on India’s
southwest coast, whereas, the Coromandel coast is located in Tamil Nadu’s eastern coastal plain.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Kaimur Hills is in the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range, present in Madhya Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Pair 3 is correct: Mahadeo Hills are located in the northern part of the Satpura Range in Madhya Pradesh
state of central India.
Pair 4 is correct: Mikir Hills can be found in Assam, south of Kaziranga National Park. It is a region of the Karbi-
Plateau in northeastern India. The highest mountain in the Mikir Hills is Dambuchko.

98. (b) Sub-Theme: World Map its southeast by Iraq and Syria, on its southwest
and western edges by the Mediterranean Sea and
Option (b) is correct: Turkey is located between
the Aegean Sea, and on its northwest by Greece
Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea. and Bulgaria.
About Geographic Boundary of Turkey: 99. (c) Sub-Theme: Major cities/capital cities
Turkey is bordered on its northern side by The correct sequence of cities in South-East
the Black Sea, on its northeast by Georgia and Asia as one proceeds from south to north would
Armenia, on its east by Azerbaijan and Iran, on be Jakarta > Singapore > Bangkok > Hanoi.
100. (b) Sub-Theme: World Map Additional Information:
Atlas Mountain: The Maghreb, often referred

to as Northwest Africa, the Greater Maghreb,
and historically as the Barbary Coast, is where
the Atlas Mountains is situated. The Atlas
Mountains divide the Sahara Desert from the
Mediterranean and Atlantic coasts. The highest
point of this mountain range, Toubkal (4167 m),
is found in Morocco. The mountains are found
in Algeria and Tunisia in addition to Morocco.
The Atlas Mountains are home to populations of
Berber people.
Geography 339
Abyssinian Plateau: The Ethiopian Plateau is z The easternmost point is Kibithu in
also referred to as Altipiano Etiopico, Amhara Arunachal Pradesh.
Plateau, Ethiopian Massif, and Ethiopian Plateau. z Indira Point in Great Nicobar Island is
The Abyssinian Plateau was formerly known as the southernmost point.
Ethiopia, hence the name. The Blue Nile, which
emerges from Lake Tana, is the most notable 102. (a)
river to cross the plateau.
Okavango Basin: The Okavango Basin is situated

in southwest Africa comprising Botswana,
Namibia, Zimbabwe, Angola, and other countries.
Whilst, Patagonia refers to a geographical region
that encompasses the southern end of South Sub-Theme: Famous pilgrim places of India
America, governed by Argentina and Chile. Pair 1 is correct: Srisailam is the shrine of Lord
Guiana Highlands: In South America, the Guiana Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills
Highlands are situated in the south of the Orinoco in Andhra Pradesh.The temple is dedicated
River and north of the Amazon River. Parts of to the deities Shiva and Parvati. This temple is
Venezuela, the Guianas, Brazil, and Colombia one of Lord Shiva’s twelve Jyotirlingas and one
are included in the Guiana Highlands. Mount of Goddess Parvati’s eighteen Shakti Peethas.
Roraima, located in the Guiana Highlands, has The lingam is a representation of Shiva, who is
the highest elevation (2772 m). worshiped as Mallikarjuna. Bhramaramba is a
representation of Parvati.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Omkareshwar is situated on
the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh (ancient
name: Shivpuri). The name “Omkareshwar”
comes from the way the River Narmada flows
here as it circles the Mandhata hill in the shape
of a “Om.” Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple where
the god Shiva is worshiped. It is one of Shiva’s 12
cherished Jyotirlinga shrines.
Pair 3 is incorrect: The Mahadeo Hills are a
101. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic Understanding of Indian map range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central
India. Whereas, Pushkar is situated on the shore
Most Points of India: of Pushkar Lake in Ajmer, Rajasthan. It is famous
z Guhar Moti is the westernmost point of for the red spired Brahma Temple.
India. It is a small village located in the
Kutch district of Gujarat. 103. (b) Sub-Theme: World Map
z The northernmost point of India is located Correct answer is Option (b): Jordan is a
in the eastern Karakoram range in the landlocked country and doesn’t have any
Himalayas, near Indira Col, Siachen Glacier. opening into the Mediterranean Sea.

NOTE: In terms of world map, UPSC absolutely loves this region and there are many instances that they
have asked questions from this region. Also, This region also very much remains in the news. Therefore,
reading newspapers and practicing maps is very important for UPSC.
104. (c) Sub-Theme: Religious Places Maharashtra. According to legend, Sai Baba
Pair 1 is incorrect: Bodh Gaya is a holy landmark arrived in Shirdi in 1872 and remained there
and pilgrimage destination linked with the until his death on October 15, 1918.
Mahabodhi Temple Complex in Gaya, Bihar, Pair 4 is incorrect: Nashik is situated on the
India. It is one of the four main pilgrimage sites banks of river Godavari in the northwest region
related with the life of Gautama Buddha, the other of Maharashtra and is famous for Kumbh Mela,
three are Kushinagar, Lumbini, Sarnath. In 2002, which is held every 12 years.
UNESCO declared the Mahabodhi Temple in Bodh
Gaya a World Heritage Site. Pair 5 is correct: Tirupati is a city situated in
the Rayalaseema region of the Chittoor district
Pair 2 is correct: The Khajuraho Temples in
of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. Shri
Madhya Pradesh’s Bundelkhand region are
Venkateswara Temple is well-known for being a
some of the most exquisite examples of medieval
architecture in the world. It was built by the Hindu temple.
Chandela Dynasty between 950 and 1050 AD. 105. (d) Sub-Theme: Himalayan Drainage System/
There are Hindu and Jain temples among the Brahmaputra
monuments. In 1986, UNESCO designated these
Option 1 and 3 are correct: Dhansiri, Dibang
temples as World Heritage Sites. The temples
are renowned for the symbolic architecture in and Lohit are the left bank tributaries of
the Nagara style. Initially reported in 1022 AD Brahmaputra River.
by Abu Raihan al Biruni and in AD 1335 by Ibn Option 2 is correct: Kameng is a right bank
Battuta. tributary of Brahmaputra River. Other major right
Pair 3 is incorrect: Shirdi is a city located in bank tributaries of Brahmaputra are Subansiri,
the Rahata taluka of Ahmednagar District, Manas, Sankosh.
Geography 341
NOTE: Please refer 2011 PYQ for detailed information on Brahmaputra River and NCERT.
106. (d) Sub-Theme: Resource/Map z These are: Cambay, Assam-Arakan,

About Shale Gas in India: Gondwana, Krishna-Godavari Basin,
z The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Cauvery Basin and the Indo Gangetic
Gas (MOPNG) has identified six basins as plain.
potentially shale gas bearing.
z Fine-grained sedimentary rocks called shale
are potential rich sources of natural gas and
petroleum.
z Shale rocks are typically found next to
‘aquifers’, or rocks that contain usable/
drinking water.
z Shale gas is trapped under low permeable
rocks.
107. (c) Sub-Theme: World Map
Mediterranean Sea Bordering countries:
z The countries bordering the Mediterranean
Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt,
France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon,
Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro,
Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia,
and Turkey.

z The distance from Great Nicobar to Sri
Lanka is 1437 kms.
108. (a) Sub-Theme: Indian Ocean Region 109. (b) Sub-Theme: India Map
About Great Nicobar: z If travelling by road from Kohima to
z Great Nicobar lies on the south of the Kottayam, you need to cross Kohima the
Nicobar Islands of India and it is the largest capital of Nagaland (origin), Assam, West
island of the Nicobar Islands. South of Great Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and
Nicobar is the island of Sumatra. then through either Tamil Nadu to Kerala
z Great Nicobar is closest to Sumatra. (Kottayam-destination), or through
The distance between the two places is
AP to Karnataka to Kerala (Kottayam-
1,192 kms.
destination). So the minimum number
z The distance from Great Nicobar to Borneo
is 2,398 kms. of States within India through which you
z The distance from Great Nicobar to Java can travel, including the origin and the
stands at 1,817 kms. destination is seven (7).
Geography 343
110. (b) Sub-Theme: India Map
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Himalayas is spread across 12 Indian States: Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand,
Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, two districts
of Assam namely Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Western Ghats are spread over six states namely Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka,
Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat Lake is the second painted storks and Grey pelicans, frequent the
largest brackish water lake in India and spreads area every year. Grey Pelican and Painted Stork
over the two states namely Andhra Pradesh and both are near-threatened species under IUCN Red
Tamil Nadu. Large varieties of birds, including List of Threatened Species.

Longitude of Indian Cities
z The longitude of Delhi is 77.216721°E
z The longitude of Bangalore is 77.59450 E.
z The longitude of Nagpur is 79.0888° E.
z The longitude of Pune is 73.8474” E.
NOTE: Map Practicing will not only help

you to answer such questions but also it
111. (a) Sub-Theme: World Map/Environment and
will help you to fetch some extra marks in
Ecology
UPSC Mains as well.
About Aral Sea:
z The Aral Sea, a salt lake in Central Asia, 113. (c) Sub-Theme: Places was in News
was previously the fourth-largest salt
Pair 1 is correct: Catalonia is located in Spain
lake in the world..
z Drainage basin: Kyrgyzstan, Turkmenistan, bordered by France and Andorra in the north, the
Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Pakistan, Mediterranean Sea to the east, the autonomous
Afghanistan, and Kazakhstan.
community of Valencia to the south, and the
z The Aral Sea started to shrink in the 1960s
as a result of the Soviet Union starting to autonomous community of Aragon to the west.
divert water for agricultural use.
z According to NASA, water diversion for
agricultural purposes in the region has
caused the Aral Sea to lose nearly 75% of
its original size during the past 50 years.
z The Aral Sea’s depth has similarly dropped,
going from 68 metres in the 1960s to less
than 10 meters now.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Republic of Crimea,

officially part of Ukraine, lies on a peninsula
stretching from the south of Ukraine between
the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. It is separated
112. (a) Sub-Theme: India Map from Russia by the narrow Kerch Strait.
Pair 3 is correct: Mindanao is an island located

in the Philippines. It is surrounded by the Bohol,
Philippine, Celebes, and Sulu seas.
Geography 345
the Balkan peninsula. The countries with
coasts on the Adriatic sea: Albania, Bosnia
and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and
Slovenia. Mnemonic: ISC-MBA (Italia, Slovenia,
Croatia, Montenegro, Bosnia, Albania).
Pair 4 is incorrect: Oromia is a regional state

of Ethiopia. Also, it is to be remembered that
Ethiopia is a landlocked country located in
Eastern Africa.
114. (b) Sub-Theme: Places in News

Pair 2 is incorrect: Black Sea is a large inland
Name of Cities and Countries: sea situated at the southeastern extremity of
z Aleppo is in Syria Europe. It is bordered by Ukraine to the north,
z Kirkuk is in Iraq. Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east,
z Mosul in Iraq Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania
z Mazar-i-sharif is in Afghanistan. to the west. Black Sea is not bordered by Croatia.
115. (a) Sub-Theme: Famous places of India Mnemonic: Tea & BURGeR (Turkey, Bulgaria,
Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Romania).
Pair 1 is correct: Pandharpur city is on the
banks of Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra.
The famous Lord Vitthal-Rukmini Mandir is
located in this city.
Pair 2 is correct: Tiruchirappalli is an Indian
city of Tamil Nadu on the banks of river Cauvery.
The famous Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is
located in Tiruchirappalli.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Hampi was the capital of
the Vijayanagara kingdom and is located on Pair 3 is correct: Caspian Sea is the world’s
the bank of the Tungabhadra River in present
largest inland body of water, variously classed
state of Karnataka. Many famous temples like
as the world’s largest lake or a full-fledged sea. It
Virupaksha Temple, Nandi Statue etc are located
is an endorheic basin (a basin without outflows)
in Hampi. Pattadakal or Pattadakal is situated on
located between Europe and Asia. It is bounded
the banks of the river Malaprabha and is located
in Karnataka. by Kazakhstan to the northeast, Russia to the
northwest, Azerbaijan to the west, Iran to the
116. (b) Sub-Theme: World Map
south, and Turkmenistan to the southeast.
Pair 1 is correct: The Adriatic Sea is a body Mnemonic: TARIK (Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan,
of water separating the Italian Peninsula from Russia, Iran, Kazakhstan).

117. (d) Sub-Theme: Map based
The Siachen Glacier is situated to the North of the

Nubra Valley.
About Siachen Glacier:
Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern
Karakoram range in the Himalayas at about
421226°N 77.109540°E, just northeast of the
point NJ9842 where the Line of Control between
India and Pakistan ends. The 75 km long Siachen
Pair 4 is correct: The Mediterranean Sea is
an intercontinental sea that stretches from the Glacier in the north of Nubra valley has the
Atlantic Ocean on the west to Asia on the east distinction of being the largest glacier outside
and separates Europe from Africa. The countries the polar and the subpolar regions. It is also the
surrounding the Mediterranean in clockwise
world’s highest battlefield.
order: Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia,
Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro,
Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel,
Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco.
NOTE: Siachen Glacier was in the news.

This is purely a map based question and
anyone with a little bit of knowledge can
Pair 5 is incorrect: Red Sea is a narrow strip easily solve this question. Observing the
of water extending south-eastward from Suez, map carefully, East of Aksai Chin is China
Egypt, for about 1,930 km to the Bab-el-Mandeb Administered Tibet, while Leh is situated
Strait, which connects with the Gulf of Aden and
South of Siachen, and Gilgit is on the
thence with the Arabian Sea. The six countries
western side of Siachen.
bordering the Red Sea: Saudi Arabia, Yemen,
Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti. The Red Sea 118. (c) Sub-Theme: Map based
is not bordered by Syria. Mnemonic: DESSEY
(Djibouti, Eritrea, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Egypt, Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mekong River
Yemen). originates in the icy headwaters of the Tibetan
highlands. It flows through the steep canyons of
China, known as the upper basin, through lower
basin countries Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and
Cambodia, before fanning an expansive delta in
Vietnam and emptying into the South China Sea.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is the longest
river in England, flowing 215 miles from the
Cotswolds to the North Sea. The main tributaries
of Thames are Buscot, Reading, and Kingston.
Geography 347
Statement 3 is correct: The Volga River, the Statement 4 is correct: The Zambezi is the
longest river in Europe, runs through Russia fourth-largest river after the Congo/Zaire, Nile
and Niger in Africa. It rises in the Kalene hills in
with its delta flowing into the Caspian Sea just north-western Zambia and flows eastwards for
south of the Kazakhstan border. about 3000 km to the Indian Ocean.
v v v

Section H
8 Science and Technology

Science & Technology : PYQs Analysis
25
20
19
Science & Technology
15
15
13
12 12 12 12 12
10
7
5 6 6
4
0
2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011
PYQs ANALYSIS
Sr. No. Topic 2022 2021 2020 2019 2018 2017 2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 Total
1 Biotechnology 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 13
2 Health 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 11
3 Diseases 2 1 3 1 1 1 2 2 13
Information and
4 Communication 4 3 5 2 1 1 1 2 19
Technology
Nano Science and

5 1 1 1 3
Nanotechnology
Space and Space

6 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 16
Technology
7 Miscellaneous 2 6 5 1 1 1 1 2 12 5 7 12 55
Total 12 12 12 12 6 4 7 6 15 12 13 19 130
BIOTECHNOLOGY below.
1. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
the following situations? (2022) (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 only
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs 6. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear
(b) Development of building materials using plant Transfer Technology? (2017)
residues (a) Production of biolarvicides
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction (b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
of shale gas (c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/ (d) Production of organisms free of diseases
protected areas
7. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the
2. Consider the following statements: (2022) technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: news, be used in the immediate future? (2017)
1. Assess the age of a plant or animal. 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify
2. Distinguish among species that look alike. genetic markers for disease resistance and
3. Identify undesirable animal or plant materials in drought tolerance in various crop plants.
processed foods. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required
Which of the above statements is/are correct? to develop new varieties of crop plants.
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only 3. It can be used to decipher the host pathogen
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 relationships in crops.
3. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned Select the correct answer using the code given
in the context of (2021) below:
(a) Clonal propagation of crop plants
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Developing genetically modified crop plants
(c) Production of plant growth substances 8. In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics,
the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news,
(d) Production of biofertilizers
refers to – (2016)
4. With reference to the recent developments in science, (a) A range of enzymes used in genome editing
which one of the following statements is not correct?
(b) The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by
(2019) an organism
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by
(c) The description of the mechanism of gene
joining segments of DNA taken from cells of
expression
different species.
(d) A mechanism of genetic mutations taking place
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created
in cells
in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell 9. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in
can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza
laboratory. enables the plants to (2013)
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be 1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area
made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri 2. Tolerate extremes of pH
dishes 3. Resist disease infestation
5. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained Select the correct answer using the codes given
popularity in the last few years. Why? (2019) below:
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
treatment of cancer. 10. Recombination DNA technology (Genetic Engineering)
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement allows genes to be transferred: (2013)
therapies. 1. Across different species of plants
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are 2. From animals to plants
resistant to viral pathogens. 3. From microorganisms to higher organisms

Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 15. Which one of the following statements best describes
11. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
the introduction of Bt brinjal in India? (2012) (2022)
1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene (a) They protect the body from environmental
from a soil fungus into its genome. allergens.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and (b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds (c) They act as immune suppressants in the body.
before every season from the seed companies. (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption by pathogens.
of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health. 16. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the
4. There is some concern that the introduction of following statements: (2021)
Bt brinjal may have adverse effects on biodiversity. 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent
Select the correct answer using the codes given to child can be prevented by mitochondrial
below: replacement therapy either before or after in vitro
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only fertilization of the egg.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely
12. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects from mother and not from father.
for which genetically engineered plants have been Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
created? (2012) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. To enable them to withstand drought. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce. 17. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of:
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in (2021)
spaceships and space stations. (a) Genes introduced in the genetically modified
4. To increase their shelf life. plants
Select the correct answer using the codes given (b) The development of India’s own satellite
below: navigation system
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) Radio collars for wildlife tracking
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) The spread of viral diseases
13. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement 18. Consider the following statements: (2020)
or relative positions of genes of DNA sequences on a 1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that
chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us? produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
(2011) 2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock. the early embryonic stage.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all 3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be
human diseases. injected into the embryo of a pig.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
breeds. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 19. With reference to prepackaged items in India, is it
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the
following information on the main label, as per the
HEALTH Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling)
Regulations, 2011? (2016)
14. Consider the following statements in respect of 1. List of ingredients including additives
probiotics: (2022) 2. Nutrition information
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 3. Recommendation, if any, made by the medical
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in food we profession about the possibility of any allergic
ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. reactions
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. 4. Vegetarian/nonvegetarian

Select the correct answer using the code given (c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the
below. body during metabolism
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only and help delay the ageing process
20. Consider the following minerals: (2013)
1. Calcium DISEASES
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required 1. Adenoviruses have single stranded DNA genomes
by the human body for the contraction of muscles? whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only genomes.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an
21. Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2012) adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
1. Bacteria Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Fungi (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Flowering plants (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Some species of which of the above kinds of 26. With reference to recent developments regarding
organisms are employed biopesticides? ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccine’, consider the following
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only statements: (2021)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development
22. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the of these vaccines.
water purification systems? (2012) 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the
water. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, 27. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal
removes turbidity and improves the clarity of Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020)
water. 1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? as well as meningitis and sepsis.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 against drug resistant bacteria can be reduced.
23. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, 3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no
which of the following statements is/are correct? allergic reactions.
(2012)
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
below:
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below: 28. Which of the following are the reasons for the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 pathogens in India? (2019)
24. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is 1. Genetic predisposition of some people
recommended in the diet since they are a good source 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure
of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person diseases
maintain health and promote longevity? (2011) 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin
deficiency Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, below.
fats and proteins in the body and help avoid (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
unnecessary wastage of energy (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

29. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
news?(2019) matched?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
pathogens in patients 35. Consider the following diseases: (2014)
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant 1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically 3. Smallpox
modified crops Which of the above diseases has/have been
30. Which one of the following statements is not correct? eradicated in India ?
(2019) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a 36. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
vaccine.
(2013)
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with 1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation
Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more of energy
than those infected with HIV.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to
C viruses do not show the symptoms for many
another by biological vectors only
years.
31. Consider the following (2018) below.
1. Birds 2. Dust blowing (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Rain 4. Wind blowing (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above spread plant diseases? 37. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only from one person to another through tattooing?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (2013)
32. Consider the following pairs: (2017) 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B
Commonly used/ - Unwanted or consumed 3. HIV-AIDS
materials controversial chemicals likely to be Select the correct answer using the codes given
found in them below:
1. Lipstick - Lead (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Soft drinks - Brominated vegetable oils (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Chinese fast - Monosodium food glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
matched? TECHNOLOGY
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 38. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”,
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct? consider the following statements: (2022)
(2016) 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and
Virus can infect can change data fields.
1. Bacteria 2. SaaS users can access their data through their
2. Fungi mobile devices.
3. Plants 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo Mail are form of SaaS
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above are correct?
below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 39. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following
34. Consider the following pairs: (2014) statements: (2022)
Vitamin Deficiency : Disease 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control
1. Vitamin C : Scurvy their own data.
2. Vitamin D : Rickets 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based
3. Vitamin E : Night blindness social networks.

3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather 2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that
than a corporation. all the data in it is about crypto currency only.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 3. Applications that depend on basic features of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only blockchain can be developed without anybody’s
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 permission.
40. Which one of the following is the context in which Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Cloud Services (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(b) Quantum Computing 45. With reference to communications technologies, what
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term
Evolution)?(2019)
41. Consider the following communication technologies:
(2022) 1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is
1. Closed-circuit Television commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. Radio Frequency Identification 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-
3. Wireless Local Area Network only technology.
Which of the above are considered Short-Range Select the correct answer using the code given
devices/technologies? below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
42. With the present state of development, Artificial 46. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment,
Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? consider the following statements: (2019)
(2020) 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated
1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial environment is created and the physical world is
units completely shut out.
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a
3. Disease diagnosis computer are projected onto real -life objects or
4. Text -to -Speech Conversion surroundings.
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world
Select the correct answer using the code given and improves the experience using the camera of
below: smart - phones or PCs.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual,
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 providing a complete immersion experience.
43. With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
technology, which of the following statements are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4
correct? (2020)
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 only
1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths
375 to 780 nm 47. Consider the following statements: (2019)
2. VLC is known as long - range optical wireless A digital signature is __________
communication. 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying
3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster authority issuing it
than Bluetooth 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference to access information or serve on Internet
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic
below: document and ensuring that the original content
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only is unchanged
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
44. With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider (a) 1 only
the following statements: (2020) (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a public ledger that everyone we inspect, but (c) 3 only
which no single user controls (d) 1, 2 and 3

48. In the context of wearable technology, which of the 52. With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which
following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)
devices?(2019) 1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data
1. Location identification of a person transmission.
2. Sleep monitoring of a person 2. It is a wireless technology and is several times
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person faster than ‘WiFi’.
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the code given
below. below.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. For the measurement/ estimation of which of the 53. With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC)
following are satellite images/remote sensing data Technology’, which of the following statements is/
used?(2019) are correct? (2015)
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific
1. It is a contactless communication technology that
location.
uses electromagnetic radio fields.
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be
specific location.
at a distance of even a metre from each other.
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive
information.
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 below.
50. In which of the following areas can GPS technology
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
be used? (2018)
1. Mobile phone operations 54. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the
2. Banking operations following can be used in the biometric identification
of a person? (2014)
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Iris scanning
below: 2. Retinal scanning
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Voice recognition
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
51. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in below.
the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the (a) 1 only
alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on (b) 2 and 3 only
automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom (c) 1 and 3 only
shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level
(d) 1, 2 and 3
of water in your overhead tank. After you take some
groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, 55. What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi
it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places devices?(2011)
an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When (a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band,
you step out of your house and lock the door, all whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency
lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched band
off automatically. On your way to the office, your car
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area
warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests
Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used
an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting,
it sends a message to your office accordingly. for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
In the context of emerging communication (c) When information is transmitted between two
technologies, which one of the following terms devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices
best applies to the above scenario? (2018) have to be in the line of sight of each other, but
(a) Border Gateway Protocol when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need
(b) Internet of Things not be in the line of sight of each other
(c) Internet Protocol (d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct
(d) Virtual Private Network in this context

56. What is a “Virtual Private Network”? (2011) SPACE AND SPACE TECHNOLOGY
(a) It is a private compute network of an organization
where he remote users can transmit encrypted 60. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth,
information through the server of the organization. which of the following are the possible effects on the
Earth?(2022)
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet
that provides users access to their organization’s 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
network while maintaining the security of the 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
information transmitted. 3. Power grids could be damaged.
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the
a shared pool of computing resources through a Earth
service provider 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above planet.
is a correct description of Virtual Private Network. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft
NANOSCIENCE AND NANOTECHNOLOGY flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
57. Consider the following statements: (2022) below:
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
do not exist in nature. (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used
61. Which one of the following is a reason why
in the manufacture of some cosmetics. astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products (2021)
which enter the environment are unsafe for (a) Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
humans.
(b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Light always travels in a straight line.
(d) Speed of light is always the same.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3
62. The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying
58. When reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle
following statements: (2020) that has sides one million kilometers long, with
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment
in the human body. in question refers to (2020)
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries (a) Voyager - 2 (b) New Horizons
for an injured part of the human body. (c) LISA Pathfinder (d) Evolved LISA
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors. 63. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the
Which of the statements given above are correct? Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (2019)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
59. With reference to the use of nanotechnology in the (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
health sector, which of the following statements (c) Possibility of intergalactic space travel through
is/are correct? (2015) ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by (d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
nanotechnology. 64. Consider the following statements: (2018)
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene 1. Light is affected by gravity.
therapy. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
below.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/
(a) 1 only predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of
(b) 2 only Relativity, often discussed in the media?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

65. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, 69. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news
consider the following statements: (2018) in the context of (2015)
1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth (a) The limits of habitable zone above the surface of
resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed the Earth
mainly to launch communication satellites. (b) Regions inside the Earth where shale gas is
available
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain
(c) Search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
permanently fixed in the same position in the sky,
(d) Search for meteorites containing precious metals
as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four staged launch vehicle with the
first and third stages using solid rocket motors; 1. Size of the sun at dusk
and the second and fourth stages using liquid 2. Colour of the sun at dawn
rocket engines. 3. Moon being visible at dawn
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5
66. With reference to ‘Astrosat’,’ the astronomical (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 5
observatory launched by India, which of the following 71. The efforts to detect the existence of the Higgs boson
statements is/are correct? (2016) particle have become frequent news in the recent
1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only past. What is/are the importance/importances of
country to have launched a similar observatory discovering this particle? (2013)
into space. 1. It will enable us to understand why elementary
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit particles have mass.
at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. 2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the
technology of transferring matter from one point
Select the correct answer using the code given to another without traversing the physical space
below. between them.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 missions.
67. Consider the following statements: (2016) Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO– (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Made India the second country to have a
72. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists
spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA as evidence/evidence for the continued expansion of
3. Made India the only country to be successful in the universe? (2012)
making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very 1. Detection of microwaves in space.
first attempt 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Movement of asteroids in space.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 4. Occurrence of supernova explosion in space.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
68. In the context of modern scientific research, consider
(a) 1 and 2
the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle
(b) 2 only
detector located at South Pole, which was recently
(c) 1, 3 and 4
in the news: (2015)
(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence
1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector,
encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice. 73. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does
not fall down. This is so because the attraction of
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter. Earth_______(2011)
3. It is buried deep in the ice. (a) Does not exist at such distance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

74. Which is the difference between asteroids and 78. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the
comets?(2011) food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while following?(2021)
comets are formed of frozen gases held together 1. Area of the hole in the lid
by rocky and metallic material. 2. Temperature of the flame
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of 3. Weight of the lid
Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly Select the correct answer using the code given
between Venus and Mercury. below.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
asteroids do not. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 79. Consider the following: (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. Bacteria
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Fungi
75. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept 3. Virus
in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/
such an orbit when: (2011) synthetic medium?
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. 80. With reference to street - lighting, how do sodium
lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021)
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but
Select the correct answer using the codes given it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
below:
2. As street -lights, sodium lamps have a longer
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only lifespan than LED lamps.
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps
is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer
MISCELLANEOUS significant colour advantages in street lighting.
76. Which one of the following statements best reflects
below.
the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment (a) 3 only (b) 2 only
System” often talked about in the media? (2022)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to
81. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/
counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and
key component in the manufacture of which of the
explode it in space.
following kinds of plastics? (2021)
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making (a) Low-density polyethylene
several orbital motions.
(b) Polycarbonate
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth
(c) Polyethylene terephthalate
and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) Polyvinyl chloride
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same
speed and places a probe on its surface 82. ‘Triclosan’, considered harmful when exposed to high
levels for a long time, is most likely present in which
77. Consider the following statements: (2022) of the following? (2021)
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within (a) Food preservatives
human tissues (b) Fruit-ripening substances
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing (c) Reused plastic containers
surfaces. (d) Toiletries
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
83. Water can dissolve more substances than any other
Which of the statements given above are correct? liquid because (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) It is dipolar in nature
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) It is a good conductor of heat
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) It has high value of specific heat
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) It is an oxide of hydrogen

84. Consider the following activities: (2020) 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field prepared from tissue culture.
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
for DNA analysis. (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
At the present level of technology, which of the 89. Consider the following statements: (2019)
above activities can be successfully carried out by 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological
using drones? process to create a seed can be patented in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Board.
85. Which of the following statements are correct 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in
regarding the general difference between plant and India.
animal cells? (2020) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
cells do not. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike 90. “3D printing” has applications in which of the
animal cells which do. following?(2018)
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst an 1. Preparation of confectionery items
animal cell has many small vacuoles.
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 4. Reconstructive surgeries
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Data processing technologies
86. In the context of recent advances in human
below:
reproductive technology. “Pronuclear Transfer” is
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
used for (2020)
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) Fertilisation of egg in vitro by the donor sperm
(b) Genetic modification of sperm producing cells 91. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to
create digital displays in many devices. What are
(c) Development of stem cells into functional embryos
the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal
(d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring displays?(2017)
87. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the 1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic
following statements: (2020) substrates.
1. Solar power can be used for running surface 2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be
pumps and not for submersible pumps. made using OLEDs.
2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal 3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
pumps and not the ones with piston. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
88. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation (c) 1, 2 and 3
of sugarcane in India, consider the following (d) None of the above statements is correct
statements:(2020)
92. India is an important member of the ‘International
1. A substantial saving in seed material is made Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this
when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised in a nursery experiment succeeds, what is the immediate
and transplanted in the main field. advantage for India? (2016)
2. When direct planting of seeds is done, the (a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power
germination percentage is better with single- generation
budded setts as compared to setts with many
(b) It attain a global role in satellite-navigation
buds.
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when seeds are
fission reactors in power generation
directly planted, single - budded seeds have better
survival as compared to large setts. (d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation.

93. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power 3. Vegetative propagation can be practised most of
plants using coal as fuel, which of the following the year.
statements is/are correct? (2015) Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for below.
building construction. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the Portland cement contents of concrete. 98. Which of the following is/are the example/examples
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium of chemical change? (2014)
oxide only, and does not contain any toxic 1. Crystallisation of sodium chloride
elements. 2. Melting of ice
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Souring of milk
below.
below.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
94. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity,
99. Consider the following techniques/phenomena:
(2014)
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell
1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
emits heat and water as by-products.
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and
not for small devices like laptop computers. 3. Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of
crops ?
Alternating Current (AC).
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 100. Consider the following statements: (2014)
1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
95. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the
following statements is/are correct? (2014) 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for
biodiesel.
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
maize.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about
7500 km away.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 101. Among the following organisms, which one does not
belong to the class of the other three? (2014)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Crab (b) Mite
96. Which one of the following is the process involved
in photosynthesis? (2014) (c) Scorpion (d) Spider
(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy. 102. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy of a food chain? (2014)
and stored. (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
(c) Food is oxidised to release carbon dioxide and (b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
water. (c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water (d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
vapour are given out. 103. With reference to technology for solar power
97. Which of the following statements is/are correct production, consider the following statements:
regarding vegetative propagation of plants? (2014) (2014)
1. Vegetative propagation produces a clonal 1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates
population. electricity by direct conversion of light into
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology
virus. that utilises the Sun’s rays to generate heat which

is further used in the electricity generation 109. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops
process. of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena
2. Photovoltaics-generates Alternating Current (AC), are responsible for this? (2013)
while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current 1. Dispersion
(DC). 2. Refraction
3. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal 3. Internal reflection
technology, but not for photovoltaics.
below:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
104. Consider the following:
110. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
1. Bats
(2013)
2. Bears
(a) The new soil does not contain favourable minerals
3. Rodents
(b) Most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed
in which of the above kinds of animals? (2014) (c) M o s t o f t h e ro o t h a i r s a re l o s t d u r i n g
(a) 1 and 2 only transplantation
(b) 2 only (d) Leaves get damaged during transplantation
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 111. The known forces of nature can be divided into four
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear
above force and strong nuclear force. With reference to
105. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to them, which one of the following statements is not
the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (2014) correct?(2013)
1. Volcanic action (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
2. Respiration (b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an
3. Photosynthesis electric charge
4. Decay of organic matter (c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons
below: inside the nucleus of an atom
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only 112. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In
106. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological this context, which of the following statements is/
succession even on a bare rock, are actually a are correct? (2012)
symbiotic association of (2014) 1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk
(a) Algae and bacteria (b) Algae and fungi can be used in biomass gasification.
(c) Bacteria and fungi (d) Fungi and mosses 2. The combustible gases generated consist of
107. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
life because (2013) 3. The combustible gases generated from biomass
(a) Exposure to sunlight is prevented gasification can be used for direct heat generation
(b) Concentration of carbon dioxide in the but not in internal combustion engines.
environment in increased Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Rate of respiration in decreased below:
(d) There is an increase in humidity (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
108. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because– (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(2013) 113. Graphene has been frequently in the news recently.
(a) The actual area of contact between the wheel and What is its importance? (2012)
axle is increased 1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good
(b) The effective area of contact between the wheel electrical conductivity.
and axle is increased 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials
(c) The effective area of contact between the wheel tested so far.
and axle is reduced
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical
(d) None of the above statements is correct transparency.

4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required 117. Which one of the following sets of elements was
for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. primarily responsible for the origin of life on the
Which of the statements given above are correct? Earth?(2012)
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
118. Consider the following statements: If there were no
114. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After
phenomenon of capillarity (2012)
the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what
still are the sources of lead poisoning? (2012) 1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp.
1. Smelting units 2. One would not be able to use a straw to consume
a soft drink.
2. Pens and pencils
3. The blotting paper would fail to function.
3. Paints
4. The big trees that we see around would not have
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
grown on the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above are correct?
below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
119. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but
115. Consider the following crops of India: (2012) the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the
1. Cowpea reason?(2011)
2. Green gram (a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
3. Pigeon pea (b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder temperature as the air, no heat is lost
and green manure? (c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above
(b) 2 only is correct
(c) 1 and 3 only 120. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 sustainable energy. Why? (2011)
116. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some 1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate
electricity from certain substrates.
opine that India should pursue research and
development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as
energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium substrates.
hold over uranium? (2012) 3. They can be installed in wastewater treatment
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
uranium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral,
thorium can generate more energy compared to (b) 2 and 3 only
natural uranium. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared (d) 1, 2 and 3
to uranium. 121. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? to(2011)
(a) 1 only (a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) 1 and 3 (c) Cool down the reactor
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Stop the nuclear reaction

122. A company marketing food products advertises that 126. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years
its items do not contain trans fats. What does this later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group
campaign signify to the customers? (2011) of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood
1. The food products are not made out of group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and
hydrogenated oils. O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
2. The food products are not made out of animal (2011)
fats/oils. (a) O positive
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the (b) A positive
cardiovascular health of the consumers. (c) B positive
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only data
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
127. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc
123. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different
lamp?(2011) from the traditional DVD? (2011)
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and 1. DVD supports standard Definition video while BD
phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor supports High definition Video.
material.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several
2. The average lifespan of a CFL is much longer than times more storage capacity.
that of an LED lamp
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an
1.2 mm.
LED lamp.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
124. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the
market. It consists of amino acids and provides (d) 1, 2 and 3
calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a 128. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular
low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries
the basis of this use? (2011) up and dies because (2011)
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike (a) Water form soil cannot rise to aerial parts
table sugar, it is not readily oxidised in human (b) Roots are starved of energy
body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration
sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to
oxidation. 129. A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion facilitates radio communication. Why? (2011)
into the body, it is converted into metabolites that 1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of
yield no calories radio waves to Earth.
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than 2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
table sugar, hence food items made with small Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on (a) 1 only
oxidation.
(b) 2 only
125. Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it? (c) Both 1 and 2
(2011)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation
of oily sludge and oil spills 130. A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of
oil exploration this is (2011)
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding (a) To make it pest-resistant
maize variety (b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally (c) To make it drought-resistant
caused flames from oil wells. (d) To make its shelf-life longer

Answer Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (c)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (a)

Explanation
1. (a) Sub-Theme: Coral Reef restoration called Bacillus thuringiensis and offers
Option (a) is correct: Recently, The Zoological built-in protection for cotton against
Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s destructive American Bollworm Heliothis
forest department, is attempting for the first Armigera infestations (Bt).
time a process to restore coral reefs using z The enhanced double-gene Cry1Ac and
biorock or mineral accretion technology in Cry2Ab technology found in Bollgard II
the Gulf of Kachchh. technology protects against bollworms and
z Biorock is the term used to describe Spodoptera caterpillars, improving boll
the material created by the electro- retention, maximising yield, using fewer
accumulation of minerals dissolved pesticides, and preventing insect resistance.
in saltwater on steel structures that are
lowered onto the seafloor and connected to NOTE: Biotechnology is an important
an energy source, in this case solar panels part of Science and tech syllabus reading
that float on the surface. class 12 ncert and daily newspaper
2. (d) Sub-Theme: DNA might come handy while answering
such questions. Also, this issue was very
Statement 1 is incorrect: Scientists use a
much in the news, hence, UPSC asked
radioactive carbon isotope called carbon-14
the question.
as their clock to determine the age of plant
and animal remains from the more recent 4. (a) Sub-Theme: Genetics/DNA
past. DNA barcoding is a taxonomic technique Statement 1 is incorrect: The combining
that identifies an organism as belonging to a of DNA fragments acquired from cells of
specific species by using a short genetic marker different species cannot result in the creation
in its DNA. An individual DNA sequence is of functional chromosomes.
compared to a reference library of similar DNA Statement 2 is correct: In a lab, artificial
sections to accomplish this (called sequences). functioning DNA fragments can be produced.
Statement 2 is correct: DNA Barcoding Japanese researchers announced the creation
helps in the identification of species even
of the first DNA molecule in the world that is
from minute amounts of tissue which can help
almost entirely formed of synthetic components
tackle problems like illegal trade of endangered
in 2007.
species. DNA barcodes can effectively control
Statement 3 is correct: In a lab, it is possible
pest attack, identifying disease vectors
to get a portion of animal DNA to reproduce
properly.
Statement 3 is correct: Using DNA barcoding, on its own outside of a living cell. It is done
which is widely used in fish species, is a viable through the Polymerase Chain Reaction
method for authenticating the processed (PCR) technology.
food. Using DNA barcoding, natural resource Statement 4 is correct: In a lab setting, Petri
managers can monitor illegal trade of dishes can be used to induce cell division in
products made of natural resources like isolated plant and animal cells. Plant cells are
hardwood trees. DNA barcoding can be used to totipotent and a single cell has the capacity to
identify the important medicinal plant. divide through the process of mitosis in sterile
3. (b) Sub-Theme: Genetics/Biotechnology/ GM Crops conditions in a culture Petri dish to develop
Option (b) is correct: into a mature plant.
z Bollgard I (single-gene technology) is 5. (a) Sub-Theme: Genetics/Biotechnology
India’s first biotech crop technology RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-
(Genetically modified crop) approved for Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a
commercialization in India in 2002, followed conserved biological response to double-
by Bollgard II – (double-gene technology) in stranded RNA that mediates resistance to
mid-2006. both endogenous parasitic and exogenous
z Bollgard cotton has an insecticidal protein pathogenic nucleic acids, and regulates the
from a naturally occurring soil microorganism expression of protein-coding genes.

Statement 1 is correct: Its natural mechanism Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology
for sequence-specific gene silencing promises z The most practical application of Somatic
to revolutionize experimental biology and
cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is in the
may have important practical applications
in functional genomics, therapeutic reproductive cloning of farm animals
intervention, agriculture and other areas. that have exceptional qualities, such as the
Statement 2 is correct: Numerous studies ability to produce large quantities of milk.
have demonstrated that RNAi can provide
z A somatic (body) cell’s nucleus is transferred
a more specific approach to inhibit tumor
growth by targeting cancer-related genes to the cytoplasm of an enucleated egg(an
(i.e., oncogene). egg that has had its own nucleus removed)
Statement 3 is incorrect: RNA interference using the somatic cell nuclear transfer
(RNAi) cannot be used to develop hormone (SCNT) procedure .
replacement therapies.
Statement 4 is correct: The reverse experiment z The SCNT-derived blastocyst used in
“virus-induced gene silencing” in which short reproductive cloning is implanted into
sequences of plant genes were introduced into the uterus of a surrogate mother, where it
viruses, showed that the targeted gene was develops into a foetus and is carried to term.
suppressed in an infected plant. It will produce
crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. z The first mammal to be cloned via SCNT
6. (c) Sub Theme: Application of Biotechnology was a sheep named Dolly, who was born in
The most practical application of Somatic cell 1996. The method might potentially be used
nuclear transfer (SCNT) is in the reproductive to bring back extinct animals; for instance,
cloning of farm animals that have exceptional frozen woolly mammoth cells could be
qualities, such as the ability to produce large employed as nuclear donors for enucleated
quantities of milk. elephant eggs.

7. (d) Sub-Theme: Genome sequencing 10. (d) S u b -T h e m e : D NA t e c h n o l o g y / G e n e t i c
Genome Sequencing is figuring the sequence Engineering
of DNA bases(nucleotides), such as As, Cs, Gs, z Recombinant DNA technology entails
and Ts that make up an organism’s DNA. These changing genetic material outside of an
genetic letters total more than 3 billion and organism to produce living organisms or
make up the human genome. their products with improved and desired
Statement 1 is correct: The identification of traits.
genetic markers for disease resistance and z Using the appropriate vectors, this approach
drought tolerance in different crop plants can entails inserting DNA fragments from a
be done via genome sequencing. number of sources that have the desired
Statement 2 is correct: Genome sequencing is gene sequence.
a method that will aid in genetic engineering
and speed up the process of creating new crop z Manipulation in an organism’s genome is
plant kinds. carried out either through the introduction
Statement 3 is correct: It also includes research of one or several new genes and regulatory
on host-pathogen interactions in agricultural elements or by decreasing or blocking the
systems, like that of genes related to insecticide expression of endogenous genes through
Resistance in Bactrocera dorsalis. recombining genes and elements.
8. (b) Sub-Theme: Bioinformatics z It allows genes to be transferred across
Option (b) is correct: A transcriptome is different species of plants, animals to
the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, plants and from microorganisms to
molecules expressed by an organism. higher organisms.
About Transcriptome: 11. (c) Sub-Theme: GM Crops
z A transcriptome is the full range of Statement 1 is incorrect: A gene called
messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules cry1Ac from the soil bacterium Bacillus
expressed by an organism. thuringiensis was inserted into the brinjal to
z The term “transcriptome” can also be used develop Bt Brinjal, a transgenic brinjal.
to describe the array of mRNA transcripts z This brinjal has been genetically modified to
produced in a particular cell or tissue type. withstand insects like the Brinjal Fruit and
z In contrast with the genome, which Shoot Borer (Leucinodes orbonalis).
is characterised by its stability, the z Statement 2 is incorrect: Farmers will be
transcriptome actively changes. In fact, an free to save and sow as many seeds from
organism’s transcriptome varies depending Bt Brinjal open-pollinated cultivars as they
on many factors, including the stage like. They are not terminator seeds.
of development and environmental
Statement 3 is correct: A Supreme Court-
conditions.
appointed expert group advised a 10-year
9. (d) Sub-Theme: Mycorrhizal biotechnology moratorium on field trials of all genetically
Statement 1 is correct: Trees host modified (GM) food crops and a complete
mycorrhizal fungus in their roots so they can ban on field trials of transgenics in crops of
absorb nutrients from the ground and resist Indian origins when the case reached that
the drought condition. These fungi exchange court because consumption of Bt brinjal may
the carbon from the tree for vital nutrients have adverse impact on the health of people.
including nitrogen, phosphate, and potassium Consequently, the government put a freeze on
from the soil. field trial of Bt Brinjal in 2010.
Statement 2 is correct: Mycorrhizal plants Statement 4 is correct: The government’s
can withstand unfavourable soil conditions, own task committee on biotechnology
high pH levels, droughts, and poisonous heavy had recommended in 2004 that no GM crops
metals. be allowed in biodiversity-rich areas since
Statement 3 is correct: Mycorrhizae are biodiversity is essential for nutrition and
symbiotic relationships between plant roots sustainability.
and specific soil fungi that are important for
the ecosystem’s nutrient cycling and that 12. (c) Sub-Theme: GM Crops
help shield plants from environmental and Genetically modified (GM) is a technology
cultural stress. Additionally, mycorrhizal fungi’s that involves inserting DNA into the genome of
synthesis of oxalic acid contributes to disease an Organism. The cells are typically cultured in
suppression. tissue culture after which they transform into

plants. The modified DNA will be passed along product bacteria are identical to or closely
to the seeds that these plants generate. related to those found in human bodies
Statement 1 is correct: Future conflicts may naturally.
be avoided with the introduction of genetically Statement 3 is correct: A well-known food
engineered (GE) drought-tolerant crops that source of probiotics is yoghurt. The enzyme
can tolerate longer and more intense droughts. ß-D-galactosidase is present in some strains of
Statement 2 is correct: Nutritional improved bacteria in yoghurt, aids in the breakdown
GM crops being developed include wheat of lactose in dairy products into the sugars
variants free of gluten, a common trigger for glucose and galactose. Thus it also helps in
food allergies, and vegetables with increased the digestion of milk sugars.
iron and vitamin A levels to avoid common 15. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic Science
nutritional deficits in developing countries. Option (d) is correct: Lymphocytes are
Statement 3 is incorrect: Genetically primarily classified into B cells and T cells.
Engineered plants have not been created B cells function by producing antibodies that
to enable them to be grown in spacecraft, are released into the body’s fluids, which then
space stations, and submarines to perform attack antigens present in the bloodstream.
photosynthesis. z Acquired immunity is pathogen specific, it
Statement 4 is correct: Israel has created is characterized by memory.
transgenic, longer-lasting banana plants. They
z This means when our body encounters a
can slow down plant ageing and give fruits like
pathogen for the first time it produces a
tomatoes an extra week of shelf life.
response called primary response which
13. (c) Sub-Theme: DNA sequences is of low intensity.
DNA Sequencing means determining the order z Subsequent encounters with the same
of the four chemical building blocks - called pathogen elicits a highly intensified
“bases” - that make up the DNA molecule. This secondary or anamnestic response.
sequence informs scientists the kind of genetic
z This type of immune responses are carried
information that is carried in a particular DNA
out with the help of two special types
segment.
of lymphocytes present in our blood, i.e
Statement 1 is correct: A thorough pedigree
B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
analysis using pedigree files received via
DNA sequencing from the relevant breed z The B-lymphocytes produce an army of
organisations. proteins in response to pathogens into our
Statement 2 is incorrect: Sequencing enables blood to fight with them.
medical professionals to identify whether a z These proteins are called antibodies.
gene or the region that controls a gene includes 16. (c) Sub-Theme: Disease transmission
alterations, known as variations or mutations, Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT)
that are connected to an illness. But, through also known as Mitochondrial Gene Therapy
arrangement of genes of DNA sequences on a or Mitochondrial Donation is a new form of
chromosome, it is not possible to understand reproductive in-vitro fertilization (IVF) which
the causes of all human diseases. works on the principle of replacing a women’s
Statement 3 is correct: Researchers have even abnormal mitochondrial DNA (mt-DNA) with
been able to identify specific faults in genes that the donor’s healthy one.
are responsible for or contribute to disease. z Through the in vitro fertilization
Hence, Breeds of animals that are resistant to technique (IVF), the egg is then fertilized
disease can be created. with the partner’s sperm. Thus the embryo
14. (c) Sub-Theme: remains free from any such defects.
Statement 1 is correct: Probiotics are live Statement 1 is correct: The mitochondrial
bacteria and yeasts that are believed to be donation can be performed either prior to or
helpful in preventing a number of diseases. shortly after fertilization. In both cases, this
They are also referred to as “good bacteria” is done before the fertilized egg becomes an
and are typically eaten as supplements or in embryo.
yogurt, also found in other fermented foods Statement 2 is correct: Mitochondria is
Statement 2 is incorrect: Some bacteria aid the only organelle in addition to the nucleus
in food digestion, eliminate disease-causing which contains DNA and genes. The sperm
cells, or create vitamins. Numerous probiotic contains a very low number of mitochondria

and mitochondrial genes. So, in the offspring, 19. (c) Sub-Theme: Food Safety Regulations
the mitochondrial genes are inherited from the Option (c) is correct:
mother. Thus, a father with a mitochondrial z As per the Food Safety and Standards
gene defect cannot transmit the disease to his (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations,
offspring. 2011, All pre-packaged items in India
17. (d) Sub-Theme: Disease transmission contain certain information such as
Option (d) is correct: Angiotensin Converting Nutrition information, List of ingredients;,
Enzyme 2 (ACE2) has been discovered to be Vegetarian/Non-vegetarian/Vegan, Date of
the SARS-CoV-2 virus’s receptor. manufacture, Best before, Date of packing,
z Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2 (ACE2) Lot number, Code number, or Batch number.
has been discovered to be the SARS-CoV-2 several-piece package, list of ingredients
virus’s receptor. including additives, Food that has been
z The coronavirus can enter a variety of human prepackaged, a primary display panel,
cells through this particular protein and wholesale package.
spread infection.
20. (d) Sub-Theme: Components of Food/Balanced Diet
z Numerous cell types and tissues, such as
Option (d) is correct: Specific minerals like
the kidneys, liver, gastrointestinal system,
calcium, Iron sand sodium play a part in muscle
blood arteries, lungs, and heart, all contain
contraction.
ACE2. It is found in epithelial cells, which
z Skeletal muscle attached to our skeleton,
line several tissues and build defences.
contracts to maintain our posture and
z Across this epithelial lining in the lung,
support movement, whereas cardiac
oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged
muscle makes up our heart and contracts
between the lungs and blood vessels. The
with each heartbeat.
epithelium in the nose, mouth, and lungs
contains ACE2. z Our airways, digestive system, blood vessels,
and other tissues are lined with smooth
18. (d) Sub-Theme: Gene Therapy
muscle, and the contraction of this muscle
z Gene therapy is the ability to improve is important for digestion, circulation, and
genes through the correction of misplaced other physiological activities.
(mutated) genes or site-specific alterations
z Specific minerals play a part in muscle
with therapeutic treatment as the target
contraction:
z A gene abnormality that has been identified
Calcium: Calcium is essential for
in a child or embryo can be corrected using
a variety of techniques known as gene activating enzymes that cause muscle
therapy. In this instance, genes are injected contraction.
to treat an illness into a person’s cells and Iron: Iron helps to support continued
tissues. functioning of the muscle by supporting
Statement 1 is correct: In germline gene energy production in your muscle cells,
therapy, DNA is inserted into the body’s cells so that muscle fibres always have the
that make eggs or sperm, the reproductive energy they need to contract properly.
cells. This kind of treatment enables the repair Also supports healthy circulation so
of disease-causing gene mutations that are that muscles can receive additional
unavoidably inherited from parents to children. oxygen from the bloodstream and helps
Statement 2 is correct: Although germline muscles store oxygen to power muscle
gene therapy is prohibited, it is conceivable contractions.
to alter the genome of an embryo(embryonic Sodium: Sodium balances potassium
genetic editing) to prevent the vertical transfer
to maintain membrane potential, it is
(through inheritance) of specific diseases and
necessary for muscular contraction.
medical disorders.
Statement 3 is correct: To conduct an NOTE: This is a simple, easy and direct
experiment and determine which type of question from NCERT. Therefore, it is very
human stem cell would survive the best when much important for the aspirants to read
injected into pig embryos. Intermediate
and understand each and every concept
human pluripotent stem cells were the ones
including the minor details from the
that endured the longest and shown the most
potential for further development. NCERTs.

21. (d) Sub-Theme: Biopesticides z They are capable of being pluripotent
Option (d) is correct: All of the above (a stem cell can grow into a complete organ).
mentioned can be employed as Biopesticides, z Statement 1 is incorrect: Stem cells can be
depending on the properties of specific species. extracted from embryos and body tissues
Biopesticides are various biologically active of any species, not just mammals.
natural substances that exist in nature and have z Statement 2 is correct: Stem cells can be
inhibitory effects on crop diseases and insect utilised to test new medications and for
pests. In general, the creation of biopesticide therapeutic purposes.
depends to a large extent on biological
resources. z These stem cells can be extracted from a
z Three major classes of biopesticides are: range of tissue sources, including the brain,
lung, heart, muscle, and umbilical cord, and
Microbial pesticides consist of a
they can be easily grown in vitro.
microorganism (e.g., a bacterium,
fungus, virus or protozoan) as the z Statement 3 is correct: In stem cell
active ingredient used to control pests. transplants, stem cells either replace
The microorganism may occur naturally, diseased or chemo-damaged cells or work
be dead or alive, or be genetically with the immune system of the donor to
engineered. combat certain cancers and blood-related
Biochemical pesticides are naturally illnesses such leukaemia, lymphoma,
occurring substances, such as plant neuroblastoma, and multiple myeloma.
extracts, fatty acids or pheromones, z Adult stem cells or umbilical cord blood are
that control pests using a nontoxic used in these transplants.
mode of action to the pest.
Plant-Incorporated-Protectants
NOTE: Stem cell and its applications
(PIPs) are pesticidal substances that frequently appear in the news. Therefore,
plants produce from genetic material it is advisable to thoroughly read the daily
that has been added to the plant, such newspaper and do some basic research
as corn and cotton. on the particular topic to understand any
z All of the above mentioned can be employed concepts.
as Biopesticides, depending on the properties 24. (c) Sub-Theme: Component of food/balanced diet
of specific species. Option (c) is correct: The purpose of
22. (a) Sub-Theme: UV Rays antioxidants is to counteract the harmful
Ultraviolet water purification is the best effects of free radicals in our body, thereby
way for eliminating bacteria from water is promoting better health. By providing an
ultraviolet water purification. electron to a roaming free radical, antioxidants
Application of UV Rays in Purifying the have the ability to stabilize it, thus mitigating
Water: its potential to cause damage.
Statement 1 is correct: A UV water purifier About Antioxidant:
uses germicidal ultraviolet radiation to clean z Any substance that can inhibit the
water that is microbiologically hazardous. formation of unstable molecules known
Living things in the water have their DNA as free radicals, which harm DNA, cell
scrambled by the UV wavelength, making it membranes, and other components of cells,
impossible for them to reproduce and infect us. is referred to as a “antioxidant.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: UV disinfection
z Free radicals grab electrons from other
renders living organisms inactive, but it does
molecules in order to complete their
not clean the water, add chemicals, or get rid
electron complement, which causes those
of unpleasant tastes and aromas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: For UV purification molecules to suffer damage.
to be effective, water turbidity (i.e., the z Free radicals are countered by antioxidants
quantity of suspended & colloidal materials by sacrificing some of their own electrons.
included in the water to be treated) must be They serve as a natural “off” switch for
minimal and the water must be clear. the free radicals by making this sacrifice.
23. (b) Sub-Theme: Stem cell and its applications Antioxidants neutralize the free radicals
z Stem cells offer hope for the treatment of produced in the body during metabolism.
several disorders for which there is no z For example some vitamins and minerals —
known cure. including vitamins C and E and the minerals

copper, zinc, and selenium — serve as or Streptococcus pneumoniae, bacterium.
antioxidants, in addition to other vital roles. Ear infections, sepsis, sinus infections,
z Antioxidants can also be found in food, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections
especially in fruits, vegetables, and other are all possible outcomes of pneumococcal
plant-based, whole foods. infections.
z A pneumococcal vaccine, often known
25. (b) Sub-Theme: Viral diseases
as a pneumonia shot, protects against
Statement 1 is incorrect: The icosahedral septicemia (also known as sepsis), a type
viruses known as adenoviruses (AdVs) have of blood poisoning, and meningitis.
double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) genomes
Statement 2 is correct: Although vaccines
whereas retroviruses use RNA(Single
are not meant to replace antibiotics, they can
stranded) as its genetic material.
help decrease AMR (Antimicrobial Resistance
z Adenoviruses are a family of widespread
or drug resistance) by decreasing the spread
viruses that affect your brain system,
of (resistant) bacterial illnesses as well as by
intestines, urinary tract, eyes, and airways.
lowering the overuse and misuse of antibiotics.
They are frequent causes of pink eye,
Statement 3 is incorrect: The side effects
diarrhoea, coughs, sore throats, and fever.
of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine might
Statement 2 is correct: Common cold is range from fever, appetite loss, and fussiness
caused by adenoviruses. HIV is classified to headache.
as a retrovirus because it contains reverse
transcriptase. Note: Read statement 3 carefully. It talks
about “no side effects and no allergic
NOTE: Viruses and health issues were in the
reactions”. It sounds like a very absolute
news since the outbreak of Covid pandemic
and extreme statement. Any drug has its
in 2020.
own side effects with variable magnitude.
26. (c) Sub-Theme: Vaccines and drugs Allergic reactions vary person to person.
Recombinant vector vaccines are live Drugs having zero side effects and allergic
replicating viruses that have been modified to reactions are unconvincing. So elimination of
carry additional genes taken from a pathogen; statement 3 will help us to reach the correct
these additional genes produce the proteins we options.
want to elicit immunity against.
28. (b) Sub-Theme: Multi-drug resistance
z The recombinant virus vector vaccine is
one of the important emerging technologies. z Rising incomes, decreased prescription
costs, and uncontrolled sales have resulted
z Statement 1 is correct: The techniques
in an increase in antibiotic use and higher
of genetic engineering include creation of
rates of resistance, evaluations of the burden
recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and
of resistance have received little attention
gene transfer.
in low- and middle-income countries
Statement 2 is correct: Recombinant vector (LMICs)
vaccines expose the body to proteins made
Statement 1 is incorrect: genetic
by a virus or bacteria, and are often made
predisposition is a genetic trait that, in
by using weakened or inactive versions of that response to environmental factors, may
virus or bacteria. influence the potential phenotypic development
27. (b) Sub-Theme: Vaccines and drugs of an individual organism within a species or
z By eliciting an immune response to an community.
antigen, a recognisable component of a z Antibiotic resistance is unrelated to the
bacterium or virus, vaccines work to prevent genetic tendency of a small minority of
illnesses. In order to achieve this, a harmful persons in a society.
bacterium or virus that is attenuated or Statement 2 is correct: The rise of bacterial
dead is typically included in the vaccine. strains that are resistant to several antibiotics
This way, the immune system is trained to could be caused by the improper usage of
detect the antigen in the future. antibiotic FDCs.
Statement 1 is correct: A pneumococcal Statement 3 is correct: Using the antibiotics
vaccine known as a Pneumococcal in livestock farming increases, the antibiotic
Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) provides protection multidrug resistance transfers in microbial
against pneumococcal illnesses, which are pathogens
infections brought on by the pneumococcus, Statement 4 is incorrect: Additionally,

MDR exacerbates the risk of resistant z Hepatitis B and C infections can cause
microorganisms spreading, which reduces chronic liver disease, liver cirrhosis, and
treatment effectiveness and, ultimately, hepatocellular cancer in people who
prolongs the duration of an infection in patients. are symptom-free for years or who only
But, multiple chronic diseases in people is not experience minor symptoms.
the reason of MDR. 31. (d) Sub-Theme: Plant diseases
29. (a) Sub-Theme: Gene editing Option (d) is correct: Plant disease is an
Option (a) is correct: The Cas9 enzyme alteration to a plant’s normal state that impairs
functions as a molecular scissor that can or changes its essential functioning.
cut DNA, and the single-guide RNA (sgRNA) z All plant species, both wild and domesticated,
contains a sequence that can bind to DNA. are susceptible to illness. Despite the fact
Together, these two components make up the that each species is prone to certain diseases,
gene editing tool these are always relatively uncommon.
About CRISPR Cas9: z There are many other ways that pathogens
z Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short that cause plant disease are indirectly
Palindromic Repeats” or CRISPR Cas9 is transmitted, including by the wind, water,
the abbreviation. animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds,
z With the use of CRISPR genome editing and more.
technology, researchers may quickly and z Pathogens can be transferred from one
precisely alter any genome’s DNA. diseased plant to another plant by birds
z As a sort of adaptive immunity, bacteria flying through crops.
use the CRISPR-Cas9 system to identify and z Wind can carry some plant harmful
eliminate viral DNA. Researchers may add, microorganisms a short way.
delete, or modify specific DNA sequences z Raindrop splashing can spread certain
from the genomes of higher species using bacteria, as seen in the instance of citrus
the CRISPR system’s components. canker disease.
z The Cas9 enzyme functions as a molecular z The illnesses are spread by soil and
scissor that can cut DNA, and the single- agricultural activities as well because they
guide RNA (sgRNA) contains a sequence cause dust to blow.
that can bind to DNA. Together, these two 32. (d) Sub-Theme: Harmful chemicals
components make up the gene editing tool. z Pair 1 is correct: Lip items like lipsticks
30. (b) Sub-Theme: Vaccines and drugs and other cosmetics including eye shadow,
Option (b) is correct: There is currently no blush, compact powder, shampoo, and body
cure for Hepatitis C. The mainstay of hepatitis lotion frequently include the contaminant
B prevention is the hepatitis B vaccine. lead.
z A viral infection known as hepatitis B z Pair 2 is correct: In some sodas and soft
affects the liver and can result in both drinks, the citrus flavour is sometimes
acute and chronic illness. Contact with the prevented from breaking out by the food
blood or other bodily fluids of an infected additive brominated vegetable oil. In
individual can spread the virus. Europe and Japan, it is prohibited as a food
ingredient.
z HIV, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C can all be
spread through unprotected sexual contact, z Pair 3 is correct: A “non-essential” amino
contaminated syringes, infected blood, and acid called glutamate, or glutamic acid
transfusions. salt, is what is known as monosodium
glutamate (MSG). It transmits messages
z Hepatitis B and C afflict a far greater number from one nerve cell to another as a
of people than HIV infection does. neurotransmitter. It has “neuro-excitatory
z There is currently no cure for Hepatitis C. qualities,” which means it can stimulate
The mainstay of hepatitis B prevention is neurons, because it is supposed to improve
the hepatitis B vaccine. flavours. It is frequently utilised in fast food
z The most prevalent serious liver infection that is Chinese.
in the world and a hazard to public health 33. (d) Sub-Theme: Microorganisms
globally is hepatitis B. It can spread up to Option (d) is correct: All kinds of life, including
100 times faster than the HIV/AIDS virus. animals, plants, and microbes like bacteria
and fungi, are susceptible to virus infection.

z Small infectious agents called viruses can affects children, it can also impact adults.
only reproduce inside the live cells of other People are still concerned about chicken
creatures. pox, and the government is working to
z All kinds of life, including animals, plants, eradicate it completely.
and microbes like bacteria and fungi, are z Smallpox: Smallpox is an acute contagious
susceptible to virus infection. illness brought on by the variola virus, an
z The following four categories of host best orthopoxvirus. Before it was destroyed,
describe viruses in terms of the sort of host it was one of the most terrible diseases
they infect: that had ever struck mankind. It has
1. Animal viruses, including human viruses, supposedly been.
have DNA/RNA 36. (a) Sub-Theme: Virus
2. Plant viruses, including algal viruses. Statement 1 is correct: Viruses do not have
3. Mycoviruses (fungal viruses)-ds RNA the chemical machinery needed to survive on
their own.
4. Bacteriophages (bacterial viruses),
Statement 2 is incorrect: The virus can’t
including cyanophages-DN
reproduce itself without another cell to “build”
34. (a) Sub-Theme: Vitamins its copies. Therefore we can’t grow a virus on
z In human bodies, deficiencies in one or more synthetic media.
nutrients can lead to illnesses or problems. Statement 3 is incorrect: Viruses enter the
The diseases are illnesses that develop body from the environment or other individuals
over an extended period of time as a result from soil to water to air via nose, mouth, or any
of nutrient deficiency breaks in the skin and seek a cell to infect.
z Vitamin A ___________ Night blindness z Viruses lack the necessary chemical
apparatus for independent survival.
z Vitamin B1 ___________ Beriberi
z Viruses look for host cells where they can
z Vitamin B2 ___________ Ariboflavinosis
reproduce. On artificial medium, such as
z Vitamin B3 ___________ Pellagra agar, viruses cannot thrive, although they
z Vitamin B5 ___________ Paresthesia can on bacterial cultures. On the other hand,
z Vitamin B6 ___________ Anemia viruses resemble little aliens.
z Vitamin B7 ___________ Dermatitis, enteritis z Since they don’t consume nutrients or excrete
z Vitamin B9 & Vitamin B12 ___________ waste, they aren’t really considered to be
Megaloblastic anemia “living.” Instead, they attach to another cell
z Vitamin C ___________ Scurvy, Swelling of (such as a bacterium) and inject it with their
Gums own viral genetic material.
z Vitamin D ________ Rickets & Osteomalacia z Without a second cell to “build” its copies
in, the virus is unable to replicate. As a
z Vitamin E ___________ Less Fertility
result, we are unable to grow viruses on
z Vitamin K ___________ Non-Clotting of Blood. artificial media.
35. (b) Sub-Theme: Disease z Viral contamination from the environment
z Diphtheria:The bacteria Corynebacterium or other people enters the body through
diphtheria is the cause of the infectious the nose, mouth, or any openings in the air,
illness diphtheria. The throat and upper water, or soil.
airways are the site of the main infection. 37. (b) Sub-Theme: Disease transmission
According to data from the Central Bureau of Option (b) is correct: Tattoos may cause
Health Intelligence, India reported 41,672 diseases because tattoo instruments come
cases of diphtheria between 2005 and 2014 in contact with blood and bodily fluids if the
(an average of 4,167 cases per year), with instruments are used on more than one person
897 deaths (a case fatality ratio of 2.2%). without being sterilised.
84% of the cases recorded nationwide were z When tattoo instruments are used on
in ten states: Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Delhi, multiple people without being sanitised,
Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Nagaland, they come into contact with blood and body
Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and West Bengal. fluids and may spread illnesses.
z Chickenpox: The varicella-zoster virus, z However, tattoo-related infections are
which causes chickenpox, is a highly uncommon in sterile, contemporary tattoo
contagious illness. While it primarily parlours using single-use needles.

z Surface diseases of the skin, hepatitis Statement 3 is correct: SaaS includes services
B, hepatitis C, TB, and HIV are among like Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo Mail. In
the pathogens that could theoretically be order to utilise these services, a user must log
spread through the use of unsterilized into their account online, frequently using a
tattoo equipment or contaminated ink. computer browser.
However, no one has been documented to 39. (d) Sub-Theme: Web 3.0 Technology
have acquired HIV through a commercial Web3
tattooing procedure. z In a Web3 world, people control their
z Through the bite of an infected mosquito, own data and bounce around from social
the chikungunya virus is transmitted media to email to shopping using a single
to humans. There is no spread of the personalised account, creating a public
Chikungunya virus (it cannot be spread record on the block chain of all of that
directly from person to person). activity.
38. (d) Sub-Theme: Information Technology z Web 3.0 will be permissionless and
Software as a Service (SaaS) democratic. Thus people can maintain
blockchain based social networks in
z Software as a Service means software
Web 3.0.
which is offered by a third party as a
service, which means that hosting and z Web 3.0 is a decentralized internet to be run
maintenance are taken care of by the third on blockchain technology.
party. World Wide Web
z Previously if an organisation wanted to use z World Wide Web, also known as a Web, is a
a software, it had to be deployed on local collection of websites or web pages stored
systems and then maintained appropriately in web servers and connected to local
for usage. But in SAAS, software can be computers through the internet.
directly accessed typically using thin z These websites contain text pages, digital
clients like browsers. images, audios, videos, etc. Users can access
the content of these sites from any part
z Customers can adjust the user interface
of the world over the internet using their
(UI) to alter the program’s appearance
devices such as computers, laptops, cell
and feel as well as particular components,
phones, etc.
like data fields, to change the data that is
displayed. Statement 1 is correct: In a Web3 world,
people control their own data.
z SaaS enables online programme access for
Statement 2 is correct: Web 3.0 will be
any user. The user is not required to install
permissionless and democratic. Thus people
the programme on their computer. Users
can maintain blockchain based social networks
can therefore access data via their mobile
in Web 3.0.
devices. Statement 3 is correct: In Web 3.0 all the value
z SaaS enables users to access the software that’s created can be shared amongst more
from several places via a web browser. With people, rather than just the owners, investors
remote desktop software, he or she may and employees. Thus it is operated by users
work from home. collectively rather than by corporations.
z SaaS includes services like Outlook, Hotmail, 40. (b) Sub-Theme: Quantum Computing
and Yahoo Mail. The Correct answer is Option (b): Quantum
Statement 1 is correct: Web-based software computers use quantum bits or Qubits,
is adaptable enough to be customised for both which can be both 0 and 1 at the same time.
particular corporate needs and individual Quantum Computing
users. Customers can adjust the user interface z Quantum computers are machines that use
(UI) to alter the program’s appearance and the properties of quantum physics to
feel as well as particular components, like data store data and perform computations.
fields, to change the data that is displayed. z A classical computer performs operations
Statement 2 is correct: SaaS enables online using classical bits, which can be either 0
programme access for any user. The user is or 1.
not required to install the programme on their z Quantum computer uses quantum bits or
computer. Users can therefore access data via Qubits, which can be both 0 and 1 at the
their mobile devices. same time.

z Qubits (or quantum bits) are the units of 9. Remote control
computation in quantum computers. They 10. Radio frequency identification (RFID)
take advantage of quantum mechanics 11. Road Transport Telematics
characteristics, which regulate how matter
behaves at the atomic level. NOTE: Recently, Google Pay has launched a
z The laws of quantum physics are used new feature in India, ‘Tap to pay for UPI’,
to achieve functioning of quantum in collaboration with Pine Labs. The feature
computing: makes use of Near Field Communication
1. Superimposition: Each quantum bit (NFC) technology, which is a short-range
(basic unit of information in a quantum wireless connectivity technology.
computer) can represent both a 1 and a 42. (b) Sub-Theme: Artificial Intelligence
0 at the same time, which is known as z Artificial intelligence (AI) is the ability of
superposition. machines to carry out cognitive functions
2. Quantum entanglement: Subatomic like reasoning, perception, learning, and
particles become “entangled” problem-solving.
(connected) in quantum entanglement, z Intelligent systems may now be used
which means that any change in one to handle a range of activities, facilitate
upsets the other, even though they are communication, and boost productivity
at opposite ends of the universe. thanks to significant advancements
z Major advantages: Faster, Accurate, & achieved in data gathering, processing,
Energy efficient. and computation power.
Sycamore: it is Google’s Quantum z In today’s culture, artificial intelligence
Computer, which recently claimed is used in a variety of ways. In a
Quantum Supremacy. variety of sectors, including healthcare,
Quantum Supremacy: refers to entertainment, finance, and education,
quantum computers being able to solve among others.
a problem that a classical computer z AI has been used to diagnose diseases,
cannot. write songs. Text-to-speech conversion
41. (d) Sub-Theme: Short Range Devices has made use of AI, such as Cerewave AI.
The Correct answer is Option (d): All z For instance, Google is combining the
the given technologies are Short Range Internet of Things (IoT) and artificial
Technologies. intelligence (AI) from its acquisition of
Short Range Device/Technologies DeepMind to cut the amount of energy
used in its data centres by up to 30%.
z The term “short-range radio device”
refers to radio transmitters that offer 43. (c) Sub-Theme: Communication technology
either unidirectional or bidirectional Visible Light Communication (VLC)
communication and have a low potential z It uses visible light between 400 and 800
to interfere with other radio equipment. THz (375–780 nm) for data communication.
z Such devices are allowed to operate without Optical wireless communications methods
hindrance and without being protected. include VLC as a subset.
The term “Short Range Device” refers to a wide z The light can communicate information
range of wireless devices, such as different directly or indirectly through surface
types of: reflection. Even in low light, it can still
1. Access control (including door and gate function. Light, however, cannot pass
openers) through solid objects like walls. Therefore,
2. Alarms and movement detectors VLC cannot be utilised for long distance
wireless transmission.
3. Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
z VLC can send data at speeds between mbps
4. Cordless audio devices, including wireless
and gbps, but Bluetooth can only carry data
microphones
at a rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per second)
5. Industrial control (megabytes per second to gigabytes per
6. Local Area Networks second).
7. Medical implants z With the introduction of LED, general
8. Metering devices lighting is now being used by VLC as

an alternative or addition to Wi-Fi to z Blockchain technology can be applied to
connect with people within a location. supply chains, healthcare, smart contracts,
LED illumination can be adjusted at very banking, real estate transactions, and even
high frequencies with a cycle as short as election processes.
nanoseconds, but other light sources have z The main benefit of an open,
practical constraints. permissionless, or public blockchain
z Due to the fact that the visible light network is that access management and
spectrum is 10,000 times bigger than the security against malicious actors are not
radio spectrum, this idea, known as Li-Fi, necessary. This means that by leveraging the
may provide a solution to RF bandwidth blockchain as a transport layer, apps can
restrictions. VLC possesses the ability to be introduced to the network without
withstand electromagnetic interference. needing the consent or confidence of
As a result, there is no electromagnetic others.
interference. Statement 1 is correct: A blockchain is a
z Because light-producing equipment (such decentralised, distributed, and oftentimes
as indoor/outdoor lamps, TVs, traffic signs, public, digital ledger consisting of records
commercial displays, and car headlights/ called blocks that is used to record transactions
taillights) are utilised everywhere, VLC can across many computers so that any involved
be employed as a communications channel block cannot be altered retroactively, without
for ubiquitous computing. the alteration of all subsequent blocks.
Statement 1 is correct: Visible light Statement 2 is incorrect: Blockchain
communication (VLC) is a data communications technology can be used in property exchanges,
variant which uses visible light between 400 bank transactions, healthcare, smart contracts,
and 800 THz (375–780 nm). VLC is a subset of supply chain, and even in voting for a candidate
optical wireless communications technologies. Statement 3 is correct: The great advantage to
Statement 2 is incorrect: The light can transmit an open, permissionless, or public, blockchain
information either directly or reflected from a network is that guarding against bad actors is
surface. It can do so while dimmed. However, not required and no access control is needed.
light cannot penetrate obstacles such as walls. Note: With general understanding of
Thus for wireless communication purposes Blockchain technology through Newspapers/
VLC cannot be used for long distances. Monthly magazines, we know that this
Statement 3 is correct: Bluetooth transmits technology has uses and applications across
data at the rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per various sectors such as in banking sector
second), while VLC can transmit data in the and health sector among others. Statement
range between mbps -gbps (megabytes per 2 talks about the application of Blockchain
second to gigabytes per second). technology for crypto currency only, which
Statement 4 is correct: VLC has the is an extreme and absolute statement.
characteristic to resist electromagnetic Eliminating statement 2 by applying the
interference. So it does not cause above understanding helps us to reach at
Electromagnetic interference. 50:50 probability.
44. (d) Sub-Theme: Blockchain Technology 45. (d) Sub-Theme: Communication Technology
Blockchain Technology z The LTE protocol used by mobile phone
z A blockchain is a digital ledger that networks has undergone a technological
is decentralised, distributed, and update called Voice over LTE (VoLTE). Voice
frequently made public. It is used to calls are routed to the telecom companies’
record transactions across many computers older 2G or 3G networks under LTE, which
so that any involved block cannot be solely supports data transmission.
changed retroactively without changing all z Because of this, using LTE prevents you from
succeeding blocks. using your 4G data services while on a call.
z This makes it possible for participants to This causes issues like sluggish internet
independently and reasonably audit speeds and muddled voice quality.
transactions. A distributed timestamping z The most popular version of Long Term
server and a peer-to-peer network are Evolution (LTE) is 4G LTE.
used to manage a blockchain database z VoLTE enables the packaging and
independently. transmission of voice calls over LTE

networks. This indicates that 4G data is Statement 3 is correct: Users may easily test
usable even while on a call. out AR with the camera of a smartphone by
z VoLTE is an Internet Protocol Multimedia downloading an app. However, there is another
Subsystem (IMS) specification that allows way to experience augmented reality. With
for smooth network operation of a number specialised AR headsets, like Google Glass,
of services, such as voice and video, without digital content is displayed on a small screen
the need to switch between different in front of the user’s eyes.
applications. Statement 4 is correct: With images and
z This would provide access to 4G data even things that seem real, a virtual reality (VR)
when on a call. environment gives the user the impression
that they are completely engrossed in their
Statement 1 is incorrect: Long term Evolution surroundings. A virtual reality headset, helmet,
(LTE) is commonly marketed as 4G LTE. or other equipment is used to view this
Statement 2 is incorrect: VoLTE is an environment.
Internet Protocol Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
47. (c) Sub-Theme: Digital technology
specification which enables a variety of services
to operate seamlessly on the network rather z A digital signature is a type of electronic
than having to switch to different applications signature that can be used to verify the
for voice or video. identity of the person sending a message
or signing a document and to guarantee
NOTE: UPSC simply loves to ask questions that the message’s or document’s original
on new age technologies which are frequent content hasn’t changed.
in news. You need not know every single z Digital signatures are portable and
intricacies but UPSC expects the aspirants impossible for anyone to forge. The
to know ‘something’ of ‘everything’ under sender cannot just deny the message later
the sun. Therefore, it is advisable to read the if it can be verified that the Original Signed
daily newspaper and understand the basic message actually arrived.
concepts of those technologies, through
z Certificates serve as evidence of a person’s
additional research, for eg: 5G, AI, Blockchain,
identity for specific purposes; for instance,
Additive Manufacturing, 3D Printing, Deep
a driver’s licence identifies someone who
fakes, Brain interface, Augmented Reality,
is legally permitted to drive in a specific
Metaverse, etc.
nation.
46. (b) Sub-Theme: Digital Technologies z Similarly, you can use a digital certificate
The main difference between the two is that to sign specific papers electronically or to
VR(Virtual Reality) builds the world in which authenticate your identity while accessing
we immerse ourselves through a specific information or services online.
headset. It is fully immersive and everything z However, compared to digital signature
we see is part of an environment artificially certificates, digital signatures are distinct
constructed through images, sounds, etc. On (DSC). DSC is the electronic version of
the other hand, in augmented reality (AR), paper certificates like a passport or driver’s
our own world becomes the framework licence. A digital signature certificate is a
within which objects, images or similar are computer-based record that identifies the
placed. certifying authority providing it, while a
Statement 1 is incorrect: Users view and digital signature is an electronic technique
interact with the physical environment while of conveying an electronic document.
digital content is added to in augmented Statement 1 is incorrect: The digital signature
reality (AR). A good example of augmented is an electronic method of sending an electronic
reality is Pokemon Go. document whereas a digital signature certificate
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Virtual Reality is a Computer Based record that identifies the
(VR), images generated from a computer certifying authority issuing it.
are not projected onto real -life objects or Statement 2 is incorrect: A digital certificate
surroundings rather, with help of virtual reality is not used to prove your identity, to access
headset, helmet, or other equipment a virtual information or services on the Internet or to
reality (VR) environment gives the user the sign certain documents digitally.
impression that they are completely engrossed Statement 3 is correct: A digital signature is
in their surroundings. an electronic form of signature that can be used

to authenticate the Identity of the sender of a Index, the world’s food supply is being
message or a signer of a document and also tracked (NDVI).
ensure that original content of the message on z In agriculture, near-infrared radiation is
document that has been sent is unchanged. utilised to identify healthy vegetation. Green
48. (d) Sub-Theme: Digital Technology light is reflected by healthy vegetation, while
z Electronic technologies or devices that may red and blue light are absorbed. Our eyes
be comfortably worn on the body are known perceive green light because plants produce
as wearables. Real-time information chlorophyll during photosynthesis.
tracking is done with these wearable z Remote sensing technology provides more
gadgets. accurate paddy field data. Resolution
z They have motion sensors that capture Imaging Spectroradiometer is used
an image of your daily activity and to estimate GHGs emissions like CH4
sync it with laptops or mobile devices. emissions from rice paddies.
Wearable electronics are the next major z The most widely used instruments are
technological advance after the introduction radiometers and photometers, which can
of smartphones. collect radiation that is emitted and reflected
z Most wearable devices, including activity at a variety of frequencies. Additionally,
trackers, smartwatches, and even medical they can be used to identify the emission
wearables that monitor patients’ physical spectra of different substances, providing
activity and health, include location and information on atmospheric chemical
position-tracking sensors, such as GPS, concentrations.
altimeters, magnetometers, compasses, z One of the most important factors in land-
and accelerometers. surface physical processes at the regional and
z Fitness trackers, often referred to as global levels is land surface temperature
activity trackers, are typically worn on the (LST), which has been extensively used in
wrist, chest, or ears and are intended to hydrology, meteorology, and the surface
track outdoor sporting activities as well as energy balance. A distinctive method for
assess fitness-related parameters including determining the LST at both regional and
running speed and distance, breath, heart global scales is remote sensing.
rate, and sleeping patterns. Statement 1 is correct: Chlorophyll will reflect
z Hearables, or wearable technology worn more light in the green and near infrared
on the ear, have recently experienced a fresh spectrum compared to other wavelengths. This
wave of popularity. The type of hearables is why near infrared radiation in combination
known as Hearing-Aids uses a microphone, with NDVI is one of the primary remote sensing
speaker, and amplifier. This enhances noises applications in agriculture and the environment.
to improve hearing for those who have Statement 2 is correct: Remote sensing
hearing loss. as in the Phonak Audeo V technology is capable of providing more
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Wearables are accurate paddy field data. Resolution Imaging
electronic technology or devices incorporated Spectroradiometer is used to estimate
into items that can be comfortably worn on Greenhouse gas emissions like CH4 emissions
a body. These wearable devices are used for from rice paddies.
tracking information such as location, sleep Statement 3 is correct: Remote sensing is
data, fitness track, etc. on a real-time basis. a unique way of obtaining the Land Surface
Statement 3 is correct: The type of hearables Temperature (LST) at regional and global
known as Hearing-Aids enhances noises to scales.
improve hearing for those who have hearing 50. (d) Sub-Theme: GPS Technology
loss. z A constellation of satellites transmitting
49. (d) Sub-Theme: Remote sensing technology/Space navigational signals and a network of ground
technology stations and satellite control stations used
z For assessing chlorophyll content from for monitoring and control make up the
remote sensing data utilising a multispectral Global Positioning System (GPS), a space-
imaging system, the Normalized Area based radio navigation system.
Vegetation Index (NAVI) has been z At the moment, 31 GPS satellites are
developed. Using satellite photography and in orbit around the Earth at a height of
the Normalized Difference Vegetation roughly 11,000 miles, giving users precise

information on position, velocity, and time information, which enables routers to send
everywhere in the world and in any weather. packets to the appropriate location. Every
z Every time and in practically any weather, device or domain that connects to the
GPS functions. Internet is given an IP address, and data gets
z As a cooperative civil and military technical to the right place as packets are sent to the
programme, the Global Positioning System— IP address associated with them.
previously known as the Navstar Global z The Border Gateway Protocol (BGP):
Positioning System—began in 1973. BGP enables data routing, is the protocol
z While global synchronised time was not the that powers the Internet.When a user
original purpose of GPS, it is today one of its in Singapore loads a website with origin
most important features. servers in Argentina, BGP is the protocol
that enables that communication to happen
z Cell tower synchronisation is required by
quickly and efficiently.
telecom networks in order to pass calls
between them.The clocks in the machinery z BGP is responsible for exploring all of
that regulates current flow in overloaded the available paths that data could travel
and picking the best route, which usually
networks are used by several electrical
means hopping between autonomous
power grids.
systems.
z In the Banking Sector ATM, credit card,
and high-speed market transactions NOTE: UPSC could have asked this question
are timestamped using timing methods in a simple statement, but didn’t do that. The
derived from GPS. reason behind this long paragraph is to kill
z GPS clocks are used in everything from precious time and confuse the aspirants. Now
computer network synchronisation to if you’re aware and read about AI technology
digital television and radio broadcasting to then you could easily pick up the keyword
seismic monitoring and weather reporting from the above paragraph such as ‘switched
using Doppler radar. on/off automatically’, ‘smart mirror’, ‘traffic
alert’, ’sending message automatically’, etc.
51. (b) Sub-Theme: AI Technology/New age or modern
and answer the question in much less time
technology
that too with confidence.
z Internet of Things: The idea behind the 52. (c) Sub-Theme: Communication Technology
Internet of Things (IoT) is to connect any LiFi
device to the Internet and other connected z LiFi is a Visible Light Communications
devices as long as it has an on/off switch.The system that transmits wireless internet
Internet of Things (IoT) is a vast network communications at very high speeds. This
of interconnected devices and people, all technology uses LED light bulb pulses of
of which gather and exchange information light that are undetectable to the human
about their environments and how they are eye and within those emitted pulses, data
used. can travel to and from receivers.
z VPN: An encrypted connection between a z The receivers then gather data and translate
device and a network via the Internet is the delivered information. This is essentially
known as a virtual private network, or VPN. comparable to deciphering Morse code,
Secure transmission of sensitive data is but it happens millions of times each
aided by the encrypted connection. It makes second, which is significantly faster. LiFi
it impossible for unauthorised parties to transmission rates can exceed 100 Gbps,
eavesdrop on the traffic and enables remote which is 14 times faster than WiGig, also
work for the user. The use of VPN technology referred to as the fastest WiFi in the
is common in business settings. world.
z The Internet Protocol (IP): It is a z In 2011, Harald Haas initially used the
protocol, or collection of guidelines, for phrase in his Edinburgh TEDGlobal talk.
addressing and routing data packets so Li-Fi technology can transmit data and
they can move between networks and reach unlock capacity that is 10,000 times more
their intended location.The Internet divides than that which is available within the
data into smaller units known as packets radio frequency by using the visible light
for transmission. Each packet contains IP spectrum.

z The technology is similar to Wi-Fi in terms Biometric identifiers are the distinct,
of its intended purpose, with the main measurable characteristics used to label
technological distinction being that Wi-Fi individuals.
uses radio frequency to induce a voltage
z Behavioural Indicators: Physiological
in an antenna to transfer data, while Li-Fi
characteristics are distinguished from
employs modulation of light intensity to do
so. behavioural traits when classifying
biometric identifiers. Fingerprint, palm
Statement 1 is correct: LiFi is a Visible Light
Communications system transmitting wireless veins, face recognition, DNA, palm print,
internet communications at very high speeds. hand geometry, iris recognition, retina, and
Statement 2 is correct: LiFi transmission odour/scent are examples of physiological
speeds can go over 100 Gbps, 14 times faster biometric identifiers. Gait, voice, and typing
than WiGig, also known as the world’s fastest rhythm are behavioural indicators.
WiFi. z Iris scanning
53. (c) Sub-Theme: Communication Technology
It is a form of biometric technology
z Near Field Communication (NFC) is a which uses visible and near-infrared
contactless communication technology
light to take a high-contrast photograph
based on a radio frequency (RF) field
of a person’s iris.
using a base frequency of 13.56 MHz. NFC
technology is designed to exchange data z Retinal scanning
between two devices simply through a It maps the unique patterns of a person’s
touch gesture. retina.
z In comparison to other wireless technologies, The blood vessels within the retina
which have a working distance of several absorb light more readily than the
metres, NFC technology is designed for an
surrounding tissue and thus easily
operation distance of a few centimetres,
identify with appropriate lighting.
making it more challenging for attackers to
record the communication between an NFC It is highly accurate and difficult to spoof,
Forum Device and an NFC Forum Tag. in terms of identification.
z Additionally, the NFC Forum Device user z Voice recognition
chooses through a touch gesture with which It is a computer software program which
entity the NFC connection should occur, can decode the human voice.
making it more challenging for the attacker
to connect. It is used to operate a device or perform
commands
z As a result, compared to other wireless
communication protocols, the security level 55. (a) Sub-Theme: Communication Technology
of NFC communication is by design higher.
Statement 1 is correct: NFC technology is Bluetooth WiFi
perfectly designed to exchange data between It is a wireless It is a wireless
two devices through a simple touch gesture. technology that is networking
Statement 2 is incorrect: NFC technology is used for exchanging technology that
designed for an operation distance of a few
data between uses radio waves
centimeters, this makes it more difficult for
mobile devices over to provide wireless
attackers to record the communication between
an NFC Forum Device and an NFC Forum Tag short distances high-speed internet
compared to other wireless technologies which using radio waves. and network
have a working distance of several meters. connections.
Statement 3 is correct: The security level of Requires Bluetooth Requires wireless
the NFC communication is by default higher
adaptor adaptor and router
compared to other wireless communication
protocols. Frequency 2.4Ghz Frequency 2.4-5Ghz
54. (d) Sub-Theme: Biometric Consumes Low Consumes high
z In computer science Biometrics power power
identification is used as a form of
identification and access control. Are Less secure Are More secure

z Unsafe to Humans:
No need for devices No need for devices
to be in line of to be in line of sight, There are various methods that may
sight; they just they just need to be be used to explain how humans and
need to be within within range of WiFi the environment are exposed to
bluetooth’s range. nanoparticles.
Workers including engineers, scientists,
Uses WPAN- Uses WLAN-
and technicians are mostly exposed
wireless personal wireless local area
at work while creating goods using
area network network
nanomaterials on a commercial scale
Coverage 10 meters Coverage 32 meters and at research size.
This exposure primarily comes from
Needs low Needs high handling raw materials while performing
bandwidth bandwidth reactions using the apparatus.
The second stage involves exposing
56. (b) Sub-Theme: Communication Technology
customers to such nanomaterials
z VPN: An encrypted connection between through usage and application, which
a device and a network via the Internet may have hazardous and detrimental
is known as a virtual private network, or impacts.
VPN.Secure transmission of sensitive data is Statement 1 is incorrect: Natural NPs are
aided by the encrypted connection.It makes sourced from forest fires, volcanic eruptions,
it impossible for unauthorised parties to weathering, dust storms etc. Eg: iron oxides/
eavesdrop on the traffic and enables remote sulphides, silver, and gold.
work for the user. Statement 2 is correct: In order to provide
z By creating secure connections over the an adequate level of sun protection, titanium
Internet, a VPN expands a company network. dioxide and zinc oxide are frequently added
Traffic stays private while travelling because to cosmetics among the metal and metal oxide
it is encrypted between the device and the nanoparticles (NPs) that may be present.
network. Statement 3 is correct: Workers including
z Even smartphones and tablets can connect engineers, scientists, and technicians are
through a VPN. mostly exposed at work while creating goods
57. (d) Sub-Theme: Nanoparticles using nanomaterials, while on the other hand
Nanoparticles customers get exposed to such nanomaterials
z Particles with particle size less than 100 nm through usage and application, which may have
are called nanoparticles. Nanoparticles are hazardous and detrimental impacts.
particles with dimensions comparable to 58. (c) Sub-Theme: Nanotechnology
1/109 of a metre. Carbon nanotubes (CNTs)
z Types of nanoparticles: z CNTs are cylindrical molecules which
Carbon Based: It includes Graphene consist of rolled-up sheets of single-layer
and other carbon based products. carbon atoms (graphene).
Metal based: The main component of z They come in two varieties: single-walled
these nanomaterials are metals. They (SWCNT), with a diameter of less than
include Nano silver and metal oxides. 1 nanometer (nm), and multi-walled
z Natural NPs: sourced from forest fires, (MWCNT), with diameters up to more
volcanic eruptions, weathering, dust storms than 100 nm and made up of multiple
etc. Eg: iron oxides/sulfides, silver, and gold. concentrically interconnected nanotubes.
z Anthropogenic NPs: unknowingly or They can be as long as a millimetre or even
purposely released in the environment several micrometres.
during various industrial and mechanical z Due to their large surface area, carbon
processes. nanotubes may be delivered to a
z Cosmetics: In order to provide an adequate particular cell with a very high degree
level of sun protection, titanium dioxide of efficiency because they enter cells in
and zinc oxide are frequently added to millions.
cosmetics among the metal and metal oxide z Since carbon nanotubes are promising drug
nanoparticles (NPs) that may be present. delivery platforms that may be functionalized

with a range of biomolecules, such as nanoscale delivery vehicles can improve
antibodies, proteins, or DNA, they can be the therapeutic efficacy and minimise side
formed into prosthetic blood capillaries for effects associated with existing medications.
a damaged region of the human body. z The development of medical
z NASA has shown off Biochemical Sensors nanotechnology can significantly advance
Made of Carbon Nanotube Arrays. Using genetic treatment. If diseases are handled
incorporated vertically aligned carbon from a genetic perspective, they are simple
nanotubes as nanoelectrode arrays in to treat.Therefore, using nanotechnology
diagnostic devices, NASA has successfully will enable medical professionals to treat
shown a miniaturised electronics technology illnesses by focusing on their fundamental
with extraordinarily high sensitivity and causes rather than just their symptoms.
simplified sample preparation for in-vitro Statement 1 is correct: One of the key aspects
detection of specific biomarker signatures. of nanomedicine is targeted drug delivery by
z Carbon nanotubes can be broken down nanoscale drug carriers.
by a variety of microorganisms, including Statement 2 is correct: Medical nanotechnology
bacteria and fungi (CNTs). can largely contribute to genetic therapy and
Statement 1 is correct: carbon nanotubes improvement.
have a high surface area, they go into the cell by 60. (c) Sub-Theme: Space Activity
the millions, and can have a very high efficiency SOLAR FLARE
of delivery to a specific cell z NASA’s Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO)
Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon nanotubes studies how the Sun creates solar activity
cannot be made into artificial blood capillaries
and drives space weather.
for an injured part of the human body as they
are promising drug delivery platforms that can z Solar flares are a sudden explosion of
be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, energy caused by reorganizing of magnetic
such as antibodies, proteins, or DNA. field lines near sunspots.
Statement 3 is correct: NASA has successfully z Solar magnetic cycle that works in deep
demonstrated a miniaturized electronics interior of Sun creates regions that rise to
technology with extremely high sensitivity surface and appear like dark spots, known
and simplified sample preparation for in-vitro as sunspots.
detecting specific biomarker signatures, which z They appear dark because they are cooler
is based on incorporating embedded vertically than other parts of Sun’s surface.
aligned carbon nanotubes as nanoelectrode z In a solar flare, energy stored in sun’s
arrays in diagnostics devices. magnetic structures is converted into light
Statement 4 is correct: Multiple types of and heat energy.
microbes, including bacteria and fungi, have the
ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs). z This causes emission of high energy x-ray
radiation and highly accelerated charged
59. (c) Sub-Theme: Nanotechnology
particles to leave the sun’s surface.
z Nanotechnology deals with the
z Sometimes solar flares also cause hot
understanding and controlling of matter
plasma to be ejected from Sun, causing a
at level of 1 and 100 nanometers,
solar storm, and this is called Coronal Mass
where unique phenomena enable novel
Ejection (CME).
applications.
z Targeted drug distribution by nanoscale drug z Energy, radiation and high energy particles
carriers is one of the fundamental tenets of emitted by solar flares can trigger intense
nanomedicine. Numerous nanoscale drug lights in the sky, called Auroras.
delivery technologies, such as liposomes, z These solar explosions propel bursts of
dendrimers, quantum dots, nanotubes, particles and electromagnetic fluctuations
polymeric biodegradable nanoparticles, and into Earth’s atmosphere that could destroy
nanocapsules, have been studied. transformers in power systems. Particles
z In addition to enabling new therapeutic from a CME can potentially collide with a
classes and encouraging the re-investigation satellite’s critical electronics, causing the
of previously unfeasible new molecular satellite’s systems to malfunction.
entities that are pharmaceutically z Expected high-frequency communication
suboptimal but biologically active, blackouts, satellite anomalies, GPS

scintillations, airline communication and chose it as a science theme for the
impacts. third large-class mission to be launched in
Statements 1 and 7 are correct: These 2034 as part of the agency’s Cosmic Vision
solar explosions propel bursts of particles research programme.
and electromagnetic fluctuations into Earth’s z Two “Daughter” spacecraft and a
atmosphere that could lead to the malfunction “Mother” spacecraft make up the eLISA
of satellites, which might impact high-frequency mission. These will form a triangle orbit
communication blackouts, satellite anomalies, around the Sun. The two Daughter spacecraft
GPS scintillations, airline communication. will be joined to the Mother satellite, and
Statement 2 is incorrect: Tsunamis occur due the three satellites will form a precision
interferometer by 1 million km long laser
to seismic activity.
beams.
Statement 3 is correct: The solar explosions
propel bursts of particles and electromagnetic 63. (b) Sub-Theme: Space science/Gravitational waves
fluctuations into Earth’s atmosphere that could The Correct answer is Option (b):
destroy transformers in power systems z The LIGO detectors detected the first
Statement 4 is correct: Energy, radiation and gravitational waves produced by two giant
high energy particles emitted by solar flares can merging blackholes in 2016.
trigger intense lights in the sky, called Auroras. z In 2017, the Nobel Prize for physics was
Statement 5 is incorrect: Flares are awarded to the LIGO-VIRGO collaboration
electromagnetic radiation bursts rather than for their detection of gravitational waves
actual fires. They won’t start forest fires as a arising from the merging of two black holes.
result.
Statement 6 is correct: Particles from a CME z Gravitational waves are ripples in
can potentially collide with a satellite’s critical spacetime’s fabric brought on by
electronics, causing the satellite’s systems to cosmic catastrophes like neutron
malfunction.
star or black hole collisions. These
61. (d) Sub-Theme: Space technology disturbances are incredibly powerful,
The Correct answer is Option (d): yet their signals are feeble and difficult to
z Space distance is measured in terms of light detect when they travel through distant
years. Since the speed of light is known regions of space and time.
to be constant throughout the universe
and for high precision, astronomical z In other words, it took that long for the
distances are expressed in terms of signals to reach Earth. As a result, the
light-years. The fastest light can move is in observatory provides a chance to go
a vacuum. The symbol for the speed of light back in time and solve puzzles about the
in a vacuum, c, is 3×108 m/s. origins of the universe.
z Astronomers calculate the distances of z The LIGO-VIRGO collaboration has
stars and other celestial objects in the found these signals four times since
time it takes for light to reach us since then. Black holes, neutron stars, and
estimating distances in miles or kilometres other similar objects may be mapped
is inadequate on the scale of the cosmos. using gravitational wave astronomy,
62. (d) Sub-Theme: Space technology/Space mission which is currently a science of the near
The Correct answer is Option (d): future. Astronomy provides a technique
z The evolved Laser Interferometer of mapping the visible objects in the
Space Antenna (eLISA) mission aims to universe.
conduct the first-ever space-based study z A wormhole is a hypothetical structure
of the gravitational universe. It includes that connects dispersed places in
researchers from eight different European spacetime. It is based on a unique solution
nations, including Denmark, France,
to the Einstein field equations. It is also
Germany, Italy, The Netherlands, Spain,
known as an Einstein-Rosen bridge or
Switzerland, and the United Kingdom, as
wormhole. Although wormholes are
well as some US-based ones.
consistent with the general theory of
z The European Space Agency accepted the
relativity, it is yet unknown whether they
“The Gravitational Universe” subject (with
eLISA as the anticipated implementation) truly exist.

Statement 2 is correct: General Theory of
z The Higgs field, one of the fields in
Relativity showed that space and time are
particle physics theory, undergoes
malleable or flexible, and ever expanding
quantum excitation to form the Higgs
predicted that our universe was ever expanding.
boson, an elementary particle in the
The theory of relativity states that massive
Standard Model of particle physics. The
objects distort spacetime around it. And since
Higgs particle is a large scalar boson
photons travel the shortest distance between
with no electric charge, colour charge,
two points, light appears to be bent when it
or spin in the Standard Model.
travels through the distorted spacetime of a
z The technological singularity, often massive object.
known as the singularity, is a hypothetical Statement 3 is correct: An item warps the
time period in which unpredictably space around it more dramatically the more
drastic changes to human civilisation large it is. Like a big ball lying on a rubber sheet,
result through uncontrollable and the sun, for instance, is large enough to bend
irreversible technology advancement. space throughout our solar system. Because of
John von Neumann was the first to use this, Earth and the other planets orbit it in bent
the term “singularity” in a technological paths.
context. 65. (a) Sub-Theme: Space technology
64. (d) Sub-Theme: Space science z The satellite-launch vehicles (rockets)
z General theory of relativity, is a geometric created by ISRO are the PSLV (Polar
theory related to gravitation published Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV
by Albert Einstein in 1915 and currently (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch
defines gravitation in modern physics. Vehicle). While GSLVs are primarily made
to launch communication satellites, PSLVs
z A coherent account of gravity as a geometric are meant to launch satellites helpful for
property of space and time, or four- monitoring Earth resources.
dimensional spacetime, is provided by
z Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
general relativity, which generalises special Mark II (GSLV Mk II) is the largest launch
relativity and improves Newton’s law of vehicle created by India and currently in
universal gravitation. use. This three-stage launch vehicle of the
z In particular, the energy and momentum fourth generation has four liquid strap-
of all matter and radiation present have ons. The third stage of the GSLV Mk II is
a direct relationship to the curvature of the locally built and flight-tested cryogenic
spacetime. The Einstein field equations, a Upper Stage (CUS).
set of partial differential equations, define z The GSLV Mk III is a three-stage launch
the relationship. vehicle featuring a solid fuel first stage, liquid
z Einstein’s work on special relativity has fuel second stage, and cryogenic technology
several ramifications, one of which is that third stage using liquid hydrogen and liquid
time moves in relation to the observer. Time oxygen.
dilation occurs when an object is in motion, z India’s third-generation launch vehicle
which means that it perceives time more is the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
slowly while it is travelling quickly than (PSLV). It is the first launch vehicle made
when it is at rest. in India that has liquid stages. With multiple
successful missions, PSLV had established
z General relativity is a theory of gravity
itself as India’s dependable and adaptable
where the fundamental idea is that instead
workhorse launch vehicle after its initial
of being an invisible force that attracts
successful launch in October 1994.
objects to one another, gravity is a curving
Statement 1 is correct: PSLVs launch the
or warping of space.
satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring
Statement 1 is correct: An item warps the whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch
space around it more dramatically the more communication satellites.
large it is. Like a big ball lying on a rubber sheet, Statement 2 is incorrect: GSLV appears to
the sun, for instance, is large enough to bend remain permanently fixed in the same position
space throughout our solar system. Because of in the sky.
this, Earth and the other planets orbit it in bent Statement 3 is incorrect: GSLV Mk III is a
paths. three-stage launch vehicle with the first stage

using solid fuel, the second stage liquid fuel
“Five states” in “ Himalayas are spread over
and the third stage cryogenic technology with
five States only” statement. However, the
the use of liquid hydrogen and oxygen.
above -mentioned reasoning is applicable in
NOTE: In statement 2, “GSLV” has been most of the cases, but not in every case. It is
replaced by “PSLV” to make statement advisable to stay alert whenever facts/data/
incorrect and to increase confusion among figures appear in a statement/question.
PSLV and GSLV for aspirants. This is old 67. (c) Sub-Theme: Space mission
technique of UPSC to replace one word by
Mangalyaan/Mars Orbiter Mission.
another, for instance - Augmented Reality
z Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), the maiden
(AR) and Virual Reality (VR). So elimination interplanetary mission of ISRO, that was
of statement 2 helps us to reach at 50:50. launched on November 5, 2013 on PSLV-C25
Stay focus, alert and Calm while reading entered into Martian orbit on September 24,
question/statement. 2014 in its first attempt.
66. (d) Sub-Theme: Astronomical development z MOM has completed 1000 Earth days in
z AstroSat is the first dedicated Indian its orbit, on June 19, 2017, well beyond its
astronomy mission aimed to study designed mission life of six months. 1000
celestial sources in X-ray, optical and UV Earth days corresponds to 973.24 Mars Sols
spectral bands. The payloads cover the (Martian Solar day) and MOM completed
energy bands of Ultraviolet (Near and Far), 388 orbits.
limited optical and X-ray regime (0.3 keV to z It is India’s first interplanetary mission, and
100keV). ISRO has joined the Soviet space programme,
NASA, and the European Space Agency as
z The ability to simultaneously observe
the fourth space agency to reach Mars. It is
multiple celestial objects at multiple
the first country in Asia to enter Mars’ orbit,
wavelengths with a single satellite is one of as well as the first country ever to do so.
the special aspects of the AstroSat project.
z The world’s most cost-effective inter
z India has joined the exclusive club of nations planetary expedition cleared the door for
with its own space observatory with the affordable access to outer space. With a
successful launch of ASTROSAT, joining budget of Rs 450 Cr, the launch vehicle,
the US, Japan, Russia, and Europe. Along spacecraft, and ground segment were all
with six other foreign satellites, ASTROSAT, realised.
India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength Statement 1 is correct: The Mangalyaan
space observatory, will aid in the knowledge launched by ISRO is also called the Mars Orbiter
of the cosmos. Mission.
Statement 1 is incorrect: ASTROSAT is Statement 2 is incorrect: It is India’s first
India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space interplanetary mission and ISRO has become
observatory which will help in understanding the fourth space agency to reach Mars, after
the universe, and six other foreign satellites the Soviet space Programme, NASA and the
Statement 2 is incorrect: AstroSat with a lift- European Space Agency.
off mass of 1515 kg was launched on September Statement 3 is correct: It is the first Asian
28, 2015 into a 650 km orbit inclined at an nation to reach Mars orbit, and the first nation
angle of 6 deg to the equator by PSLV-C30 from in the world to do so in its first attempt.
Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota. 68. (d) Sub-Theme: Space observatory
z The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is the first
NOTE: it is an old technique of UPSC to detector of this type, designed for observing
tweak with factual numbers. In the above the cosmos from deep within the South Pole
question, the examiner changed the figures of ice. An international group of scientists
ASTROSAT to make the statement incorrect. In responsible for the scientific research makes
2016, the same was done with UNFCCC COP- up the IceCube Collaboration.
15 (Paris) in which the examiner replaced
z The most violent astrophysical sources,
the pledge of mobilization of “USD100Bn”
including as stellar explosions, gamma-
with “USD1000Bn”’ to make the statement
ray bursts, and catastrophic occurrences
incorrect. In 2017, Examiner replaced “six involving black holes and neutron stars,
states” with “Five states’ ‘ in “Western Ghats can all be studied using the information
are spread over five states only” statement. provided by these high-energy cosmic
They had also changed “12 states’ ‘ with messengers.

Statement 1 is correct: With a cubic kilometre Red is the colour that moves the farthest out of
of ice in its footprint, IceCube is the largest all of those others. As the sun sets, crimson is
neutrino detector ever built. It is buried up to the final hue to be seen. Red is the last colour
a depth of 2.5 km. to appear when the other colours begin to fade
Statement 2 is correct: The IceCube telescope (red is the fastest).
is an effective tool for looking for dark matter Statement 3 is incorrect: Moon being visible
and may shed light on the physics mechanisms at dawn: The moon is visible somewhere in the
underlying the mysterious origin of the highest sky at dawn during the entire half of the cycle
energy particles in nature. of phases from Full Moon to just before New
Statement 3 is correct: IceCube, which
Moon.
encompasses a cubic kilometre of ice, looks for
Statement 4 is correct: Twinkle of stars in the
neutrinos, which are nearly massless subatomic
particles. sky: Light is constantly emitted by stars. Before
reaching our sight, this light passes through a
69. (c) Sub-Theme: Space Science
number of layers of the earth’s atmosphere.
The Correct answer is Option (c):
Because different layers of atmosphere have
z The Goldilocks Zone is the habitable zone
around a star where the temperature is different refractive indices, stars appear to be
optimum - not too hot and not too cold - for blinking.
liquid water to exist on a planet. Statement 5 is in correct: Polestar being
z It is a metaphor of the children’s story visible in the sky: It is not an optical illusion
“Goldilocks and the Three Bears,” in which a because Polestars appear in the North or South
young girl selects from sets of three objects, pole that completely depends on earth rotation.
eschewing the extremes (such as those that 71. (a) Sub-Theme: Scientific innovation and discoveries
are enormous or small, hot or cold, etc.), and Higgs Boson
deciding on the one that is “just right” in
z It has long been believed that the Higgs
the middle.
boson holds the key to unlocking the origin
z The Goldilocks zone of the Sun surrounds
of mass puzzle. A phenomenon known as the
the Earth. All of Earth’s water would freeze
Higgs field, which is believed to permeate
if it were located where the dwarf planet
Pluto is; however, all of Earth’s water would the whole cosmos, is connected to the Higgs
boil out if it were located where Mercury is. boson. According to the theory, as other
z Water is a fundamental component for particles go through this field, they gain
life as we know it and is where life first mass similarly to how swimmers moving
began on Earth. So any rocky exoplanet in through a pool gain wetness.
the habitable zone will be considered by z The Higgs Boson is not the key component
researchers as they look for evidence of that will enable teleportation, but it will aid
alien life. in our understanding of mass, objects, and
70. (c) Sub-Theme: Light time and space travel.
Optical Illusion z The Higgs Boson may, in the near or distant
z An optical illusion also called a visual illusion future, assist us in developing an incredible
that is characterized by visually perceived energy source that could open the door to
images that differ from object than reality. better fuels for our nuclear missions.
The information that is gathered by the
Statement 1 is correct: The Higgs boson has
eye is processed in the brain that gives a
perception that does not tally with a physical long been thought the key to resolving the
measurement of the stimulus source. mystery of the origin of mass.
Statement 1 is correct: Size of the sun at Statement 2 is incorrect: The Higgs Boson
dusk: There are no known objects of a similar is not a main item that will open the way for
size as the sun (or moon) when it is high in teleportation but it will help to understand
the sky. The sun, however, appears even larger about mass, item and travel in time and
when it is low in the sky because we can see space.
distant objects near the horizon that we know Statement 3 is incorrect: In the near or far
to be large. future, the Higgs Boson may help us to create an
Statement 2 is correct: Colour of the sun at unbelievable energy source which can pave the
dawn: There are many different colours in light. way for better fuels for our Nuclear missions.

72. (a) Sub-Theme: Theories related to space and The Correct answer id Option (d):
universe z Artificial satellites are launched into
Expansion of Universe orbit for a variety of purposes, including
z The Big Bang theory states that at some communications, navigation, Earth imaging,
point of time the entire space was contained weather observation, and scientific study.
in a single point of very high density and z In satellites, humans typically feel weightless.
temperature, from where the Universe has We experience a sense of weightlessness
been witnessing expansion in all directions because the net force acting on our body is
ever since. practically zero.This is due to the satellite’s
z Redshift and Blueshift describe how centrifugal force, which cancels out the size
light changes with movement of objects of the earth’s gravitational pull.
in space closer or farther from us. While z On the other hand, the earth’s gravitational
moving away, the light is shifted to the red pull is required for the satellite to
end of the spectrum, as its wavelength continuously change its direction, giving
gets longer. While moving closer, the light acceleration for the satellite’s direction-
moves to the blue end of the spectrum, as its changing process.
wavelength gets shorter. Galactic Redshift
z When artificial satellites are sent into outer
is related to the expanding Universe
space, a huge velocity is applied to them to
concept.
escape the earth’s gravitation completely. At
z Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is that point, they develop their own velocity
thought to be leftover radiation from the Big and acceleration, with respect to the other
Bang, i.e, the time when the universe began. forces acting on them to move in a path in
According to the theory, when the universe accordance to earth’s revolution around
was born it underwent rapid inflation and the sun.
expansion. (The universe is still expanding
today, and the expansion rate appears 74. (b) Sub-Theme: Basic knowledge on space/Universe
different depending on observation). The z Asteroids are rocky, airless remnants left
CMB represents the heat left over from the over from the early formation of our solar
Big Bang. system about 4.6 billion years ago. They are
z According to Hubble’s law, the expansion sometimes called minor planets.
of the universe is such that the velocity z Comets are frozen leftovers from the
at which the galaxy is moving away from formation of the solar system composed
the observer is increasing with time. It of dust, rock, and ices. Their size ranges
means that the universe will become colder from a few miles to tens of miles wide, and
increasingly as matter spreads across as they orbit closer to the Sun, they heat
space. up and spew gases and dust into a glowing
Statement 1 is correct: Cosmic Microwave head that can be larger than a planet.
Background (CMB) is thought to be leftover z This material forms a tail that stretches
radiation from the Big Bang, or the time when millions of miles.
the universe began. As the theory goes, when
z The main asteroid belt, which extends
the universe was born it underwent rapid
between Mars and Jupiter, is home to the
inflation and expansion.
majority of this old space debris.Asteroids
Statement 2 is correct: American astronomer
range in size from the largest, Vesta,
Edwin Hubble was the first to describe the
which has a diameter of roughly 329 miles
redshift phenomenon (galactic redshift) and
(530 kilometres), to bodies that are about
tie it to an expanding universe (galaxies are
drifting apart). 33 feet (10 metres) wide. The cumulative
Statement 3 is incorrect: Movement of mass of all asteroids is less than that of the
asteroids in space has nothing to do with the moon of Earth.
concept of expansion of the universe. z Comets are solar system-orbiting snowballs
Statement 4 is incorrect: Occurrence of made of frozen gases, rock, and dust.
supernova explosion in space is not related to z They enlarge to the size of a sizable town
continued expansion of the Universe. when frozen.
73. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic knowledge on space/ z A comet heats up and ejects dust and gases
Universe/Gravitation into a huge, blazing head that is larger than

most planets when its orbit puts it near to Radar
Beam
ICBM
the Sun. Apogee 1200 km
FOBS
z Millions of kilometres away from the Sun,  150 km
the dust and gas combine to form a tail. The Ea

rly
Kuiper Belt and much further Oort Cloud are Launch site -w
arn Target
rad ing
presumably home to billions of comets that ar
orbit our Sun.

z Comets are not limited to the belt between
FOBS
Mercury and Venus.
Statement 1 is correct: Asteroids, sometimes
called minor planets, are rocky, airless remnants
z A Fractional Orbital Bombardment
left over from the early formation of our solar
System (FOBS) is a warhead delivery
system about 4.6 billion years ago. Comets are
system that uses a low earth orbit towards
frozen leftovers from the formation of the solar
its target destination. Just before reaching
system composed of dust, rock, and ices.
the target, it de-orbits through a retrograde
Statement 2 is incorrect and 3 is correct: engine burn.
When a comet’s orbit brings it close to the Sun,
z The Soviet Union first developed FOBS as
it heats up and spews dust and gases into a
a nuclear-weapons delivery system in the
giant glowing head larger than most planets.
1960s.
Also, comets are not restricted to the belt
between Mercury and Venus. z In August 2021, the People’s Republic of
China tested a weapon that combined a
75. (a) Sub-Theme: Space technology
FOBS with a hypersonic glide vehicle.
Geostationary Orbit
z It had no range limit, its flight path would
z Geostationary Orbit is a type of
not reveal the target location, and warheads
geosynchronous orbit.
could be directed to North America over the
z The earth rotates in the same direction that South Pole, evading detection by NORAD’s
satellites do. It lasts for roughly 24 hours north-facing early warning systems.
and holds its place in relation to the earth. z The maximum altitude would be around
z Low earth orbit, medium earth orbit, 150 km.
geosynchronous orbit, geostationary orbit, z Energetically, this would require a launch
etc. are several categories for circular vehicle powerful enough to be capable of
orbits. Thus, communications satellites are putting the weapon ‘into orbit’.
positioned in elliptical orbits.
z However the orbit is only a fraction of a full
z Geostationary orbits are in the same plane as orbit, not sustained, and so there would be
the equator as opposed to geosynchronous much less need to control a precise orbit, or
satellites, which can have any inclination. to maintain it long term.
z Geostationary orbit lies at an altitude of
77. (d) Sub-Theme: Microorganisms
about 36000 km.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Biofilms may
Statement 1 is correct: Geostationary Orbit is
form on a wide variety of surfaces, including
one type of geosynchronous orbit only
living tissues, food and food processing
Statement 2 is correct: Circular orbits are
surfaces, indwelling medical devices (devices
classified into low earth orbit, medium earth in the body like catheters, heart valves), human
orbit, geosynchronous orbit, geostationary and animal tissue, industrial or potable water
orbit etc. Hence telecommunication satellites system piping, or natural aquatic systems.
are placed in circular orbits. Statement 3 is correct: As Biofilms attach to
Statement 3 is correct: While geosynchronous each other and to the surfaces, they are capable
satellites can have any inclination, geostationary of acting as barriers to antibiotics.
orbits lie on the same plane as the equator. Biofilms
Statement 4 is incorrect: Geostationary orbit z A biofilm is a collection of microbial cells
is at an altitude of around 36000 km. that are encased in a polysaccharide-based
76. (c) Sub-Theme: Defence Infrastructure matrix and are permanently attached to a
The Correct answer is Option (c): surface (i.e., cannot be removed by gentle
Fractional Orbital Bombardment System rinsing).

z Van Leeuwenhoek, using his simple they cannot be cultured in artificial culture
microscopes, first observed microorganisms conditions. Eukaryotic or prokaryotic
on tooth surfaces and can be credited with host cells that have been infected can be
the discovery of microbial biofilms. cultivated, expanded, and the growth media
z Microorganisms that form biofilms include can then be removed to obtain the virus
bacteria, fungi, and protists. 80. (c) Sub-Theme: Basics and Everyday Science
z Noncellular materials such as mineral Statement 1 is correct: Sodium lamps emit
crystals, corrosion particles, clay or silt light in all directions i.e, 360 degree. Because
particles, or blood components, depending at least half of the light must be reflected and
on the environment in which the biofilm has redirected to the intended area of illumination,
developed, may also be found in the biofilm this technique is significantly inefficient. LEDs,
matrix. however, emit light in all 180 degrees. Since
78. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science light is frequently needed over a target region,
Statement 1 is correct: The larger hole will this is usually advantageous (rather than all
lead to an increase in the steam going out 360 degrees around the bulb).
leading to a greater reduction in temperature. Statement 2 is incorrect: High Pressure
Statement 2 is correct: Temperature at Sodium (HPS) lights or Sodium lamps have
which the food is cooked in a Pressure cooker a typical lifespan for sodium lights or sodium
is directly proportional to the temperature lamps is in the range of 24,000 hours. At the
of the flame. halfway point of their lifespan, HPS lamps
Statement 3 is correct: By increasing the continue to provide 90% of their initial light
surface pressure on the liquid inside the closed output, according to American Electric Lighting.
cooker we can raise the cooking temperature. Lumen maintenance at the end of its useful life
This pressure can be adjusted by changing the is still very good at 80%. LEDs have a longer
weight placed on the top of the cooker lid. lifespan than any other commercially available
79. (a) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science light source.
z The artificial culture media, also referred Statement 3 is correct: Monochromatic
to as the growth medium, is a setting light means that the light has a single
for the development of many kinds of wavelength, for eg: sodium light. The LED
microorganisms. The agarose and nutrients light is not monochromatic because it is
needed for the microorganism’s growth are made up of different wavelengths, therefore is
present in the culture medium. polychromatic.
z This medium is first sterilised to prevent 81. (b) Sub-Theme: Environmental Science/Everyday
contamination, which prevents the growth Science
of undesirable microorganisms and ensures The Correct answer is Option (b):
that it only contains the microbes of interest. About Bisphenol A (BPA):
In artificial mediums, microbes like fungi z Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced
and bacteria can be cultivated.
in large quantities for use primarily in the
z Statement 1 is correct: Aspergillus production of polycarbonate plastics.
fumigatus, Alternaria penicillium notatum, It is found in various products including
Cladosporium herbarum, and Penicillium shatterproof windows, eyewear, water
notatum were four key fungi for allergology bottles, and epoxy resins that coat some
that were cultivated on a pure synthetic
metal food cans, bottle tops, and water
media.
supply pipes.
z Statement 2 is correct: Nutrient agar is the
z Polycarbonates (PC) are a group of
media for bacteria that is most frequently
thermoplastic polymers containing
used. Potato dextrose agar and Sabouraud
carbonate groups in their chemical
dextrose agar are the two media that are
structures. Polycarbonates used in
most frequently used for fungus.
engineering are strong, tough materials,
z Statement 3 is incorrect: Viruses are
and some grades are optically transparent.
obligate intracellular parasites that can
They are easily worked, moulded, and
only multiply in living cells. Because viruses
thermoformed. Because of these properties,
have no internal metabolic machinery and
polycarbonates find many applications
must replicate entirely within the host cell,

82. (d) Sub-Theme: Everyday Science is regarded as unlawful. Aerial spraying is
The Correct answer is Option (d): prohibited by the Insecticide Act of 1968.
About Triclosan: Aerial pesticide application is prohibited
z Triclosan is an ingredient added to many by its regulations unless authorised by the
consumer products intended to reduce or Central Insecticides Board (CIB). However,
prevent bacterial contamination. It is many states in the US allow for its legal
added to some antibacterial soaps and body practice. (Statement 1 is correct)
washes, toothpastes, and some cosmetics. z Drones have also been used to explore the
z Some short-term animal studies have shown craters of active volcanoes, which are
that exposure to high doses of triclosan inaccessible to people, in order to learn
is associated with a decrease in the levels about their recent activities.(Statement 2
of some thyroid hormones. Other studies is correct)
have raised the possibility that exposure z Recently, Australian scientists used drones
to triclosan contributes to making bacteria (that flew 200 metres above the blowholes of
resistant to antibiotics. whales) that collected the mucus of whales
83. (a) Sub-Theme: Basic Science from their water sprays for examining their
health. Those whale spray collected by a
The Correct answer is Option (a):
drone contains DNA, proteins, lipids and
About Water:
types of bacteria. (Statement 3 is correct)
z Water is called the “universal solvent”
because it can dissolve more substances 85. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
than any other liquid. Statement 1 is correct: Both plants and
z It is due to water’s chemical composition animals contain eukaryotic cells, their cell
and physical attributes that it is such an structures are quite similar. The plasma
excellent solvent. Water molecules have membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm, ribosomes,
a polar arrangement of oxygen and and mitochondria in general make up each
hydrogen atoms—one hand (hydrogen) eukaryotic cell.The plant cell differs significantly
has a positive electrical charge and from other cells in that it has a hard cell wall
the other hand(oxygen) has a negative surrounding it. While the cells of other species
charge. are surrounded by a cell wall, cellulose and
z This makes it possible for the water proteins are present in plant cells.
molecule to attract a wide range of other Statement 2 is incorrect: Both plants and
molecular species. Water can develop a animals contain eukaryotic cells due to
strong attraction to another substance, such this their cell structures are quite similar.
as salt (NaCl), to the point where it can The plasma membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm,
interfere with the attractive forces holding ribosomes, and mitochondria in general make
the sodium and chloride in the salt complex up each eukaryotic cell.
together and dissolve it. Statement 3 is correct: Large central vacuoles
can be found in plant cells. Similar to several
z In organic chemistry, a dipolar compound
other eukaryotes, plant cells have bigger
or simply dipole is an electrically neutral
structures called vacuoles. Animal cells, which
molecule carrying a positive and a negative
are much smaller than plant cells, may contain
charge in at least one canonical description.
numerous tiny vacuoles.
84. (d) Sub-Theme: Applications of Drone Technology 86. (d) Sub-Theme: Human Reproductive Technology
The Correct answer is Option (d): The Correct answer is Option (d):
About Drone technology: About Pronuclear Transfer:
z A drone, technologically, is an unmanned z Mitochondrial transfer methods employ
aircraft. Drones are formally known as proton transfer. In pronuclear transfer,
unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs). a zygote is created by first fertilising the
z A drone is essentially a flying robot that can mother’s egg with the father’s sperm.
be remotely piloted or can fly on its own z The pronuclei of the egg and sperm are then
using software-controlled flight plans removed from the zygote and inserted into a
in embedded systems in conjunction with donor egg which has been fertilised and had
onboard sensors and GPS. its own nucleus removed (a pronucleus is
z In Telangana, insecticides were sprayed using the nucleus of the egg or sperm at the stage
drones, which made headlines. In India, it of fertilisation prior to nuclear fusion). The

zygote derived from the donor egg is then 30 cm between each settling (small setts).
inserted into the mother’s uterus. (Statement 1 is correct)
z The pronuclei of zygotes produced from z Due to moisture loss from the other cut end,
donated oocytes are extracted from a the germination percentage of a single bud
karyoplast using micromanipulation sett is extremely low. Numerous studies and
equipment and thrown away. trials demonstrate that the germination rate
z Two pronuclei from the afflicted zygotes of 3 bud sets is higher than the setts having
(also in the form of a karyoplast) are more or less than three buds. (Statement
transferred into the enucleated healthy 2 is incorrect)
zygotes during a therapeutic pronuclear z Additionally, even if the entire can stem is
transfer. The resultant zygotes have mtDNA planted without being trimmed, only the
from a donor and nuclear DNA from each of top end will sprout, resulting in a poor
the intended parents. germination percentage.
87. (d) Sub-Theme: Solar water pumps z When seeds are sown directly in the ground
during severe weather circumstances, huge
Statement 1 is incorrect: An electrical pump
setts of seeds do better than single budded
system that uses one or more photovoltaic
seeds in terms of survival. (Statement 3 is
(PV) panels to generate power is essentially
incorrect)
what a solar water pump system is. A solar
z The most crucial and labour-intensive
panel array often drives an electric motor,
step in sugarcane agriculture is planting.
which in turn powers a bore or surface pump
Supplying disease-free seed cane of current
in a solar-powered pumping system. Depending
commercial types quickly an innovative new
on its operational mechanism, solar-powered
technique called tissue culture employs
pumps come in a variety of distinct forms.
meristems to clone the mother plant. Tissue
Submersible pumps, surface pumps, direct
culture plants’ cane and sugar yields are
current (DC) pumps, and alternative current
comparable to those of plants grown using
(AC) pumps are the four main categories of
traditional methods. (Statement 4 is
solar water pumps.
correct)
Statement 2 is incorrect: Centrifugal and
piston pumps can both be driven by solar 89. (c) Sub-Theme: Patent
power. Centrifugal pumps, multistage pumps, Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Patents
borehole pumps, and helical pumps are the Act, 1970 - “plants and animals in whole or
most often utilised pump mechanics in solar any part thereof other than micro organisms
power pumps. but including seeds, varieties and species and
88. (c) Sub-Theme: Science related to agriculture essentially biological processes for production
or propagation of plants and animals” are
The Correct answer is Option (c):
inventions not patentable.
About the cultivation of sugarcane in India:
Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, the
z Tissue culture (TC) is the cultivation of
Intellectual Property Appellate Board,
plant cells, tissues, or organs on specially
a quasi -judicial body, was constituted in
formulated nutrient media. Under the
September 1958. The Board is given the task
right conditions, an entire plant can be
of adjudication of disputes related to copyright
regenerated from a single cell. registration, assignment of copyright, grant of
z Commercial planting of sugarcane uses Licences in respect of works withheld from
setts (cuttings that can form roots) at a rate public, unpublished Indian works, production
of 6 to 8 tonnes per hectare, or around 10% and publication of translations and works for
of total production. certain specific purposes. It also hears cases in
z Due to its bulky attire and physical other miscellaneous cases instituted before it
restrictions, the tissue culture method is under the Copyright Act, 1957.
becoming uneconomical. Planting excised Statement 3 is correct: There are no laws in
axillary canestalk buds, sometimes referred India that allow for patenting of plants. The Delhi
to as budchips, would help reduce the mass High Court invalidated Monsanto’s patent on
and enhance the quality of the seed cane. Bt cotton seeds in April 2018. In its ruling, the
z After four to five weeks, healthy settlings two-judge panel presided by Justice S. Ravindra
were transplanted on a well-prepared field Bhat stated that some things, including seeds,
with a row spacing of 90 cm and a gap of animals, and plants, cannot be patented in

India. However, the Supreme Court recently applications, such as roll-up displays embedded
permitted agricultural juggernaut Monsanto to in fabrics or clothing.
claim patent on its genetically modified (GM) Statement 3 is correct: LCD technology
cotton seeds by overturning a Delhi High Court engages a backlight, whereas OLED has no
decision on January 8, 2019. backlighting function. Hence it can be used for
90. (d) Sub-Theme: Digital Technology/New age making transparent displays.
Technology 92. (d) Sub-Theme: Nuclear Energy
The Correct answer is Option (d): The Correct answer is Option (d):
About 3D Printing: About International Thermonuclear
z 3D printing, also known as additive Experimental Reactor:
manufacturing, is a method of creating z A worldwide nuclear fusion research
a three dimensional object layer-by-layer and engineering megaproject called
using a computer simulated design. the International Thermonuclear
z A 3D item is produced by the additive Experimental Reactor (ITER) aims to
method of 3D printing, which involves mimic the fusion processes of the Sun to
building up layers of material. A final design produce energy on Earth.
is cut from a larger block of material in z The Sun and other stars derive their energy
subtractive manufacturing techniques, from fusion. Hydrogen nuclei clash, fuse
which is the opposite of this. The result is into heavier helium atoms, and unleash
minimal material waste due to 3D printing. enormous amounts of energy in the intense
z In the Netherlands, a 3-D printed food heat and gravity at the centre of these star
restaurant recently opened. In America, bodies.
a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix that was z An experimental device created to capture
3-D printed in the anatomical shape of a fusion energy is called a tokamak. The
human ear was used to create a bionic ear. energy generated by the fusing of atoms
(Statements 1 and 2 are correct) inside a tokamak is absorbed as heat by the
z The automobile sector is one of the vessel’s walls.
pioneers in the usage and integration of z Over 35 countries are working together
3-D printing in Industries, with new on the ITER Project. China, the European
routes being opened up at every level of Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia, and the
the manufacture of motor vehicles, from United States, who are all ITER members,
the functional prototyping phases, design, have pooled their resources to break
tooling production, and components through one of science’s greatest barriers:
manufacturing. (Statement 3 is correct) replicating on Earth the limitless energy
z 3-D printing has also been used in that powers the Sun and the stars.
reconstructive surgery to help repair z ITER (International Thermonuclear
damaged tissue like in cases of birth defects Experimental Reactor) marked the beginning
or traumatic injuries to severe burns or of the ITER Tokamak Assembly in July
disease. (Statement 4 is correct) 2020 in Saint-Paul-Lez-Durance, France.
z 3-D printing is used to produce computer 93. (a) Sub-Theme: Environmental Chemistry
parts (such as circuit boards) which are About Fly Ash:
used in processing of data. (Statement 5 z Fly ash is a fine grey powder that consists
is correct) mostly of spherical, glassy particles that are
91. (c) Sub-Theme: Digital Technology produced as a byproduct in coal-fired power
Statement 1 is correct: Regular OLEDs are stations.
usually fabricated on a glass substrate, but by z Pozzolanic characteristics in fly ash
replacing glass with a flexible plastic such allow it to interact with lime to produce
as polyethylene terephthalate (PET) among cementitious compounds. It is frequently
others, OLEDs can be made both bendable and referred to as an additional cementitious
lightweight. substance.
Statement 2 is correct: OLED displays can z Fly ash is a by product of combustion that
be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates is made up of the small particles that rise
leading to the possible fabrication of flexible with the flue gases. Bottom ash is ash that
organic light-emitting diodes for other new does not rise. Fly ash is typically used in

an industrial setting to describe the ash z It is a surface-to-surface missile.
created during coal burning. (Statement 1 is correct)
z The main chemical components present in z It is 20 metres long with a weight of
fly ash are: 17 tonnes.
Silicon dioxide z It is the fourth in the Agni series of missiles.
Aluminium oxide z It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads.
Ferric oxide Agni Class of Missiles:
Calcium oxide (occasionally) (Statement z They are the mainstay of India’s nuclear
3 is incorrect) launch capability.
z Fly ash particle condenses while suspended z Range of other Agni Missiles:
in exhaust gases, and electrostatic Agni I: Range of 700-800 km.
precipitators or filter bags are used to Agni II: Range more than 2000 km.
remove it. Fly ash particles are typically
Agni III: Range of more than 2,500 Km
spherical in shape and range in size from
Agni IV: Range is more than 3,500
0.5 µm to 300 µm because they harden
km and can fire from a road mobile
quickly when suspended in the exhaust
launcher.
fumes.
Agni-V: The longest of the Agni series,
z Fly ash has numerous advantages in both
an Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile
cement and non-cement applications and
(ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km
considerably enhances the performance of
concrete. Additionally, fly ash looks to work IGMDP (Integrated Guided Missile
well as a catalyst for the high-temperature Development Program)
pyrolysis process, which transforms z It was conceived by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
polyethylene into a material akin to crude to enable India attain self-sufficiency in
oil, when treated with sodium hydroxide. the field of missile technology. It was
(Statements 1 & 2 are correct) approved by the Government of India in
94. (a) Sub-Theme: Non-Conventional Energy/ 1983 and completed in March 2012.
Renewable Energy z The 5 missiles (P-A-T-N-A) developed
under this program are:
Statement 1 is correct: A fuel cell generates
electricity in a clean and effective manner using Prithvi: Short range surface to surface
the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels. ballistic missile.

Electricity, water, and heat are the only by Agni: Ballistic missiles with different
products if hydrogen is the fuel. ranges, i.e. Agni (1,2,3,4,5)

Statement 2 is incorrect: In terms of the Trishul: Short range low level surface
diversity of potential applications, fuel cells are to air missile.
exceptional; they can run on a variety of fuels Nag: 3rd generation anti-tank missile.
and feedstocks and can power devices as big Akash: Medium range surface to air
as utility power plants and as tiny as laptop missile.
computers. 96. (b) Sub-Theme: Photosynthesis
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fuel cells produce
About Photosynthesis:
electricity in the form of direct current (DC).
z Photosynthesis- It is the process through
Electrons can only move in one direction in
which green plants and some other
a DC circuit. Alternating current (AC), which
organisms convert light energy into chemical
circulates in both directions on alternating
energy.
cycles, provides the electricity in our homes
z The functions of the chlorophyll, a green
and workplaces.
pigment, are related to the transformation
95. (a) Sub-Theme: Defence Technology of inefficient solar energy into useful
About Agni-IV Missile: chemical energy. The majority of the time,
z It is a nuclear-capable long-range ballistic the photosynthetic process makes use of
missile with a strike range of 4,000 km. water and emits the oxygen that is vitally
(Statement 3 is incorrect:) necessary for our continued existence.
z It is a two-stage solid propellant missile.
6H2O + 6CO2 → C6H12O6+ 6O2
(Statement 2 is incorrect)

z Photosynthesis uses light energy for About Physical Change:
conversion of carbon dioxide and water into z No new chemical species formed.
glucose and oxygen gas. z Since the identity of the matter does not
z The potential energy stored in the molecular change, changing a pure substance’s state
bonds of glucose convert into kinetic energy from solid to liquid or gas constitutes
after cellular respiration. a physical change.For instance: Ice
z Chemical bonds are a type of stored or melting, boiling water, sodium chloride
“potential” energy because when the bonds crystallisation, etc.
break, energy is released. 99. (b) Sub-Theme: Genetics/Biotechnology
z Photosynthesis converts water and carbon Statement 1 is incorrect: In the budding
dioxide into sugar and oxygen through process, a bud is taken from one plant and
sunlight as the catalyst. A by product of grown on another, it does not lead to any
the photosynthesis process is the released genetic modification.
oxygen into the atmosphere. Statement 2 is correct: The Cytoplasmic
97. (c) Sub-Theme: Plant Reproduction male sterility systems are widely utilised in
Statement 1 is correct: Vegetative crop plants for hybrid breeding due to the
reproduction is a type of asexual reproduction convenience of controlling sterility.
in plants. In this process new organisms arise Statement 3 is correct: Gene Silencing using
without production of seeds . It helps in clone RNA interference technology, transcriptional
development. gene silencing, virus induced gene silencing has
Statement 2 is incorrect: Vegetative been used in horticultural techniques
reproduction only includes mitosis, which 100. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday science
guarantees that the genetic information in the Statement 1 is correct: Corn wet-milling is
DNA of vegetative progeny (child) is identical a process of breaking corn kernels into their
to that in the mother plant and allows for component parts: corn oil, protein, corn starch,
year-round use. However, it has no effect on and fibre. It uses water and a series of steps
the removal of viruses. A plant that has been to separate the parts to be used for various
repeatedly infected by a virus typically carries
products.
the infection for its whole lifespan. Therefore,
Statement 2 is correct: Chemically speaking,
any vegetative portions used for reproduction
biodiesel is a combination of long-chain fatty
stay contaminated.
acid methyl esters (FAMEs). Maize oil can be
Statement 3 is correct: Vegetative propagation
used to make ethanol or biodiesel. The sort of
also allows plants to circumvent the immature
alcohol found in the alcoholic beverages we
seedling phase and reach the mature phase
consume is a substance known as ethanol.
faster. In nature, that increases the chances
Statement 3 is correct: Grain, fruit, or
for a plant to successfully reach maturity, and,
vegetable fermentation is the process used to
commercially, it saves farmers a lot of time and
produce alcohol. Grain such as maize and other
money as it allows for faster crop overturn. It
grains is a typical source of ethanol.
can be practised throughout the year.
98. (b) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science 101. (a) Sub-Theme: Species and Subspecies
The Correct answer is Option (b): The Correct answer is Option (a):
About Chemical Change: About Organisms:
z It involves the transformation of one z Mite, Spider and Scorpion belong to the
material into another, the creation of new category of Arachnids, whereas Crabs
materials with unique properties, and the belong to the category of crustaceans.
creation of one or more new substances. z Arachnida is a class of joint-legged
z It happens when two compounds mix to invertebrate animals (arthropods), in the
create a new material (synthesis or either subphylum Chelicerata. Arachnida includes,
decomposes to form more substances). An among others, spiders, scorpions, ticks,
example of a chemical change that results mites, pseudoscorpions, harvestmen, camel
in a reaction is the oxidation reaction. spiders, whip spiders and vinegaroons.
Examples include burning wood, sour z Nearly all arachnids are terrestrial and have
milk, cooking eggs, heating sugar to make eight legs, while some species have evolved
caramel, and rusting iron. their front pair of legs into sensory organs.

z The group of arthropods known as Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar thermal does
crustaceans, which includes crabs, lobsters, not generate electricity, it does convertion of
crayfish, shrimp, krill, barnacles, brine solar radiation into heat.
shrimp, copepods, ostracods, and mantis Statement 3 is incorrect: India has a
shrimp, is quite big. manufacturing base for both solar thermal and
z The majority of crustaceans are aquatic, photovoltaics.
free-living creatures, although others
104. (c) Sub-Theme: Adaptation/Response to abiotic
are sessile, terrestrial, or parasitic
factors
(e.g., woodlice, fish lice, or tongue worms)
(e.g. barnacles). The Correct answer is Option (c):
About Hibernation:
102. (a) Sub-Theme: Food Chain
z Hibernation is a state of inactivity and
metabolic depression in endotherms. It has
About Food Chain:
z Food chain is the pathway for transfer of a low metabolic rate, slow breathing, slow
food energy from green plants (producers) heartbeat, and low body temperature. For
through a series of organisms with repeated example, it is present in bats, bears, and
consumption and being consumed. rodents.
z E.g. Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → z When there is not enough food available,
Snake → Hawk/Eagle. hibernation serves to conserve energy. An
z Every step in the food chain is called trophic endothermic animal lowers its metabolic
level. A food chain starts with producers and rate and subsequently its body temperature
ends with top carnivores. The trophic level to achieve this energy savings.
of an organism is the position at which it z Larger species develop hyperphagia, when
is placed in a food chain. The food chain they consume a lot of food and store the
starts with a producer and ends with a top
energy as fat.
consumer.
z In many tiny species, food storage takes the
z Phytoplankton are the primary producers
in the oceans. They include: place of eating and fat development.
diatoms (unicellular algae), z An endotherm is an organism which
coccolithophores (unicellular,
maintains its body at a metabolically stable
eukaryotic protist), temperature, by the use of heat released
Cyanobacteria (Blue Green algae)–
by its internal bodily functions rather than
Synechococcus, Prochlorococcus, relying almost purely on ambient heat e.g
Nostoc, spirogyra etc. People, polar bears, penguins, and prairie
Dinoflagellates (flagellated protists).
dogs.
z The group of arthropods known as 105. (c) Sub-Theme: Carbon cycle
crustaceans, which includes crabs, lobsters, Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic action leads
crayfish, shrimp, krill, and barnacles, is to the release of Carbon dioxide.
quite big. Statement 2 is correct: Respiration is
z Fish called herrings devour crustaceans. the movement of oxygen from the outside
103. (a) Sub-Theme: Non-conventional Energy/ environment to the cells within tissues and
Renewable Energy/Solar Energy the release of carbon dioxide in the opposite
Statement 1 is correct: Photovoltaic (PV) direction.
technologies – which are commonly known as Statement 3 is incorrect: The photosynthesis
solar panels – produce power through devices process absorbs carbon dioxide and emits
that absorb energy from sunlight and convert it oxygen. Therefore, photosynthesis does not
into electrical energy through semiconducting cause the carbon cycle to gain more carbon
materials. Then, these components—known dioxide. The process by which plants convert
as solar cells—are coupled to create bigger
carbon dioxide, water, and sunshine into
power-generating structures called modules
oxygen and sugar-based energy is known as
or panels. However, in solar thermal, a fluid is
boiled using sunshine. Depending on the use, photosynthesis.
this liquid could be water or any other liquid. Statement 4 is correct: The process of
decomposition releases Carbon dioxide.

106. (b) Sub-Theme: Ecological succession z In order to reduce friction between surfaces
The Correct answer is Option (b): and also because the effective area of
About Ecological Succession: contact between the wheel and axle is
z Ecological succession is the process reduced, ball bearings are used in bicycles,
vehicle axles, etc.
of change in the species structure of
an ecological community over time. z The form of a ball bearing is spherical.
Successional dynamics beginning with These don’t drag each other when they move;
instead, they roll. These can be moved with
colonisation of an area that has not been
a little force and energy. When compared to
previously occupied by an ecological
static friction and dynamic friction, rolling
community are referred to as primary
friction—which is what moves these—is
succession. This includes newly exposed the least forceful.
rock or sand surfaces, lava flows, and newly
109. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
exposed glacial tills. The stages of primary
succession include pioneer microorganisms, The Correct answer is Option (d):
plants (lichens and mosses), grassy stage, About Rainbow:
z A rainbow is a meteorological
smaller shrubs, and trees.
phenomenon which is the result of
z Lichens are a complex life form that is reflection, refraction and dispersion
a symbiotic partnership of two separate of light in water droplets resulting in a
organisms, a fungus and an alga where spectrum of light in the sky.
the dominant partner is the fungus, that z Rainbow takes the form of a multicoloured
provides the lichen the majority of its circular arc. Rainbows due to sunlight
characteristics, from its thallus shape to always appear in the portion of sky directly
its fruiting bodies. opposite the Sun.
107. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science 110. (c) Sub-Theme: Transplantation
The Correct answer is Option (c): About Transplanted Seedlings:
z After being harvested, fruits and vegetables z It typically results from injury to the
stay metabolically active. Respiration is a plant’s roots during transplantation. The
manifestation of metabolic activity. The rate majority of the water that is finally delivered
of respiration can be decreased effectively to the plant’s top growth is absorbed by tiny
by lowering the temperature. roots that are farther from the plant and are
z Fruits and vegetables can use the energy covered by even smaller hairs.
released during respiration for internal z These delicate roots are typically killed
functions. To effectively store your fruit, after a transplant either by being chopped
controlling respiration is crucial. to reduce the size of the root ball or by
z The fruits and vegetables can be preserved drying out (some accounts say it only takes
in good condition as long as the respiration 3-4 minutes of exposure to air for these to
process can continue. The product will have die). It’s referred to as transplant shock.
to survive off of the nutrients it already has z Transplant shock refers to a number of
because it is no longer connected to the stresses that occur in recently transplanted
plant’s roots or other sections, so it won’t trees and shrubs. It involves failure of the
receive any additional nutrients. The fruits plant to root well, consequently the plant
and veggies will therefore start to degrade establishes poorly in the landscape.
after everything is done. z New transplants frequently experience
stress due to a shortage of water because
108. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
their root systems are not yet well
The Correct answer is Option (c): established. Water stressed plants may be
About Ball bearings: more vulnerable to harm from other factors,
z Ball bearings are used to reduce friction such as the environment, insects, or disease.
between the surfaces.
111. (a) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
z A ball bearing is a specific kind of rolling-
element bearing that uses balls to keep the
z Fundamental Forces of Nature:
bearing races apart. A ball bearing’s main
The Fundamental Forces of Nature can
functions are to support radial and axial
loads and lessen rotational friction. be categorised in four categories like

Gravitational force, Weak Nuclear gas consisting of carbon monoxide, carbon
force, Electromagnetic force and dioxide, hydrogen, methane, water, nitrogen,
Strong Nuclear force. along with contaminants like small char
The weak and strong forces are particles, ash and tars.
influential only over a very short range Statement 3 is incorrect: Combustible
and dominate only at the level of syngas is frequently used as a fuel for
subatomic particles. internal combustion engines or as a step
in the synthesis of other compounds. The
Gravity and Electromagnetic force have
only combustible gases produced by biomass
unlimited range.
gasification are carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
z Gravitational Force – Weakest force; Consequently, the flammable gases produced by
but has unlimited range. (Not part of the biomass gasification can be used for direct heat
standard model). Gravitational Force is not generation as well as in internal combustion
the strongest force rather the weakest force. engines.
z The Remaining three forces belong to the 113. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
standard model of physics.
Statement 1 is correct: Graphene, a two-
z Strong Nuclear Force – Strongest; but has dimensional, atomic-scale, honey-comb lattice
short range. is an allotrope of carbon in which one atom
Strong Nuclear Force > Electromagnetic forms each vertex. It is the basic structural
Force > Weak Nuclear Force > unit of other allotropes, including graphite,
Gravitational Force. charcoal, carbon nanotubes and fullerenes.
Statement 2 is correct: It is about 100
z Between moving charged particles, the times stronger than the strongest steel with a
magnetic force operates. This means that hypothetical thickness of 3.35Å� which is equal
regardless of movement, every charged to the thickness of a graphene sheet. Carbon
particle emits an electric field. Hence atoms are linked together in a single layer
Electromagnetism functions exclusively on to form the hexagonal structure that makes
particles with an electric charge. up graphene. Graphene is so much thinner
z The weak nuclear force can transform a than paper (a million times thinner), that it is
neutron into a proton in a process called actually regarded as two dimensional.
nuclear decay. Subatomic particles are Statement 3 is incorrect: Graphene is a single
released at speeds close to the speed of light layer (monolayer) of carbon atoms, tightly
as a neutrally charged neutron is changed bound in a hexagonal honeycomb lattice. It
into a positively charged proton by the weak is an allotrope of carbon in the form of a plane
nuclear force. of sp2-bonded atoms with a molecular bond
z The nuclear fusion reaction that powers length of 0.142 nanometres.
the Sun is started by this (weak nuclear) Statement 4 is correct: Graphene is often
force, which also controls the decay of produced as a powder and as a dispersion in a
unstable subatomic particles like mesons. polymer matrix. This dispersion is supposedly
z The strong nuclear force that holds suitable for advanced composites, paints and
protons and neutrons together holds the coatings, lubricants, oils and functional fluids,
atom’s nucleus together. Although the capacitors and batteries, thermal management
strong nuclear force is the strongest of the applications, display materials, etc.
four fundamental forces, it acts only over 114. (b) Sub-Theme: Environmental pollution
very short - typically nuclear - distances. It The Correct answer is Option (b):
binds together the protons and neutrons in About Lead:
the nucleus. z The crust of the Earth contains the naturally
112. (a) Sub-Theme: Non-Conventional Energy/ occurring hazardous element, lead. Due to
Renewable Energy its widespread use, there have been serious
Statement 1 is correct: Rice husk, groundnut public health issues, environmental damage,
shells, and coconut shells can all be utilised and human exposure in many different parts
in the biomass gasification process. of the world.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Biomass z Mining, smelting, manufacturing,
gasification involves burning of biomass in a recycling, and, in some nations, the
limited supply of air to provide a combustible continuous use of leaded paint and aviation

fuel are important sources of environmental Statement 3 is correct: There is up to two
contamination. There is no relationship orders of magnitude less nuclear waste in the
between lead poisoning and Pen and liquid fluoride thorium reactor, eliminating the
Pencil, Hair oil and Cosmetics .
need for large-scale and long-term storage for
z The production of lead-acid batteries for
the waste.
automobiles accounts for more than three
quarters of all lead usage worldwide. 117. (b) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
z Some sources of Lead Poisoning: The Correct answer is Option (d):
Lead-Based Paint z The correct answer is Carbon, Hydrogen,
Contaminated Soil Nitrogen. Carbon and Hydrogen become
Children’s Toys and Jewellery hydrocarbons and further hydrocarbon
Drinking Water delivered through lead chains in the cell membranes are a
pipes fundamental component of life.
Workplace and Hobby Hazards (mining,
118. (b) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
smelting)
Statement 1 is correct: The oil in the wick of a
Lead Glazed Ceramic Ware, Pottery and
Leaded Crystal lamp rises due to the capillary action of threads
Imported Candy
in the wick.
Mini Blinds
Statement 2 is incorrect: No capillary action
in using a straw to consume the soft drink as
115. (a) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
we applied additional pressure from the mouth.
z Cowpea and Green gram are known as Statement 3 is correct: A blotting paper soaks
pulses because they are a good source of ink by the capillary action of the pores in the
protein and are widely used as a staple food blotting paper.
in many parts of the world. However, they Statement 4 is correct: The root-hairs of
also have other uses, such as being used as
plants draw water from the soil through
fodder and green manure.
capillary action.
z As fodder, Cowpea and Green gram are
highly nutritious and can provide a good 119. (c) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
source of protein for livestock. They are also The Correct answer is Option (c):
easy to grow and can be grown in a variety About Water:
of conditions, making them an ideal choice
z Water attains maximum density at 4C.
for farmers looking to provide their animals
with a healthy and sustainable food source. z The cold water at the top sinks to the bottom
z As green manure, Cowpea and Green gram when water at a temperature higher than
are known for their ability to fix nitrogen this is cooled from above, allowing warmer
in the soil, which can help to improve soil water to be cooled.
fertility and increase crop yields. They are
often used in crop rotations, where they are z Nevertheless, this alters as the temperature
grown for a season and then plowed back reaches 4°C. The cold water condenses on
into the soil to improve its nutrient content. the surface and selectively cools until it
z pigeon pea lacks the quality of being turns to ice. Because of how well this ice
fodder.
retains heat, it “protects” the warmer water
116. (d) Sub-Theme: Nuclear Energy beneath it from freezing.
Statement 1 is correct: Thorium composes
z But depending on the temperature of the
0.0006% of the earth’s crust whereas Uranium
composes 0.00018% of the earth’s crust, where atmosphere, the thickness of the ice layer
a substantial amount of Uranium is found in would change.
dissolved seawater.
120. (c) Sub-Theme: Non-Conventional Energy/
Statement 2 is correct: It is predicted that
uranium-233 produced from thorium can Renewable Energy/Sustainable Energy
produce 8 times more energy per unit mass The Correct answer is Option (c):
than (natural) uranium. About Microbial fuel cells:

z Components of a nuclear reactor:
Fuel – which is generally Uranium
Moderator – It is used to slow down

the neutrons released from fission to
create more fission. Generally, water,
heavy water or graphite is used for
this purpose.
Control rods or blades – They
are basically made with neutron
absorbing material such as cadmium,
hafnium, boron and are inserted
from the core to control the rate of
reaction.
Coolant- It is a fluid circulating
z A novel bioelectrochemical technique called through the core so as to transfer the
microbial fuel cells (MFCs) proposes heat from it.
to generate power using electrons from Pressure vessel or pressure tubes
biological reactions that bacteria catalase. – It is usually a robust steel vessel

containing the reactor core and
z It is anticipated that the energy produced by moderator or coolant but it may be
MFCs will be sufficient to partially meet the a series of tubes holding the fuel and
conveying the coolant through the
energy requirement in urban waste water
surrounding moderator.
treatment plants (WWTPs). Steam generator – It is the part of the
z A Microbial fuel cell (MFC) contains an anode cooling system of pressurized water
and a cathode divided by a cation exchange reactors where the high pressure
primary coolant brings heat from the
membrane. Microorganisms oxidise organic reactor.
compounds (not inorganic) in the anode
122. (c) Sub-Theme: Food product regulations
chamber, producing electrons and protons Statement 1 and 3 are correct: If items
(reaction of anodes). do not contain trans-fats, it means the food
products are not made out of hydrogenated
121. (a) Sub-Theme: Nuclear Energy
oils. If items do not contain trans-fats, it
The Correct answer is Option (a): means oils used are not likely to damage the
About Heavy Water: cardiovascular health of the consumers
Statement 2 is incorrect: The food products
z Moderator is used in a Nuclear reactor
consisting Trans- fats can be made using
for slowing down the neutrons produced animal fats/oils. E.g Meat and Dairy products.
during the fission reaction so that the 123. (c) Sub-Theme: Modern Energy efficient Technology
chain reaction can be sustained. Statement 1 is correct: An LED is a type of
z Due to its high moderating ratio and low semiconductor light source with two leads. It
is a p-n junction diode, which when turned
neutron absorption cross section, heavy on emits light. A fluorescent lamp is a low-
water makes a good moderator. Deuterium pressure mercury-vapour gas-discharge light.
oxide, popularly known as heavy water Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 3
is correct: LED bulbs are much more efficient
(D2O), is a hydrogen isotope with a mass
than CFL bulbs in terms of power consumption
double that of regular hydrogen and oxygen. and life years.
It is a component of water. 124. (d) Sub-Theme: Healthy food/nutrition/Artificial
Sweetener.
z In nuclear power reactors, heavy water
The Correct answer is Option (d):
is utilised as a coolant and a neutron z Aspartame is a non-saccharide artificial
moderator. sweetener 200 times sweeter than sucrose,

and is commonly used as a substitute of 127. (b) Sub-Theme: Digital Technology
sugar in foods and beverages. Statement 1 is correct: DVD stands for “Digital
z The commercial names for it are NutraSweet, Versatile Disk” or “Digital Video Disc”. It is a
Equal, and Canderel. It is a methyl ester of the type of digital optical disc storage that can hold
aspartic acid/phenylalanine dipeptide. any kind of digital data but is frequently used
z Because aspartame is much sweeter than to store pictures, audio, and video. Blu-ray is
table sugar, foods produced with it produce a digital disc storage format similar to CD and
fewer calories when they are oxidised. DVD, that is designed to record and play a large
125. (a) Sub-Theme: Eco-friendly technology amount of data with high-definition quality.
Statement 2 is correct: Blu-ray Disc media
z Oilzapper is an eco-friendly technology
include these features: 50GB capacity - Each
for oil sludges and oil spills remediation.
disc can hold more than 10 standard DVDs.
Oilzapping is the new technique using
Statement 3 is incorrect: The size of the Blu-
bacteria to get rid of oil spills. It is a bio-
ray disc is 120 millimetres in diameter with
remediation technique that involves the use
1.2 millimetres thickness, which is the same as
of oil zapping bacteria.
the size of a CD and DVD.
z In essence, Oilzapper is a concoction of five
128. (b) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
distinct bacterial strains that have been
immobilised and combined with a carrier The Correct answer is Option (b):
substance (powdered corn cob). z The tissue just beneath the bark called the
phloem layer is in charge of moving food
z The Oilzapper consumes the hydrocarbon
produced by photosynthesis from the leaves
molecules found in crude oil and oily sludge,
to the roots.
a dangerous hydrocarbon waste product
produced by oil refineries, and transforms z Without this nourishment, the roots
them into harmless CO2 and water. This is eventually perish and stop supplying the
exactly what its witty name implies. leaves with water and nutrients. Later, the
leaves wither.
126. (a) Sub-Theme: Blood group
z Because its roots are starved of vitality, a
The Correct answer is Option (a): tree that has had its bark removed in a
z The blood group of the couple is AB Positive circular pattern all around near its base
and O Negative. So their biological sons will gradually dries up and dies.
have either blood group A or B. Thus we can
infer that the blood group of the adopted 129. (d) Sub-Theme: Basic and Everyday Science
son will be O. Statement 1 is incorrect: It contains ions and
not ozone. Ozone is present in the Stratosphere
and not in the Ionosphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect: They have
frequencies from 300 GHz to as low as 3
kHz and corresponding wavelengths from 1
millimetre to 100 kilometres.
130. (a) Sub-Theme: GM Crops
z Bt Brinjal is a genetically modified (GM)
crop created by inserting Cry1Ac gene from
the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
into Brinjal.
z Brinjal plants now have resistance to
lepidopteran pests such the Brinjal Fruit
and Shoot Borer (Leucinodes orbonalis) and
Fruit Borer as a result of the gene’s insertion
(Helicoverpa armigera).
v v v

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Index

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper...................................................................................................................................01

1. Ancient and Medieval History ............................................................................................................................17

2. Modern History ......................................................................................................................................................39

3. Art and Culture .......................................................................................................................................................79

4. Polity ...................................................................................................................................................................... 107

5. Indian Economy................................................................................................................................................... 163

6. Environment and Ecology................................................................................................................................. 225

8. Science and Technology .................................................................................................................................... 351

UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 GS Paper 1 Analysis

2 UPSC Prelims PYQs

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 3

4 UPSC Prelims PYQs

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 5

6 UPSC Prelims PYQs

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 7

8 UPSC Prelims PYQs

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 9

10 UPSC Prelims PYQs

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 11

12 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Scan The QR Code to Watch Analysis of

UPSC CSE 2023 Question Paper 13

PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS – PRELIMS 2011 TO 2022

18 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 19

20 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 21

22 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 23

Jainism vis-a-vis Buddhism

24 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Statement 1 is incorrect: Buddhism professed of Malwa, the Maukharis of Kanauj, the

Ancient and Medieval History 25

26 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 27

3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the

28 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 29

30 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 31

32 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 33

34 UPSC Prelims PYQs

Ancient and Medieval History 35

PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS – PRELIMS 2011 TO 2022

Modern History: PYQs Analysis

THE ADVENT OF THE ECONOMIC POLICIES OF THE BRITISH

40 UPSC Prelims PYQs

42 UPSC Prelims PYQs

44 UPSC Prelims PYQs

51. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress

46 UPSC Prelims PYQs

48 UPSC Prelims PYQs

50 UPSC Prelims PYQs

9. (c) Sub-Theme: Land Revenue Settlement

z Started by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.

of children under the age 7. Children between

52 UPSC Prelims PYQs

54 UPSC Prelims PYQs

56 UPSC Prelims PYQs

58 UPSC Prelims PYQs

60 UPSC Prelims PYQs

62 UPSC Prelims PYQs

chief minister, Majority party rule,

Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Collective responsibility of the

NOTE: In respect to India the separation Prohibition of discrimination based

Statement 1 is correct: Free legal services Abolition of titles (Article 18)